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SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT
CBSE
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SCIENCESCIENCE
CLASS–IX
2015
TERM-II
Based on
CONTINUOUS AND
COMPREHENSIVE
EVALUATION
CCE
( )Solved
Sure ShotSure Shot
K
K
Based on the
Latest Guidelines
issued by
CBSE
135.00
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SYLLABUS
SCIENCE
CLASS–IX TERM II
Second Term Marks : 90
Units Marks
I. Matter – Its Nature and Behaviour 18
II. Organisation in the Living World 26
III. Motion, Force and Work 36
IV. Our Environment 10
Total 90
Note: The material for Open Text Based Assessment (OTBA) for SA-II will be from
unit-IV: Our Environment. This unit will be tested through OTBA only.
Theme : Materials (28 Periods)
Unit I: Matter – Its Nature and Behaviour
Particle nature, basic units : Atoms and molecules. Law of constant proportions.
Atomic and molecular masses.
Mole Concept : Relationship of mole to mass of the particles and numbers. Valency.
Chemical formula of common compounds.
Structure of atom : Electrons, protons and neutrons; isotopes and isobars.
Theme: The World of the Living (23 Periods)
Unit II: Organization in the Living World.
Biological Diversity : Diversity of plants and animals – basic issues in scientific
naming, basis of classification. Hierarchy of categories / groups, Major groups of
plants (salient features) Bacteria, Thalophyta, Bryophyta, Pteridophyta,
Gymnosperms and Angiosperms). Major groups of animals (salient features), (Non-
chordates upto phyla and chordates upto classes).
Health and Diseases : Health and its failure. Infectious and Non-infectious
diseases, their causes and manifestation. Diseases caused by microbes (Virus,
Bacteria and Protozoans) and their prevention, Principles of treatment and
prevention, Pulse polio programmes.
Theme: Moving Things, People and Ideas (24 Periods)
Unit III: Motion, Force and Work
Floatation : Thrust and pressure. Archimedes’ principle, buoyancy, elementary
idea of relative density.
Work, Energy and Power : Work done by a force, energy, power; kinetic and
potential energy; law of conservation of energy.
Sound. Nature of sound and its propagation in various media, speed of sound,
range of hearing in humans; ultrasound; reflection of sound; echo and SONAR.
Structure of the human ear (auditory aspect only).
Syllabus Science-IX Term-II.pmd 10/5/2014, 1:11 PM1
Theme: Natural Resources (15 Periods)
Unit IV: Our Environment
Physical Resources : Air, Water, Soil.
Air for respiration, for combustion, for moderating temperatures, movements of air
and its role in bringing rains across India.
Air, water and soil pollution (brief introduction). Holes in ozone layer and the
probable damages.
Bio-geo chemical cycles in nature : Water, oxygen, carbon, nitrogen.
PRACTICALS
Practical should be conducted alongside the concepts taught in theory
classes
List of Experiments
1. To verify laws of reflection of sound.
2. To determine the density of solid (denser than water) by using a spring balance
and a measuring cylinder.
3. To establish the relation between the loss in weight of a solid when fully
immersed in
(a) tap water
(b) strongly salty water, with the weight of water displaced by it by taking
at least two different solids.
4. To observe and compare the pressure exerted by a solid iron cuboid on fine
sand/ wheat flour while resting on its three different faces and to calculate the
pressure exerted in the three different cases.
5. To determine the velocity of a pulse propagated through a stretched string /
slinky.
6. To study the characteristic of spirogyra / Agaricus, Moss / Fern, Pinus (either
with male or female cone) and an Angiospermic plant. Draw and give two
identifying features of groups they belong to.
7. To observe the given pictures/charts/models of earthworm, cockroach, bony
fish and bird. For each organism, draw their picture and record:
(a) one specific feature of its phylum
(b) one adaptive feature with reference to its habitat.
8. To verify the law of conservation of mass in a chemical reaction.
9. To study the external features of root, stem, leaf and flower of monocot and
dicot plants.
10. To study the life cycle of mosquito.
Syllabus Science-IX Term-II.pmd 10/5/2014, 1:11 PM2
Note:
Th
e q
ues
tio
n p
aper
of
SA
–II
wil
l in
clu
de
a se
ctio
n o
n O
pen
Tex
t B
ased
Ass
essm
ent
(OT
BA
) o
f 10
mar
ks.
Th
e ca
se s
tud
ies
wil
l b
e su
pp
lied
in
ad
van
ce.
Th
is m
ater
ial
is d
esig
ned
to
tes
t th
e an
aly
tica
l an
d h
igh
er o
rder
th
ink
ing
sk
ills
of
stu
den
ts.
*On
e q
ues
tio
n o
f 3
mar
ks
wil
l b
e in
clu
ded
to
ass
ess
the
val
ues
in
her
ent
in t
he
tex
ts.
QU
ES
TIO
N P
AP
ER
DE
SIG
N F
OR
SC
IEN
CE
(C
OD
E N
O.
086/
090)
CL
AS
S-I
X (
2014
-201
5)
Tim
e-3
Ho
urs
Max
. M
ark
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S.
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Ver
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ho
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(VS
A)
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-I)
(SA
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)
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pe
ten
cie
s(1
Mar
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(2 M
ark
s)(3
Mar
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(5 M
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11
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41
19
25
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3
––
41
17
23
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4
–2
–1
91
2%
5
––
32
19
25
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3 ×
1 =
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= 6
12 ×
3 =
36
6 ×
5 =
30
75
(24
)1
00
%
9 ×
1 =
93
× 2
= 6
*–
–15(1
2)
12 ×
1 =
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6 ×
2 =
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12 ×
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36
6 ×
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90(3
6)
Re
me
mb
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Bas
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Qu
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BQ
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Questions Paper Designs 2014-15(Science).pmd 10/5/2014, 1:12 PM1
CONTENTS
� Sample Question Papers I & II (Solved) S-1–S-22
(Based on the Latest Guidelines Issued by CBSE)
Chapterwise Expected Questions (Solved)
1. Atoms and Molecules 1–20
2. Structure of the Atom 21–43
3. Diversity in the Living Organisms 44–66
4. Floatation 67–77
5. Work and Energy 78–104
6. Sound 105–135
7. Why do We Fall Ill? 136–154
8. Natural Resources 155–172
Practical Based Questions 173-192
(Chemistry, Biology, Physics)
Model Question Papers for Practice
Model Question Paper–1 M-1–M-3
Model Question Paper–2 M-4–M-6
Model Question Paper–3 M-7–M-9
Model Question Paper–4 M-10–M-12
Model Question Paper–5 M-13–M-15
Model Question Paper–6 M-16–M-18
Model Question Paper–7 M-19–M-21
Model Question Paper–8 M-22–M-24
Model Question Paper–9 M-25–M-27
Model Question Paper–10 M-28–M-30
Content.pmd 10/6/2014, 3:18 PM1
Science (Theory)
Class—IX
TERM—II
Time : 3 Hrs M.M. : 90
General Instructions :
(i) The question paper comprises two sections, A and B. You are to attempt bothsections.
(ii) All questions are compulsory.
(iii) There is no overall choice. However internal choice has been provided in allthe three questions of five marks category. Only one option in each questionis to be attempted.
(iv) All questions of Section A and all questions of Section B are to be attemptedseparately.
(v) Question numbers 1 to 3 A are one mark questions.
(vi) Question numbers 4 to 6 are two marks questions, to be answered inabout 30 words each.
(vii) Question numbers 7 to 18 are three marks questions, to be answered inabout 50 words each.
(viii) Question numbers 19 to 24 are five marks questions, to be answered inabout 70 words each.
(ix) Question numbers 25 to 36 in Section B are practical based questions.
(x) Question numbers 25 to 33 are of one mark and 34 to 36 are of two marks
each.
SECTION—A
Q. 1. Find the ratio of mass of elements present in one molecule of ammonia
(NH3). Given that, atomic mass of N=14, H=1.
Ans. Ratio of masses N : H = 14 : 3
Q. 2. Gram seeds are soaked in water and upon becoming tender, they
split into two equal halves. State the name of these two halves.
Ans. On soaking in water, gram seed swells up by imbibition and splits up into two
equal halves called cotyledons.
Q. 3. What is meant by the term biosphere ?
Ans. Biosphere. The life supporting zone of earth where atmosphere, hydrosphere
and lithosphere interact and make life possible is called biosphere.
S–1
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER-I (SOLVED)(Based on the latest guidelines issued by CBSE)
1. Sample Paper.pmd 10/5/2014, 10:55 AM1
S–2 MBD SURE SHOT SAMPLE PAPERS (IX C.B.S.E.)
Q. 4. List any three distinguishing features between the models of an atom
proposed by J.J. Thomson and Ernest Rutherford.
Ans.
J.J. Thomson model Rutherford model
1. Plum pudding model 1. Nucleus (+ve charge) at the centre
2. Uniform sphere of positive charge. 2. Electrons revolve around nucleus in
orbits.
3. Negatively charged electrons are 3. Most of the space between nucleus
embedded in it and no empty space. and electrons is empty.
Q. 5. What are isotopes and isobars?
Ans. Isotopes: These are atoms of the same element having same atomic number
but different mass numbers 1
1H,
2
1H,
3
1H.
Isobars: These are the atoms of different elements having same mass number but
different atomic numbers. 59
27Co
and
59
28Ni.
Q. 6. List any two practices you would like to follow in order to maintain
good health.
Ans. Practices for maintaining good health
1. Regular execise
2. Eating balanced diet and not junk food.
Q. 7. List two similarities and two differences between the structures/
features of amoeba and euglena.
Ans. Similarities between amoeba and euglena.
1. Both are single celled (unicellular), eukaryotic organisms.
2. Both have contractile vacuoles for osmoregulation.
Differences between amoeba and euglena
Amoeba Euglena
1. Locomotory organelles are pseudopodia. 1. Flagellum aids in locomotion.
2. Absence of chloroplasts. 2. Chloroplasts present.
3. Photoreceptors absent. 3. Photoreceptors present.
Q. 8. List any two basis of five kingdom classification proposed by Robert
Whittaker. Mention in brief the basis of classification between :
(a) Bacteria and fungi
(b) Plants and animals.
Ans. Criteria of Classification as proposed by R.H. Whittaker
1. Nature of cell (Prokaryotic or Eukaryotic)
2. Number of cells (unicellular or multicellular)
3. Mode of nutrition (Autotrophic or heterotrophic)
1. Sample Paper.pmd 10/5/2014, 10:55 AM2
S–3SCIENCE
(a) Differences between Bacteria and Fungi
Basis Bacteria Fungi
1. Nature of cell Prokaryotic Eukaryotic
2. Organelle Membrane bound Membrane bound
organelles absent. organelles present.
(b) Differences between plants and animals
Basis Plants Animals
1. Mode of nutrition Autotrophic Heterotrophic
2. Mode of locomotion Mostly fixed Show locomotion
Q. 9. List in tabular form any three distinguishing features between the
dicot plants and monocot plant.
Ans. Difference between dicots and monocots plants
Dicot plants Monocot plants
1. Two cotyledons present. 1. Single cotyledon present.
2. Plants have tap root system. 2. Plants have fibrous root system.
3. Reticulate venation in leaves. 3. Parallel venation in leaves.
4. Mostly pentamerous flowers. 4. Trimerous flowers.
Q. 10. State the meaning of immunisation, Mention the principle on which
it is based. List two diseases for which vaccines are provided under bublic
health program.
Ans. Immunisation : It is process of developing artificial immunity in a person by
giving a biological preparation. It triggers off the formation of antibodies.
When immune system first sees the microbes or their toxins, it responds against it
and remembers it specifically so, next time it responds with greater vigour.
Disease for which vaccines are provided under public health program are :
1. Polio 2. Wooping cough 3. Measels
Q. 11. What is soil ? State its main constituents. List any two practices that
are followed for preventing or reducing the soil erosion.
Ans. Soil. The fertile surface layer of earth capable of supporting plant growth is
called soil. It is formed by breaking up of rocks at or near the surface of earth over
long periods of time.
Main constituents of soil
1. Small particles of rocks.
2. Dead decaying matter called humus.
3. Various forms of micro-organisms.
Soil erosion can be prevented by :
1. Intensive cropping.
2. Providing proper drainage around the fields.
1. Sample Paper.pmd 10/5/2014, 10:55 AM3
S–4 MBD SURE SHOT SAMPLE PAPERS (IX C.B.S.E.)
3. Practising terrace farming in hilly areas.
4. Planting trees and growing grasses.
5. Construction of strong embankments along the river banks.
12. There are lots of advertisements through signboards and mass media
about the childhood immunisation under the Public Health Programme. As
a science student state in brief the principle behind immunisation. List three
infectious diseases against which children are immunised in our country.
Ans. Principle. Microbes or pathogens introduced into the body of a person
stimulate the immune system and respond against it by producing antibodies. It
produces memory cells to recognise the pathogens on subsequent exposure for strong
immune response.
The infectious diseases against which children are immunised are :
Polio, Tetanus, Measles, Hepatitis, Diphtheria etc.
Q. 13. State the difference between density and relative density. Relative
density of gold is 19.3. If the mass of one cubic metre of water is 1,000 kg,
find the density of gold in SI units.
Ans. Density is the mass per unit volume of any substance, while relative density
of a substance is the ratio of its density to the density of water.
Relative density of gold = 19.3
Density of water = 1,000 kg m–3 = 103 kg m–3
Now, Relative density of gold = Density of gold
Density of water
⇒ 19.3 = −3 3
Density of gold
10 kg m
∴ Density of gold = 19.3 × 103 kg m–3 = 1.93 × 104 kg m–3
Q. 14. How is work defined in science ? When do we say that one joule
works has been done by a force on an object ?
Ans. Work is defined as the quantity of force multiplied by distance covered by an
object in the direction of force.
One joule work on an object is said to be done when a force of 1 newton displaces
it through 1 metre.
Q. 15. Which wave characteristics determine the
(a) Loudness (b) Pitch of sound ?
Draw two different waveforms and mark these characteristics on it.
Ans. (a) Loudness of sound depends upon the amplitude of sound waves. Greater
the amplitude, higher is the intensity or loudness of sound and vice-versa.
Amplitude :a
a
VBQ
1. Sample Paper.pmd 10/5/2014, 10:55 AM4
S–5SCIENCE
(b) Pitch of sound depends upon the frequency of vibrations. Greater the frequency
higher is the pitch and vice versa.
Q. 16. State the meaning of 1 pascal. A boy of mass 40 kg is standing on
loose sand. If the area of his feet is 0.04 m2, calculate the pressure exerted by
the boy on the sand. (g = 10 m s –2)
Ans. A force of 1 newton acting on a surface of area 1 m2 is called 1 pascal.
Force = mg
= 40 × 10 = 400 N
Area = 0.04 m2
∴ Pressure exerted by the boy on the sand
= 2
Force 400 N=
Area 0.04 m
= 10,000 Nm–2
= 10,000 Pa.
Q. 17. Distinguish between positive work and negative work. When you
lift an object up, two forces act on it. Identify these forces. Which one of the
two does :
(a) positive work (b) negative work ?
Justify your answer.
Ans. A work is said to be positive if the displacement of an object is in the direction
of applied force, whereas the work is said to be negative if the displacement of the
object is in the direction opposite to applied force. When an object is lifted up, following
two forces act on it :
1. Weight of object acting downwards.
2. Force acting on the object upwards.
(a) Applied force on the object does positive work.
(b) Force of gravity i.e., weight of object does negative work.
By application of force the object moves upwards but still its weight tends to move
downwards due to earth's gravity.
Q. 18. Define power. Derive its SI unit. An electric bulb is rated 10 W. What
does it mean ? What is the energy consumed in joules if it is used for 5
minutes ?
Ans. Power. It is defined as the rate of doing work.
Power = Work (J)
Time (s)
= Js –1 or watt.
Frequency :
1 Second
1. Sample Paper.pmd 10/5/2014, 10:55 AM5
S–6 MBD SURE SHOT SAMPLE PAPERS (IX C.B.S.E.)
An electric bulb rated 10W means that at given voltage it consumes 10 watt of
power.
Energy consumed by 10 watt bulb in 5 minutes
= 10W × 5 × 60s
= 10 × 300 Ws = 3,000 J
Q. 19. (a) Differentiate between an atom and a molecule.
(b) Give one example each of monoatomic molecule and diatomic
molecules.
Ans. (a)
Atom Molecule
1. It is the smallest particle of an 1. It is the smallest particle of a
element which takes part in substance which can exist freely.
chemical reaction.
2. It is less stable. 2. It is more stable.
3. It is more reactive. 3. It is less reactive.
4. It many or many not exist freely. 4. It exists freely.
(b) Monoatomic molecule — Helium (He)
Diatomic molecule — Dihydrogen (H2)
Q. 20. (i) State the method of determining the valency of an element if its
atomic number is given.
(ii) Determine the valency of the following elements, the atomic numbers
of which are given it parenthesis :
Chlorine (17), Sulphur (16), Aluminium (13).
Ans. (i) Write down the electronic configuration of the element.
Valency = Number of electrons is valence shell
[Number of electrons is from 1 to 4)
Valency = 8 – (Number of electrons in the valence shell)
(If number of electrons is 5 to 8)
(ii) Chlorine = Atomic No. 17; electronic configuration = 2,8,7 valency = –1
Sulphur = Atomic no. 16; electronic configuration = 2,8,6 valency = –2
Aluminium = Atomic no. 13; electronic configuration = 2,8,3 valency = 3
Q. 21. A person enters a museum and observe the animal specimens. He
looks at the one marked ‘Salamander’ and calls it a ‘Lizard’. On the basis of
scientific knowledge how will you explain to him that Salamanders and
Lizards belong to two different classes ? List four distinguishing
features and also give one example for each of the member of the above two
classes.
1. Sample Paper.pmd 10/5/2014, 10:55 AM6
S–7SCIENCE
Lizard
1. It belongs to class reptilia.
2. It is terrestrial; lives on land.
3. Respiration through lungs.
4. Lays eggs on land.
5. Incomplete four chambered heart (except
crocodile-four chambered heart).
6. Scales present.
Examples of class Reptilia
Snakes, Tortoise, Crocodile
Ans. Differences between salamander and lizard
Salamander
1. It belongs to class amphibia.
2. It is amphibious in nature and
lives on land or in water.
3. Respiration through gills/lungs/
moist skin.
4. Lays eggs in water.
5. Three chambered heart.
6. Exoskeleton absent.
Examples of class amphibia
Frog, Toad
Q. 22. The number of dengue cases had increased in Pooja's village in last
one year. She read in her textbook that diseases like dengue spread throughmosquitoes which breed in stagnant water. She immediately suggested her
friends and decided to kill the mosquitoes in waer bodies in the locality.
They also took help of neaest municipal office.
Answer the following questions based on above information :
(i) Which preventive measures do you suggest for the prevention of such
diseases caused by mosquitoes? Mention any two measures.
(ii) Which values are displayed by Pooja in taking initiative?
(iii) Suggest one school activity to promote such values in school students.
Ans. (i) Avoid water logging, proper and regular disinfection, use of mosquito net
and repellents.
(ii) Values displayed by Pooja in taking initiative
1. Community service
2. Social responsibility
3. Environmental protection and wareness about healthy living conditions.
(iii) School activities to promote such values
1. Organising compaigns for creating awareness amongst masses.
2. Organising debates among students to impress upon the need.
3. Organising similar community services.
Q. 23. Define potential energy. Derive an expression for the gravitational
potential energy of an object of mass m at a height h above the earth’s surface.
A ball of mass 0.25 kg is moving horizontally with a uniform velocity of
25 m s–1. Calculate the kinetic energy possessed by the ball.
1. Sample Paper.pmd 10/5/2014, 10:55 AM7
S–8 MBD SURE SHOT SAMPLE PAPERS (IX C.B.S.E.)
Or
Define kinetic energy. Derive an expression for the kinetic energy of an
object of mass m moving horizontally with a uniform velocity v.
Calculate the energy possessed by an object of mass 50 kg when it is at
rest at a height of 10 m above the earth’s surface. (Given, g = 10 m s–2)
Ans. Potential energy. The energy possessed by an object due to its position and
shape is called potential energy.
An object kept at some height, stretched string or bow have potential energy.
Let an object of mass m is at a height h above the ground.
Force acting on the object = m × g
Distance moved above the ground = h
∴ Work done against the gravitational force
= Force × distance
= mg × h
i.e., P.E. = mgh.
Mass of the ball, m = 0.25 kg
Velocity of the ball, v = 25 m s–1
Kinetic energy, K.E. = 21
2mv = ×
210.25 (25)
2
= × ×1 25
6252 100
= 78.125 J.
Or
Kinetic energy. Energy possessed by a body due to its motion is called kinetic
energy. Let a body of mass m initially at rest, is displaced through a distance s by a
force F with uniform acceleration a. If υ is final velocity of the body, then
Work done W by the force F is given by
W = F × s
But F = ma
∴ W = mas ....(1)
∵ υ2 – u2 = 2as
⇒ υ2 = 2as (∵ u = 0)
i.e., a s = υ21
2
∴ From eq. (1) W = υ21
2m ....(2)
This work done on the body is stored as kinetic energy. Therefore, from eq. (2)
K.E. = 21
2mυ
Given that mass, m = 50 kg; height, h = 10 m and g = 10 m s–2
Since the object is at a height of 10 m from earth’s surface, it possesses potential
energy
∴ P.E. = mgh = 50 × 10 × 10 = 5,000 J
1. Sample Paper.pmd 10/5/2014, 10:55 AM8
S–9SCIENCE
Q. 24. Define the following terms and state their SI units :
(a) Wavelength (b) Frequency (c) Amplitude
Derive a relationship to show how the wavelength and frequency of a
sound wave are related to its speed.
Or
With the help of a simple diagram describe in brief how depth of sea bed
at a place is determined by a SONAR.
A SONAR installed on a submarine sends out a signal and receives its
echo 3 s later. If the speed of sound waves in sea water is 1,530 m s–1. Find
the depth of the sea bed below the submarine.
Ans. (a) Wavelength. The distance between two consecutive compressions or
rarefactions of a wave is called wavelength. In other words, the distance between two
consecutive crests or troughs of a wave is called wavelength.
Its SI unit is metre (m) and denoted by λ.(b) Frequency. The number of oscillations of a particle of the medium per second
during propagation of the wave is called frequency.
Its SI unit is hertz (Hz) and denoted by ν.
(c) Amplitude. The maximum displacement of particles of a medium from their
mean position is called amplitude
Its SI unit is metre (m).
Speed of sound is defined as the distance travelled by a point on a wave as
compression or rarefaction per unit time.
∴ Speed =Distance
Time
⇒ υ =λ
T = λ×
1
T...(i)
∵ 1
T= ν (frequency of the wave)
∴ From eq. (i) υ = νλThus, speed = Frequency × Wavelength.
Or
SONAR installed in a submarine or a ship consists of a
transmitter (T) and a detector (D). The transmitter
produces and transmits ultrasonic waves which strike an
object at the sea bed and reflect back which is sensed by
the detector.
If time interval between transmission and reception of
the wave is t, and speed of sound in sea water is υ, then
total distance is calculated as :
2d = υ × t
∴ Depth of the sea bed, d = υ×
2
t
Given, υ = 1,530 m s –1, t = 3s
1. Sample Paper.pmd 10/5/2014, 10:55 AM9
S–10 MBD SURE SHOT SAMPLE PAPERS (IX C.B.S.E.)
∴ d = υ×
2
t =
1,530 3
2
×
∴ d = 2,295 m.
SECTION—B
1 Mark Questions
Q. 25. Select from the following figure(s) that correctly represent(s) the
experimental set up for the verification of law of conservatin of mass in a
chemical reaction.
BaCl2(aq) + Na2SO4(aq) ⎯→⎯→⎯→⎯→⎯→ BaSO4(s) + 2NaCl(aq)
Ans. (c)
Q. 26. Define law of conservation of mass.
Ans. Law of conservation of mass states that matter (or mass) can neither becreated nor destroyed during any known physical or chemical change.
Q. 27. Write two distinct features of cockroach with reference to its phylum.
Ans. Features of cockroach
1. Jointed appendages. 2. Chitinous exoskeleton
Q. 28. In agaricus, what is the umbrella-shaped (above ground) part thatwe observe?
Ans. Fruiting body.
Q. 29. Select the correct choice. The sequence of devlopmental stages duringthe life-cycle of a mosquito may be represented as :
(a) egg, pupa, larva, adult (b) egg, larva, pupa, adult
(c) larva, egg, pupa, adult (d) larva, pupa, egg, adult.
Ans. (b) Egg → Larva → Pupa → Adult.
Q. 30. You are given a sphere of radius 2 cm which is made up of an alloyof density 8,000 kg m–3. If in your school laboratory spring balances offollowing specifications are available, which one would you select todetermine the weight of the given sphere most accurately?
(a) Range (0 – 100) g wt;Least Count 1.0 g wt
(b) Range (0 – 250) g wt;Least Count 2.5 g wt
(c) Range (0 – 500) g wt;Least Count 2.5 g wt
(d) Range (0 – 1000) g wt;Least Count 5.0 g wt.
Ans. (c)
BaCl2
Na2SO4
Cork
Test Test
BaCl2Na2SO4 BaCl2 Na2SO4
TestTest
Cork
Na2SO4
BaCl2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
1. Sample Paper.pmd 10/5/2014, 10:55 AM10
S–11SCIENCE
Q. 31. A student noted the following observations :
(i) Weight of stone in air = 274 g wt
(ii) Weight of stone in water = 194 g wt
(iii) Weight of stone in salty water = 178 g wt
On the basis of these observations the relative density of salty water must be:
(a)274 +194
274 +178(b)
274 – 178
274 – 194(c)
274 – 194
274 – 178(d)
274 + 178
274 + 194.
Ans. (b)
Q. 32. A student weighed the given solid in air using a spring balance. He
then weighed the same solid by immersing it fully, in each of the three vessels
containing tap water, as shown below:
(A) (B) (C)
He would observe that the weight of the solid when immersed in water, will
be:
(a) least in vessel A. (b) least in vessel B.
(c) least in vessel C. (d) same in all the three vessels.
Ans. (d)
Q. 33. For performing the experiment on verifying the laws of reflection of
sound an experimental set up shown is used. For experiment to be successful
the surfaces A and B should be
Surface A Surface B
(a) Thermocole Sheet Iron Sheet
(b) Thermocole Sheet Thermocole Sheet
(c) Iron Sheet Iron Sheet
(d) Iron Sheet Thermocole Sheet.
Ans. (d)
2 Mark Questions
Q. 34. Four students A, B, C and D observed roots and leaves of gram and
reported as under. Whose observation is correct ?
(a) Fibrous root and reticulate venation by student A
(b) Fibrous root and parallel venation by student B
(c) Tap root and reticulate venation by student C
(d) Tap root and parallel venation by student D
State the reason also.
A
B
1. Sample Paper.pmd 10/5/2014, 10:55 AM11
S–12 MBD SURE SHOT SAMPLE PAPERS (IX C.B.S.E.)
A
B
Source ofsound
Ear
Ans. The observation of C student (c) tap root and reticulate venation is correct.
These are the features of dicot plants and gram is a dicot plant with two cotyledons.
Q. 35. A student takes a wooden block of mass 5 kg and dimensions 40 cm
× 20 cm × 10 cm. He places it on the loose sand filled in a rectangular tray
such that its side of dimensions (i) 40 cm × 20 cm (ii) 40 cm × 10 cm (iii) 20 cm
× 10 cm lie on the sand. On the basis of his observation he may conclude that
the penetrations of the wooden block into the loose sand is:
(a) maximum when it lied on its side of dimensions 40 cm × 20 cm
(b) maximum when it lied on its side of dimensions 40 cm × 10 cm
(c) maximum when it lied on its side of dimensions 20 cm × 10 cm
(d) the same in all the three cases as the thrust is the same.
Ans. (c)
Q. 36. Following is the experimental set up for the verification of the laws
of reflection of sound. which amongst the following set of materials will be
best suied for the surface A and B respectively, in the set up shown ?
(a) A metal board and a piece of sponge
(b) A metal board and a cardboard
(c) A piece of sponge and a metal board
(d) A wooden board with holes and a metal board
Ans. (c)
1. Sample Paper.pmd 10/5/2014, 10:55 AM12
Science (Theory)
Class—IX
TERM—II
Time : 3 Hrs M.M. : 90
General Instructions :
(i) The question paper comprises two sections, A and B. You are to attempt bothsections.
(ii) All questions are compulsory.
(iii) There is no overall choice. However internal choice has been provided in allthe three questions of five marks category. Only one option in each questionis to be attempted.
(iv) All questions of Section A and all questions of Section B are to be attemptedseparately.
(v) Question numbers 1 to 3 A are one mark questions.
(vi) Question numbers 4 to 6 are two marks questions, to be answered inabout 30 words each.
(vii) Question numbers 7 to 18 are three marks questions, to be answered inabout 50 words each.
(viii) Question numbers 19 to 24 are five marks questions, to be answered inabout 70 words each.
(ix) Question numbers 25 to 36 in Section B are practical based questions.
(x) Question numbers 25 to 33 are of one mark and 34 to 36 are of two marks
each.
SECTION—A
Q. 1. Name the elements present in magnesium bicarbonate.
Ans. Mg(HCO3)2 has the elements magnesium, hydrogen, carbon and oxygen.
Q. 2. What is the basic smallest unit of classification?
Ans. Species.
Q. 3. Name two diseases caused by protozoans. What are their causal
organisms?
Ans. (i) Sleeping sickness caused by Typanosoma.
(ii) Kala-azar caused by Leishmania.
Q. 4. Calculate the number of atoms in 52 g of He.
Ans. Atomic mass of He = 4 u
∴ No. of moles in 52 g of He = 52
4 = 13
∴ No. of atoms in 52 g of He = 13 × 6.022 × 1023 = 7.8286 × 1024
S–13
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER-II (SOLVED)(Based on the latest guidelines issued by CBSE)
Sample Paper-2.pmd 10/5/2014, 10:55 AM13
MBD Sample Paper Science 9 Term 2CBSE (English Medium)
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