R TP) - Resonance · 2019-03-26 · SAMPLE TEST PAPER R TP) 19 INDEX S S.No. Contests Target page no. 1 How to prepare for the Resonance National Entrance Test (ResoNET)-2019 ResoNET

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER

SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)

FOR RESONET 2019

INDEX TARGET : NEET / AIIMS

S.No. Contests Target page no.

1 How to prepare for the Resonance National Entrance Test (ResoNET)-2019 ResoNET 2019 2

2 General instructions for the Examination Hall ResoNET 2019 3

3 Syllabus for ResoNET 2019 ResoNET 2019 4

4 Sample Test Paper-1 : For class Xth appearing / passed students (moving from class-Xth to class-XIth). For the students applying for SAKSHAM(MA) & SAMARTH(MB) courses

NEET / AIIMS 2021

8

5 Sample Test Paper-1 Answer key : For class Xth appearing / passed students (moving from class-Xth to class-XIth). For the students applying for SAKSHAM(MA) & SAMARTH(MB) courses

NEET / AIIMS 2021 18

6 Sample Test Paper-2 : For class XIth appearing / passed students (moving from class-XIth to class-XIIth). For the students applying for SAMBHAV(MF) courses


7 Sample Test Paper-2 Answer key : For class XIth appearing / passed students (moving from class-XIth to class-XIIth). For the students applying for SAMBHAV(MF) courses


8 Sample Test Paper-3 : For class XIIth appearing / passed students (moving from class-XIth to class-XIIIth). For the students applying for SAMPOORN(MD) & SAFAL(MR) courses

NEET / AIIMS 2020

32

9 Sample Test Paper-3 Answer key:: For class XIIth appearing / passed students (moving from class-XIth to class-XIIIth). For the students applying for SAMPOORN(MD) & SAFAL(MR) courses


10 Sample ORS Answer Sheet for Resonance National Entrance Test (ResoNET) 2019 ResoNET 2019 47

The sample test papers are only for reference and guidance. The sample papers given in the booklet are actually the papers of previous year's ResoNET conducted by Resonance for its various courses. Note : Resonance reserves the right to change the pattern of selection test (ResoNET). Pervious year papers do not guarantee that the papers for this year selection test will be on the same pattern. However, the syllabus of the test paper will be equivalent to the syllabus of qualifying school/board examination and as given on page no. 4.

© Copyright reserved 2019-20. All rights reserved. Any photocopying, publishing or reproduction of full or any part of this material is strictly prohibited. This material belongs to only the applicants of RESONANCE for its various Selection Tests (ResoNET) to be conducted for admission in Academic Session 2019-20. Any sale/resale of this material is punishable under law. Subject to Kota Jurisdiction only.

mailto:[email protected]

http://www.resonance.ac.in/reso/results/jee-main-2014.aspx




SAMPLE TEST PAPER

HOW TO PREPARE FOR THE RESONANCE NATIONAL ENTRANCE TEST (ResoNET)

For Class-X appearing students (Class-X to Class-XI Moving) :

Study thoroughly the books of Science (Physics & Chemistry) and Maths of Classes

IX & X. (NCERT & Respective Board)

For Class-XI appearing students (Class-XI to Class-XII Moving):

1. Study thoroughly the books of Physics, Chemistry and Maths of Class XI (Respective Board).

2. Refer to the following books (only Class-XI syllabus) to increase the level of competence:

For Physics : Concepts of Physics by H.C. Verma Vol. I & II, NCERT Books

For Chemistry : NCERT Books(XI & XII), A text book of Physical Chemistry (8th Edition),

Shishir Mittal, Disha Publications, Concise Inorganic Chemistry, J.D. Lee, Wiley-India Edition,

Vogel’s Qualitative Analysis for the JEE (7th Edition), G. Svehla & Shishir Mittal, Pearson

Education,Organic Chemistry : Clayden, Greeves, Warren and Wothers, Oxford University, A

guide book to Mechanism In Organic Chemistry (6th Edition), Peter Sykes, Pearson Education

For Maths : Higher Algebra By Hall & Knight; Co-ordinate Geometry By

S.L. Loney ; Plane Trigonometry By S.L. Loney, Problem book in high school by A.I.Prilepko

For Class-XII appearing students (Class-XII to Class-XIII Moving):

1. Study thoroughly the books of Physics, Chemistry and Maths of Classes XI & XII (Respective

Board).

2. Refer to the following books (Class-XI & Class-XII syllabus) to increase the level of

competence :

For Physics : Concepts of Physics by H.C. Verma Vol-I & II

For Chemistry : Physical Chemistry By R.K. Gupta, Organic Chemistry By Morrison &

Boyd, Organic Chemistry By I. L. Finar, Inorganic Chemistry By J.D. Lee, Objective Chemistry By

Dr. P. Bahadur

For Maths : Higher Algebra By Hall & Knight; Co-ordinate Geometry By S.L. Loney; Plane

Trigonometry By S.L. Loney, Differential Calculus By G.N. Berman; Integral Calculus By Shanti

Narayan; Vector Algebra By Shanti Narayan ; A Das Gupta (subjective).






SAMPLE TEST PAPER

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS IN THE EXAMINATION HALL

(ijh{kk Hkou ds fy, lkekU; funs Z'k)

1. This booklet is your Question Paper. ¼;g iqfLrdk vkidk iz'u&i=k gS½

2. The Question Paper Code is printed on the top right corner of this sheet. ¼iz'u&i=k dksM bl i`"B ds Åij

nk;sa dksus esa Nik gqvk gS½

3. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculators, mobile or any other electronic gadgets in

any form are not allowed to be used. ¼[kkyh dkxt] fDyi cksMZ] y?kqx.kd lkj.kh] LykbM :y] dSYdqysVj]

eksckby ;k vU; fdlh bySDVªWkfud midj.k ds fdlh Hkh :i esa mi;ksx dh vkKk ugha gS½

4. Write your Name & Application Form Number in the space provided in the bottom of this booklet. (bl

i`"B ds uhps fn;s x;s fjDr LFkku esa viuk uke o vkosnu QkWeZ la[;k vo'; Hkjsa½

5. Before answering the paper, fill up the required details in the blank space provided in the Objective

Response Sheet (ORS). (iz'u&i=k gy djus ls igys] ORS&'khV esa fn;s x;s fjDr LFkkuksa esa iwNs x;s fooj.kksa

dks Hkjsa½

6. Do not forget to mention your paper code and Application Form Number neatly and clearly in the

blank space provided in the Objective Response Sheet (ORS) / Answer Sheet. ¼mÙkj&iqfLrdk esa fn;s x;s

fjDr LFkku esa vius iz'u&i=k dk dksM o viuk vkosnu QkWeZ la[;k Li"V :i ls Hkjuk uk Hkwysa½

7. No rough sheets will be provided by the invigilators. All the rough work is to be done in the blank space

provided in the question paper. ¼fujh{kd ds }kjk dksbZ jQ 'khV ugha nh tk;sxhA jQ dk;Z iz'u&i=k esa fn;s x;s

[kkyh LFkku esa gh djuk gS½

8. No query related to question paper of any type is to be put to the invigilator.

¼fujh{kd ls iz'u&i=k ls lEcfU/kr fdlh izdkj dk dksbZ iz'u uk djsas½

QUESTION PAPER ¼iz'u i=k½

9. Marks distribution of questions is as follows. ¼iz'uksa ds izkIrkadks dk fooj.k fuEu izdkj ls gSA½

No. of

QuestionsCorrect Wrong Total

1 to 25PART-I

(Biology)

Single Choice Questions (SCQ)

(dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)25 3 0 75

26 to 50PART-II

(Maths)



51 to 65PART-III

(Physics)



66 to 80PART-IV

(Chemistry)



81 to 100PART-V

(Mental Ability)



Total 100 300

S.No. Subject Nature of QuestionsMarks to be awarded

Name : ________________________ Application Form Number : _______________






SAMPLE TEST PAPER

Syllabus for ResoNET

Basic : Cooling by evaporation. Absorption of heat. All things accupy space, possess mass. Definition of matter ; Elementary idea about bonding. Solid, liquid and gas : characteristics-shape, volume, density; change of state - melting, freezing, evaporation, condensation, sublimation. Elements, compounds and mixtures :Heterogeneous and homogeneous mixtures; Colloids and suspension. Mole concept : Equivalence - that x grams of A is chemically not equal to x grams of B ; Partical nature, basic units : atoms and molecules ; Law of constant proportions ; Atomic and molecular masses;Relationship of mole to mass of the particles and numbers ; Valency ; Chemical formulae of common compounds. Atomic structure : Atoms are made up of smaller particles : electrons, protons, and neutrons. These smaller particles are present in all the atoms but their numbers vary in different atoms. Isotopes and isobars.

Gradations in properties : Mendeleev periodic table. Acids, bases and salts : General properties, examples and uses. Types of chemical reactions : Combination, decomposition, displacement, double displacement, precipitation, neutralisation, oxidation and reduction in terms of gain and loss of oxygen and hydrogen. Extractive metallurgy : Properties of common metals ; Brief discussion of basic metallurgical processes. Compounds of Carbon : Carbon compounds ; Elementary idea about bonding ; Saturated hydrocarbons, alcohols, carboxylic acids (no preparation, only properties).Soap - cleansing action of soap.

CLASS - X (BIOLOGY) Nutrition in plants & Animals, Respiration in plants & Animals, Excretion in plants & Animals, Transportation in plants & Animals, Genetics (Heredity & Variation), Evolution, Ecology (our environment), Natural resources, Reproduction in plants & Animals.

CLASS - X (PHYSICS) Mechanics : Uniform and non-uniform motion along a straight line ; Concept of distance and displacement, Speed and velocity, accelaration and relation ship between these ; Distance-time and velcocity - time graphs. Newton’s Law of motion ; Relationship between mass, momentum, force and accelaration ; work done by a force ; Law of conservation of energy. Law of gravitation ; acceleration due to gravity. Electricity and magnetism : Ohm’s law ; Series and parallel combination of resistances ; Heating effect of current. Magnetic field near a current carrying straight wire, along the axis of a circular coil and inside a solenoid ; Force on current carrying conductor ; Fleming’s left hand rule ; Working of electric motor ; Induced potential difference and current Electric generator : Principle and working ; Comparision of AC and DC ; Domestic electric circuits. Optics : Rectilinear propagation of light ; Basic idea of concave mirror and convex lens ; Laws of refraction ; Dispersion.

CLASS - XI (CHEMISTRY) Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry : Particulate nature of matter, laws of chemical combination, Dalton’s atomic theory : concept of elements, atoms and molecules. Atomic and molecular masses. Mole concept and molar mass ; percentage composition and empirical and molecular formula ;

chemical reactions, stoichiometry and calculations based on stoichiometry. Structure of Atom : Discovery of electron, proton and neutron ; atomic number, isotopes and isobars. Thompson’s model and its limitations, Rutherford’s model and its limitations, concept of shells and sub-shells, dual nature of matter and light, de Broglie’s relationship, Heisenberg uncertainty principle, concept of orbitals, quantum numbers, shapes of s, p, and d orbitals, rules for filling electrons in orbitals - Aufbau principle, Pauli exclusion principle and Hund’s rule, electronic configuration of atoms, stability of half filled and completely filleld orbitals.

Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties : Significance of classification, brief history of the development of periodic table, trends in properties of elements - atomic radii, ionic radii, inert gas radii, ionization enthalpy, electron gain enthalpy, electronegativity, valence.

Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure : Valence electrons, ionic bond, covalent bond, bond parameters, Lewis structure, polar character of covalent bond, covalent character of ionic bond, valence bond theory, resonance, geometry of covalent molecules, VSEPR theory, concept of hybridization involving s, p and d orbitals and shapes of some simple molecules, molecular orbital theory of homonuclear diatomic molecules (qualitative idea only), hydrogen bond.

States of Matter : Gases and Liquids : Three states of matter, intermolecular interactions, type of bonding, melting and boiling points, role of gas laws in elucidating the concept of the molecule, Boyle’s law, Charles’ law, Gay Lussac’s law, Avogadro’s law, ideal behavior, empirical derivation of gas equation, Avogadro’s number ideal gas equation, deviation from ideal behaviour, Liquefaction of gases, critical temperature. Liquid State - Vapour pressure, viscosity and surface tension (qualitative idea only, no mathematical derivations) Thermodynamics : Concepts of system, types of systems, surroundings, work, heat, energy, extensive and intensive properties, state functions. First law of thermodynamics - internal energy and enthalpy, heat

capacity and specific heat, measurement of U and H, Hess’s law of constant heat summation, enthalpy of bond dissociation, combustion, formation, atomization sublimation, phase transition, ionization, and dilution. Introduction of entropy as a state function, free energy change for spontaneous and non-spontaneous process, equilibrium. Equilibrium : Equilibrium in physical and chemical processes, dynamic nature of equilibrium, law of mass action, equilibrium constant, factors affecting equilibrium - Le Chatelier’s principle ; ionic equilibrium - ionization of acids and bases, strong and weak electrolytes, degree of ionization concept of pH. Hydrolysis of Salts (elementary idea), buffer solutions, solubility product, common ion effect (with illustrative examples).

Redox Reactions : Concept of oxidation and reduction, redox reactions, oxidation number, balancing redox reactions, applications of redox reaction. Hydrogen : Position of hydrogen in periodic table, occurrence, isotopes, preparation, properties and uses of hydrogen ; hydrides - ionic, covalent and interstitial ; physical and chemical properties of water, heavy water ; hydrogen peroxide - preparation, reactions and structure ; hydrogen as a fuel. s-Block Elements (Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals) : Group 1 and Group 2 elements : General introduction, electronic configuration, occurrence, anomalous properties of the first element of each group,






SAMPLE TEST PAPER

diagonal relationship, trends in the variation of properties (such as ionization enthalpy, atomic and ionic radii), trends in chemical reactivity with oxygen, water, hydrogen and halogens ; uses.

Preparation and properties of some important compounds Sodium carbonate, sodium chloride, sodium hydroxide and sodium hydrogen carbonate CaO, CaCO

3, and industrial use of lime and limestone, Ca.

General Introduction to p-Block Elements : Group 13 elements : General introduction, electronic configuration, occurrence, variation of properties, oxidation states, trends in chemical reactivity, anomalous properties of first element of the group ; Boron - physical and chemical properties, some important compounds ; borax, boric acids, boron hydrides. Aluminium : uses, reactions with acids and alkalies. Group 14 elements ; General introduction, electronic configuration, occurrence, variation of properties, oxidation states, trends in chemical reactivity, anomalous behaviour of first element. Carbon - catenation, allotropic forms, physical and chemical propeties ; uses of some important compounds : oxides. Important compounds of silicon and a few uses : silicon tetrachloride, silicones, silicates and zeolites.

Principles of qualitative analysis : Determinantion of one anion and one cation in a given salt Cations - Pb2 + , Cu2+, As3+, Al3+, Fe3+, Mn2+, Ni2 +, Zn2+, Co2+, Ca2+, Sr2+, Ba2+, Mg2+, Anions - (Note : Insoluble salts excluded)

Organic chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques General introduction, methods of purification, qualitative and quantitative analysis, classification and IUPAC nomenclature of organic compounds. Electronic displacements in a covalent bond : free radicals, carbocations, carbanions ; electrophiles and nucleophiles, types of organic reactions

Classification of Hydrocarbons : Alkanes : Nomenclature, isomerism, conformations (ethane only), physical propeties, chemical reactions including free radical mechanism of halogenation, combustion and pyrolysis.

Alkenes : Nomenclatures, structure of double bond (ethene), geometrical isomerism, physical properties, methods of preparation ; chemical reactions : addition of hydrogen, halogen, water, hydrogen halides (Markovnikov’s addition and peroxide effect), ozonolysis, oxidation, mechanism of electrophilic addition. Alkynes : Nomenclature, structure of triple bond (ethyne), physical properties, methods of preparation, chemical reactions : acidic character of alkynes, addition reaction of - hydrogen, halogens, hydrogen halides and water.

Aromatic hydrocarbons : Introduction, IUPAC nomenclature ; Benzene : resonance, aromaticity ; chemical properties : mechanism of electrophilic substitution - nitration sulphonation, halogenation, Friedel Craft’s alkylation and acylation ; directive influence of functional group in mono-substituted benzene ; carcinogenicity and toxicity.

CLASS - XI (BIOLOGY) Zoology: Living world , Animal kingdom, Structural Organisation in Animals , Biomolecules, Digestion & Absorption, Breathing & Exchange of gases Body Fluids and Circulation, Excretory products and their Elimination, Locomotion and Movement , Neural control and coordination, Chemical coordination and Integration

Botany: Biological Classification–Kingdom – Monera, Protista, Fungi, Virus, Plant Kingdom– Algae, Bryophytes, Pteridophytes, Gymnosperms, Angiosperms, Plant Morphology - Root , Stem , leaves, Inflorescence , Flower , Fruit, Seed. Families - Solanaceae, Liliaceae , Fabaceae, Plant Anatomy - Anatomy of Tissues, Tissue system , Anatomy of Root , Stem , Leaves,

Secondary Growth, Cell Biology — Cell Structure & Functions , Cell Division, Plant Physiology — Transport in Plants , Mineral nutrition , Respiration , Photosynthesis , Plant growth & development .

CLASS - XI (PHYSICS) General : Units and dimensions, dimensional analysis; least count, significant figures; Methods of measurement and error analysis for physical quantities pertaining to the following experiments: Experiments based on using Vernier calipers and screw gauge (micrometer), Determination of g using simple pendulum, Young’s modulus by Searle’s method. Mechanics : Kinematics in one and two dimensions (Cartesian coordinates only), projectiles; Uniform Circular motion; Relative velocity. Newton’s laws of motion; Inertial and uniformly accelerated frames of reference; Static and dynamic friction; Kinetic and potential energy; Work and power; Conservation of linear momentum and mechanical energy. Systems of particles; Centre of mass and its motion; Impulse; Elastic and inelastic collisions. Law of gravitation; Gravitational potential and field; Acceleration due to gravity; Motion of planets and satellites in circular orbits; Escape velocity. Rigid body, moment of inertia, parallel and perpendicular axes theorems, moment of inertia of uniform bodies with simple geometrical shapes; Angular momentum; Torque; Conservation of angular momentum; Dynamics of rigid bodies with fixed axis of rotation; Rolling without slipping of rings, cylinders and spheres; Equilibrium of rigid bodies; Collision of point masses with rigid bodies. Linear and angular simple harmonic motions. Hooke’s law, Young’s modulus. Pressure in a fluid; Pascal’s law; Buoyancy; Surface energy and surface tension, capillary rise; Viscosity (Poiseuille’s equation excluded), Stoke’s law; Terminal velocity, Streamline flow, equation of continuity, Bernoulli’s theorem and its applications. Waves : Wave motion (plane waves only), longitudinal and transverse waves, superposition of waves; Progressive and stationary waves; Vibration of strings and air columns;Resonance; Beats; Speed of sound in gases; Doppler effect (in sound). Thermal physics : Thermal expansion of solids, liquids and gases; Calorimetry, latent heat; Heat conduction in one dimension; Elementary concepts of convection and radiation; Newton’s law of cooling; Ideal gas laws; Specific heats (Cv and Cp for monoatomic and diatomic gases); Isothermal and adiabatic processes, bulk modulus of gases; Equivalence of heat and work; First law of thermodynamics and its applications (only for ideal gases); Blackbody radiation: absorptive and emissive powers; Kirchhoff’s law; Wien’s displacement law, Stefan’s law.

CLASS - XII (CHEMISTRY)

Physical Chemistry General topics : Concept of atoms and molecules; Dalton’s atomic theory; Mole concept; Chemical formulae; Balanced chemical equations; Calculations (based on mole concept) involving common oxidation-reduction, neutralisation, and displacement reactions; Concentration in terms of mole fraction, molarity, molality and normality. Gaseous and liquid states : Absolute scale of temperature, ideal gas equation; Deviation from ideality, van der Waals equation; Kinetic theory of gases, average, root mean square and most probable velocities and their relation with temperature; Law of partial pressures; Vapour pressure; Diffusion of gases. Atomic structure and chemical bonding : Bohr model, spectrum of hydrogen atom, quantum numbers; Wave-particle duality, de Broglie hypothesis; Uncertainty principle; Qualitative quantum mechanical picture of hydrogen atom, shapes of s, p and d orbitals; Electronic configurations of elements (up to atomic number 36); Aufbau principle; Pauli’s exclusion principle and Hund’s rule; Orbital overlap and covalent bond;






SAMPLE TEST PAPER

Hybridisation involving s, p and d orbitals only; Orbital energy diagrams for homonuclear diatomic species; Hydrogen bond; Polarity in molecules, dipole moment (qualitative aspects only); VSEPR model and shapes of molecules (linear, angular, triangular, square planar, pyramidal, square pyramidal, trigonal bipyramidal, tetrahedral and octahedral). Energetics : First law of thermodynamics; Internal energy, work and heat, pressure-volume work; Enthalpy, Hess’s law; Heat of reaction, fusion and vapourization; Second law of thermodynamics; Entropy; Free energy; Criterion of spontaneity. Chemical equilibrium : Law of mass action; Equilibrium constant, Le Chatelier’s principle (effect of concentration, temperature and pressure); Significance

of G and Go in chemical equilibrium; Solubility product, common ion effect, pH and buffer solutions; Acids and bases (Bronsted and Lewis concepts); Hydrolysis of salts. Electrochemistry : Electrochemical cells and cell reactions; Standard electrode potentials; Nernst equation and its relation to DG; Electrochemical series, emf of galvanic cells; Faraday’s laws of electrolysis; Electrolytic conductance, specific, equivalent and molar conductivity, Kohlrausch’s law; Concentration cells. Chemical kinetics : Rates of chemical reactions; Order of reactions; Rate constant; First order reactions; Temperature dependence of rate constant (Arrhenius equation). Solid state : Classification of solids, crystalline state, seven crystal systems (cell parameters a, b, c, ), close packed structure of solids (cubic), packing in fcc, bcc and hcp lattices; Nearest neighbours, ionic radii, simple ionic compounds, point defects. Solutions : Raoult’s law; Molecular weight determination from lowering of vapour pressure, elevation of boiling point and depression of freezing point. Surface chemistry : Elementary concepts of adsorption (excluding adsorption isotherms); Colloids: types, methods of preparation and general properties; Elementary ideas of emulsions, surfactants and micelles (only definitions and examples). Nuclear chemistry : Radioactivity: isotopes and isobars; Properties of rays; Kinetics of radioactive decay (decay series excluded), carbon dating; Stability of nuclei with respect to proton-neutron ratio; Brief discussion on fission and fusion reactions. Inorganic Chemistry Isolation/preparation and properties of the following non-metals : Boron, silicon, nitrogen, phosphorus, oxygen, sulphur and halogens; Properties of allotropes of carbon (only diamond and graphite), phosphorus and sulphur. Preparation and properties of the following compounds : Oxides, peroxides, hydroxides, carbonates, bicarbonates, chlorides and sulphates of sodium, potassium, magnesium and calcium; Boron: diborane, boric acid and borax; Aluminium: alumina, aluminium chloride and alums; Carbon: oxides and oxyacid (carbonic acid); Silicon: silicones, silicates and silicon carbide; Nitrogen: oxides, oxyacids and ammonia; Phosphorus: oxides, oxyacids (phosphorus acid, phosphoric acid) and phosphine; Oxygen: ozone and hydrogen peroxide; Sulphur: hydrogen sulphide, oxides, sulphurous acid, sulphuric acid and sodium thiosulphate; Halogens: hydrohalic acids, oxides and oxyacids of chlorine, bleaching powder; Xenon fluorides. Transition elements (3d series) : Definition, general characteristics, oxidation states and their stabilities, colour (excluding the details of electronic transitions) and calculation of spin (only magnetic moment), Coordination compounds: nomenclature of mononuclear coordination compounds, cis-trans and ionisation isomerisms, hybridization and geometries of mononuclear coordination compounds (linear, tetrahedral, square planar and octahedral). Preparation and properties of the following compounds : Oxides and chlorides of tin and lead; Oxides, chlorides and sulphates of Fe2+, Cu2+ and Zn2+; Potassium permanganate,

potassium dichromate, silver oxide, silver nitrate, silver thiosulphate. Ores and minerals : Commonly occurring ores and minerals of iron, copper, tin, lead, magnesium, aluminium, zinc and silver. Extractive metallurgy : Chemical principles and reactions only (industrial details excluded); Carbon reduction method (iron and tin); Self reduction method (copper and lead); Electrolytic reduction method (magnesium and aluminium); Cyanide process (silver and gold). Principles of qualitative analysis : Groups I to V (only Ag+, Hg2+, Cu2+, Pb2+, Bi3+, Fe3+, Cr3+, Al3+, Ca2+, Ba2+, Zn2+, Mn2+ and Mg2+); Nitrate, halides (excluding fluoride), sulphate and sulphide. Organic Chemistry Concepts : Hybridisation of carbon; Sigma and pi-bonds; Shapes of simple organic molecules; Structural and geometrical isomerism; Optical isomerism of compounds containing up to two asymmetric centres, (R,S and E,Z nomenclature excluded); IUPAC nomenclature of simple organic compounds (only hydrocarbons, mono-functional and bi-functional compounds); Conformations of ethane and butane (Newman projections); Resonance and hyperconjugation; Keto-enol tautomerism; Determination of empirical and molecular formulae of simple compounds (only combustion method); Hydrogen bonds: definition and their effects on physical properties of alcohols and carboxylic acids; Inductive and resonance effects on acidity and basicity of organic acids and bases; Polarity and inductive effects in alkyl halides; Reactive intermediates produced during homolytic and heterolytic bond cleavage; Formation, structure and stability of carbocations, carbanions and free radicals. Preparation, properties and reactions of alkanes : Homologous series, physical properties of alkanes (melting points, boiling points and density); Combustion and halogenation of alkanes; Preparation of alkanes by Wurtz reaction and decarboxylation reactions. Preparation, properties and reactions of alkenes and alkynes : Physical properties of alkenes and alkynes (boiling points, density and dipole moments); Acidity of alkynes; Acid catalysed hydration of alkenes and alkynes (excluding the stereochemistry of addition and elimination); Reactions of alkenes with KMnO

4 and ozone; Reduction of alkenes and

alkynes; Preparation of alkenes and alkynes by elimination reactions; Electrophilic addition reactions of alkenes with X

2, HX,

HOX and H2O (X=halogen); Addition reactions of alkynes; Metal

acetylides. Reactions of Benzene : Structure and aromaticity; Electrophilic substitution reactions: halogenation, nitration, sulphonation, Friedel-Crafts alkylation and acylation; Effect of ortho, meta and para directing groups in monosubstituted benzenes. Phenols : Acidity, electrophilic substitution reactions (halogenation, nitration and sulphonation); Reimer-Tieman reaction, Kolbe reaction. Characteristic reactions of the following (including those mentioned above): Alkyl halides: rearrangement reactions of alkyl carbocation, Grignard reactions, nucleophilic substitution reactions; Alcohols: esterification, dehydration and oxidation, reaction with sodium, phosphorus halides, ZnCl2/concentrated HCl, conversion of alcohols into aldehydes and ketones; Ethers:Preparation by Williamson’s Synthesis; Aldehydes and Ketones: oxidation, reduction, oxime and hydrazone formation; aldol condensation, Perkin reaction; Cannizzaro reaction; haloform reaction and nucleophilic addition reactions (Grignard addition); Carboxylic acids: formation of esters, acid chlorides and amides, ester hydrolysis; Amines: basicity of substituted anilines and aliphatic amines, preparation from nitro compounds, reaction with nitrous acid, azo coupling reaction of diazonium salts of aromatic amines, Sandmeyer and related reactions of diazonium salts; carbylamine reaction; Haloarenes: nucleophilic aromatic substitution in haloarenes and substituted haloarenes (excluding Benzyne mechanism and Cine substitution).






SAMPLE TEST PAPER

Carbohydrates: Classification; mono- and di-saccharides (glucose and sucrose); Oxidation, reduction, glycoside formation and hydrolysis of sucrose. Amino acids and peptides : General structure (only primary structure for peptides) and physical properties. Properties and uses of some important polymers : Natural rubber, cellulose, nylon, teflon and PVC. Practical organic chemistry : Detection of elements (N, S, halogens); Detection and identification of the following functional groups: hydroxyl (alcoholic and phenolic), carbonyl (aldehyde and ketone), carboxyl, amino and nitro; Chemical methods of separation of mono-functional organic compounds from binary mixtures.

CLASS - XII (BIOLOGY) Zoology: Animal Reproduction – Human Reproduction, Reproductive Health , Evolution , Biology in Human Welfare–Human health and disease, Drug & Alcohol abuse, Medical Diagnostic technique , Biology in Human Welfare–Strategies for Enhancement in Food production , Microbes in human welfare, Living world , Animal kingdom , Structural Organisation in Animals , Biomolecules, Digestion & Absorption, Breathing & Exchange of gases, Body Fluids and Circulation, Excretory products and their Elimination, Locomotion and Movement , Neural control and coordination, Chemical coordination and Integration.

Botany: Reproduction in Flowering plants. Genetics – Heredity and variations. Genetics – Molecular basis of inheritance, Application Biology– Plant Breeding, Biotechnology Principles, Processes, applications, Ecology–Organism & its Environment , Ecosystem, Ecology–Environmental issues , Biodiversity & Conservation, Biological Classification–Kingdom – Monera, Protista, Fungi, Virus, Plant Kingdom– Algae, Bryophytes, Pteridophytes, Gymnosperms, Angiosperms, Plant Morphology - Root , Stem , leaves, Inflorescence , Flower , Fruit, Seed. Families - Solanaceae, Liliaceae , Fabaceae, Plant Anatomy - Anatomy of Tissues, Tissue system , Anatomy of Root , Stem , Leaves, Secondary Growth , Cell Biology — Cell Structure & Functions , Cell Division, Plant Physiology — Transport in Plants , Mineral nutrition, Respiration , Photosynthesis , Plant growth & development.

CLASS - XII (PHYSICS)

General : Units and dimensions, dimensional analysis; least count, significant figures; Methods of measurement and error analysis for physical quantities pertaining to the following experiments: Experiments based on using Vernier calipers and screw gauge (micrometer), Determination of g using simple pendulum, Young’s modulus by Searle’s method, Specific heat of a liquid using calorimeter, focal length of a concave mirror and a convex lens using u-v method, Speed of sound using resonance column, Verification of Ohm’s law using voltmeter and ammeter, and specific resistance of the material of a wire using meter bridge and post office box. Mechanics : Kinematics in one and two dimensions (Cartesian coordinates only), Projectile Motion; Uniform Circular Motion; Relative Velocity. Newton’s laws of motion; Inertial and uniformly accelerated frames of reference; Static and dynamic friction; Kinetic and potential energy; Work and power; Conservation of linear momentum and mechanical energy. Systems of particles; Centre of mass and its motion; Impulse; Elastic and inelastic collisions. Law of gravitation; Gravitational potential and field; Acceleration due to gravity; Motion of planets and satellites in circular orbits;

Escape velocity. Rigid body, moment of inertia, parallel and perpendicular axes theorems, moment of inertia of uniform bodies with simple geometrical shapes; Angular momentum; Torque; Conservation of angular momentum; Dynamics of rigid bodies with fixed axis of rotation; Rolling without slipping of rings, cylinders and spheres; Equilibrium of rigid bodies; Collision of point masses with rigid bodies. Linear and angular simple harmonic motions. Hooke’s law, Young’s modulus. Pressure in a fluid; Pascal’s law; Buoyancy; Surface energy and surface tension, capillary rise; Viscosity (Poiseuille’s equation excluded), Stoke’s law; Terminal velocity, Streamline flow, equation of continuity, Bernoulli’s theorem and its applications. Waves : Wave motion (plane waves only), longitudinal and transverse waves, superposition of waves; Progressive and stationary waves; Vibration of strings and air columns;Resonance; Beats; Speed of sound in gases; Doppler effect (in sound). Thermal physics : Thermal expansion of solids, liquids and gases; Calorimetry, latent heat; Heat conduction in one dimension; Elementary concepts of convection and radiation; Newton’s law of cooling; Ideal gas laws; Specific heats (Cv and Cp for monoatomic and diatomic gases); Isothermal and adiabatic processes, bulk modulus of gases; Equivalence of heat and work; First law of thermodynamics and its applications (only for ideal gases); Blackbody radiation: absorptive and emissive powers; Kirchhoff’s law; Wien’s displacement law, Stefan’s law. Electricity and magnetism : Coulomb’s law; Electric field and potential; Electrical potential energy of a system of point charges and of electrical dipoles in a uniform electrostatic field; Electric field lines; Flux of electric field; Gauss’s law and its application in simple cases, such as, to find field due to infinitely long straight wire, uniformly charged infinite plane sheet and uniformly charged thin spherical shell. Capacitance; Parallel plate capacitor with and without dielectrics; Capacitors in series and parallel; Energy stored in a capacitor. Electric current; Ohm’s law; Series and parallel arrangements of resistances and cells; Kirchhoff’s laws and simple applications; Heating effect of current. Biot–Savart’s law and Ampere’s law; Magnetic field near a current-carrying straight wire, along the axis of a circular coil and inside a long straight solenoid; Force on a moving charge and on a current-carrying wire in a uniform magnetic field. Magnetic moment of a current loop; Effect of a uniform magnetic field on a current loop; Moving coil galvanometer, voltmeter, ammeter and their conversions. Electromagnetic induction: Faraday’s law, Lenz’s law; Self and mutual inductance; RC, LR and LC circuits with d.c. and a.c. sources. Optics: Rectilinear propagation of light; Reflection and refraction at plane and spherical surfaces; Total internal reflection; Deviation and dispersion of light by a prism; Thin lenses; Combinations of mirrors and thin lenses; Magnification. Wave nature of light: Huygen’s principle, interference limited to Young’s double-slit experiment. Modern physics : Atomic nucleus; Alpha, beta and gamma radiations; Law of radioactive decay; Decay constant; Half-life and mean life; Binding energy and its calculation; Fission and fusion processes; Energy calculation in these processes. Photoelectric effect; Bohr’s theory of hydrogen-like atoms; Characteristic and continuous X-rays, Moseley’s law; de Broglie wavelength of matter waves.



Corporate Office : CG Tower, A-46 & 52, IPIA, Near City Mall, Jhalawar Road, Kota (Raj.)- 324005

Website : www.resonance.ac.in | E-mail : [email protected] STP2019MAMB-PAGE # -8


SAMPLE TEST PAPER

01

SAMPLE TEST PAPER

(For Class-X Appearing / Passed Students)

COURSE : SAKSHAM(MA) & SAMARTH(MB) 01 TARGET : NEET/AIIMS 2021

No. of


1 to 25PART-I

(Biology)



26 to 50PART-II

(Maths)



51 to 65PART-III

(Physics)



66 to 80PART-IV

(Chemistry)



81 to 100PART-V

(Mental Ability)



Total 100 300


PART - I (BIOLOGY) : Hkkx - I (tho&foKku)

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 25 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

lh/ks oLrqfu"B izdkj

bl [k.M esa 25 cgq&fodYih iz'u gSA izR;sd iz'u ds 4

fodYi (1), (2), (3) rFkk (4) gSa, ftuesa ls flQZ ,d

lgh gSA

1. Which statement is/are wrong with respect to

Mycoplasma? (a) Mycoplasma are the smallest living cells

known. (b) These can survive without oxygen (c) The Mycoplasma are organisms that

completely lack a cell wall (d) Mycoplasma can not pass through bacteria

proof filters (1) b & c (2) c & d (3) only d (4) Only b ekbdksIykTek ds lanHkZ esa fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk dFku xyr gS

(a) ekbdksIykTek lcls NksVh thfor dksf'kdk gS

(b) ;s fcuk vkWDlhtu ds jg ldrs gSa

(c) ekbdksIykTek ,sls tho gS ftuesa dksf'kdk fHkfÙk

vuqifLFkr gksrh gSa

(d) ekbdksIykTek thok.kq jks/kh fQYVj ls ikl ugh gks ldrs

gSaA

(1) b & c (2) c & d (3) dsoy d (4) dsoy b

2. According to the 'Unit membrane' model of

Robertson” the total thickness of cell membrane is about

(1) 1.0 nm (2) 150 nm (3) 7.5 nm (4) 200 nm jkcVZlu ds bdkbZ dyk ekWMy” ds vuqlkj dksf'kdk dyk

dh dqy eksVkbZ yxHkx gksrh gS

(1) 1.0 nm (2) 150 nm (3) 7.5 nm (4) 200 nm

3. Plasma membrane is asymmetric because

(1) Lipids present in the outer and inner side of the bilayer are different

(2) Extrinsic proteins are more abundant on the inner surface than on the outer surface

(3) Oligosaccharides are attached only to the external surface of lipids and proteins of a biomembrane

(4) All of the above IykTek dyk vfu;fer gksrh gS D;ksafd

(1) f}Lrj ds ckgj rFkk Hkhrj dh vksj mifLFkr fyfiM~l

fHkUu gksrs gSa

(2) ckálrg dh rqyuk esa vkUrfjd lrg ij ,DlfVªafld

izksVhUl vf/kd gksrh gSA

(3) vksfyxkslSdjkbM~l dsoy tSodyk dh fyfiM~l o

izksVhUl dh cká lrg ij tqMs+ gSA

(4) mijksDr lHkh

4. Resistance to antibiotic is character of –

(1) All bacteria (2) All eukaryotes (3) All bacteria having plasmid (4) Some bacteria having plasmid






SAMPLE TEST PAPER

01

izfrtSfod ds izfr izfrjks/k ,d y{k.k gksrk gS

(1) lHkh thok.kqvksa dk

(2) lHkh ;wdsfj;ksV~l dk

(3) IykfTeM ;qDr lHkh thok.kqvksa dk

(4) IykfTeM ;qDr dqN thok.kqvksa dk

5. Root cap does not occur in (1) Ipomoea (2) Mangrove plants (3) Pandanus (4) Pistia. ewy xksi fdlesa ugha gksrh gS\

(1) vkbiksfe;k (2) esUxzkso ikni

(3) isUMsul (4) fifLV;k

6. Petiole is modified into tendril in

(1) Passiflora (2) Gloriosa (3) Pisum (4) Clematis fdlesa i.kZoÙr izrku esa :ikUrfjr gksrk gSA

(1) islh¶yksjk (2) Xysfj;kslk

(3) ikble (4) fDyesfVl

7. Presence of sheathing leaf base and ligule are

characteristic of (1) Cycas leaf (2) Fern leaf (3) Banana leaf (4) Grass leaf. 'khfFkax i.kkZ/kkj rFkk fyX;wy dh mifLFkfr fdlds y{k.k gS\

(1) lkbdl i.kZ (2) QuZ i.kZ

(3) dsyks ds i.kZ (4) ?kkl dh i.ksZ

8. Hydroponics is growing plants in

(1) Water (2) Soil culture (3) Solution of mineral nutrients (4) Tissue culture medium. gkbMªksiksfuDl gS ikniksa dks bl ek/;e esa o`f) djkuk

(1) ty (2) e`nk lao/kZu

(3) [kfut iks"kdksa dk foy;u

(4) Ård lao/kZd ek/;e

9. Element required for biological nitrogen fixation is

(1) Zinc (2) Molybdenum (3) Copper (4) Manganese tSfod ukbVªkstu fLFkjhdj.k ds fy, vko';d rÙo gSa

(1) ftad (2) eksyhCMsue

(3) dkWij (4) eSaxuht

10. Minimata disease is caused due to presence of --

--------------- in water. (1) Cadmium (2) Lead (3) Arsenic (4) Mercury feuhekVk jksx ikuh esa fdldh mifLFkfr ds dkj.k gksrk gS\

(1) dSMfe;e (2) ySM

(3) vklsZfud (4) ejdjh

11. The chief sinks for the mineral elements are

(1) Senescent leaves (2) Ripe fruits (3) Lateral meristems (4) Bark [kfut rÙoksa dh eq[; flad D;k gksrh gS\

(1) th.kZeku ifÙk;k¡ (2) ids Qy

(3) ik'oZ foHkT;ksrd (4) Nky

12. What is the R.Q. of organic acids, generally

(1) One (2) Less then one (3) More than one (4) Zero

lkekU;r;k dkcZfud vEyksa dk R.Q. gS\

(1) ,d (2) ,d ls de

(3) ,d ls vf/kd (4) 'kwU;

13. At high temperature in aerobic respiration, why

the R.Q. value becomes more than one (1) Requirement of O2 increases but due to less

availability of O2 partial replacement of aerobic

respiration takes place by anaerobic respiration (2) O2 requirement decreases hence due to

availablity of more O2 than required

(3) By formation of more organic acids which enter respiration

(4) O2 travel faster in warm enrironment ok;oh; 'olu esa mPp rkiØe ij R.Q. dk eku ,d ls

vf/kd gks tkrk gSA

(1) O2 dh vko';drk c<+rh gS] 'olu dk vakf'kd :i ls

izfrLFkkiu vok;oh; 'olu }kjk gksrk gS

(2) O2 dh vko';drk ?kVrh gS blfy, ftruh vko';drk

gS mlls vf/kd O2 dh miyC/krk ds dkj.k gksrk gSA

(3) vf/kd dkcZfud vEyksa ds fuekZ.k }kjk tks 'olu esa

izos'k djrs gSa

(4) O2 xz"e okrkoj.k esa 'kh?kz iyk;u djrh gSA

14. Maximum photosynthesis takes place in

(1) Phytoplanktons (2) Zooplanktons (3) Marshy plants (4) Woody plants vf/kdre izdk'k la'ys"k.k fdlesa gksrk gS\

(1) ikni Iyodksa esa (2) tUrqIyodkas eas

(3) nynyh ikniksa eas (4) dk"Bh; ikniksa esa

15. The dark reaction of photosynthesis takes place

in (1) Night (2) Day (3) Light is not essential for dark reaction (4) It takes place in night izdk'k la'ys"k.k dh vizdkf'kd vfHkfØ;k gksrh gSA

(1) jkf=k esa (2) fnu esa

(3) vizdkf'kd vfHkfØ;k ds fy, izdk'k dh vko';drk ugha

gksrh gS

(4) ;g jkf=k eas gksrh gSa

16. The process of sucking of fluid from the cell

surface is called as (1) Diffusion (2) Phagocytosis (3) Pinocytosis (4) Osmosis dksf'kdk lrg ls nzo dks pwlus dh izfdz;k dgykrh gS&

(1) folj.k (2) Hk{k.k

(3) fiukslk;Vksfll (4) ijklj.k

17. Brownian movement is due to-

(1) Collision and reversal of electrically charged molecules

(2) Simple movement of molecules themself (3) Force existing between molecules (4) Attraction between molecules czkmfu;u xfr fdl dkj.k gksrh gS–

(1) oS|qr vkosf'kr v.kqvksa dh VDdj rFkk çdh.kZu

(2) v.kqvksa dh Lor% ljy xfr

(3) v.kqvksa ds e/; mifLFkr cy

(4) v.kqvksa ds e/; vkd"kZ.k






SAMPLE TEST PAPER

01

18. Which substance is not carbohydrate?

(1) Starch (2) Glycogen (3) Wax (4) Glucose dkSu lk inkFkZ dkcksZgkbMªsV ugha gS\

(1) LVkpZ (2) Xykbdkstu

(3) ekse (4) Xywdkst

19. Proteins which are present in protoplasm are

very important because - (1) They provide rigidity to cell (2) They function as biocatalyst (3) They yield energy (4) They are stored food çksVhu tks çksVksIykTe esa mifLFkr gksrs gSa cgqr egRoiw.kZ gksrs

gSa D;ksafd&

(1) ;s dksf'kdk dks n`<+rk çnku djrs gSaA

(2) ;s tSo mRçsjd ds leku dk;Z djrs gSaA

(3) ;s ÅtkZ çnku djrs gSaA

(4) ;s lafpr Hkkstu gSaA

20. Lipid derivative which occur in faecal material -

(1) Cholesterol (2) Ergesterol (3) Lanoline (4) coprosterol ey esa ik;k tkus okyk fyfiM O;wRié gS

(1) dksysLVsjksy (2) bxsZLVsjksy

(3) ysuksyhu (4) dkWijksLVsjksy

21. DNA differs from RNA

(1) In the nature of sugar alone (2) In the nature of purines alone (3) In the nature of sugar and pyrimidines (4) None of the above DNA, RNA ls fHkUu gksrk gS

(1) dsoy 'kdZjk dh çd`fr esa

(2) dsoy I;wjhUl dh izd`fr esa

(3) 'kdZjk o fijhfeMhULk dh izd`fr esa

(4) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha

22. Other function performed by kidney apart from

excretion is (1) Osmoregulation (2) Temperature regulation (3) Hormonal regulation (4) Spermatogenesis o`Dd }kjk mRltZu dk vfrfjDr vU; dkSulk dk;Z fd;k

tkrk gS\

(1) ijklj.k fu;eu (2) rki fu;eu

(3) gkWeksZu fu;eu (4) LiesZVkstsusfll

23. In the mammalian heart, the bicuspid valve is

situated between (1) Left atrium and left ventricle (2) Post caval and right caval (3) Right atrium and left auricle (4) Right ventricle and pulmonary aorta Lru/kkjh ds ân; esa ckbZdfLiM okYo dgk¡ fLFkr gksrk gS \

(1) ck¡;s vkfyan ,oa fuy; ds e/;

(2) i’p egkf’kjk dsoy rFkk nkfguh egkf’kjk ds e/;

(3) nkfgus vkfyan ,oa ck¡;s vkfyan ds e/;

(4) nk;sa fuy; ,oa iYeksujh ,svksjVk ds e/;

24. The heart of a healthy man, normally beats, per

minute (1) 60-70 times (2) 70-80 times (3) 80-90 times (4) 85-95 times ,d euq"; dk ân; lkekU; :i ls izfr feuV /kM+drk gS&

(1) 60-70 ckj (2) 70-80 ckj

(3) 80-90 ckj (4) 85-95 ckj

25. Endocrine glands

(1) Do not possess ducts (2) Sometimes do not have ducts (3) Pour their secretion into blood through ducts (4) Always have ducts vUr%ókoh xzafFk;k¡ &

(1) ufydk,a ugha j[krh gS

(2) dHkh-dHkh ufydk,a ugha gksrh

(3) jDr esa viuk óko.k ufydkvksa }kjk Mkyrh gSa

(4) gesa'kk ufydk,a j[krh gSa

PART - II (MATHS) : Hkkx - II ( xf.kr)






lgh gSA

26. If x = 23

23

and y = 1 then the value of

y3x

yx

is :

;fn x = 23

23

,oa y = 1 gks rks

y3x

yx

dk eku

gksxk &

(1) 46

5

(2) 46

5

(3) 5

46 (4)

5

46

27. If x = 2 + 22/3 + 21/3, then what is the value of

x3 – 6x2 + 6x ?

;fn x = 2 + 22/3 + 21/3 gks rks x3 – 6x2 + 6x dk eku

D;k gksxk \

(1) 6 (2) 12 (3) 4 (4) 2

28. Distance between the parallel lines x = 8 and x +

1 = 0 is lekUrj js[kkvksa x = 8 rFkk x + 1 = 0 ds e/; dh nwjh

gksxhA

(1) 8 (2) 1 (3) 9 (4) 7






SAMPLE TEST PAPER

01

29. The three steps from solids to points are :

(1) Solids - surfaces - lines - points (2) Solids - lines - surfaces - points (3) Lines - points - surfaces - solids (4) Lines - surfaces - points - solids Bkslksa ls fcanqvksa rd rhu pj.k gSa &

(1) Bksl&i`"B&js[kk,¡&fcanq

(2) Bksl&js[kk,¡&i`"B&fcanq

(3) js[kk,¡&fcanq&i`"B&Bksl

(4) js[kk,¡&i`"B&fcanq&Bksl

30. Ray OS stands on a line POQ. Ray OR and ray

OT are angle bisectors of POS and SOQ,

respectively. If POS = x, find ROT. fdj.k OS js[kk POQ ij [kM+h gSA fdj.k OR vkSj OT

Øe'k% POS vkSj SOQ ds lef}Hkktd gSaA ;fn

POS = x gS] rks ROT Kkr dhft,A

(1) 60º (2) 80º (3) 90º (4) None of these

buesa ls dksbZ ugha

31. In right angled triangle ABC, EC is a bisector of

the BCD and BD AC. BAC = 30º, then

CED is :

ledks.k f=kHkqt ABC esa EC, BCD dk lef}Hkktd gS

vkSj BD AC ;fn BAC = 30º gS] rks CED gS -

(1) 65º (2) 45º (3) 60º (4) 30º

32. Find the area of a triangle whose sides are 8 cm,

13 cm and 15 cm. (Take 3 = 1.73). (1) 51.9 cm2 (2) 42.9 cm2 (3) 59.9 cm2 (4) None fdlh f=kHkqt ftldh Hkqtk,sa Øe'k% 8 cm, 13 cm rFkk

15 cm gSa rks f=kHkqt dk {ks=kQy gksxk & (yhft, 3 =

1.73). (1) 51.9 cm2 (2) 42.9 cm2 (3) 59.9 cm2 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

33. In a school 2

7

of the students are boys. If there

are 305 girls, find the number of boys in the school ?

,d fo|ky; esa dqy fo|kfFkZ;ksa esa ls 2

7

Hkkx yM+ds gSaA ;fn

305 yM+fd;k¡ gks rks fo|ky; esa dqy yM+ds fdrus gSa ?

(1) 112 (2) 122 (3) 132 (4) 127

34. ABCD is a trapezium in which AB || CD. If ADC

= 2ABC, AD = a cm and CD = b cm, then the length (in cm) of AB is :

ABCD ,d leyEc prqHkZqt ¼Vsªihft;e½ gS ftlesa AB ||

CD A ;fn ADC = 2ABC, AD = a lseh rFkk CD =

b lseh rkss AB dh yEckbZ ¼lseh esa½ gSA

(1) a

2 + 2b (2) a + b

(3) 2

3a + b (4) a +

2

3 b

35. If parallelogram ABCD and rectangle ABEF are

of equal area, then : ;fn lekarj prqHkqZt ABCD vkSj vk;r ABEM leku

{ks=kQy ds gSa] rks :

(1) Perimeter of ABCD = Perimeter of ABEM (2) Perimeter of ABCD < Perimeter of ABEM (3) Perimeter of ABCD > Perimeter of ABEM

(4) Perimeter of ABCD = 2

1 (Perimeter of ABEM)

(1) ABCD dk ifjeki = ABEM dk ifjeki

(2) ABCD dk ifjeki < ABEM dk ifjeki

(3) ABCD dk ifjeki > ABEM dk ifjeki

(4) ABCD dk ifjeki = 2

1 (ABEM dk ifjeki)

36. The lengths of two parallel chords of a circle 1

cm apart are respectively 10 cm and 8 cm. The distance of the longer chord from the centre of the circle is –

(1) 4 cm (2) 5 cm (3) 7 cm (4) 12 cm 1 lseh dh nwjh ij fLFkr nks lekUrj thokvksa dh yEckbZ

Øe'k% 10 lseh o 8 lseh gSaA vf/kd yEckbZ okyh thok dh

dsUnz ls nwjh gksxh&

(1) 4 lseh (2) 5 lseh

(3) 7 lseh (4) 12 lseh

37. The value of ab

1

b

aca

1

a

cbc

1

c

b

x

x.

x

x.

x

x

is :

ab

1

b

aca

1

a

cbc

1

c

b

x

x.

x

x.

x

x

dk eku gksxk &

(1) x (2) x

1

(3) – 1 (4) 1






SAMPLE TEST PAPER

01

38. If a sphere is inscribed in a cube, then the ratio of

the volume of the cube to the volume of the sphere will be :

;fn ,d xksyk ,d ?ku ds varxZr gS] rks ?ku ds vk;ru dk

xksys ds vk;ru ls vuqikr gS &

(1) 4 : (2) 6 : (3) 2 : (4) : 6

39. The mean of 5 numbers is 21. If one of the

numbers is excluded then the mean of the remaining numbers is 22.5. The excluded number is :

5 la[;kvksa dk ek/; 21 gS ;fn muesa ls ,d la[;k ckgj

fudky nh tk;s rks ek/; 22.5 gks tkrk gS rks ckgj fudkyh

x;h la[;k gksxh &

(1) 5 (2) 10 (3) 15 (4) 20

40. A bag contains 20 balls of different colours. The

probability of drawing a black ball is 4/5 then number of black balls in the bag is :

,d Fksys esa fofHkUu jaxks dh dqy 20 xsans gSaA mlesa ls dkyh

xsan fudkyus dh izkf;drk 4/5 gS rks Fksys esa fdruh dkyh

xSans gSa &

(1) 14 (2) 15 (3) 16 (4) 20

41. 0.39 + 0.750 + 2.15 + (–1.001) =

(1) 2 2 8 9

1 0 0 (2)

2 2 8 9

1 0 0 0

(3) 2 8 2 9

1 0 0 0 (4)

8 9 2 2

1 0 0 0

42. Reduced to lowest terms,

2 2a b

a b

–

2

2

a b b

a b a

is

equal to :

2 2a b

a b

–

2

2

a b b

a b a

dks vHkkT; in esa fo[kf.Mr

dhft, &

(1) a

b (2)

2 2a 2b

a b

(3) a2 (4) a – 2b

43. The equation of the line passing through (–1, 3)

and (4, –1) is fcUnw (–1, 3) rFkk (4, –1) ls xqtjus okyh js[kk dh

lehdj.k gksxhA

(1) 5x + 4y – 1 = 0 (2) 4x + 5y – 11 = 0 (3) 4x – 5y = 11 (4) 4x = 5y

44. Euclid divided his famous treatise “The

Elements” into : (1) 13 chapters (2) 12 chapters (3) 11 chapters (4) 9 chapters ;wfDyM us viuh izfl) d`fr “,yhesaV~l” dks fuEufyf[kr esa

foHkkftr fd;k%

(1) 13 vè;k; (2) 12 vè;k;

(3) 11 vè;k; (4) 9 vè;k;

45. ABCDE is a regular pentagon. A star of five

points ACEBDA is formed to join their alternate vertices. The sum of all five vertex angles of this star is –

ABCDE ,d fu;fer iapHkqt gSA ik¡p fcUnqvks okyk ,d

rkjk ACEBDA, iapHkqt ds ,dkUrj 'kh"kksZ dks tksM+dj

cuk;k x;k gSA bl rkjs ds lHkh ik¡p 'kh"kZ dks.kksa dk ;ksx

gksxk& D C

E B

A (1) Two right angle (2) Three right angle (3) Four right angle (4) Five right angle (1) nks ledks.k (2) rhu ledks.k

(3) pkj ledks.k (4) ik¡p ledks.k

46. Q is a point on the side SR of a PSR such that

PQ = PR, then

,d PSR dh Hkqtk SR ij ,d fcanq Q bl izdkj fLFkr

gS fd PQ = PR gSA rc

(1) PS < PQ (2) PS > PQ (3) PS = PQ (4) None of these (buesa ls dksbZ ugha

47. The sides of a triangle are 10 cm, 24 cm and 26

cm. Find its longest altitude. ;fn fdlh f=kHkqt ftldh Hkqtkvksa dh yEckbZ Øe'k% 10 cm,

24 cm rFkk 26 cm gS] rks lcls cM+s yEc dh yEckbZ gksxh

(1) 36 cm (2) 24 cm (3) 48 cm (4) None buesa ls dksbZ ugha

48. One fourth of one third of one half of a number is

12, then number is : fdlh la[;k dk 1/2 Hkkx dk 1/3 Hkkx dk 1/4 Hkkx] 12 gS]

rks la[;k gksxh &

(1) 284 (2) 286 (3) 288 (4) 290

49. The diagonals AC and BD of a parallelogram

ABCD intersect each other at the point O. If

DAC = 32º and AOB = 70º, then DBC is equal to

lekarj prqHkqZt ABCD ds fod.kZ AC vkSj BD ijLij fcanq

O ij izfrPNsn djrs gSaA ;fn DAC = 32º vkSj

AOB = 70º gSa rks ∠DBC cjkcj gS

(1) 24º (2) 86º (3) 38º (4) 32º

50. ABCD is a trapezium in which AB || DC, DC = 30

cm and AB = 50 cm. If X and Y are, respectively the mid-points of AD and BC, if ar (DCYX) = k ar (XYBA), then value of k is :

ABCD ,d leyac gS] ftlesa AB || DC, DC = 30 cm

vkSj AB = 50 cm gSA ;fn X vkSj Y Øe'k% AD vkSj BC

ds eè;&fcanq gSa] ;fn ar (DCYX) = k ar (XYBA), rc k

dk eku gS &

(1) 9

8 (2)

7

5 (3)

9

7 (4)

5

3






SAMPLE TEST PAPER

01

PART - III (PHYSICS) : Hkkx - III (HkkSfrd foKku)






lgh gSA

51. When a fuse is rated 8A, it means

(1) it will not work if current is less than 8A (2) it has a resistance of 8 A (3) it will work only if current is 8A (4) it will burn if current exceeds 8A tc ,d ¶;wt 8A ds fy, vg;Z gS bldk rkRi;Z gSA

(1) 8A ,fEi;j dk ,d izfrjks/k ugh gksrk gS

(2) blesa 8 ,fEi;j ls de /kkjk esa ;g dk;Z ugh djsxhA

(3) ;g dsoy 8 ,fEi;j dh /kkjk gksus ij gh dk;Z djsxk

(4) 8A ,fEi;j ls vf/kd /kkjk izokfgr djus ij ;g ty

tk;sxkA

52. Which of the following devices works on the

principle of electromagnetic induction? (1) ammeter (2) Voltmeter (3) Generator (4) Galvanometer oS|qr pqEcdh; izsj.k ds fl)kUr ij fuEufyf[kr esa ls

dkSulk midj.k dk;Z djrk gS\

(1) vehVj (2) oksYVehVj

(3) tsusjsVj (4) xSyosuksehVj

53. In an electric motor, the energy transformation is

from (1) electrical to chemical (2) chemical to light (3) mechanical to electrical (4) electrical to mechanical ,d fo|qr eksVj esa ÅtkZ ifjorZu fdl :i esa gksrk gSA

(1) fo|qr ls jklk;fud

(2) jklk;fud ls izdk'k ÅtkZ

(3) ;kaf=kd ls oS/kqr

(4) oS|qr ls ;kaf=kd

54. The speed-time graph for a particle moving at

constant speed is a straight-line ………… to the time axis.

(1) parallel (2) perpendicular (3) aligned (4) inclined fu;r pky ls xfr djrh gqbZ ,d d.k ds fy, pky le;

(v-t) xzkQ ……… le; v{k ds fy, ,d ljy js[kk gS&

(1) lekUrj (2) yEcor~

(3) lajsf[kr (4) >qdk gqvk

55. In 12 minutes a car whose speed is 35 km/h

travels a distance of (1) 7 km (2) 3.5 km (3) 14 km (4) 28 km

,d dkj ftldh pky 35 km/h gS] 12 feuV esa og fdruh

nwjh r; djrh gS&

(1) 7 km (2) 3.5 km (3) 14 km (4) 28 km

56. Figure shows a ray of light as it travels from

medium A to medium B. Refractive index of the medium B relative to medium A is

,d izdk'k dh fdj.k dks ek/;e A ls ek/;e B esa xeu dk

fp=k iznf'kZr djrk gSA ek/;e A ds lkis{k ek/;e B dk

viorZukad gS&

Medium A

Medium B

45º

60º

(1) 3

2 (2)

1

2

(3) 2 (4) 2

3

57. A charge +Q is moving upwards vertically. It

enters a magnetic field directed to the north. The force on charge will be towards

(1) North (2) South (3) East (4) West ,d +Q vkos'k m/okZ/kj :i ls mij dh vksj xfr dj jgh

gSA ;g mRrj dh vksj fu/kkZfjr pqEcdh; {ks=k esa izos'k djrk

gSA vkos'k ij cy fdl fn'kk esa yxsxk&

(1) mRrj (2) nf{k.k (3) iwoZ (4) if'pe

58. A patient requires an intake of 1 glucose in

10 hours. If 1 cm3 of glucose contains 15 drops, calculate the rate of intake in drops/minute.

,d ejht dks 10 ?k.Vs esa 1 yhVj Xywdkst xzg.k djus dh

vko';drk gSA ;fn 1 cm3 esa Xywdkst 15 cw¡n vkrk gS] izfr

feuV Xywdkst dh cw¡n dks xzg.k djus ds nj dh x.kuk

dhft,A

(1) 15 (2) 25 (3) 10 (4) 30

59. An object started travelling from one end of the

semicircular track and reached the other end. If the length of the track is 12.56 m calculate the magnitude of its displacement.

,d oLrq v)Zo`Ùkkdkj ekxZ ds ,d {kksj ls pyuk izkjEHk dh

vkSj nwljs {kksj rd igq¡p x;hA ;fn ekxZ dh yEckbZ

12.56 m gks rks blds foLFkkiu ds ifjek.k dh x.kuk

dhft,&

(1) 4 m (2) 8 m (3) 12 m (4) 2 m






SAMPLE TEST PAPER

01

60. In the circuit arrangement shown, if the point A

and B are joined by a wire the current in this wire will be: (iznf'kZr ifjiFk izcU/k esa ;fn fcUnq A rFkk B dks

,d rkj }kjk tksM fn;k tk;s] bl rkj esa izokfgr gksus okyh

/kkjk gksxh)

12

24Volt

A

B

12

12 12

(1) 1A (2) 2A (3) 4A (4) zero

61. Two conductors A and B of same the length are

made up of the same metal and their temperatures are also the same. If the cross-sectional area of A is double that of B,

(1) the resistance of A is half the resistance of B. (2) the resistance of A is twice the resistance of B. (3) the resistance of A is equal to the resistance

of B. (4) Their resistance cannot compared by using

the given information leku yEckbZ okys nks pkyd A rFkk B leku /kkrq ds cus

gq, gS rFkk muds rkieku Hkh leku gSA ;fn A dk vuqizLFk

dkV {ks=kQy B ds nqxquk dj fn;k tk;s rc&

(1) A dk izfrjks/k B ds izfrjks/k dk vk/kk gSA

(2) A dk izfrjks/k B ds izfrjks/k dk nqxquk gSA

(3) A dk izfrjks/k B ds izfrjks/k ds cjkcj gSA

(4) fn;s x;s lwpuk ds iz;ksx }kjk muds izfrjks/kks dh rqyuk

ugh dh tk ldrh gSA

62. A 60 W bulb is switched ON for 6 hours on

alternate days in a month of 30 days. The energy consumed in a month is

,d 60 okWV ds cYc dks nSfud vUrjky ij ,d eghuk

30 fnu rd tyk;k tkrk gSA ,d eghus esa miHkksx dh x;h

ÅtkZ gS&

(1) 19440 kJ (2) 1296 kJ (3) 8100 kJ (4) 2560 kJ

63. A body is said to have +12 C of charge. It has

(1) 750 × 1017 electrons in excess. (2) a deficiency of 750 × 1017 electrons. (3) 325 × 1016 protons and 325 × 1016 electrons

in excess. (4) None of the above ,d fi.M dks +12 dwykWe vkos'k ds fy, crk;k x;k gS]

blesa

(1) 750 × 1017 bysDVªkWu dh vf/kdrk gS

(2) 750 × 1017 bysDVªkWu dh deh gS

(3) 325 × 1016 izksVkWu rFkk 325 × 1016 bysDVªkWu

dhvf/kdrk gS

(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugh

64. The focal length of a convex mirror, f = 12 cm

and the object is placed at a distance of 15 cm from the convex mirror. Find the position of the image.

(1) 6.66 cm (2) 3.33 cm (3) 0.15 cm (4) 1.5 cm

,d mRry ySal dh Qksdl nwjh f = 12 cm rFkk ,d oLrq

dks mRry niZ.k ls 15 cm dh nwjh ij j[kh x;h gS]

izfrfcEc dh fLFkfr Kkr dhft,A

(1) 6.66 cm (2) 3.33 cm (3) 0.15 cm (4) 1.5 cm

65. Two mirrors are placed at an angle 60º. A light

ray is incident on one mirror with an angle of incidence of 45º. What will be angle of reflection when this light ray is incident on the second mirror after getting reflected from the first mirror?

nks niZ.kksa dks 60º dks.k ij j[kk x;k gSA ,d izdk'k dh

fdj.k ,d inZ.k ij 45º vkiru dks.k ij vkifrr gksrh gS]

tc ;g izdk'k dh fdj.k igys niZ.k ls ijkofrZr gksus ds

ckn nwljs niZ.k ij iMrh gS] rc ijkorZu dks.k gksxk&

(1) 45º (2) 15º (3) 60º (4) 75º

PART - IV (CHEMISTRY): Hkkx - IV (jlk;u foKku)

Atomic masses (ijek.kq Hkkj) : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7, C = 12,

N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24, Al = 27, Si = 28, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65, As = 75, Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137 Hg = 200, Pb = 207]






lgh gSA

66. Which one of the following is not an

element ? (1) Diamond (2) Ozone (3) Silica (4) Graphite fuEu esa ls dkSulk rRo ugha gS ?

(1) ghjk (2) vkstksu

(3) flfydk (4) xzsQkbV

67. A method of obtaining oxygen, which illustrates a

physical change and does not involve a chemical change, is -

(1) electrolysis of water (2) decomposition H2O2

(3) heating potassium chlorate (4) distilling liquid air vkWDlhtu izkIr djus dk ,d izØe ftlesa HkkSfrd ifjorZu

gksrk gS rFkk jklk;fud ifjorZu ugha gksrk gS &

(1) ty dk fo|qrvi?kVu

(2) H2O2 dk fo?kVu

(3) iksVsf'k;e DyksjsV dks xeZ djukA

(4) nzfor ok;q dk vklou






SAMPLE TEST PAPER

01

68.

x

8X atom is isotonic to

1 7

9Y atom. The value of x is -

x

8X ijek.kq

1 7

9Y ls leU;wVªkWfud gSA x dk eku gksxk -

(1) 8 (2) 16 (3) 9 (4) 17

69. The maximum number of orbitals in L - shell is -

L - dks'k esa d{kdksa dh vf/kdre la[;k gS &

(1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 6

70. Atoms may be regarded as comprising of

protons, neutrons and electrons. If the mass attributed by electrons was doubled and that attributed by neutrons was halved, the atomic

mass of 12C would be - (1) approximately the same. (2) doubled. (3) reduced approximately by 25%. (4) approximately halved. ijek.kq] izksVksuks] U;wVªkWuksa o bysDVªkWuksa ls feydj cuk gksrk

gSA ;fn bysDVªkWuksa dk nzO;eku nqxquk o U;wVªkWuksa dk nzO;eku

vk/kk ekuk tk;s rc 12C dk ijek.kq nzO;eku D;k gksxk \

(1) yxHkx leku (2) nqxquk

(3) yxHkx 25% de (4) yxHkx vk/kk

71. Consider the nuclear change,

–2 3 7

9 3N p A

–

B

–

C

Which of the following statements is not correct ? (1) Mass number of B is 233. (2) Atomic number of A is 91. (3) C is an isotope of A. (4) B is an isobar of A .

ukfHkdh; ifjorZu dk voyksdu dhft,,

–2 3 7

9 3N p A

–

B

–

C

fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku xyr gS \

(1) B dh nzO;eku la[;k 233 gSA

(2) A dk ijek.kq Øekad 91 gSA

(3) C, A dk leLFkkfud gSA

(4) B, A dk leHkkfjd gSA

72. The half-life of a radioactive isotope is three

hours. If the intial mass of the isotope were 256 g, the mass of it remaining undecayed after 18 hours would be -

,d jsfM;kslfØ; leLFkkfud dh v)Zvk;q rhu ?k.Vs gSA ;fn

leLFkkfud dk izkjfEHkd nzO;eku 256 g rc 18 ?k.Vs

i'pkr~ bldk 'ks"k vfo?kfVr (undecayed) nzO;eku gS &

(1) 12 g (2) 16 g (3) 4 g (4) 8 g

73. Number of moles of NaOH required to neutralize

1 mole of H2SO4 will be -

1 eksy H2SO4 ds mnklhuhdj.k ds fy, vko';d NaOH

dh eksy la[;k D;k gksxh \

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 5

74. The number of molecules in one litre of water is

equal to -

(1) 18 × 6.023 × 1023 (2)

2 31 8 1 0

2 2 .4

(3) 55.5 × 6.023 × 1023 (4) None of these

1 yhVj ty esa v.kqvksa dh la[;k fdlds cjkcj gS &

(1) 18 × 6.023 × 1023 (2)

2 31 8 1 0

2 2 .4

(3) 55.5 × 6.023 × 1023 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

75. A piece of sodium weighs 0.023 g. The number

of atoms present in it are(Atomic mass Na = 23) - ,d lksfM;e ds VqdMs dk Hkkj 0.023 g gSA blesa mifLFkr

ijek.kqvks dh la[;k fuEu gSSa (ijek.kq Hkkj Na = 23) -

(1) 6.023 × 1020 (2) 60.23 × 1022

(3) 6.023 × 1021 (4) 6.023 × 1019

76. The IUPAC name of the compound HO

is

(1) 3, 3 - dimethyl - 1 - hydroxy cyclohexane (2) 1, 1 - dimethyl - 3 -hydroxy cyclohexane (3) 3, 3 - dimethyl - 1 - cyclohexanol (4) 1, 1 - dimethyl - 3 - cyclohexanol

HO

;kSfxd dk IUPAC uke gS

(1) 3, 3–MkbZesfFky–1–gkbMªkWDlh lkbDyksgsDlsu

(2) 1, 1–MkbZesfFky–3–gkbMªkWDlh lkbDyksgsDlsu

(3) 3, 3–MkbZesfFky–1–lkbDyksgSDlsukWy

(4) 1, 1–MkbZesfFky–3–lkbDyksgSDlsukWy

77. The IUPAC name of C6H5COCI is :

(1) Benzoyl chloride (2) Benzene chloro ketone (3) Benzene carbonyl chloride (4) Chloro phenyl ketone C6H5COCI dk IUPAC uke gSA

(1) csatks;y DyksjkbM

(2) csathu Dyksjks dhVksu

(3) csathu dkcksZfuy DyksjkbM

(4) Dyksjks Qsfuy dhVksu

78. The number of structural isomers for C6H14 is :

C6H14 ds lajpukRed leko;fo;ksa dh la[;k gksxh %

(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6

79. The correct decreasing order of priority for the

functional groups of organic compounds in the IUPAC system of nomenclature is

dkcZfud ;kSfxdksa ds ukedj.k dh IUPAC i)fr esa

fØ;kRed lewgksa ds fy, ojh;rk dk lgh ?kVrk Øe bl

izdkj gS

(1) –SO3H, –COOH, –CONH2, –CHO

(2) –CHO, –COOH, –SO3H, –CONH2

(3) –CONH2, –CHO, –SO3H, –COOH

(4) –COOH, –SO3H, –CONH2, –CHO






SAMPLE TEST PAPER

01

80. The saturated heterocyclic compound is :

larÌr fo"kepØh; ;kSfxd gS %

(1)

N..

(2)

(3) N|H

(4)

PART - V (MENTAL ABILITY) :

Hkkx - V (ekufld ;ksX;rk)






lgh gSA

Directions :(81 to 85) Find the missing term :

funsZ'k (81 to 85) % yqIr in Kkr dhft, %

81. 151, 158, 172, 182, ?

(1) 210 (2) 193 (3) 197 (4) 203

82. DFK, FEL, HDM, JCN, ?

(1) KBN (2) KBO (3) LBO (4) LBN

83.

21 24 ?2 1 23 8 4

5 5 9

7 6 5

(1) 36 (2) 38 (3) 48 (4) 42

84. 5, 34, 10 51, 17, 68, 26, ? , ?

(1) 102, 39 (2) 76, 35 (3) 85, 37 (4) 35,86

85. 25 10 4

2 ? 32

12 6 3

(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 10

Directions : (86) These questions are based on letter

series in which some of the letters are missing. The missing letters are given in the proper sequence in one of the alternatives among the four given under each question. Find out the correct alternatives for each question.

funZs'k : (86) fuEukafdr iz'uksa esa nh xbZ v{kj Jsf.k;ksa esa dqN v{kj

xk;c gSA izR;sd iz'u ds uhps fn, x, pkj fodYiksa esa ls

,d lgh Øe dk fodYi pqfu,A

86. ab — acc — — da — bba —

(1) cdabc (2) badaa (3) cdbcd (4) dbacd

87. A man starts from his house walks 2 km. towards

North. He turns right and walk 3km. Then he turn lft and travels 3 km. What is the direction o\he is facing -

(1) East (2) West (3) North (4) South ,d O;fDr vius ?kj ls 2 fdeh- mÙkj dh vksj pyrk gS]

fQj nk;ha vksj eqM+dj 3 fdeh- pyrk gSA vc og fdl

fn'kk dks face dj jgk gS&

(1) iwoZ (2) if'pe (3) mÙkj (4) nf{k.k

88. If OX is coded as 39, what will be the code number for LION ?

;fn OX dks 39 ls dksM+ fd;k tk;s rks LION ds fy, dksM+

la[;k D;k gksxh ?

(1) 20 (2) 25 (3) 38 (4) 50

89. If ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘ ×’ means ‘—’, ‘’ means ‘+’ and

‘—’ means ‘’, then ;fn ‘+’ dk vFkZ ‘×’, ‘ ×’ dk vFkZ ‘—’, ‘’ dk vFkZ ‘+’ rFkk

‘—’ dk vFkZ ‘’, gks rks

175 – 25 5 + 20 × 3 + 10 = ? (1) 160 (2) 77 (3) 2370 (4) 240

90 . A × B means A is the sister of B, A B means A is

the daughter of B, A – B means A is the son of B. On the basis of this information you have to tell, how is P related to S in the relationship P – Q × R S.

(1) Brother (2) Son (3) Grandson (4) Daughter’s son A × B dk vFkZ A, B dh cfgu gSA A B dk vFkZ A, B dh

iq=kh gSA A – B dk vFkZ A, B dk iq=k gSA bl lqpuk ds

vk/kkj ij vki crkbZ;s fd P vkSj S esa D;k lEcU/k gS ;fn

P – Q × R S (1) HkkbZ (2) iq=k

(3) iks=k (4) iq=kh dk iq=k

91. How many triangles are there in the following

figure ? nh xbZ vkd`fr esa f=kHkqtksa dh la[;k fdruh gS?

(1) 19 (2) 21 (3) 27 (4) 48

Direction : (92 to 95) Find out the correct alternative

of the questions based on the Dice figures. funZs'k : (92 ls 95) iklksa ds n'kkZ, x, fp=k ij vk/kkfjr iz'uksa ds

lgh fodYi pqfu,A

92.

The number opposite side the face having the no. 4 will be –

vad 4 ds foijhr i`"B ij dkSulh la[;k gksxh –

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 5 (4) 6






SAMPLE TEST PAPER

01

93. 2

4

?

(i) (ii) (iii) Three positions of a Dice are shown. In figure (iii)

which number will come in place of (?). ikls dh rhu fLFkfr;k¡ n'kkZbZ xbZ gSA fp=k (iii) esa vafdr fpgz

(?) ds LFkku ij dkSulk vad vk,xkA

(1) 5 (2) 3 (3) 6 (4) 1

94. The following figure is converted into a cube. Its

correct shape will be– fuEukafdr fp=k dks ?ku ds :i esa ifjofrZr fd;k tk, rks

dkSulk :i lgh gksxk–

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

95. The following figure is converted into a cube. Its

four positions (a), (b), (c) and (d) are shown. On the basis of these select correct alternative.

fuEukafdr fp=k dks ?ku esa ifjofrZr fd;k tk, rks n'kkZbZ xbZ

pkj fLFkfr;k¡ (a),(b), (c) vkSj (d) ds vk/kkj ij lgh

fodYi dks pqfu,A

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

(1) a only (2) b only

(3) a and c only (4) a, b, c and d (1) dsoy a (2) dsoy b

(3) dsoy a vkSj c (4) a, b, c vkSj d

Direction : In the following figure Manager are

denoted by rectangle, Females by triangle and Singers by circle, the numbers given in figures represent their number, study the figure carefully and answer the question No. 160 to 163 based on it–

funZs'k : uhps fn, x, fp=k esa vk;r ls izca/kdksa dks] f=kHkqt ls

fL=k;ksa dks ,oa o`r ls xk;dksa dks n'kkZ;k x;k gS vkjs[k esa nh

x;h la[;kvksa ds }kjk mudh la[;k dk crk;k x;k gS]

fuEufyf[kr vkjs[k dk /;ku ls v/;;u djsa ,oa iz'u 160

ls 163 dk tokc nsa-

96. How many persons are only singers ?

fdrus O;fDr dsoy xk;d gS?

(1) 15 (2) 12

(3) 4 (4) 7 97. How many females are there who are managers

and singers as well ? ,slh fL=k;ksa dh la[;k fdruh gS] tks fd izca/kd rFkk xk;d

nksaukas gSa?

(1) 4 (2) 7

(3) 9 (4) 16 98. How many mangers are there, who are neither

female nor singers ? ,sls izca/kdksa dh la[;k fdruh gS tks fd u rks L=kh gS] vkSj

u gh xk;d gSa?

(1) 35 (2) 12

(3) 4 (4) 9

99. How many singers are there who are neither

female nor managers ? ,sls xk;dksa dh la[;k fdruh gS] tks u rks L=kh gS vkSj u gh

izca/kd gSa?

(1) 4 (2) 7

(3) 15 (4) 12






SAMPLE TEST PAPER

01

Direction : (100) Each of the following questions

consists of four figures marked 1, 2, 3 and 4. These figures form a series. Find out the one from the answer figures that will continue the series.

funsZ'k : (100) izR;sd iz'u esa] fp=kksa ds nks lewg gSaA iz'u vkd`fr

rFkk mÙkj vkd`fr] mÙkj vkd`fr A, B, C, rFkk D ls vafdr

gSA mÙkj vkd`fr;ksa esa ls ml vkd`fr dk pquko dhft;s tks

iz'u vkd`fr esa nh xbZ vkd`fr;ksa dh Jsa.kh dks vkxs c<+k

ldsA

100.

(1)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(2)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(3)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(4)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

ANSWER KEY TO SAMPLE TEST PAPER-1

1. (3) 2. (3) 3. (4) 4. (4) 5. (4) 6. (4) 7. (4) 8. (3) 9. (2) 10. (4) 11. (1) 12. (3) 13. (1) 14. (1) 15. (3) 16. (3) 17. (1) 18. (3) 19. (2) 20. (4) 21. (3) 22. (1) 23. (1) 24. (2) 25. (1) 26. (4) 27. (4) 28. (3) 29. (1) 30. (3) 31. (3) 32. (1) 33. (2) 34. (2) 35. (3) 36. (1) 37. (4) 38. (2) 39. (3) 40. (3) 41. (2) 42. (1) 43. (2) 44. (1) 45. (1) 46. (2) 47. (2) 48. (3) 49. (3) 50. (3) 51. (4) 52. (3) 53. (4) 54. (1) 55. (1) 56. (4) 57. (4) 58. (2) 59. (2) 60. (4) 61. (1) 62. (1) 63. (2) 64. (1) 65. (2) 66. (3) 67. (4) 68. (2) 69. (2) 70. (3) 71. (3) 72. (3) 73. (2) 74. (3) 75. (1) 76. (3) 77. (3) 78. (3) 79. (4) 80. (3) 81. (2) 82. (3) 83. (1) 84. (3) 85. (3) 86. (2) 87. (3) 88. (4) 89. (2) 90 . (4) 91. (3) 92. (1) 93. (4) 94. (4) 95. (2) 96. (1) 97. (1) 98. (1) 99. (3) 100. (3)




Website : www.resonance.ac.in | E-mail : [email protected] STP2019MF-PAGE # -19


SAMPLE TEST PAPER

02

SAMPLE TEST PAPER

(For Class-XI Appearing / Passed Students)

COURSE : SAMBHAV(MF) 02 TARGET : NEET/AIIMS 2020

No. of


1 to 40PART-I

(Biology)



41 to 60PART-II

(Physics)



61 to 80PART-III

(Chemistry)



81 to 100PART-IV

(Mental Ability)



Total 100 300








lgh gSA

1. In which stage of cell cycle nuclear membrane

and nucleolus reappear, cytokinesis follows and this is called as diad of cells

(1)Telophase (2) Prohase-I (3) Telophase-II (4) Telophase-I dksf'kdk pØ dh dkSulh voLFkk esa dsUnzd dyk rFkk

dssfUnzdk iqu% izdV gksrh gS] rFkk dksf'kdk nzO; foHkktu

gksrk gS rFkk bls dksf'kdkvksa ds Mk;M ds :i esa tkuk

tkrk gS&

(1) VhyksQst (2) izksQst-I

(3) VhyksQst-II (4) VhyksQst-I

2. Select the wrong pair

(1) Leghaemoglobin-O2 scvenger during

biological N2-fixation in legumes

(2) Rhodospirillum-Photosynthetic N2-fixing

aerobic Bacteria (3) Chemoautotrophs -Nitrifying bacteria. (4) Anabaena & Nostoc- both free living N2

fixers as well as symbiotic N2 fixers

xyr ;qXe dks pqfu;s&

(1) ysxgheksXyksfcu - f'kEc ikniksa esa N2 - fLFkjhdj.k ds

nkSjku O2 viektZd

(2) jksMksLikbfjye - izdk'k la'ys"kh N2 - fLFkjhdkjh

ok;qoh; thok.kq

(3) jlk;u Loiks"kh - ukbVªhdkjh thok.kq

(4) ,ukfcuk rFkk ukWLVkWd - eqDrthoh N2 fLFkjhdkjh rFkk

lgthoh N2 fLFkjhdkjh nksuksa

3. Given below the following statements

(a) The sporophyte of liverworts more eloborates than sporophyte of mosses

(b) Both Cycas and Marchantia are dioecious (c) Jacketed sex organs are found in both red

algae and brown algae (d) Coralloid roots of Cycas has cyanobacteria

for nitrogen fixation (e) Polyembryony is quite common in

angiosperm than gymnosperm How many above staements are wrong (1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1 uhps fuEu dFku fn;s x;s gSa&

(a) ekWl ds LiksjksQkbV dh rqyuk esa yhojoVZ~l dk

LiksjksQkbV vf/kd fodflr gksrk gS

(b) lkbdl rFkk ekWdsZfU'k;k nksuksa ,dfyaxkJ;h gksrs gSa

(c) yky 'kSoky rFkk Hkwjs 'kSoky nksuksa esa tSdsV;qDr tuukax

gksrs gSa

(d) lkbdl dh izoky ewyksa esa ukbVªkstu fLFkjhdj.k ds

fy;s lkbukscSfDVfj;k gksrs gSa

(e) vuko`Ùkchft;ksa dh rqyuk esa vko`Ùkchft;ksa esa cgqHkzw.krk

vf/kd feyrh gS

mijksDr esa ls fdrus dFku xyr gSa&

(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1






SAMPLE TEST PAPER

02

4. Which statement is wrong -

(1) Both Ascospores and Basidiospores are sexual spores formed endogenously

(2) Phenetic classification is based on observable characters of organisms

(3) Monograph contains information of any taxon

(4) Herbarium is a store house of collected plant specimens that are dried, pressed and preserved on sheets.

dkSulk dFku xyr gS&

(1) ,LdksLikslZ rFkk csflfM;ksLikslZ vUrZtkr :i ls cuus

okys ySafxd chtk.kq gS

(2) QhfufVd oxhZdj.k thoksa ds izsf{kr fd;s x;s y{k.kksa ij

vk/kkfjr gS

(3) eksuksxzkQ esa fdlh VsDlkWu ds ckjs esa lwpuk gksrh gS

(4) gcsZfj;e laxzfgr fd;s x;s ikni izfrn'kksZa dk laxzg

LFky gSa tks fd lq[kkdj] nckdj rFkk 'khVksa ij ifjjf{kr

fd;s tkrs gSa

5. Examine the figure given below and select the

correct option giving all the four parts (a, b,c and d) rightly identified.

c

b

a

d

a b c d

(1) Rhizoids Capsule Seta Main axis

(2) Mains axis

Seta Roots Capsule

(3) Rhizoids Capsule Main axis

Seta

(4) Main axis

Seta Rhizoids Capsule

fuEu fp=k dks nsf[k, o fn, pkj Hkkxksa esa (a, b,c o d) lgh

fodYi dk pquko dhft,

c

b

a

d

a b c d

(1) ewykHkkl lEiqV lhV

lEiqV

eq[;

v{k

(2) eq[;

v{k

lhVk ewys lEiqV

(3) ewykHkkl lEiqV eq[;

v{k

lhVk

(4) eq[;

v{k

lhVk ewykHkkl lEiqV

6.

a

b

c

d

On the basis of above diagram select the wrong

statement. (1) (b) The characteristic feature of Angiosperms (2) (d) is enucleated at maturity & living (3) (a) is usually absent, in monocot stem (4) (d) maintains the pressure gradient

a

b

c

d

mijksDr fp=k ds vk/kkj ij xyr dFku dks pqfu;s

(1) (b)-vko`Ùkchth; ikniksa dk vfHky{k.k gS

(2) (d)-ifjiDork ij vdsfUnzdh; gksrh gS rFkk thfor

gksrh gS

(3) (a)-,dchti=kh rus esa lkekU;r;k vuqifLFkr gksrh gS

(4) (d)-nkcizo.krk dks cuk;s j[krh gS

7. What is common between active transport and

facilitated diffusion. (1) Require ATP as energy (2) Uphill transport (3) Respond to inhibitors & are under hormonal

regulation (4) None of the above lfØ; ifjogu rFkk lqlk/; folj.k esa D;k mHk;fu"B gS&

(1) ATP ds :i esa ÅtkZ dh vko';drk

(2) vifgy ifjogu

(3) fujks/kdksa ds izfr vuqfØ;k djrs gSa rFkk gkekZsUk fu;eu

esa gksrs gS

(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha






SAMPLE TEST PAPER

02

8. Chlamydomonas, rhizopus, mycoplasma,

nitrobacter, spirogyra, methanogens, gonyaulax, volvox, porphyra, chlorella, pinus, marchantia, albugo, euglena

above groups of organisms can be placed in how many kingdoms

DysekbMkseksukWl] jkbtksil] ekbdksIykWTek] ukbVªkscSDVj]

Likbjksxk;jk] feFksukstUl] xksfu;ksysDl] okWyokWDl]

iksjQk;jk] Dyksjsyk] ikbul] ekdsZfU'k;k] ,Ycqxks] ;qXyhuk

thoksa ds mijksDr lewgksa dks fdrus txr~ esa j[kk tk ldrk

gS&

(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2

9. Give below the following statements

(a) Cell wall in many members of phycomycetes is composed of cellulose.

(b) The mycelium of deuteromycetes is aseptate & unbranched & Asexual reproduction is performed by conidia.

(c) In ascomycetes, conidia are produced exogenously on conidiophores.

(d) Trichoderma is used to control fungal diseases in plants.

(e) Bread and beer are manufactured by yeast How many statements are correct (1) 2 (2) 5 (3) 3 (4) 4 uhps fuEu dFku fn;s x;s gS&

(a) QkbdksekbflVht ds vusd lnL;ksa esa dksf'kdk fHkfÙk

lsY;wykst dh cuh gksrh gS

(b) M~;wVsjksekbflVht dk dodtky iVghu rFkk 'kkf[kr

gksrk gS rFkk vySafxd tuu dksfufM;k }kjk gksrk gS

(c) ,LdksekbflVht esa dksfufM;k] dksfufM;ksQkslZ ij

cfgZtkr :i ls mRiUu gksrs gSa

(d) VªkbdksMekZ ikniksa esa dod jksxksa ds fu;a=k.k esa iz;qDr

gksrk gS

(e) czsM rFkk ch;j ;hLV }kjk fufeZr gksrh gaS

fdrus dFku lgh gSa&

(1) 2 (2) 5 (3) 3 (4) 4

10. By which character of euglena show

resemblance with plants (1) Presence of same reserve food (2) Presence of pigments chl a, b (3) presence of cellulosic cell wall (4)presence of holophytic and holozoic nutrition. ;qXyhuk fdl y{k.k ds }kjk ikniksa ds lkFk lekUkrk n'kkZrk

gS&

(1) leku lafpr HkksT; inkFkZ dh mifLFkfr esa

(2) chl a, b o.kZdksa dh mifLFkfr esa

(3) lsY;wyksftd dksf'kdk fHkfÙk dh mifLFkfr esa

(4) gksyksQkbfVd rFkk gksykstksbd iks"k.k dh mifLFkfr esa

11. In which type of chromosome the centromere is

situated close to its end forming one extremely short and one very long arm.

(1) sub metacentric (2) Telocentric (3) metacentric (4) Acrocentric fdl izdkj ds xq.klw=k esa lsUVªksfe;j fljs ds utnhd gksrk

gSftlls ,d vR;ar NksVh o ,d cgqr yEch Hkqtk curh gS&

(1) lcesVklsfUVªd (2) VhykslsfUVªd

(3) esVklsfUVªd (4) ,ØkslsfUVªd

12. Which of the following is not correct

(1) Both Bryophytes and pteridophytes bear zooliogamy

(2) Aplanogamy is observed in spirogyra (3) Secondary protonema forms leafy stage in

mosses (4) chl - a, c,d r-phycoerythrin pigment are found

in brown algae fuEu esa ls dkSulk lgh ugha gSa&

(1) czk;ksQkbV~l rFkk VsfjMksQkbV~l nksuksa esa twfM;ksxseh

ik;h tkrh gS

(2) Likbjksxk;jk esa ,Iysuksxseh ik;h tkrh gS

(3) ekWl esa f}rh;d izksVksfuek if.kZy izkoLFkk cukrh gS

(4) chl-a, d, r-QkbdksbfjfFkzu o.kZd Hkwjs 'kSokyksa esa ik;s

tkrs gSa

13. During cell division, sister chromatids separate

during (1) Telophase-I (2) Anaphase-I (3) Mataphase-II (4) Anaphase-II dksf'kdk foHkktu ds nkSjku flLVj ØksesfVM~l fdl le;

i`Fkd gksrh gSa&

(1) VhyksQst-I (2) ,ukQst-I

(3) esVkQst-II (4) ,ukQst-II

14. Select the wrong pair

(A) (B)

(1) Mo Activator of nitrogenase

(2) sulphur Constituent of ferredoxin & chlorophyll

(3) Calcium Formation of spindle

(4) Iron activator of catalase & required for chlorophyll formation

xyr ;qXe dks pqfu;s&

(A) (B)

(1) Mo ukbVªksftust dk lfØ;d

(2) lYQj QsfjMkWfDlu rFkk DyksjksfQy dk ?kVd

(3) dsfY'k;e rdqZ dk fuekZ.k

(4) ykSg dsVkyst dk lfØ;d rFkk DyksjksfQy

fuekZ.k ds fy;s vko';d

15. Filteration of sugar and fruit juice is utilisation of

(1) Slime mould (2) Diatomous earth (3) Spirulina (4) Dinoflagellates 'kdZjkvksa rFkk Qyksa ds jl dk fQYVªs'ku fdldk mi;ksx

gS&

(1) Lykbe eksYM~l dk (2) MkbVe i`Foh dk

(3) Likb:fyuk dk (4) Mkbuks¶ysfTkysV~l dk

16. Whenaver the elements are relatively immobile

and are not transperted out of the mature organs, the deficiency symptoms tend to appear first in

(1) Older tissues (2) Young tissues (3) Both older and young tissues simultaneous (4) None of the above






SAMPLE TEST PAPER

02

tc dHkh Hkh rRo vkisf{kd :i ls vpy gksrs gSa rFkk

ifjiDo vaXkksa ls ckgj ifjofgr ugha gksrs gSa rks U;wurk ds

y{k.k fdlesa lcls igys izdV gksrs gSa&

(1) iqjkus ÅÙkdksa esa

(2) ;qok ÅÙkdksa esa

(3) iqjkus ÅÙkdkssa rFkk ;qok ÅÙkdksa nksuksa esa

(4) mijksDr dksbZ ugha

17. Stroma lamellae membranes lack

(1) PS-II (2) PS-I (3) PS-I and NADP reductase enzyme (4) PS-II and NADP-reductase enzyme LVªksek ysfeyh dh dykvksa esa D;k vuqifLFkr gksrk gS&

(1) PS-II (2) PS-I (3) PS-I rFkk NADP fjMDVst ,Utkbe

(4) PS-II rFkk NADP fjMDVst ,Utkbe

18. Which of the following is function of auxins

(1)IAA is used to spead up the malting process in brewing insdustry

(2) They initiate lateral shoot growth and adventitius shoot formation

(3) IBA promotes female flowers in cucumbers (4) 2, 4-D is widely used to kill dicotyledonous

weeds. fuEu esa dkSulk vkWfDlu dk dk;Z gS&

(1) IAA dk mi;ksx e| O;olk; esa ekfYVax izØe dh nj

c<+kus esa fd;k tkrk gS

(2) ;s ik'oZ izjksg dh o`f) rFkk viLFkkfud izjksg fuekZ.k

dks izsfjr djrk gS

(3) IBA ddM+h esa eknk iq"iu dks izsfjr djrk gS

(4) 2, 4-D dk mi;ksx cMs+ iSekus ij f}chti=kh;

[kjirokjksa dks u"V djus esa fd;k tkrk gS

19. Stem tendrils are found in

(1) Grapevines (2) Pea (3) Smilax (4) Glory lily izjksg izrku fdlesa ik;s tkrs gSa&

(1) vaxwj (2) eVj

(3) LekbysDl (4) Xyksjhfyfy

20. Match the column

(A) (B) (i) Bacteriophage a. Mycorrhiza (ii) Pinus b. Ustilago (iii) Smut c.Gelidium & gracillaria (iv) Agar-agar d. Gammae (v) Marchantia e. Double stranded DNA (1) i-c, ii-a iii-b, iv-c, v-d (2) i-a, ii-d iii-c, iv-b, v-a (3) i-e, ii-a iii-d, iv-b, v-c (4) i-e, ii-a iii-b, iv-c, v-d dkWye lqesfyr dhft,&

(A) (B) (i) thok.kqHkksth a. ekbdksjkbtk

(ii) ikbul b. vfLVysxks

(iii) daM c.fxfyfM;e rFkk xzsflysfj;k

(iv) vxj&vxj d. xSeh

(v) ekdsZfU'k;k e. f}lw=kh DNA

(1) i-c, ii-a iii-b, iv-c, v-d (2) i-a, ii-d iii-c, iv-b, v-a (3) i-e, ii-a iii-d, iv-b, v-c (4) i-e, ii-a iii-b, iv-c, v-d

21. What is common between bryophytes and

pteridophytes (1) Absence of roots (2) requirement of water for fertilization (3) Presence of vascular tissues (4) Presenced of independent sporophyte and

independent gametophyte czk;ksQkbV~l rFkk VsfjMksQkbV~l esa D;k mHk;fu"B gS

(1) ewyksa dh vuqifLFkfr

(2) fu"kspu ds fy;s ty dh vko';drk

(3) laogu ÅÙkdksa dh mifLFkfr

(4) Lora=k LiksjksQkbV rFkk Lora=k xsfeVksQkbV dh

mifLFkfr

22. Which of the following pair is wrongly matched

while the remaining three are correct (1) Deuteromycetes - Fungi imperfecti (2) Strawberry - Stolon (3) Stilt roots - Sugarcane (4) Pea seeds - Coleorrhiza fuEu esa ls dkSu lk ;qXe xyr gS tcfd 'ks"k rhu lgh gS

(1) M~;wVsjksekbflVht - QtkbZ bEijQSDVh

(2) LVªkcsjh - HkwLrkjh

(3) fLVYV ewysa - xUuk

(4) eVj ds cht - dksfy;ksjkbtk

23. Alternate, simple leave with reticulate venation

are present in (1) Mustard (2) Guava (3) Alstonia (4) Nerium fuEu esa fdlesa ,dkUrfjr] lk/kkj.k i.kZ o tkfydkor

f'kjkfoU;kl iznf'kZr gksrk gSA

(1) ljlksa (2) ve:n

(3) vkYlVksfu;k (4) uhfj;e

24. Select the wrong statements

(a) Reserve food material is floridian starch in brown algae

(b) Alginic acid obtains from Chondrus crispus (red algae)

(c) The no. of flagella of Phaeophyceae is two, heterokont & lateral in position

(d) Oogamy is observed in Volvox & Fucus (1) a, d (2) a, c (3) b, c (4) a, b vlR; dFku Nk¡fV;sa

(a) Hkwjs 'kSokyksa esa lafpr HkksT; inkFkZ ¶yksfjfM;u LVkpZ

gksrk gS

(b) ,fYtfud vEy] dkWUMªl fØLil ¼yky 'kSoky½ ls izkIr

gksrk gS

(c) fQ;ksQkblh esa d'kkHkksa dh la[;k nks gksrh gS rFkk os

gsVsjksdkWUV o ik'oZ fLFkfr esa gksrs gSa

(d) v.M;qXedrk okWYkokWDl rFkk ¶;wdl esa ik;h tkrh gS

(1) a, d (2) a, c (3) b, c (4) a, b






SAMPLE TEST PAPER

02

25. Ginger is homologous to

(1) Sweet potato (2) Turnip (3) Onion (4) Mango ginger vnjd fuEu esa fdlds letkr gS

(1) 'kdjdUn (2) pqdUnj

(3) I;kt (4) vkek gYnh

26. What would happen if oxygen availability to

activated sludge flocs is reduced? (1) It will slow down the rate of degradation of

organic matter. (2) The centre of flocs will become anoxic,

which would cause death of bacteria and eventually breakage of flocs.

(3) Flocs would increase in size as anaerobic bacteria would grow around flocs.

(4) Protozoa would grow in large numbers D;k ?kfVr gksxk ;fn lfØr Lyt ¶ykWDl dks vkWDlhtu

dh miyC/krk ?kV tkrh gS\

(1) ;g dkcZfud inkFkZ ds vi?kVu dh nj dks de dj

nsxk

(2) ¶ykWDl dk dsUnz vukWDlh gks tk;sxk] ftlds dkj.k

thok.kq dh e`R;q vkSj lkFk gh ¶ykWDl dk fo?kVu gks tk;sxk

(3) ¶ykWDl vkdkj esa c<+ tk;sxsa D;ksafd ¶ykWDl ds pkjksa

vksj vukWDlh thok.kq o`f) dj tk;saxs

(4) cM+h la[;k esa izksVkstksvk o`f) djsaxsA

27. Which of the following sponge can bore through

the oyster shell and is harmful for pearl industry?

(1) Chalina (2) Cliona (3) Ciona (4) Hyalonema

fuEu esa ls dkSulk Liat vkW,LVj ds dop esa Nsn dj

ldrk gS] rFkk ;g eqDrk m|ksx ds fy, gkfudkjd gksrk

gS?

(1) dsfyuk (2) fDyvksuk

(3) lhvksuk- (4) gk;yksuhek

28. Botryoidal tissue is found in (1) Hirudinaria (2) Pheretima (3) Rabbit (4) Ascaris cksfVª;ksMy Ård ik;k tkrk gS&

(1) fg:fMusfj;k esa (2) QsjsfVek esa

(3) [kjxks'k esa (4) ,sLdsfjl esa

29. Which is not an aerial adaptation of birds?

(1) Gizzard (2) Single ovary (3) Pneumatic bone (4) Keeled sternum if{k;ksa dk fuEu esa ls dkSulk ,d ok;oh; vuqdwyu ugh

gSa\

(1) is"k.kh (2) ,dy v.Mk'k;

(3) U;wesfVd vfLFk (4) uksryuqeh mjksfLFk

30. In which one of the following sets of animals do

all the four are not oviparous? (1) Shrew, Bat, Cat, Kiwi (2) Lion, Bat, Whale, Ostrich (3) Kangaroo, Hedgehog, Dolphin, Loris (4) Platypus, Penguin, Bat, Hippopotamus

tUrqvksa ds fuEu leqPP;ksa esa ls fdl ,d esa lHkh pkjksa

v.Mtud ugh gSa\

(1) NNqanj] pexknM+] fcYyh] dhoh

(2) 'ksj] pexknM+] àsy] 'krqjewxZ

(3) daxk:] gstgksx] MkfYQu] yksfjl

(4) IysfVil] isaxqbu] pexknM+] nj;kbZ ?kksM+k

31. There will be almost no regeneration after

destruction of (1) Areolar tissue (2) Blood (3) epidermis (4) Cochlea fdlds u"B gksus ds i'pkr~ dksbZ ih<+h ugh gksxh\

(1) ok;oh; Ård (2) jä

(3) vf/kpeZ (4) dksfDy;k

32. Which of the following is true w.r.t. shafts of long

bones of mammals? (1) Yellow bone marrow (2) Cancellous bone (3) Scattered bone marrow (4) Both (2) and (3) fuEu esa ls dkSulk] Lrfu;ksa dh yach vfLFk;ksa dh 'kk¶V ds

lEcU/k esa lgh gSa&

(1) ihyk vfLFk eTtk

(2) dsUlsyl vfLFk

(3) fc[kjk gqvk vfLFk eTTkk

(4) (2) rFkk (3) nksuksa

33. Unfertilized eggs of honey bees develop into.

(1) sterile males (2) fertile males (3) sterile females (4) fertile females e/kqefD[k;ksa ds vfu"ksfpr v.Msa fodflr gksrs gSa&

(1) ca/; ujksa esa (2) tuu{ke ujksa esa

(3) ca/; eknkvksa esa (4) tuu{ke eknkvksa esa

34. Which of the following glands in the cockroach

are active in the adult and secrete gonadotropic hormone to regulate development and functioning of the reproductive organs?

(1) Inter-cerebral gland cells (2) Corpora cardiaca (3) Corpora allata (4) Prothoracic gland frypês esa fuEu esa ls dkSulh xzfUFk o;Ld esa lfØ; gksrh

gSa rFkk tuu vaxksa ds fodkl rFkk dk;Ziz.kkyh dks fu;fer

djus ds fy, xksusMksVªksfid gkeksZu dk óko.k djrh gS\

(1) varj&izefLr"d xzfUFk dksf'kdk,sa

(2) dkWiksZjk dkfMZ;dk

(3) dkWiksZjk ,ykVk

(4) izksFkksjsfld xzfUFk

35. Which of the following homopolymer of fructose

is not metabolised in human body and is readily filtered through the kidney?

(1) Amylopectin (2) Inulin (3) Chitin (4) Glycogen fuEu esa ls dkSulk ÝDVkst dk lecgqyd gS rFkk ekuo

'kjhj esa mikipf;r ugh gksrk gS vkSj o`ô }kjk iw.kZr%

fuL;afnr gks tkrk gS\

(1) ,ekbyksisfDVu (2) buwfyu

(3) dkbfVu (4) XYkkbdkstu






SAMPLE TEST PAPER

02

36. Which of the following is sulphur containing

amino acid? (1) Glutamate (2) Serine (3) Methionine (4) Arginine fuEu esa ls dkSulk] lYQj;qä vehuks vEy gS\

(1) XywVkesV (2) lsjhu

(3) ehfFkvksfuu (4) vkftZuhu

37. Which of the following property can't be linked to

the secondary metabolites? (1) Derivatives of primary metabolites (2) Produced in small quantities (3) Not part of basic molecular structure (4) Found from the start of plant life fuEu esa ls dkSulk xq.k f}rh;d mikip;tkssa ls ugh tksM+k

tk ldrk\

(1) izkFkfed mikip;tks ds O;qRié

(2) de ek=kkvksa esa mRikfnr gksrs gSa

(3) v/kkjHkwr lajpuk dk Hkkx ugh

(4) ikni thou ds izkjEHk ls ik;s tkrs gS

38. Which one is different form the category of other

three? (1) Gastrin (2) Glucagon (3) Ptyalin (4) Secretin fuEu esa ls dkSu ,d] rhu vU; dh Js.kh ls fHké gS\

(1) xsLVªhu (2) XywdsxkWu

(3) Vk;fyu (4) lhØsfVu

39. Which of the following enzyme is responsible for

activation of chymotrypsinogen into chymotrypsin?

(1) Enterokinase (2) Enteropeptidase (3) Trypsin (4) Enterocrinin fuEu esa ls dkSulk ,UTkkbe] dkbeksfVªfIlukstu dk

dkbeksfVªfIlu esa lfØ;.k ds fy, mÙkjnk;h gS\

(1) ,UVsjksdkbust (2) ,UVsjksisIVkbMst

(3) fVªfIlu (4) ,UVsjksØkbfuu

40. What volume of oxygen is transported by one

litre of oxygenated blood under normal condition?

(1) 150ml (2) 15 ml (3) 200ml (4) 50 ml lkekU; fLFkfr esa vkWDlhtu;qä jä ds ,d yhVj }kjk

vkWDlhtu ds fdrus vk;ru dk ifjogu fd;k tkrk gS\

(1) 150 feyh yhVj (2) 15 feyh yhVj

(3) 200 feyh yhVj (4) 50 feyh yhVj

PART - II (PHYSICS) : Hkkx - II (HkkSfrd&foKku)





fodYi (1), (2), (3) rFkk (4) gSa, ftuesa ls flQZ ,d lgh

gSA

41. A ,B and C are certainly coplanar vectors if

A ,B vkSj C dh rhu leryh; lfn'k gksxsa ;fn

(1) A . B C 0 (2) A B C 0

(3) A B.C 0 (4) A . B.C 0

42. Work done in time t on a body of mass m which

is accelerated from rest to a speed v in time t1 as a function of time t is given by

m æO;eku dk ,d fi.M fojke ls t1 le; esa v osx çkIr

dj ysrk gSA bl fi.M ij t le; esa fd;k x;k dk;Z] le;

t ds Qyu ds #i esa gksxk

(1) 2

1

1 vm t

2 t (2)

2

1

vm t

t

(3)

2

2

1

1 m vt

2 t

(4)

2

2

2

1

1 vm t

2 t

43. Slope of Velocity - time graph of an object (mass

= 5 kg) is zero from fdlh oLrq (nzO;eku = 5 kg) ds osx≤ xzkQ dk <yku

'kwU; dc gksxkA

–30

30

0 10 20 30 40 55t

V

(1) 0-10 sec (2) 10-20 sec (3) 20-30 sec (4) 30-40 sec

44. A body of mass 2 kg slides down a curved track

which is quadrant of a circle of radius 1 metre. All the surfaces are frictionless. If the body starts from rest, its speed at the bottom of the track is

,d 2 kg æO;eku dk fi.M] 1 m f=kT;k ds o`Ùkh; prqFkk±'k

ds oØh; iFk ij (fp=kkuqlkj) fQlyrk gSA lHkh i`"B ?k"kZ.k

jfgr gSaA ;fn fi.M fojkekoLFkk ls pyuk çkjEHk djs] rks iFk

dh ryh ij bldh pky gS

1m

1m

(1) 4.43 m/sec (2) 2 m/sec (3) 0.5 m/sec (4) 19.6 m/sec

45. Slope of this curve is : bl oØ dk <ky %

(1) continuously increasing (2) continuously decreasing (3) first increases and then decreases (4) first decreases and then increases






SAMPLE TEST PAPER

02

(1) yxkrkj c<+ jgk gSA

(2) yxkrkj ?kV jgk gSA

(3) igys c<+ jgk gS fQj ?kV jgk gSA

(4) igys ?kV jgk gS fQj c<+ jgk gSA

46. The mass of the moon is 1

8 1 of the earth but the

gravitational pull is 1

6 of the earth. It is due to

the fact that

(1) The radius of the moon is 8 1

6 of the earth

(2) The radius of the earth is 9

6

of the moon

(3) Moon is the satellite of the earth (4) None of the above

pUnzek dk nzO;eku i`Foh ds nzO;eku dk 1

8 1 rFkk

xq#Rokd"kZ.k cy i`Foh ds xq#Rokd"kZ.k cy dk 1

6 gSA bldk

rkRi;Z gS fd

(1) pUnzek dh f=kT;k] i`Foh dh f=kT;k dh 8 1

6 gS

(2) i`Foh dh f=kT;k pUnzek dh f=kT;k dh 9

6

gS

(3) pUnzek i`Foh dk mixzg gS

(4) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha

47. A balloon is at a height of 10 m and is ascending

upwards with a velocity of 5 m/s. A body of 2 kg

weight is dropped from it. If g = 10 m/s2, the body will reach the surface of the earth in

(1) 1sec (2) 4 sec (3) 5 sec (4) None of these ,d xqCckjk 10 m dh Å¡pkbZ ij gS rFkk ;g Åij dh vksj

5 m/s ds osx ls mB jgk gSA mlls 2 kg Hkkj dh ,d oLrq

fxjk;h tkrh gSA ;fn g = 10 m/s2 gks rks ;g oLrq i`Foh

ry ij fdrus le; esa igq¡psxh

(1) 1sec (2) 4 sec (3) 5 sec (4) bues ls dksbZ ugh

48. A uniform rod of density is placed in a wide

tank containing a liquid of density 0(0 > ). The depth of liquid in the tank is half the length of the rod. The rod is in equilibrium, with its lower end resting on the bottom of the tank. In this position

the rod makes an angle with the horizontal

,d ,dleku NM+ ftldk ?kuRo gS, 0 ?kuRo ds 0 >

æo ls Hkjs gq;s ,d VSad esa j[kh gSA VSad esa æo NM+ dh

yEckbZ ls vk/kh Å¡pkbZ rd Hkjk gSA NM+ bl çdkj

lkE;koLFkk esa gS fd mldk fupyk fljk VSad ds iasnsa dks Nw

jgk gS o NM+ {kSfrt ls 60º dks.k cuk jgh gSA rks

(1) 0

1s in /

2 (2) 01

s in .2

(3) 0

s in / (4) 0

s in /

49. In the one-dimensional motion of a particle, the

relation between position x (in meter) and time t

is given by x = t2 –4t + 6. Then the displacement in the interval from t = 0 to t = 4 sec. is

fdlh ,d foeh; xfr esa d.k dh fLFkfr x (ehVj esa) rFkk

le; t esa lEcU/k x = t2 –4t + 6 ds }kjk fn;k tkrk gSA t

= 0 ls t = 4 sec. le;vUrjky esa r; dh xbZ foLFkkiu

gksxhA

(1) 2 m (2) 0 m (3) 6 m (4) 8 m

50. There are two identical small holes of area of

cross-section a on the opposite sides of a tank

containing a liquid of density . The difference in height between the holes is h. Tank is resting on a smooth horizontal surface. Horizontal force which will has to be applied on the tank to keep it in equilibrium is

fdlh æo ¼?kuRo ½ ls Hkjs ik=k dh nhokjksa esa foijhr vksj

leku {ks=kQy a ds nks fNæ ¼fp=kkuqlkj½ gSaA fNæksa dh

Å¡pkbZ;ksa esa vaarj h gSA ik=k {kSfrt ?k"kZ.k jfgr ry ij j[kk

gSA og {kSfrt cy tks ik=k dks lkE;koLFkk esa j[kus ds fy,

vko';d gS, gksxk

h

(1) gha (2) 2 g h

a

(3) 2agh (4) g h

a

51. An astronaut is on the surface of other planet

whose air resistance is negligible. To measure the acceleration due to gravity (g), he throws a stone vertically upwards. He observer that the stone reaches to a maximum height of 20m and reaches the surface 8 second after it was thrown. The acceleration due to gravity (g) on the surface

of that planet will be (in m/s2): ,d vUrfj{k ;k=kh vU; xzg dh lrg ij gS ftldk ok;q

izfrjks/k ux.; gSA xq:Ro ds dkj.k Roj.k (g) ds ekiu ds

fy, og ,d iRFkj dks Å/okZ/kj Åij Qasdrk gSA og izsf{kr

djrk gS fd iRFkj }kjk izkIr vf/kdre~ ÅWpkbZ 10m gS rFkk

;g lrg ij Qsadus ds 4 lSds.M i'pkr~ okil vkrk gSA bl

xzg dh lrg ij xq:Ro ds dkj.k Roj.k (g) dk eku m/s2

esa gksxk%

(1) 5 (2) 2.5 (3) 10 (4) 8






SAMPLE TEST PAPER

02

52. Which of the following graph represents

retardation ? [v : velocity, t : time ; x : position] fuEu esa ls dkSulks vkjs[k eanu çnf'kZr djrs gS ? [ v : osx,

t : le; ; x : fLFkfr ]

(1) t

v

(2) t

v

(3)

t

x

(4)

t

x

53. A wooden block of mass M rests on a horizontal

surface. A bullet of mass m moving in the horizontal direction strikes and gets embedded in it. The combined system covers a distance x on the surface. If the coefficient of friction between

wood and the surface is , the speed of the bullet at the time of striking the block is (where m is mass of the bullet)

ydMh dk ,d CykWd ftldk æO;eku M gS ,d {kSfrt lrg

ij j[kk gSA ,d cUnwd dh xksyh {kSfrt fn'kk esa xfr djrh

gqbZ blls Vdjkdj mlesa /k¡l tkrh gS, ftlls xksyh lfgr

CykWd lrg ij x nwjh rd xfr djrk gSA ;fn lrg vkSj

CykWd ds chp ?k"kZ.k xq.kkad gks] rks CykWd ls Vdjkrs le;

xksyh dk osx gS (tgk¡ m xksyh dk æO;eku gS)

(1) 2M g

m (2)

2 m g

M x

(3) M m

2 g xm

(4) 2 m x

M m

54. A stretched wire of length 110 cm is divided into

three segments whose frequencies are in ratio 1 : 2 : 3. Their lengths must be

,d ruh gq;h Mksjh dh yEckbZ 110 cm gSA ;g Mksjh rhu

[k.Mks esa dfEir gksrh gS ftudh vko`fÙk;ksa dk vuqikr

1 : 2 : 3 gSA bu [k.Mksa dh yEckbZ;ksa dk vuqikr gksxk

(1) 20 cm ; 30 cm ; 60 cm (2) 60 cm ; 30 cm ; 20 cm (3) 60 cm ; 20 cm ; 30 cm (4) 30 cm ; 60 cm ; 20 cm

55. The correct statement from the following is

(1) A body having zero velocity will not necessarily have zero acceleration

(2) A body having zero velocity will necessarily have zero acceleration

(3) A body having uniform speed can have only uniform acceleration

(4) A body having non-uniform velocity will have zero acceleration

fuEu dFkuksa esa ls lR; dFku gS

(1) fdlh fi.M dk osx 'kwU; gksus ij mldk Roj.k 'kwU; gks

;g vko’;d ugha gS

(2) fdlh fi.M dk osx 'kwU; gksus ij Roj.k fuf'pr #i ls

'kwU; gksxk

(3) dksbZ fi.M tc ,d leku pky ls xfr djrk gS rc

mldk Roj.k ,d leku gksxk

(4) dksbZ fi.M tc vleku osx ls xfr djrk gS rc mldk

Roj.k 'kwU; gksxk

56. Newton's first law of motion describes the

following (1) Energy (2) Work (3) Inertia (4) Moment of inertia U;wVu dk xfr dk izFke fu;e fuEu dks O;ä djrk gS

(1) ÅtkZ (2) dk;Z

(3) tM+Ro (4) tM+Ro vk?kw.kZ

57. A wooden block, with a coin placed on its top,

floats in water as shown in fig. the distance l and h are shown there. After some time the coin falls into the water. Then

Coin

l

h

(1) l decreases and h increases (2) l increases and h decreases (3) Both l and h increase (4) Both l and h decrease ydM+h dk ,d xqVdk ikuh esa fp=kkuqlkj rSj jgk gSA mlds

mPp ry ij ,d flDdk j[kk gSA nwfj;k¡ l o h çnf'kZr gSaA

;fn dqN le; i'pkr~ flDdk ikuh esa fxj tk;s rks

fl Ddk

l

h

(1) l dk eku ?kVsxk o h c<+sxk

(2) l dk eku c<+sxk o h ?kVsxk

(3) l o h nksuksa c<+saxs

(4) l o h nksuksa ?kVsaxs

58. An object will continue moving uniformly until

(1) The resultant force acting on it begins to decrease

(2) The resultant force on it is zero (3) The resultant force is at right angle to its

rotation (4) The resultant force on it is increased

continuously ,d oLrq rc rd ,dleku xfr djrh jgsxh] tc rd

(1) ml ij yxus okys ifj.kkeh cyksa dk eku ?kVus yxrk gS

(2) ml ij ifj.kkeh cy 'kwU; gS

(3) ifj.kkeh cy mlds ?kweus dh fn'kk ds yEcor~ gS

(4) ifj.kkeh cy dk eku yxkrkj c<+rk pyk tk;s






SAMPLE TEST PAPER

02

59. A small mass slides down an inclined plane of

inclination with the horizontal. The co-efficient

of friction is = 0 x where x is the distance

through which the mass slides down and 0, a

constant. Then the speed is maximum after the mass covers a distance of

,d NksVk nzO;eku {kSfrt ls dks.k cukus okys urry ij

uhps fQlyrk gSA ?k"kZ.k xq.kkad = 0 x gS tgk¡ x og nwjh

gS ftruk nzO;eku uhps fQlyrk gS ,oa 0 ,d fu;rkad gSA

nzO;eku }kjk r; dh xbZ og nwjh] ftlds ckn pky

vf/kdre gS] gksxh &

(1)

0

c o s

(2)

0

s in

(3)

0

ta n

(4)

0

2 ta n

60. A particle of mass 5 kg is moving on rough fixed

inclined plane (making an angle 30° with horizontal) with constant velocity of 5 m/s as shown in the figure. Find the friction force acting

on a body by the inclined plane.(take g = 10m/s2) 5 kg nzO;eku dk ,d d.k ,d fLFkj [kqjnjs ur ry ¼tks

{kSfrt ls 30° dk dks.k cukrk gS½ ij fn[kk;s fp=kkuqlkj 5

m/s ds fu;r osx ls xfr djrk gSA ur ry }kjk d.k ij

yxus okyk ?k"kZ.k cy Kkr dhft,A ( g = 10m/s2)

(1) 25 N (2) 20 N (3) 30 N (4) none of these buesa ls dksbZ ugh

PART - III (CHEMISTRY):Hkkx-III (jlk;u foKku)

Atomic masses (ijek.kq Hkkj) : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7, C

= 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24, Al = 27, Si = 28, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65, As = 75, Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, Hg = 200, Pb = 207]






gSA

61. What is the free energy change (G) when 1.0

mole of water at 100ºC and 1 atm pressure is converted into steam at 100ºC and 1 atm pressure ?

(1) 80 cal (2) 540 cal (3) 620 cal (4) Zero

eqDr ÅtkZ ifjorZu (G) D;k gS] tc 100ºC o 1 atm

nkc ij 1.0 eksy ty dks Hkki ¼100ºC o 1 atm nkc ij½

esa ifjofrZr fd;k tkrk gS \

(1) 80 cal (2) 540 cal (3) 620 cal (4) 'kwU;

62. In view of their ionisation energies, the alkali

metals are : (1) weak oxidising agents (2) strong reducing agents (3) strong oxidising agents (4) weak reducing agents vk;uu ÅtkZvksa ds vk/kkj ij {kkjh; /kkrq,sa gksrh gS :

(1) nqcZy vkWDlhdkjd vfHkdeZd

(2) izcy vipk;d vfHkdeZd

(3) izcy vkWDlhdkjd vfHkdeZd

(4) nqcZy vipk;d vfHkdeZd

63. Sodium metal can be stored under :

(1) benzene (2) kerosene (3) alcohol (4) water

lksfM;e /kkrq dk laxzg.k (stored) fd;k tkrk gSA

(1) csUthu esa (2) dsjkslhu esa

(3) ,YdksgkWy esa (4) ty esa

64. The most electropositive amongst the alkaline

earth metals is : {kkjh; e`nk /kkrqvksa esa vf/kdre fo|qr /kukRed /kkrq gS %

(1) Be (2) Mg (3) Ca (4) Ba

65. The oxidation states of Sulphur in the anions

SO32– , S2O4

2– and S2O62– follow the order :

SO32– , S2O4

2– rFkk S2O62– esa lYQj dh vkWDlhdj.k

voLFkk dk Øe gS %

(1) S2O62– < S2O4

2 < SO32–

(2) S2O42– < SO3

2– < S2O62–

(3) SO32– < S2O4

2– < S2O62–

(4) S2O42 < S2O6

2– < SO32–

66. Boric acid is polymeric due to :

(1) its acidic nature (2) the presence of hydrogen bonds (3) its monobasic nature (4) its geometry cksfjd vEy fdlds dkj.k cgqyd gS %

(1) bldh vEyh; izd`fr ds dkj.k

(2) gkbMªkstu cU/k dh mifLFkfr ds dkj.k

(3) bldh ,dy {kkjh; izd`fr ds dkj.k

(4) bldh T;kferh ds dkj.k

67. The structural unit present in pyrosillicates is :

ik;jksflfydsV esa mifLFkr lajpukRed bdkbZ fuEu gSa %

(1) Si3O96– (2) SiO4

4– (3) Si2O7

6– (4) (Si2O52–)n

68. For the reaction 4NO2(g)+O2(g) 2N2O5(g),

which of the following facts holds good ? (1) Kp = Kc (2) Kp > Kc (3) Kp< Kc (4) Kp and Kc cannot be correlated unless

pressure of the system is provided






SAMPLE TEST PAPER

02

vfHkfØ;k 4NO2(g) + O2(g) 2N2O5(g) ds fy,]

dkSulk rF; lgh gS\

(1) Kp = Kc (2) Kp > Kc (3) Kp< Kc (4) fudk; ds nkc dh vuqifLFkfr esa Kp rFkk Kc dks lEcaf/kr

ugha dj ldrs gSA

69. For the reaction N2O4(g) 2NO2(g) H =

57.49 kJ /mole, the vapour density of equilibrium mixture............. with increases of temperature.

(1) increases (2) decreases (3) Remain same (4) can not be predicted

vfHkfØ;k N2O4(g) 2NO2(g) ds fy, H =

57.49 kJ /mole gS rks rki c<+kus ds lkFk lkE; feJ.k ds

ok"i ?kuRo esa ............. gksrh gSA

(1) o`f) (2) deh

(3) leku (4) O;k[;k ugha dj ldrs

70. A child bought a balloon which became very

small in size the next day. Which is correct statement about ballon ?

(1) It is isolated system (2) It is an open system. (3) It is a closed system (4) It exchanges only energy with the

surrounding. ,d ckyd ,d xqCckjk yk;k tks fd vxys fnu cgqr NksVk

gks x;kA xqCckjs ds laca/k esa dkSulk dFku lgh gS\

(1) ;g ,d foyfxr ra=k gSA

(2) ;g [kqyh ra=k (open system) gSA

(3) ;g cUn ra=k gSA

(4) ;g okrkoj.k ls dsoy ÅtkZ dk fofu;e djrk gSA

71. In the isothermal reversible compression of 52.0

m mol of a perfect gas at 260 K, the volume of the gas is reduced to one-third of its initial value. Calculate w for this process.

260 K rki ij ,d iw.kZ xSl ds 52.0 m mol ds lerkih;

mRØe.kh; lEihM+u esa] xSl dk vk;ru ?kVdj blds

çkjfEHkd eku dk ,d&frgkbZ jg tkrk gSA bl çØe ds

fy, w dk eku D;k gS %

(1) 0 (2) +123 J (3) –123 J (4) +246 J

72. It the following processes, identify the irreversible

process : fuEu izfØ;k dks nsf[k;s] vuqRØe.kh; izfØ;k dks igpkfu;sA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

73. Temperature of one mole of a gas is increased

by 1º at constant pressure. The work done on the system is:

fLFkj nkc ij ,d xSl ds ,d eksy dk rki 1º c<+k;k x;k]

ra=k ij fd;k x;k dk;Z gS %

(1) R (2) 2R (3) R/2 (4) – R

74. Which electronic level would allow the hydrogen

atom to absorb a photon but not to emit a photon dkSulk bySDVªkWfud Lrj gkbMªkstu ijek.kq dks QksVkWu

vo'kks"k.k djus nsxk fdUrq QksVkWu dk mRltZu ugha %

(1) 3s (2) 2p (3) 2s (4) 1s

75. Number of nodal planes (planes of zero electron

density) in the orbital is dxy d{kd esa uksMy ryksa dh la[;k ¼'kwU; bySDVªkWu ?kuRo ds

ry½ gS %

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 0 (4) 4

76. Element with electronic configuration as [Ar]3d5

4s2 is placed in : (1) 1st group, s-block (2) 2nd group, s-block (3) 5th group, d-block (4) 7th group, d-block bysDVªkWfud vfHkfoU;kl [Ar]3d5 4s2 okyk rRo fLFkr gSA

(1) 1st lewg, s-CykWd (2) 2nd lewg, s-CykWd

(3) 5th lewg, d-CykWd (4) 7th lewg, d-CykWd

77. If ionisation energy of an atom is 10 eV & EA is

6.8 eV electronegativity of the species on pauling scale.

;fn ,d ijek.kq dh vk;uu ÅtkZ 10 eV rFkk EA 6.8 eV

gks rks ikWfyax iSekus ij Lih'kht dh fo|qr _.krk fuEu gS

(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1

78. A diatomic molecule has a dipole moment of

1.2 D. If bond length is 1.0 Å, what percentage of an electronic charge exists on each atom ?

,d f}ijekf.od v.kq dk f}/kqzo vk?kw.kZ 1.2 D gSA ;fn ca/k

yEckbZ 1.0 Å gS] rc çR;sd ijek.kq ij fLFkr bysDVªkWfud

vkos'k dk çfr'kr D;k gS\

(1) 30% (2) 25% (3) 12.5% (4) 50%

79. PCl5 is 10% dissociated at 1 atm. What is %

dissociation at 4 atm.

PCl5 (g) PCl3 (g) + Cl2(g) (1) 40% (2) 2.5% (3) 5% (4) 10% ;fn 1 atm nkc ij PCl5 10% fo;ksftr gksrk gS rks

4 atm nkc ij % fo;kstu gksxk

PCl5 (g) PCl3 (g) + Cl2(g) (1) 40% (2) 2.5% (3) 5% (4) 10%






SAMPLE TEST PAPER

02

80. A gas in an open container is treated from 27ºC

to 127ºC. The fraction of original amount of gas remaining in the container will be.

,d [kqys ik=k esa ,d xSl 27ºC ls 127ºC rd mipkfjr

dh tkrh gSA ik=k esa 'ks"k cph xSl dh ewy ek=kk dk izHkkt

gksxk%

(1) 3/4 (2) ¼ (3) 1/2 (4) 1/8

PART - IV (MENTAL ABILITY)

Hkkx - IV (ekufld ;ksX;rk)






gSA

Direction (81 to 83) : Find the missing term ?

funsZ'k (81 ls 83) % fuEu Js.kh esa yqIr in D;k gksxk \

81. 5, 18, 48, 112, ?

(1) 245 (2) 244 (3) 442 (4) 424

82. CFIJ, RUXY, EHKL, PSVW, ?

(1) HILM (2) UXZA (3) SVZY (4) YBEF

83.

24X

6F

80B

40N 512R

10J 32F

100V ?

(1) 320 T (2) 400 G (3) 1800 K (4) 1800 F

Directions : (84) There is a word written in capital

letters with one letter underlined. For each letter in that word there is a code written in small letters. That code is denoted by either (1), (2), (3), (4) not in the same order. You have to find out the exact code for the underlined letter in the word. The number of that code is the answer. Please note that the same letter appearing in other word (s) may be coded differently.

funsZ'k % (84) ;gk¡ ,d 'kCn fn;k x;k gS] ftlesa vaxzsth ds cM+s

v{kj fy[ks gS] vkSj ,d v{kj ds uhps ykbZu gSA 'kCn ds

izR;sd v{kj dk dksM+ vaxzsth o.kZekyk ds NksVs v{kjksa ls

fd;k x;k gSA dksfMax dks fodYi (1), (2), (3), (4) esa

fy[kk x;k gS] ij bl Øe esa ughaA vkidks og v{kj ftlds

uhps ykbZu gS dk dksM+ <w¡<uk gSA og dksM+ vkidk mÙkj gSA

;kn jgs fd fdlh nwljs 'kCn esa mlh v{kj dk dksM+ dqN

vkSj Hkh gks ldrk gSA

PAGE

(1) b (2) r (3) x (4) i

Directions : (85) Answer the questions based on the

following information. 6 men R,S,T,U,V and W sat around a circular

table playing cards. It was noticed that no two men the initial letters of whose names are adjacent in the alphabetical order, sat next to each other, U was opposite of R. V was not to the immediate right of R.

funsZ'k % (85) fuEu lwpukvksa ds vk/kkj ij iz'uksa ds mÙkj nhft,

6 O;fDr R,S,T,U,V vkSj W ,d o`Ùkkdkj est ds pkjksa

rjQ cSBdj rk'k [ksy jgs gSA dksbZ Hkh nks O;fDr ftuds

uke ds izFke v{kj vaxzsth o.kZekyk Øe ds vuqlkj vklUu

¼Øekxr½ gS oks ,d nwljs ds ikl esa ugha cSBs gSA U ,R ds

foijhr vkSj gSA V, R ds rRdky nk;sa dks ugha gSA

85. Who sat to the immediate left of R ?

R ds rRdky ck;sa dks dkSu cSBk gS \

(1) S (2) T (3) V (4) W

Direction : (86) In each question, two or more

statements are followed by two or more than two conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they appear to be at variance with commonly known facts, and then decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the given statements. For each question, mark out an appropriate answer choice that you think is correct.

funsZ'k % (86) izR;sd iz'u esa nks ;k nks ls T;knk dFku gS tks nks ;k

nks ls T;knk dFkuksa dk vuqlj.k djrs gSA fn;s x;s dFkuksa

dks lR; ekurs gq,] pkgs oks Kkr rF;ksa ls fHkUUk gks] fu.kZ;

djuk gS fd dkSuls fu"d"kZ rfdZd :i ls fn;s x;s dFkuksa

dk vuqlj.k djrs gSA izR;sd iz'u ds fy, fn, x;s fodYiksa

esa ls lksp dj lgh mÙkj dk p;u djsaA

86. Statements : 1. All lamps are books.

2. No book is coloured. lHkh ySEi] fdrkcsa gSA

dksbZ fdrkc jaxhu ugha gSA

Conclusions : I. Some lamps are coloured. II. No lamp is coloured.

dqN ysEi jaxhu gSA

dksbZ ysEi] jaxhu ugha gSA

(1) Only conclusion I follows. (2) Only conclusion II follows (3) Both I and II follow. (4) Neither I nor II follows.

(1) dsoy I fu"d"kZ vuqlj.k djrk gSA

(2) dsoy II fu"d"kZ vuqlj.k djrk gSA

(3) I vkSj II nksuksa fu"d"kZ vuqlj.k djrs gSA

(4) u rks I vkSj uk fg II vuqlj.k djrs gSA






SAMPLE TEST PAPER

02

Directions : (87) A, B, C, E, F, G and H are seven

employees in an organisation working in the departments of Administration, Accounts and Operations. There are at least two employees in each department. There are three females, one in each department. Each of seven employees earns different amount. The only bearded employee F works in administration and his only other colleague G earns the maximum. C, the least earner works in Accounts. B and E are brothers and do not work in the same department. A, husband of H. works in Accounts and earns more than each of F, B and E. The wife in the couple earns more than the husband.

funsZ'k % (87) ,d dEiuh ds 7 deZpkjh A, B, C, E, F, G vkSj H

iz'kklu] [kkrksa ds vkSj lapkyu foHkkx esa dk;Z djrs gSA

de ls de nks deZpkjh izR;sd foHkkx esa dk;Zjr gSA buesa ls

rhu deZpkjh efgyk;sa gS] tks lHkh ,d&,d foHkkx esa gSA

lkrksa deZpkjh vyx&vyx osru vftZr djrs gSaA <k<+h okyk

deZpkjh F iz'kklu foHkkx esa vkSj mldk lgdeZpkjh G

lcls T;knk osru vftZr djrk gSA C ,ftldk osru lcls

de gS] [kkrksa ds foHkkx esa gSA B vkSj E HkkbZ&HkkbZ gS vkSj os

,d gh foHkkx esa dk;Zjr ugha gSA A, H dk ifr gS vkSj oks

[kkrksa ds foHkkx esa gS] vkSj og F, B vkSj E ls T;knk osru

dekrk gSA iRuh] ifr ls T;knk osru dekrh gSA

87. Which of the following is a group of females :

fuEu esa ls dkSulk efgykvksa dk lewg gS &

(1) GCE (2) GEH (3) GCH (4) GHB

88. There are 30 days in a month and 1st day of this

month is Monday. If alternate Monday starting from second and each Sunday is a holiday then how many working days are there in the month :

fdlh efgus esa 30 fnu gS] ftldh igyh rkjh[k dks lkseokj

gSA ;fn ,dkarj lkseokj] f}rh; ls 'kq:vkr djrs gq,] vkSj

izR;sd jfookj dks Nqêh gS rks eghus esa fdrus dk;Zjr fnu

gksaxsA

(1) 23 (2) 22 (3) 24 (4) 21

Directions : (89) The figure given below is the unfolded position of a cubical dice. In each of the following questions this unfolded figure is followed by four different figures of dice. You have to select the figure which is identical to the figure.

funsZ'k : (89) vkd`fr ,d ?kuh; ikls ds lHkh Qydks dks [kksydj

fn[kk;k x;k gSA fuEu izR;sd iz'u esa ikls dh ;g [kqyh

vkd`fr pkj fofHkUu iklks dks iznf'kZr djrh gSA vkidks ml

ikls dk pquko djuk gS tks vkd`fr vuqlkj lgh gksA

89.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Direction (90 to 92) : Find the missing term ?

funsZ'k (90 ls 92) % fuEu Js.kh esa yqIr in D;k gksxk \

90. 2, 3, 4, 6, 12, ?, 156

(1) 36 (2) 42 (3) 24 (4) 27 91. DOZ, ZFJ, VWT, RND, ?

(1) ENE (2) MEM (3) NEN (4) NNE 92. From among the four alternatives given below,

which numbr replaces the question mark ? fn;s x;s pkj fodYiksa esa dkSulk vad iz'ufpUg dks

izfrLFkkfir djsxk&

66

4

6

87 38

7

4

93 ?

7

2

911

(1) 91 (2) 108 (3) 116 (4) 119 93. If FEED is coded as 80,TREE is coded as 154,

what will be the code number for MEET ?

;fn FEED dks 80 vkSj TREE dks 154 ls dksM+ fd;k

tk;s rks MEET ds fy;s D;k dksM+ gksxk ?

(1) 205 (2) 180 (3) 118 (4) 206 94. In question no. 85 Who sat to the immediate right

of R ? iz'u la[;k 5 esa] R ds rRdky nk;sa dks dkSu cSBk gS ?

(1) S (2) T (3) V (4) W






SAMPLE TEST PAPER

02

Direction :(95) In each question, two or more

statements are followed by two or more than two conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they appear to be at variance with commonly known facts, and then decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the given statements. For each question, mark out an appropriate answer choice that you think is correct.

izR;sd iz'u esa nks ;k nks ls T;knk dFku gS tks nks ;k nks ls

T;knk dFkuksa dk vuqlj.k djrs gSA fn;s x;s dFkuksa dks

lR; ekurs gq,] pkgs oks Kkr rF;ksa ls fHkUUk gks] fu.kZ; djuk

gS fd dkSuls fu"d"kZ rfdZd :i ls fn;s x;s dFkuksa dk

vuqlj.k djrs gSA izR;sd iz'u ds fy, fn, x;s fodYiksa esa

ls lksp dj lgh mÙkj dk p;u djs

95. Statements : 1. All envelopes are umbrellas.

2. All umbrellas are chalks. lHkh fyQkQsa Nkrsa gSA

lHkh Nkrsa pkWd gSA

Conclusions : I. Some chalks are envelopes. II. Some umbrellas are not envelopes.

I. dqN pkWd fyQkQsa gSA

II. dqN Nkrsa] fyQkQsa ugha gSA

(1) Only conclusion I follows. (2) Only conclusion II follows. (3) Both I and II follow (4) Neither I no II follows. (1) dsoy fu"d"kZ I vuqlj.k djrk gSA

(2) dsoy fu"d"kZ II vuqlj.k djrk gSA

(3) I vkSj II nksuksa vuqlj.k djrsa gSA

(4) u rks I vkSj uk fg II vuqlj.k djrs gSA

96. In question no.87 In which department(s) do

three people work ? (1) Operations (2) Accounts (3) Operation or Account (4) Data inadequate iz'u la[;k 87 esa] dkSuls foHkkx esa rhu O;fDr dk;Zjr gSa \

(1) lapkyu esaA

(2) [kkrksa ds foHkkx esaA

(3) lapkyu ;k [kkrksa esaA

(4) tkudkjh iwjh ugha gSA

97. In U.P. on 17th Oct. 1996, the president rule was

declared. Find the day of week on that date. (1) Tuesday (2) Friday (3) Wednesday (4) Thrusday mÙkj izns'k esa 17 vDVwcj 1996 dks jk"Vªifr fu;e ykxq

gqvk Fkk] ml fnu lIrkg dk dkSulk fnu FkkA

(1) eaxyokj (2) 'kqØokj

(3) cq/kokj (4) xq:okj

98. Which letter is opposite Q ?

dkSulk v{kj Q ds foijhr vkSj gS ?

(1) L (2) M (3) N (4) P 99. If BREAKFAST is coded as 11,LUNCH is coded

as 13, what will be the code number for BRUNCH ?

;fn BREAKFAST dks 11 vkSj LUNCH dks 13 ls dksM+

fd;k tk;s rks BRUNCHds fy;s D;k dksM+ gksxk ?

(1) 12 (2) 24 (3) 15 (4) 11 100. In question no. 85 Who sat to the immediate right

of U ? iz'u la[;k 85 esa] U ds rRdky nk;sa dkSu cSBk gS ?

(1) S (2) T (3) V (4) W


1. (4) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (4) 6. (4) 7. (3) 8. (2) 9. (4) 10. (2) 11. (4) 12. (4) 13. (4) 14. (2) 15. (2) 16. (2) 17. (4) 18. (4) 19. (1) 20. (4) 21. (2) 22. (4) 23. (1) 24. (4) 25. (3) 26. (2) 27. (1) 28. (1) 29. (1) 30. (3) 31. (4) 32. (1) 33. (2) 34. (3) 35. (2) 36. (3) 37. (4) 38. (3) 39. (3) 40. (4) 41. (1) 42. (4) 43. (2) 44. (1) 45. (2) 46. (2) 47. (4) 48. (1) 49. (2) 50. (3) 51. (2) 52. (4) 53. (3) 54. (2) 55. (1) 56. (3) 57. (4) 58. (2) 59. (3) 60. (1) 61. (4) 62. (2) 63. (2) 64. (4) 65. (3) 66. (2) 67. (3) 68. (3) 69. (2) 70. (2) 71. (2) 72. (4) 73. (4) 74. (4) 75. (2) 76. (4) 77. (2) 78. (2) 79. (3) 80. (1) 81. (2) 82. (4) 83. (4) 84. (1) 85. (3) 86. (4) 90. (1) 91. (3) 93. (4) 94. (2) 99. (1) 100. (1)




Website : www.resonance.ac.in | E-mail : [email protected] STP2019MDMR-PAGE # -32


SAMPLE TEST PAPER

03

SAMPLE TEST PAPER

(For Class-XII Appearing / Passed Students)

COURSE : SAMPOORN(MD)&SAFAL(MR) 03 TARGET : NEET/AIIMS 2020

No. of


1 to 40PART-I

(Biology)



41 to 70PART-II

(Physics)



71 to 100PART-III

(Chemistry)



Total 100 300








lgh gSA

1. Protista differs from Monera in having

(1) Nucleolus (2) Cell wall (3) Flagella (4) Autotrophic nutrition izksfVLVk fdldh mifLFkfr esa eksusjk ls fHkUu gS&

(1) dsfUnzdk (2) dksf'kdk fHkfÙk

(3) d'kkHk (4) Loiks"kh iks"k.k

2. Nucellar or integument cells form new embryos

in (1) Banyan (2) Citrus (3) Coconut (4) Maize chtk.Mdk;h ;k v/;koj.kh dksf'kdk,¡ fdlesa u;s Hkzw.k cukrh

gSA

(1) cjxn esa (2) flVªl esa

(2) ukfj;y (4) eDdk esa

3. In human, the number of genes presents on

chromosome 1 and Y respectively (1) 5386, 61 (2) 5960, 329

(3) 1.4 million, 729 (4) 2968, 231 euq"; esa xq.klw=k 1 rFkk Y ij mifLFkr thal dh la[;k

Øe'k% gSaA

(1) 5386, 61 (2) 5960, 329 (2) 1.4 million, 729 (4) 2968, 231

4. Which of the following occurs due to monosomy

of sex chromosome? (1) Down's syndrome (2) Turners's syndrome (3) Haemophilia (4) Sickle cell anaemia fuEu esa ls dkSulk fyax xq.klw=k dh ,dU;wulw=krk ds dkj.k

gksrk gS \

(1) MkÅUk dk flUMªkse (2) VuZj dk flUMªkse

(3) gheksfQfy;k (4) fldy lsy ,fufe;k

5. In HGP, the enormous amount of data expected

to be generated also necessitated the use of high speed computational devices for data storage and retrieval, and analysis. It is known as

(1) Genetic engineering (2) Biotechnology (3) Bioinformatics (4) Bio fortification

HGP esa visf{kr vk¡dMksa dh vR;kf/kd ek=kk mRiUUk fd;s

tkus ds fy,] MkVk ds laxzg.k] iqu%izkfIr RkFkk fo'ys"k.k ds

fy, rst xfr okyh lax.kd ;qfDr;ksa dk mi;ksx Hkh vfuok;Z

gksrk gSA bls bl :i esa tkuk tkrk gSaA

(1) vkuqokaf'kd vfHk;kaf=kdh (2) tSo izkS|ksfxdh

(3) ck;ks bUQksesZfVDl (4) ck;ks QksfVZfQds'ku

6. The complete oxidation of a pyruvate by the

stepwise removal of all the hydrogen atoms, leaving

(1) two molecules of CO2

(2) three molecules of CO2

(3) four molecules of CO2

(4) six molecules of CO2

lHkh gkbMªkstu v.kqvksa ds inokj fu"dklu ds }kjk ,d

ik;:osV dk iw.kZ vkWDlhdj.k eqä djrk gS

(1) CO2 ds nks v.kqvksa dks

(2) CO2 ds rhu v.kqvksa dks

(3) CO2 ds pkj v.kqvksa dks

(4) CO2 ds N% v.kqvksa dks






SAMPLE TEST PAPER

03

7. Select the wrong pair? (1) Clarius gariepinus – Removal of Cichlid fish in

Victoria lake of Africa (2) Rice – Maximum genetic diversity in India (3) Frequent Gleization – Temperate forest (4) Indo Burma – One of the Hot spot of India xyr ;qXe dks pqfu;s

(1) Dysfj;l xsjhikbul & vÝhdk dh foDVksfj;k >hy esa

flpfyM eNyh dh foyqfIr

(2) pkoy & Hkkjr esa vf/kdre vkuqokaf'kd fofo/krk

(3) lrr~ fgeunhdj.k & le'khrks".k ou

(4) b.Mks-cekZ & Hkkjr dk ,d rIrLFky

8. Which of the following are taken for source of

DNA in DNA fingerprinting? (1) Blood, Skin (2) Saliva, Hair follicle (3) Bone, Sperm (4) All of the above fuEu esa ls fdldks DNA vaxqyhNkiu esa DNA ds L=kksr ds

fy, fy;k tkrk gSa ?

(1) jDr] Ropk (2) ykj] jkseiqfVdk

(3) vfLFk] 'kqØk.kq (4) mijksDr lHkh

9. The first stable compound of C4 cycle is

(1) 3-PGA (2) Oxalo acetic acid (3) Malic acid (4) 3-PGAL

C4 pØ dk izFke LFkk;h mRikn gSA

(1) 3-PGA (2) vkWDtsyks,flfVd vEy

(3) eSfyd vEy (4) 3-PGAL

10. Which of the following is not used as bio-

fertilizer? (1) Nostoc (2) Rhizobium (3) Azotobacter (4) Agrobacterium fuEu esa ls fdls tSo moZjd ds :i esa mi;ksx ugh fd;k

tkrk gS\

(1) ukWLVkWd (2) jkbtksfc;e

(3) ,stksVkscSDVj (4) ,xzkscSfDVfj;e

11. Which of the following is absent in dicot root?

(1) Casperian strips in endodermis (2) Open vascular bundles

(3) Xylem diarch to hexarch (4) Secondary growth fuEu esa ls dkSulk f}chti=kh ewy esa vuqifLFkr gksrk gS\

(1) vUr%LRopk esa dsLisfj;u ifê;k¡

(2) [kqyk laogu iwy

(3) tkbye] f}vkfnnk:d ls "kVvkfnnk:d

(4) f}rh;d o`f)

12. The ..........(i)...........structure in chromatin is

packaged to form ..........(ii)............that are further coiled and condensed at .............(iii).............of cell division to form chromosomes.

(1) (i) Nucleosome, (ii) chromatid, (iii) late prophase stage

(2) (i) beads-on-string, (ii) chromatin

fibers, (iii) late prophase stage

(3) (i) Nucleosome, (ii) chromatid, (iii) metaphase stage

(4) (i) beads-on-string, (ii) chromatin

fibers, (iii) metaphase stage

--------------(i)------------ln`'k lajpuk ØksesfVu esa dksf"Br gksdj---------

-----(ii)-----------¼lw=kksa½ dk fuekZ.k djrh gS tks vkxs dq.Mfyr o

la?kfur gksdj dksf'kdk foHkktu dh ---------------(iii)--------------esa

xq.klw=k dk fuekZ.k djrs gSaA

(1) (i) U;wfDy;kslkse, (ii) ØksesfVM, (iii) i'p

izksQst izkoLFkk

(2) (i) Mksjh ij chM~l, (ii) ØksesfVu èkkxksa, (iii)

i'p izksQst izkoLFkk

(3) (i) U;wfDy;kslkse, (ii) ØksesfVM, (iii) esVkQst

(4) (i) Mksjh ij chM~l, (ii) ØksesfVu èkkxksa, (iii)

esVkQst

13. In plants, cells are bombarded with high velocity

micro-particles of ...................coated with DNA in a method known as biolistics or gene gun.

(1) gold or silver (2) gold or tungsten

(3) copper or gold (4) platinum or plutonium

ikS/kksa esa] dksf'kdkvksa ij Mh,u, ls foysfir] ---------------------------ds

mPp osx lw{e d.kksa ls ceckjh djrs gSa ftls ck;ksfyfLVd

;k thu xu dgrs gSaA

(1) Lo.kZ ;k jtr (2) Lo.kZ ;k VaxLVu

(3) rkack ;k Lo.kZ (4) IysfVue ;k IywVksfu;e

14. Cymose inflorescence, epipetalous stamens,

axile placentation and swollen placenta are found in

(1) Tomato, Tulip, Tobacco, Sesbania (2) Ashwagandha, smilax, Indigophora, Chilli

(3) Brinjal, belladonna, Petunia, Tomato (4) Tobacco, Potato, Lupin, Datura llhek{k iq"iØe] nyyXu iqadslj] v{kh; chtk.MU;kl rFkk

Qwyk gqvk chtk.Mlu fdlesa ik;s tkrs gSa

(1) VekVj] V~;wfyi] rackdw] lsLcsfu;k

(2) v'oxU/kk] LekbySDl] bf.MxksQksjk] fepZ

(3) cSaxu] csykMksuk] fiVwfu;k] VekVj

(4) rackdw] vkyw] Y;wfiu] /krwjk

15. A plant has ovules, presence of archegonium. It

may be (1) Bryophyte (2) Angiosperm

(3) Pteridophyte (4) Gymnosperm. ,d ikni esa chtk.M gSa rFkk vkdhZxksfu;e dh mifLFkfr

gSA ;g gks ldrk gSA

(1) czk;ksQkbV (2) vko`rchth

(3) VsfjMksQkbV (4) vuko`Ùkchth

16. Which of the following statement is false.

(1) Flagellated stage is absent in the life history of blue green algae & red algae.

(2) The haplodiplontic life cycle is found in algae like Ectocarpus, Kelps

(3) Filamentous algae involve Ulothrix, Spirogyra, Chlorella

(4) Agar-agar obtains from Gelidium & Gracillaria red algae.






SAMPLE TEST PAPER

03

fuEu eas ls dkSulk dFku vlR; gS&

(1) uhygfjr 'kSoky rFkk yky 'kSoky ds thoupØ esa

d'kkfHkdh; voLFkk vuqifLFkr gksrh gSA

(2) gsIyksfMIyksfUVd thou pØ 'kSokyksa tSls ,DVksdkWiZl]

dsYIl esa ik;k tkrk gSA

(3) rarqe; 'kSokyksa esa ;wyksfFkzDl] Likbjksxk;jk] Dyksjsyk

'kkfey gSa

(4) vxj&vxj fxfyfM;e rFkk xzsflysfj;k yky 'kSokyksa ls

izkIr gksrk gSA

17. Which of the following is not a feature of plasma

membrane? (1) Polar molecules can pass through the

nonpolar lipid bilayer without carrier protein. (2) Quasifluid nature of lipid enables lateral

movement of proteins within the overall lipid bilayer.

(3) Fluid nature of the membrane helps in some functions like secretion, endocytosis, cell growth.

(4) Polar arrangement of lipid molecules ensure that the nonpolar tail of satured hydrocarbons is protected from the aqueous environment.

fuEu esa ls dkSulk IykTek f>Yyh dk ,d y{k.k ugh gSa\

(1) /kzqoh; v.kq fcuk okgd izksVhu ds v/kqzoh; fyfiM

f}Lrj ls gksdj xqtj ldrs gSa

(2) fyfiM dh v)Z rjy izÑfr laiw.kZ fyfiM f}Lrj esa

izksVhuksa dh ik'ohZ; xfr dks c<+krh gSA

(3) f>Yyh dh rjy izÑfr dqN dk;k±s tSls óko.k]

,.MkslkbVksfll] dksf'kdk o`f) esa lgk;rk djrh gSA

(4) fyfiM v.kqvksa dh /kqzoh; O;oLFkk lqfuf'pr djrh gS

fd vlarÌr gkbMªksdkcZuksa dh v/kqzoh; iwaN dks tyh;

i;kZoj.k ls lqjf{kr fd;k tkrk gSA

18. Vernalisation is related to plants growing in -

(1) tropical areas (2) sub tropical areas (3) temperate areas (4) hot areas/ arctic region olarhdj.k fdu {kss=kksa esa o`f) djrs gq, ikniksa ls lEcaf/kr

gksrk gS \

(1) m".kdfVca/kh; {ks=kksa esa

(2) miks".k dfVca/kh; {ks=kksa esa

(3) le'khrks".kh; {ks=kksa esa

(4) xeZ {ks=kksa@vkdZfVd {ks=k esa

19. What is common among plum, peach and rose?

(1) Trimerous flower (2) Drupe fruit (3) Ovary half inferior (4) Epigynous flower vkyw cq[kkjk] vkMw rFkk xqykc esa mHk;fu"B D;k gS\

(1) f=kr;h iq"i

(2) vf"By Qy

(3) v.Mk'k; v/kZ v/kksorhZ

(4) tk;kaxksifjd iq"i

20. Which of the following is wrong about marchantia

(1) It is dioecous (2) It performs asexual reproduction by gammae

(3) It shows indirect germination of spore (4) It has elators in sporophyte

fuEu esa ls dkSulk ekdsZfU'k;k ds ckjs esa xyr gS&

(1) ;g ,dfyaxkJ;h gS

(2) ;g tSeh }kjk vySafxd tuu lEiUu djrk gS

(3) ;g chtk.kq ds ijks{k vadqj.k dks n'kkZrk gS

(4) blds LiksjksQkbV esa bysVlZ gksrs gSa

21. During double fertilization which of the following

will not proceed (1) Fusion of First male gamete and egg cell to

form diploid zygote (2) Five gametes take part in double

fertilization. (3) Second male gamete is fused with

secondary nucleus. It is called triple fusion (4) It is unique feature of Angiospermic plants. f}fu"kspu ds nkSjku fuEu esa ls dkSulk ugha gksxk&

(1) izFke uj ;qXed rFkk v.Mdksf'kdk ds lay;u ls

f}xqf.kr tkbxksV curk gSA

(2) f}fu"kspu esa ik¡p ;qXed Hkkx ysrs gSA

(3) f}rh; uj ;qXed f}rh;d dsUnzd ls layf;r gksrk gS

bls f=kd lay;u dgrs gSaA

(4) ;g vko`Ùkchth; ikniksa dk ,d fof'k"V y{k.k gSA

22. Which of the following one is a part of

endomembrane system and performs osmotic expansion of a cell in hypotonic solution (1) ER (2) Lysosome (3) Golgibody (4) Vacuole

fuEu esa ls dkSulk ,d vUr%dyk ra=k dk ,d Hkkx gS rFkk

vYiijkljh foy;u esa ,d dksf'kdk ds ijklj.kh; izlkj dks

lEiUu djrk gSA

(1) ER (2) ykblkslkse

(3) xkWYthdkW; (4) fjfDrdk

23. Vitamin A rich golden rice was created by

transforming rice with beta carotene biosynthesis genes

(1) nif, lyc, fix (2) crt I, lyc, psy (3) bsy & fix, crt I (4) lyc, nif, psy foVkfeu A izpqj lqugjs pkoy dks dkSuls chVk dsjksfVu tSo

la'ys"k.k thu ds lkFk pkoy ds :ikarj.k }kjk mRié fd;k

x;k Fkk

(1) nif, lyc, fix (2) (2) crt I, lyc, psy

(3) bsy & fix, crt I (4) lyc, nif, psy






SAMPLE TEST PAPER

03

24.

On the basis of above diagram, select the correct option for a, b, c & d.

(1) a Reptiles, b Mammals, c

Amphibians, d Birds

(2) a Amphibians, b Mammals, c

Reptiles, d Birds

(3) a Reptiles, b Birds, c Amphibians,

d Mammals

(4) a Mammals, b Reptiles, c Birds, d Amphibians

mijksä fp=k ds vk/kkj ij] a, b, c rFkk d ds fy, lgh

fodYi dk p;u dhft,A

(1) a ljhlì, b Lru/kkjh, c mHk;pj, d i{kh

(2) a mHk;pj, b Lru/kkjh, c ljhlì, d i{kh

(3) a ljhlì, b i{kh, c mHk;pj, d Lru/kkjh

(4) a Lru/kkjh, b ljhlì, c i{kh, d mHk;pj

25.

Which of the following is correct about above diagram of age pyramid of human population?

(1) It is bell shaped pyramid for expanding population

(2) It has maximum number of reproductive individuals

(3) It is urn shaped pyramid for declining population

(4) It has approximately equal number of pre reproductive and reproductive individuals and shows stable population.

ekuo lef"V ds vk;q fijkfeM ds mijksä fp=k ds ckjs esa

fuEu esa ls dkSulk lgh gS\

(1) c<+rh gqbZ lef"V ds fy, ;g ?k.Vkdkj fijkfeM gS

(2) blesa tuukRed lnL;ksa dh vf/kdre la[;k gSa

(3) ?kVrh gqbZ lef"V ds fy, ;g dy'kkdkj gksrk gS

(4) ;g iwoZtuukRed ,oa tuukRed lnL;ksa dh yxHkx

leku la[;k j[krk gS rFkk fLFkj lef"V dks n'kkZrk gS

26. Below are given four pulmonary capacities (A -

D) and jumbled volumes (P - S) for a normal human adult. Which option has correctly matched pulmonary capacities and their respective volumes?

Pulmonary capacities Volumes

A. Functional residual capacity P. 3000-3500 ml B. Vital capacity Q. 5800 ml C. Total lung capacity R. 2500 ml D. Inspiratory capacity S. 3000-4500 ml Options

A B C D (1) P Q R S (2) R S Q P (3) R P Q S (4) S P Q R uhps ,d lkekU; o;Ld euq"; ds fy, pkj Qq¶lh; lkeF;Z

(A - D) rFkk vfu;fer :i ls O;ofLFkr vk;ru

(P - S) fn;s x, gSaA dkSu lk fodYi Qq¶lh; lkeF;ksZ

rFkk muds lEcaf/kr vk;ruksa ds fy, lqesfyr gSa \

Qq¶lh; lkeF; vk;ru

A. dk;kZRed vo'ks"k lkeF;Z P.3000-3500 feyh

B. ltho lkeF;Z Q. 5800 feyh

C. dqy Qq¶lh; lkeF;Z R. 2500 feyh

D. var% / 'oklh; lkeF;Z S. 3000-4500 feyh

fodYi

A B C D (1) P Q R S (2) R S Q P (3) R P Q S (4) S P Q R

27. Which one of the following options has correct

set of dioecious and eucoelomate animals in which anus develops from embryonic blastopore?

(A) (B) (C)

(D) (E) Options

(1) A, B and D (2) B and D (3) A, C and E (4) A, D and E fuEufyf[kr fodYiksa esa ls fdl ,d esa ,dfyaxh rFkk

lqnsgxqgk okys ,sls tUrqvksa dk lewg gSa ftuesa xqnk dk

fodkl Hkz.keq[k ls gksrk gSa?

fodYi

(1) A, B rFkk D (2) B rFkk D

(3) A, C rFkk E (4) A, D rFkk E






SAMPLE TEST PAPER

03

28. Sphincter of Boyden which helps in the filling up

of the gall bladder is present in (1) Ductus choledochus (2) Duct of Wirsung (3) Ampulla of Vater (4) Hepato-pancreatic ampulla ckW;Mu dk ladkspd tks fiÙkk'k; dks Hkjus esa lgk;rk djrk

gS] mifLFkr gksrk gSa &

(1) MDV~l dkWyhMksdl

(2) folZx dh ufydk

(3) osVj dh rqafcdk

(4) fgiSVksiSafØ;kfVd rqafcdk

29. Release of catecholamines from adrenal medulla

is controlled by the action of (1) Postganglionic sympathetic nerves (2) Preganglionic sympathetic nerves (3) Preganglionic parasympathetic nerves (4) Postganglionic parasympathetic nerves vf/ko`Dd eTtk ls dsVsdksysfeUl eqDr gksus dk fu;a=k.k

blds fØ;k }kjk gksrk gSa &

(1) mÙkj xqPNdh; vuqdaih raf=kdk,aA

(2) iwoZxqPNdh; vuqdaih raf=kdk,A

(3) iwoZxqPNdh; ijkvuqdaih raf=kdk,A

(4) mÙkjxqPNdh; ijkvuqdaih raf=kdk,A

30. Absence of which of the following in the

alimentary caual may lead to the anaemia? (1) Pepsinogen (2) CCK-PZ (3) Castle's intrinsic factor (4) Chymotrypsinogen vkgkjuky esa fdldh vuqifLFkfr ls jDrkYirk gksrh gSa?

(1) isfIlukstu (2) CCK-PZ

(3) dsLVy ds varjLFk dkjd

(4) dkbeksfVªfIlukstu

31. In human beings, tympanic membrane is

composed of connective tissue and covered by (1) Skin on its outside and mucus membrane

inside (2) Mucus membrane both on its inside and

outside (3) Skin both on its outside as well as inside (4) Mucus membraneon its outside and skin

inside euq";ksa esa d.kZiVg f>Yyh la;ksth mÙkd dh cuh gksrh gSa

rFkk vkPNkfnr jgrh gSa&

(1) ckgj dh vksj Ropk rFkk vUnj dh vksj 'ys"e f>Yyh

lsA

(2) ckgj rFkk vUnj nksuksa vksj 'ys"e f>Yyh lsA

(3) ckgj dh vksj Ropk ls rFkk vUnj dh vksj 'ys"e

f>YYkh lsA

(4) ckgj dh vksj 'ys"e f>Yyh rFkk vUnj dh vksj 'ys"e

f>YYkh lsA

32. The following diagram depicts the arrangement

of different types of teeth in the upper jaw on one side and the sockets on the other side. What is the correct option for the number of roots in incisors, canines, premolars and molars of upper jaw?

Incisors Canines Premolars Molars (1) 1 1 1 2 (2) 1 1 2 3 (3) 1 1 3 3 (4) 1 1 2 2 fn;k x;k fp=k ,d rjQ mijh tcM+s esa fofHkUu çdkj ds

narksa dh rFkk nwljh rjQ xrksZ dh O;oLFkk dks fpf=kr djrk

gSaA mijh nk¡rksa ds ÑUrd]jn~ud]iwoZpo.kZd rFkk po.kZd narksasa

esa ewyksa dh la[;k ds fy, lgh fodYi D;k gSa \

ÑUrd jn~ud iwoZpo.kZd po.kZd

(1) 1 1 1 2 (2) 1 1 2 3 (3) 1 1 3 3 (4) 1 1 2 2

33. Below are given some statements about

industrial melanism with reference to the peppered moth, Biston bitularia. Analyse the statements and select the option having correct set of statements.

A. With the advent of industrial revolution, the frequency of black coloured moths in the population decreased while that of white coloured moths increased.

B. This is an example of evolution by anthropogenic action.

C. In areas where industrialization did not occur e.g., in rural areas the count of melanic moths was low.

D. With the advent of industrial revolution, the frequency of black coloured moths in the population abruptly increased and white coloured moths were completely wiped out.

Options (1) A, C and D (2) B and C (3) A, B and D (4) All correct






SAMPLE TEST PAPER

03

uhps] fcLVu fcVqysfj;k ds laUnHkZ esa vkS|ksfxd lk¡oysiu ds

ckjsa es dqN dFku fn;s x, gSaA dFkuksa dk fo'ys"k.k dhft,

rFkk dFkuksa ds lgh leqP; okys fodYi dk p;u dhft, A

A. vkS|ksfxd Økafr ds vkxeu ds lkFk vkcknh esa dkys jax

HkWHkhjks dh la[;k ?kVh tcfd lQsn jax ds HkHkhjksa dh la[;k

c<+h A

B. ;g ,d ekuoÑr mf}dkl dk mnkgj.k gSaA

C. mu {ks=ksa esa tgka vkS|ksfxdj.k ugha gqvk mnkgj.kkFkZ]

xzkeh.k {ks=kksa esa] ogk¡ lkoysa Hk¡Hkhjks dh la[;k de FkhA

D. vkS|ksfxd Økafr ds vkxeu ds lkFk vkcknh esa dkys jax

ds HkaHkhjks dh la[;k vpkud c<+ x;h tcfd lQsn jax ds

HkHkhjsa iwjh rjg ls lekRr gS x;sA

(1) A, C rFkk D (2) B rFkk C

(3) A, B rFkk D (4) lHkh lgh gSA

34. When radiolarians die, their skeletons sink to the

ocean floor, forming thick ooze that can eventually harden to form colourful rock, called as

(1) Chert (2) Fringe (3) Coral (4) Calcite jsfM;ksaysfj;u ds e`R;ksijkUr muds ddkay leqnzh lrg ij

,d eksVs xkn ds :i esa cSB tkrs gSa rFkk dBksj gksdj jaxhu

'kSy dk fuekZ.k djrs gSa& ftUgs dgk tkrk gS]

(1) pVZ (2) >Cck (3) ewaxk (4) dSYlkbV

35. In cnidarians, certain cells considered as --(A)---

can divide and transform into different types of cells present in their body. Some cnidarians exhibit metagenesis which is not a true alternation of generation because both the polypoid and medusoid stages are --(B). Hydra, which is a polypoid cnidarian, can regenerate into a complete animal even from its small piece by the process called -(C). In the paragraph given above, the blanks in form of A, B and C are respectively are

(1) Archaeocytes, haploid and epimorphosis. (2) Interstitial cells, haploid and morphollaxis. (3) Embryonic reserve cells, diploid and

morphollaxis. (4) Embryonic reserve cells, haploid and

epimorphosis. fuMsfj; es dqN fuf'pr dksf'kk,a ftUgs--(A)---le>k tkrk

gS] foHkkftr gks dj rFkk muds 'kjhj esa ik;h okys okyh

fdlh Hkh izdkj dh dksf'vksa eas :ikUrfjr gks ldrh gSA dqN

fuMsfj;k esVktsusfll iznf'kZr djrs gSa tks ,d lR; ih<+h

,dkUrj.k ugha gSa D;ksafd blesa ikfyikW,M rFkk esM~;wlk,M

nksuksa gh izoLFkk,a --(B---) gksrh gSaA gkbMªk tks ,d ikWyhik,M

fuMsfj;k gS vius ,d NksVs VqdMs l Hkh iw.kZ tUrq esa ----

(C)----ds }kjk iqu:n~Hkfor gks ldrk gSA

mijksDr ifjPNsn [kaM easA, B rFkk C ds :i eas [kkyh 'kCn

Øe'k% gSA

(1) vkfdZvkslkbV~l] ,d xqf.kr] ,ihekQksZfll

(2) vUrjkyh dksf'kdk,a ] ,dxqf.kr rFkk ekQksZySfDll

(3) Hkzq.k vkjf{kr dksf'kdk,a f}xqf.kr rFkk ekQksZySfDll

(4) Hkzq.k vkjf{kr dksf'kdk,a ,dxqf.kr rFkk ,ihekQksZfll

36. Recently, Professor Y. D. Tyagi discovered a

bioindicator plant having metal tolerance growing near Zwar Zinc mines in Udaipur, Rajasthan (India). This plant is-

(1) Impatiens balsamina (2) Agrotis tenuis (3) Prosopis cineraria (4) Syzygium cumini. gky gh esa çksQslj okbZ. Mh. R;kxh us tokj ftad [kknku]

mn;iqj]jktLFkku ¼Hkkjr½ ds vkl-ikl mxus okys /kkrq

lfg".kqrk okys ,d tSolwpd ikS/ks dh [kkst dh gSaA ;g ikS/kk

gSa &

(1) bEisfl,Ul ckylsekbuk (2) ,xzksfVl Vsfuvl

(3) çkslksfil flujsfj;k (4) flftft;e D;wfeuh

37. Which one of the following is not an N-1

glycoside?

A B

C D (1) A (2) D (3) B (4) C fuEufyf[kr esa dkSu lk ,d N-1 XykbdkslkbM ugha gSa&

(1) A (2) D (3) B (4) C

38. Read the following four statements A, B, C and D

which are the descriptions of events in the life cycle of Plasmodium. Select the option in which both statements are correct.

A. Encystation in parasite takes place inside the wall of mosquitos's stomach.

B. Sexual stages (gametocytes) develop in the intestine of man.

C. Fertilisation and development takes place in the mosquito's stomach.

D. Female mosquito takes up the gametocytes with blood meal.

Options

(1) A and B (2) B and C (3) A and D (4) C and D






SAMPLE TEST PAPER

03

uhps fn, x;s pkj dFkuksa ds ckjs esa if<+;sa tks IrkTeksafM;e

ds thou pØ dh ?kVukvksa dks fooj.k gSaA dFkuksa ds lgh

leqP; okys fodYi dk p;u dhft, &

A. ijthoh esa ifjdks"Bu ePNj ds vkek'k; dh fHkfÙk esa

gksrk gSa A

B. ySfxax çkoLFkk,a ¼;qXed tud½ euq"; ds vkar eas fodflr

gksrh gSa A

C. fu"kspu ,oa fodkl ePNj dh vkar esa vkek'k; gksrk gSaA

D. eknk ePNj :f/kj vkgkj ds lkFk ;qXed tudksa dks xzg.k

fodYi

(1) A rFkk B (2) B rFkk C

(3) A rFkk D (4) C rFkk D

39. Listed below are some periods/epochs (A-D) and

jumbled important events (P-S). Which one option has correct matching of the periods/epochs and their corresponding events?

Periods / Epochs Events

A. Permian P. Origin of amphibians B. Pleistocene Q. Appearance of ape like

ancestors of humans C. Devonian R.Origin of most modern

mammalian orders D. Oligocene S. Origin of therapsids Options

A B C D (1) P Q R S (2) S R P P (3) P R S Q (4) S Q P R uhps dqN dYi @ ;qx(A-D) rFkk vfu;fer :i ls

O;ofLFkr egRoiw.kZ ?kVuk,a (P-S) lwphc) gSaA fdl ,d

fodYi esa @ dYiksa ;qxksa rFkk muls lEcf/kr ?kVukvksa dk

lqesy gSa?

di / ;qx ?kVuk,a

A. ijfe;u P. mHk;pjksa dh mRifÙkA

B. IyhLVkslhu Q. ekuo ds dfile~ iwoZtksa dk çdVuA

C. fMoksfu;u R.vR;k/kqfud Lru/kkjh x.kksa dh mRifÙkA

D. vksfyxkslhu S. fFkjsfIlM~l dh mRifÙkA

fodYi

A B C D (1) P Q R S (2) S R P P (3) P R S Q (4) S Q P R

40. Match List-I (Animals) to the List-II (Life spans)

and select the option with correct matching. List-I (Animals) List-II (Life spans in years)

A. Cat 1. 150 B. Parrot 2. 20 C. Tortoise 3. 62 D. Dog 4. 28 E. Horse 5. 140 Options

A B C D E (1) 4 3 1 2 5 (2) 4 5 1 2 3 (3) 5 4 2 1 3 (4) 5 2 3 4 1

lwph-I (tUrq) dks lwph-II (thou vof/k) ls feykb, rFkk

lqesfyr fodYi dk p;u dhft,A

lwph-I (tUrq) lwph-II (thou vof/k o"kZ esa)

A. fcYyh 1. 150

B. rksrk 2. 20

C. dNqvk 3. 62

D. dqÙkk 4. 28

E. ?kksM+k 5. 140

Options

A B C D E (1) 4 3 1 2 5 (2) 4 5 1 2 3 (3) 5 4 2 1 3 (4) 5 2 3 4 1

PART - II (PHYSICS) : Hkkx - II (HkkSfrd&foKku)






gSA

41. The v – t plot of an object moving in a straight

line is shown in the figure. The average velocity of the object during the first8 seconds is

,d xfreku oLrq dk v – t xzkQ fuEu fp=k esa iznf'kZr gSA

izFke 8 lSd.M ds nkSjku oLrq dk vkSlr osx gSA

4 8

6

(1) 0 (2) 0.83 ms–1

(3) 2.5 ms–1 (4) 3.67 ms–1

42. A particle has initial velocity, v = ˆ â i b j and a

constant force F = ˆ ˆb i a j acts on the particle.

The path of the particle is :

,d d.k dk izkjfEHkd osx] v = ˆ â i b j gSa ,oa ,d fu;r

cy F = ˆ ˆb i a j d.k ij dk;Zjr gSA d.k dk iFk gS :

(1) straight line (2) parabolic (3) circular

(4) elliptical (1) ljy js[kk

(2) ijoy;

(3) o`Ùkkdkj

(4) nh?kZo`Ùkkdkj






SAMPLE TEST PAPER

03

43. The retardation experienced by a moving motor

boat after its engine is cutoff is givenby d v

d t

=–kv3,

where k is a positive constant. If initial velocity of the motor boat is v0 (magnitude of velocity at cut

off is v0 ). The magnitude of the velocity at time t

after the cut off is : ,d xfreku eksVjcksV dk batu cUn gksus ds i'pkr~

eksVjcksV ij vkjksfir eUnu d v

d t

= –kv3 ds }kjk fn;k

tkrk gSA ;gkW k /kukRed fLFkjkad gSA ;fn eksVj cksV dk

izkjfEHkd osx v0 gks (batu cUn gksrs le; osx dk ifjek.k

v0 gks) rks batu cUn gksus ds t le; i'pkr~ eksVjcksV dk

osx gksxkA

(1) v0 (2) 0

v

2

(3) v0e–kt (4) 0

2

0

v

2 v k t 1

44. A particle moves such that s = 4t2 + 6t + 4 the

accelearation of the particle is

,d fcUnq dk foLFkkiu s = 4t2 + 6t + 4 gSA fcUnq dk

Roj.k Kkr djsA

(1) 4 (2) 12 (3) 8 (4) 16

45. A boat is sent across a river with a velocity of

8 km/hr. If the resultant velocity of boat is 10 km/hr, then velocity of the river is :

,d uko 8 fdeh/?k.Vs ds osx ls unh ikj djrh gSA ;fn

uko dk ifj.kkeh osx 10 fdeh/?k.Vk gks] rc unh dk osx

gksxk

(1) 10 km/hr (2) 8 km/hr (3) 6 km/hr (4) 4 km/hr

46. Newton's second law gives the measure of

(1) Acceleration (2) Force (3) Momentum (4) Angular momentum U;wVu dh xfr dk f}rh; fu;e ekiu djrk gS

(1) Roj.k dk (2) cy dk

(3) laosx dk (4) dks.kh; laosx dk

47. An object will continue moving uniformly until

(1) The resultant force acting on it begins to decrease

(2) The resultant force on it is zero (3) The resultant force is at right angle to its

rotation (4) The resultant force on it is increased

continuously ,d oLrq rc rd ,dleku xfr djrh jgsxh] tc rd

(1) ml ij yxus okys ifj.kkeh cyksa dk eku ?kVus yxrk gS

(2) ml ij ifj.kkeh cy 'kwU; gS

(3) ifj.kkeh cy mlds ?kweus dh fn'kk ds yEcor~ gS

(4) ifj.kkeh cy dk eku yxkrkj c<+rk pyk tk;s

48. A particle of mass 0.3 kg is subjected to a force

F = – kx with k = 15 N/m. What will be its initial acceleration if it is released from a point 20 cm away from the origin

0.3 fdxzk nzO;eku dh fdlh oLrq ij cy F = – kx

dk;Zjr gS] tgk¡ k = 15 N/m. gSA oLrq dk izkjafHkd Roj.k

D;k gksxk] tc bls ewyfcUnq ls 20 lseh nwjLFk fcUnq ls

NksM+k tkrk gS

(1) 5 m/s2 (2) 10 m/s2

(3) 3 m/s2 (4) 15 m/s2

49. A force F = k ˆ ˆy i x j , where k is a positive

constant, acts on a particle moving in the xy plane. Starting from the origin, the particle is

taken along the positive xaxis to the point (a, 0)

and then parallel to the yaxis to the point (a, a). The total work done by the force on the particle is

xy ry esa xfr djrs gq, d.k ,d cy

F = k ˆ ˆy i x j dk;Zjr gSA tgk¡ k ,d fu;rkad gSA

;g d.k ewy fcUnq ls izkjEHk gksrk gSA d.k dks /kukRed

xv{k ds vuqfn'k fcUnq (a, 0) rd ys tk;k tkrk gS rFkk

blds i'pkr~ yv{k ds lekUrj fcUnq (a, a) rd ys tk;k

tkrk gS %

(1) 2 ka2 (2) 2 ka2 (3) ka2 (4) ka2 50. In the track shown in figure section AB is a

quadrant of a circle of 1 metre radius. A block is released at A and slides without friction until it reaches B. After B it moves on a rough horizontal floor and comes to rest at distance 3 metres from B. What is the coefficient of friction between floor and body ? (fp=k esa n'kkZ;s x;s iFk esa [k.M AB, 1

ehVj f=kT;k ds o`Ùk dk ,d prqFkkZa'k gSA A ij ,d CykWd

NksM+k tkrk gS tks fcuk ?k"kZ.k ds rc rd fQlyrk gS tc

rd fd ;g B ij ugha igq¡p tkrk gSA B ij igq¡pus ds ckn

;g ,d [kqjnjs {kSfrt ry ij xfr djrk gS vkSj B ls 3

ehVj dh nwjh ij tkdj :d tkrk gSA CykWd o ry ds chp

?k"kZ.k xq.kkad D;k gS ?)

(1) 1/3 (2) 2/3 (3) 1/4 (4) 3/8 51. In the Figure, the ball A is released from rest

when the spring is at its natural length. For the block B, of mass M to leave contact with the ground at some stage, the minimum mass of A must be : (fp=k essa xsan A fojke ls NksM+h tkrh gS tc

fLçax viuh lkekU; yEckbZ esa gSA M nzO;eku ds CykWd B

dk fdlh fLFkfr ij lrg ls lEidZ NwV tkrk gS rks A dk

U;wure nzO;eku gksuk pkfg, :)

(1) 2 M (2) M (3) M/2 (4) A function of M and the force constant of the

spring. nzO;eku M rFkk fLçax ds cy fu;rkad dk Qyu gksxkA






SAMPLE TEST PAPER

03

52. In the figure shown a ring A is rolling without

sliding with a velocity v on the horizontal surface of the body B (of same mass as A). All surfaces are smooth. B has no initial velocity. What will be the maximum height (from initial position) reached by A on B.

fp=kkuqlkj oy; A fi.M B dh {kSfrt lrg ij fcuk fQlys

yq<+d jgh gSA ;fn B dk nzO;eku A ds leku gS rFkk lHkh

lrg fpduh gks rFkk B dk çkjfEHkd osx 'kwU; gSA A }kjk B

dh lrg ij çkIr vf/kdre Åpk¡bZ Kkr djks \

(1)

23 v

4 g (2)

2v

4 g

(3)

2v

2 g (4)

2v

3 g

53. A sphere rolls without sliding on a rough inclined

plane (only mg and constant forces are acting on the body). The angular momentum of the body:

(1) about centre is conserved (2) is conserved about the point of contact (3) is conserved about a point whose distance

from the inclined plane is greater than the radius of the sphere

(4) is not conserved about any point.

,d xksyk [kqjnjs ur ry ij fcuk fQlys yq<+drk gSA oLrq

dk dks.kh; laosx &

(1) dsUnz ds lkis{k lajf{kr gSA

(2) laidZ fcUnq ds lkis{k lajf{kr gSA

(3) ml fcUnq ds lkis{k lajf{kr gksxk ftldh ur ry ls

nwjh xksys dh f=kT;k ls vf/kd gksxh

(4) fdlh Hkh fcUnq ds lkis{k lajf{kr ugha gS

54. Suppose in gravity free space a disc of mass m0

rotates freely about a fixed horizontal axis through its centre. A thin cotton pad is fixed to its rim, which can absorb water. The mass of water

dripping onto the pad is kg per second. After what time will the angular velocity of the disc get reduced to half of its initial value?

ekuk fdlh xq:Roghu LFkku ij ,d m0 nzO;eku dh pdrh

viuh {kSfrt v{k tks dsUnz ls xqtjrh gS] ds lkis{k ?kw.kZu

xfr dj jgh gSA ,d diM+s dk isM (thin cotton pad)

bldh ifjf/k ij tqM+k gqvk gS tks ikuh dks lks[k ysrk gSA

ikuh dk nzO;eku kg per sec. dh nj ls isM ij fxj

jgk gSA fdrus le; ds i'pkr~ pdrh dk dks.kh; osx

çkjfEHkd osx ls vk/kk gks tk;sxk ?

(1) 2m0/ (2) 3m0/

(3) m0/ (4) m0/2

55. A pendulum of length L and bob of mass M has a

spring of force constant k connected horizontally to it at a distance h below its point of suspension. The rod is in equilibrium in vertical position. The rod of length L used for vertical suspension is rigid and massless. The frequency of vibration of

the system for small values of is : ,d NM+ yksyd ftldh yEckbZ L rFkk xksys dk nzO;eku M

gS] ds fuyEcu fcUnq ls h nwjh uhps dh vksj k fLizax fu;rkad

dh ,d fLizax {kSfrt :i ls tqM+h gqbZ gSA NM+ m/oZfn'kk esa

lkE;koLFkk esa gSA L yEckbZ dh NM+ tks m/oZ fuyacu ds fy,

mi;ksx esa yh xbZ gS] n`<+ rFkk nzO;eku jfgr gSA ds

y?kqekuksa ds fy, dEiUuksa dh vko`fÙk gksxhA

(1) 1 k hg L

2 L m

(2) 1 m g L k

2 L m

(3) 2

m L2

m g L k h

(4) 21 k h

g L2 L m

56. Two particles execute SHM on same straight line

with same mean position, same time period 6 sec. and same amplitude 5 cm. Both the particles start SHM from their mean position (in same direction) with a time gap of 1 second. Find the maximum separation between the two particles during their motion :

nks d.k ,d gh ljy js[kk ij ,d gh ek/; fLFkfr ls leku

vkorZ dky 6 lSd.M rFkk leku vk;ke 5 cm ls ljy

vkorZ xfr djrs gSaA nksuksa d.k viuh ek/; fLFkfr ls (leku

fn'kk esa) 1 lsd.M ds le; vUrjky ls ljy vkorZ xfr

izkjEHk djrs gSaA xfr ds nkSjku nksuksa d.kksa ds chp vf/kdre

nwjh gS &

(1) 2 cm (2) 3 cm (3) 4 cm (4) 5 cm

57. Two interferring waves have the same

wavelength, frequency and amplitude. They are

travelling in the same direction but 900 out of phase compared to individual waves. The resultant wave will have the same.

(1) amplitude and velocity but different wavelength

(2) frequency and velocity but different wavelength

(3) wavelength and velocity but different amplitude

(4) amplitude and frequency but different wavelength

O;frdj.k djus okys nks rjaxs leku rajx nS/;Z leku vko`fÙk

o leku vk;ke dh gS rFkk og leku fn'kk esa xfr dj jgh

gS ijUrq ,d nwljs ds lkis{k dyk esa 900 dk vUrj gS rks

ifj.kkeh rjax j[ksxh

(1) leku vk;ke o osx ysfdu fHkUu rjaxnS/;Z

(2) leku vko`fÙk o osx ysfdu fHkUu rjaxnS/;Z

(3) leku rjaxnS/;Z o osx ysfdu fHkUu vk;ke

(4) leku vk;ke o vko`fÙk ysfdu fHkUu rjaxnS/;Z






SAMPLE TEST PAPER

03

58. How long will it take sound waves to travel a

distance between points A & B if the air temperature between them varies linearly from T1 to T2 ? (The velocity of sound in air at

temperature T is given by v = T , where is a

constant)

A rFkk B nks fcUnqvksa ds e/; nwjh gS rFkk buds e/; gok

dk rkieku T1 ls T2 rd js[kh; :i ls ifjofrZr gksrk gSA

rks /ofu rjaxks dks nwjh r; djus esa yxk le; gksxk

&(rkieku T ij gok esa /ofu dk osx v = T ls iznf'kZr

gS] tgk¡ ,d fu;rkad gS)

(1)

1 2

2

T T

(2) 1

2

T

T

(3)

2 1

2

( T T )

(4)

2 1

2

T T

59. Figure shown is a graph, at a certain time t, of

the displacement function S(x,t) of three sound waves 1,2 and 3 as marked on the curves that travel along x–axis through air. If P1,P2 and P3

represent their pressure amplitudes respectively, then correct relation between them is :

gok esa x-v{k ds vuqfn'k xfr dj jgh rhu /ofu rjaxksa

¼ftudksa oØksa ij 1, 2, 3 }kjk n'kkZ;k x;k gS½ dk fdlh

le; t ij foLFkkiu Qyu S(x, t) oØ fp=k esa iznf'kZr gSA

vxj P1, P2 rFkk P3 Øe'k% buds nkc vk;ke gSa rks buds

e/; lgh lEcU/k gS &

(1) P1 > P2 > P3 (2) P3 > P2 > P1

(3) P1 = P2 = P3 (4) P2 > P3 > P1

60. A current of 2.50 A passing through a heating

coil immersed in 180g of paraffin (specific heat

capacity 2J g–1K–1)contained in a 100g

calorimeter(specific heat capacity 0.400Jg–1K–1) raises the temperature from 5ºC below room temperature to 5ºC above room temperature in 100 s. The reading of the voltmeter connected across the heating coil is

180 xzke, iSjkQhu ¼fof'k"V Å"ek 2.00 twy × xzke–1 ×

dsfYou–1 ½ ls Hkjs 100 xkzke ds dSyksjhekih esa ¼fof'k"V

Å"ek 0.400 twy × xzke–1 × dsfYou–1 ½ Mqoh rkih;

dq.Myh esa 2.5 ,sfEi;j /kkjk izokfgr dh tkrh gSA ftlls

rki] dejs ds rki ls 5ºC uhps ls ] dejs ds rki ls 5ºC

Åij rd 100 lS0 esa c<+ tkrk gSA rkih; dq.Myh ds fljks

ij yxs oksYVehVj dk ikB;kad gS &

(1) 8.0 V (2) 16.0 V (3) 24.0 V (4) 32.0 V

61. Water of mass m2 = 1 kg is contained in a

copper calorimeter of mass m1 = 1 kg. Their

common temperature t = 10°C. Now a piece of ice of mass m3 = 2 kg and temperature is –11°C

dropped into the calorimeter. Neglecting any heat loss, the final temperature of system is. [specific heat of copper = 0.1 Kcal/ kg°C, specific heat of water = 1 Kcal/kg°C, specific heat of ice = 0.5 Kcal/kg°C, latent heat of fusion of ice = 78.7 Kcal/kg]

,d rkacs ds ,d dSyksjhehVj ftldk nzO;eku m1 = 1kg gS]

ikuh ftldk nzO;eku m2 = 1 kg gS] dks dSyksjhehVj esa

Hkjk x;k gSA mudk mHk;fu"B rkieku t = 10°C gSA vc

cQZ dk VqdM+k ftldk nzO;eku m3 = 2 kg rFkk ftldk

rki –11°C gS] dks dSyksjhehVj esa fxjk;k tkrk gSA fdlh

Hkh izdkj dh Å"ek gkfu ux.; ekuksA fudk; dk vfUre

rkieku gS & [rk¡cs dh fof'k"V Å"ek = 0.1 Kcal/ kg°C,

ikuh dh fof'k"V Å"ek = 1 Kcal/kg°C, cQZ dh fof'k"V

Å"ek = 0.5 Kcal/kg°C, cQZ ds xyu dh xqIr Å"ek =

78.7 Kcal/kg] (1) 0°C (2) 4°C (3) – 4°C (4) – 2°C

62. A satellite with mass 2000 kg and angular

momentum magnitude 2 × 1012 kg.m2/s is moving in an elliptical orbit around a planet. The rate at which area is being swept out by the satellite around the planet, is equal to

,d xzg ds pkjks vksj nh?kZo`Ùkkdkj d{kk esa pDdj yxk jgs

,d mixzg dk nzO;eku 2000 kg gS rFkk dks.kh; laosx dk

ifjek.k 2 × 1012 kg.m2/s gSA xzg ds pkjks vksj mixzg

}kjk izliZ {ks=kQy dh nj fdlds cjkcj gSA

(1) 1 × 109 m2/s (2) 5 × 109 m2/s

(3) 5 × 108 m2/s (4) 4 × 1015 m2/s

63. A certain quarternary star system consists of

three stars, each of mass m, moving in same circular orbit about a stationary central star of mass M. The three identical stars orbit in same sense and are symmetrically located with respect to each other. Considering gravitational force of all remaining bodies on every star, the time period of each of three stars is :

,d fdlh pkj rkjk fudk; esa rhu rkjsa gS ftudk izR;sd dk

nzO;eku m gS] M nzO;eku ds dsUnzh; fLFkj rkjs ds pkjksa vksj

,d gh o`Ùkkdkj d{kk esa xfr djrs gSaA rhu leku rkjs

leku fn'kk esa pDdj yxkrs gS rFkk ,d nwljs ds lkis{k

lefer :i ls fLFkr gSA izR;sd rkjs ij lHkh 'ks"k oLrqvksa ds

dkj.k xq:Rokd"kZ.k cy dks ekurs gq;s] rhuksa rkjksa esa izR;sd

dk vkorZdky gS &

(1) 2

3r

mG M

3

(2) 2

3r

mG M

3

(3) 2

3r

G M 3m (4) 2

3r

G (M 3m )






SAMPLE TEST PAPER

03

64. Loop A of radius (r << R) moves towards loop B

with a constant velocity V in such a way that their planes are always parallel. What is the distance between the two loops (x) when the induced emf in loop A is maximum

(r << R) f=kT;k dk ywi A ywi B dh rjQ fu;r osx V ls

bl çdkj xfr djrk gS fd muds ry ges'kk lekUrj jgrs

gSA nksuksa ?ksjksa ds e/; nwjh (x) dk eku D;k gksxk tcfd ywi

A esa çsfjr fo0ok0cy vf/kdre gks %

(1) R (2) R

2

(3) R

2 (4)

1R 1

2

65. A long straight current carrying wire is placed

along the axis of a current carrying circular ring of radius R. The mutual inductance of this system is

,d yEcs lh/ks /kkjkokgh rkj dks R f=kT;k dh ,d /kkjkokgh

o`Ùkkdkj oy; ds v{k ds vuqfn'k j[kk tkrk gSA rks bl

fudk; dk vU;ksU; izsjdRo gSA

(1) 0R

2

(2)

0R

2

(3) 0

2

(4) 0

66. The magnetic induction and the intensity of

magnetic field inside an iron pole of an

electromagnetic are 10 Wb m–2 and 250 Am–1 respectively. What is the relative permeability of

iron ? (0 = 4 × 10–7 Hm–1)

,d oS|qr pqEcdh; ykSg [kEHksa (Iron pole) ds vUnj

pqEcdh; izsj.k rFkk pqEcdh; {ks=k dh rhozrk Øe'k%

10 Wb m–2 rFkk 250 Am–1 gSA ykSgs dh lkis{k

ikjxE;rk D;k gksxh ? (0 = 4 × 10–7 Hm–1)

(1)

51 0

6 (2)

51 0

(3)

51 0

3 (4)

51 0

5

67. A space has magnetic field in which the lines of

induction are as shown in the figure chose incorrect :

fdlh pqEcdh; {ks=k esa mifLFkr izsj.k js[kk;sa fp=k esa n'kkZ;h

x;h gSA vlR; dFku pqus

(1) The magnetic induction at B is greater than the magnetic induction at C.

B ij pqEcdh; izsj.k C ij pqEcdh; izsj.k ls T;knk gksxkA

(2) An electron placed at B experiences a larger force at B than that at C.

B ij j[kk bysDVªkWu C dh rqyuk esa T;knk cy vuqHko

djsxkA

(3) An electron shot with a velocity towards D, perpendicular to the lines of induction at B in the plane of the figure will emerge from its opposite corner.

,d bysDVªkWu dks B ij izsj.k js[kkvksa ds yEcor~ fp=k ds ry

esa fdlh osx ls D dh rjQ nkxrs gS] rks ;g blds foijhr

dksus ls ckgj fudysxkA

(4) An electron shot with a velocity along the line ABC will continue to be moving in the same direction.

,d bysDVªkWu dks fdlh osx ls js[kk ABC ds vuqfn'k nkxk

tk;s] rks og mlh fn'kk esa xfr djrk jgsxkA

68. A convex mirror of focal length f forms an image

which is 1

n times the object. The distance of the

object from the mirror is f Qksdl nwjh okys mÙky niZ.k }kjk cus çfrfcEc dk vkdkj

oLrq ds vkdkj ls 1

n xquk gSA oLrq dh niZ.k ls nwjh gksxh

(1) (n – 1) f (2) fn

1n

(3) fn

1n

(4) (n + 1) f

69. When a white light passes through a hollow

prism, then (1) There is no dispersion and no deviation

(2) Dispersion but no deviation (3) Deviation but no dispersion (4) There is dispersion and deviation both dkWp ds [kks[kys fizTe esa ls lQsn izdk'k dh dksbZ fdj.k

tc xqtjrh gS] rks mlesa gksrk gS

(1) u rks o.kZ fo{ksi.k vkSj u gh fopyu

(2) o.kZ fo{ksi.k ijUrq fopyu ugha

(3) fopyu ijUrq fo{ksi.k ugh

(4) fo{ksi.k vkSj fopyu nksuksa

70. A large sheet carries uniform surface charge

density . A rod of length 2 has a linear charge

density on one half and - on the second half. The rod is hinged at mid-point O and makes

angle with the normal to the sheet. The electric force experienced by the rod is

,d cgqr cM+h 'khV dk ,d leku i`"Bh; vkos'k ?kuRo gSA

2 yEckbZ] dh ,d NM+ ds vk/ks Hkkx ij jsf[kd vkos'k ?kuRo

o nwljs vk/ks Hkkx ij jsf[kd vkos'k ?kuRo –gSA NM+ dks

e/; fcUnq O ls dhyfdr gS vkSj ;g 'khV ds vfHkyEc ds

lkFk dks.k cukrh gSA NM+ ds }kjk vuqHko fd;k x;k fo|qr

cy gS &






SAMPLE TEST PAPER

03

(1) 0 (2)

2

0

s in2

(3)

2

0

s in

(4) None of these buesa ls dksbZ ugha

PART - III (CHEMISTRY): Hkkx - III (jlk;u&foKku)

Atomic masses (ijek.kq Hkkj) : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7,

C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24, Al = 27, Si = 28, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65, As = 75, Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, Hg = 200, Pb = 207]






gSA

71. The orbit having Bohr radius equal to 1st Bohr orbit of H–atom is

(1) n = 2 of He+ (2) n = 2 of B+4

(3) n = 3 of Li+2 (4) n = 2 of Be+3

og cksj f=kT;k okyh d{kk tks H-ijek.kq ds 1st cksj d{kk ds

cjkcj gSA

(1) He+ ds fy, n = 2 (2) B+4 ds fy, n = 2

(3) Li+2 ds fy, n = 3 (4) Be+3 ds fy, n = 2

72. The order of first electron affinity of O, S and Se

is : O, S vkSj Se dh çFke bysDVªkWu ca/kqrk dk Øe gksxkA

(1) O > S > Se (2) S > Se > O (3) Se > O > S (4) S > O > Se

73. If 500 ml of 1 M solution of glucose is mixed with 500 m of 1 M solution of glucose final molarity of

solution will be : ;fn 1 M Xywdksl foy;u ds 500 ml dks] Xywdksl ds gh

1 M foy;u ds 500 ml ds lkFk feyk;k tkrk gS] rks

foy;u dh vfUre eksyjrk fuEu gksxhA

(1) 1 M (2) 0.5 M (3) 2 M (4) 1.5 M

74. Match the compounds in the List – I with that in

List – II List – I List–II

(A) XeO3 (1) Planar triangular

(B) XeOF4 (2) T-shape

(C) BO33– (3) Trigonal pyramid

(D) CIF3 (4) Square pyramid

(E) I3– (5) Linear

(6) Bent lwph-I ds ;kSfxdksa dks lwph-II ls lqesfyr dhft,A

lwph-I lwph-II

(A) XeO3 (1) leryh; f=kHkqth;

(B) XeOF4 (2) T-vkd`fr

(C) BO33– (3) f=kHkqth; fijSfeMh;

(D) CIF3 (4) oxZ fijSfefM;

(E) I3– (5) js[kh;

(6) eqMh gqbZ vkd`fr

(1) A–1, B–4, C–3, D–2, E–5 (2) A–2, B–4,C–1, D–2, E–6 (3) A–3, B–4, C–1, D–2, E–5 (4) A–3, B–4, C–2, D–1, E–5

75. A reaction mixture containing H2, N2 and NH3

has partial pressure 2 atm, 1 atm and 3 atm respectively at 725 K. If the value of KP for the

reaction, N2 + 3H2 2NH3 is 4.2810–5

atm–2 at 725 K, in which direction the net reaction will go :

(1) Forward (2) Backward (3) No net reaction (4) Direction of reaction cannot be predicted 725 K ij] ,d vfHkfØ;k feJ.k esa H2, N2 rFkk NH3 ds

vkaf'kd nkc Øe'k% 2 atm, 1 atm rFkk 3 atm gS ;fn

725 ij] vfHkfØ;k N2 + 3H2 2NH3 ds fy, Kp

dk eku 4.28 10–5 atm–2 gS rc ifj.kkeh vfHkfØ;k

fdl fn'kk esa xfr djsxhA

(1) vxz fn'kk esa

(2) i'p fn'kk esa

(3) fdlh Hkh fn'kk esa ugha

(4)vfHkfØ;k dh fn'kk dk vuqeku ugha yxk;k tk ldrk gSA

76. The density of neon will be highest at :

fu;kWu dk ?kuRo fuEu ij mPpre gksxk %

(1) STP (2) 0°C, 2 atm (3) 273°C. 1 atm (4) 273°C. 2 atm

77. Which one of the following orders presents the

correct sequence of the increasing basic nature of the given oxides ? fuEufyf[kr esa dkSu&lk Øe fn;s x;s vkWDlkbMksa ds Øe'k%

c<+rs {kkjh; LoHkko dks izLrqr djrk gS \

(1) Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O

(2) MgO < K2O < Al2O3 < Na2O (3) Na2O < K2O < MgO < Al2O3

(4) K2O < Na2O < Al2O3 < MgO






SAMPLE TEST PAPER

03

78. Boric acid is polymeric due to :

(1) its acidic nature (2) the presence of hydrogen bonds (3) its monobasic nature (4) its geometry cksfjd vEy fdlds dkj.k cgqyd gS %

(1) bldh vEyh; izd`fr ds dkj.k

(2) gkbMªkstu cU/k dh mifLFkfr ds dkj.k

(3) bldh ,dy {kkjh; izd`fr ds dkj.k

(4) bldh T;kferh ds dkj.k

79. In the reaction X – + XO3

– + H+ X2 +

H2O, the molar ratio in which X – and XO3

–

react is :

vfHkfØ;k X – + XO3

– + H+ X2 + H2O esa]

X – rFkk XO3

– ds vfHkd`r gksus dk eksyj vuqikr gksxk %

(1) 1 : 5 (2) 5 : 1 (3) 2 : 3 (4) 3 : 2

80. S(rhombic) + O2 SO2, H = – 297.5 kJ

S(monoclinic) + O2 SO2,H = – 300 kJ

This data indicates :

(1) Rhombic sulphur is yellow in colour

(2) monoclinic sulphur is more stable

(3) monoclinic sulphur has metallic lustre

(4) The process S(rhombic) S(monoclinic) is endothermic

S(v"VQydh;) + O2 SO2,H = – 297.5 kJ

S(,durk{k) + O2 SO2, H = – 300 kJ

;g vkadM+s lwfpr djrs gSa %

(1) v"VQydh; xa/kd ihys jax dk gksrk gSA

(2) ,durk{k xa/kd vf/kd LFkk;h gksrk gSA

(3) ,durk{k xa/kd dh /kkfRod ped gksrh gSA

(4) izfØ;k S(v"VQydh;) S(,d urk{k) Å"ek'kks"kh gSA

81. An ideal gas is allowed to expand both reversibly

and irreversibly in an isolated system. If Ti is the

initial temperature and Tf is the final temperature,

which of the following statements is correct ? (1) Tf > Ti for reversible process but Tf = Ti for

irreversible process (2) (Tf)rev = (Tf)irrev (3) Tf = Ti for both reversible and irreversible

processes (4) (Tf)irrev > (Tf)rev

,d foyfxr fudk; esa ,d vkn'kZ xSl dks mÙØe.kh; vkSj

vuqÙØe.kh; nksuksa rjg çlkfjr gksus fn;k tkrk gSA ;fn

çkjfEHkd rki Ti rFkk vfUre rki Tf gS rks buesa ls

dkSulk dFku lR; gS \

(1) mÙØe.kh; çØe ds fy;s Tf > Ti gS] ysfdu

vuqÙØe.kh; çØe ds fy;s Tf = Ti gSaA

(2) (Tf)mÙØe.kh; = (Tf)vuqÙØe.kh;

(3) mÙØe.kh; vkSj vuqÙØe.kh; nksuks çØeks ds fy;s

Tf = Ti .

(4) (Tf)vuqÙØe.kh; > (Tf)mÙØe.kh;

82. For the reaction equilibrium, N2O4 (g)

2NO2(g) the concentrations of N2O4 and NO2 at

equilibrium are 4.8 × 10–2 and 1.2×10–2 mol L–1

respectively.The value of Kc for the reaction is

vfHkfØ;k lkE; ds fy,] N2O4 (g) 2NO2 (g)

lkE;oLFkk ij N2O4 vkSj NO2 dh lkUnzrk,a Øe'k% 4.8 ×

10–2 vkSj 1.2 × 10–2 mol L–1 gSA vfHkfØ;k ds fy,

Kc dk eku gksxk %

(1) 3.3 × 102 mol L–1 (2) 3 × 10–1 mol L–1

(3) 3 × 10–3 mol L–1 (4) 3 × 103 mol L–1

83. Assuming the formation of an ideal solution,

determine the boiling point of a mixture containing 1560 g benzene (molar mass = 78) and 1125 g chlorobenzene (molar mass = 112.5) using the following against an external pressure of 1000 Torr.

,d feJ.k dk DFkukad fcUnq Kkr djks ftlesa 1560 g

csathu(eksyj nzO;eku = 78) vkSj 1125 g Dyksjks csathu

(eksyj nzO;eku = 112.5) gS rFkk 1000 Vksj ds ckgjh nkc

j[kk gSA ekuk ,d vkn'kZ foy;u gSA

b e n ze n e

c h lo ro b e n z e n e

9 0

2 2 0 0

1 0 0

t(c º)

11 0 1 2 0

1 8 0 0

1 3 5 0

1 0 0 0

5 4 0

4 0 0

3 0 0

2 0 0

Va p o u r

P re s s u re

(1) 90ºC (2) 100ºC (3) 110º (4) 120ºC

84. The best colligative property used for the

determination of molecular masses of polymers is :

(1) Relative lowering in vapour pressure (2) Osmotic pressure (3) Elevation in boiling point (4) depression in freezing point cgqyd ds v.kqHkkj dks Kkr djus ds fy, lcls mi;qZDr

v.kqla[;d xq.k/keZ fuEu gS :

(1) ok"i nkc esa voueu (2) ijklj.k nkc

(3) DoFkukad esa mUu;u (4) fgekad esa voueu

85. For a given reaction A Product, rate is 1×10–4

M s–1 when [A] = 0.01 M and rate is 1.41×10–4

M s–1 when [A] = 0.02 M. Hence, rate law is :

nh xbZ vfHkfØ;k A mRikn ds fy,] nj 1×10–4Ms–1

gS tc [A] = 0.01 M rFkk nj 1.41 × 10–4 Ms–1 tc

[A] = 0.02M. vr% nj fu;e gSA

(1) dt

]A[d

= k [A]2 (2) dt

]A[d

= k[A]

(3) ]A[

4

k

dt

]A[d

(4) dt

]A[d

= k[A]1/2






SAMPLE TEST PAPER

03

86. Select the correct statement about pure water :

(1) On increasing the temperature, pH of water also increases.

(2) On decreasing the temperature, pOH of water also decreases.

(3) At any temperature 2

pKw

= – log10[H+]

(4) [H+] = [OH–] = wK at only 25ºC

'kq) ty ds fy, lgh dFku dk p;u dhft;sA

(1) rkieku esa o`f) djus ij] ty ds pH esa Hkh o`f) gksxhA

(2) rkieku esa deh djus ij] ty ds pOH esa Hkh deh

gksxhA

(3) fdlh Hkh rki ij 2

pKw

= – log10[H+]

(4) [H+] = [OH–] = wK dsoy 25ºC ij

87. The edge lengths of the unit cells in terms of the

radius of spheres constituting fcc,bcc and simple cubic unit cell are respectively - fcc, bcc o ljy ?kuh; bdkbZ lSyksa esa dksj yEckbZ (edge

length) dks xksys dh f=kT;k ds :i esa fuEu izdkj fy[kk

tk ldrk gS&

(1) r22,

3

r4,r2 (2) r2,r22,

3

r4

(3) 3

r4,r22,r2 (4) r2,

3

r4,r22

88. Body centred cubic lattice has co–ordination

number of : dk; dsfUær ?kuh; tkyd esa leUo; la[;k gS :

(1) 8 (2) 12 (3) 6 (4) 4

89. Which is wrong in case of enzyme catalysis ?

(1) Enzymes work best at an optimum temperature

(2) Enzymes work at an optimum pH (3) Enzymes are highly specific for substrates (4) An enzymes raises activation energy ,sUtkWbe mRizsj.k ds lanHkZ esa dkSulk vlR; gS \

(1) ,sUtkWbe mi;qDr rki ij Js"Bre dk;Z djrk gS

(2) ,sUTkkWbe mi;qDr pH ij dk;Z djrk gSA

(3) ,sUtkWbe lCLVªsV ds fy, vfrfof'k"V gksrs gSaA

(4) ,sUtkWbe lfØ;.k ÅtkZ dks c<+k nsrs gSA

90. Among the following statements which is

INCORRECT : (1) In the preparation of compounds of Xe,

Bartlett had taken O2PtF6 as a base compound

because both O2 and Xe have almost same

ionisation enthalpy. (2) Nitrogen does not show allotropy. (3) A brown ring is formed in the ring test for

NO3– ion. It is due to the formation of

[Fe(H2O)5(NO)]2+

(4) On heating with concentrated NaOH solution in an inert atmosphere of CO2, red

phosphorus givesPH3 gas.

fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku lgh ugh gS%

(1) Xe ds ;kSfxdksa ds fuekZ.k esa cVZysV (Bartlett) us

O2PtF6 dks vkèkkj ;kSfxd fy;k D;ksafd O2 o Xe nksuks

dh yxHkx leku vk;uu ÅtkZ gksrh gSA

(2) ukbVªkstu vij:irk iznf'kZr ugha djrk gSA

(3) NO3– vk;u ds ifj{k.k esa Hkwjk oy; curk gSA ;g

[Fe(H2O)5(NO)]2+ ds fuekZ.k ds dkj.k gksrk gSA

(4) yky QkWLQksjl lkUæ NaOH foy;u ds lkFk CO2 ds vfØ; okrkoj.k esa xeZ djus ij PH3 xSl nsrk gSA

91. Na2S2O3. 5H2O Sodium thiosulphate is used in

photography to : (1) remove reduced silver (2) remove undecomposed AgBr as soluble silver

thiosulphate complex (3) convert the metallic silver to silver salt (4) reduce the silver bromide grains to metallic

silver QksVksxzkQh esa lksfM;e Fkk;kslYQsV Na2S2O3. 5H2O dk

iz;ksx djrs gS %

(1) vipf;r flYoj dks gVkus ds fy,A

(2) vfo?kfVr AgBr dks foys;'khy flYoj Fkk;kslYQsV

ladqy ds :i esa gVkus ds fy,A

(3) /kkfRod flYoj dks flYoj yo.k esa :ikUrfjr djus esa

(4) flYoj czksekbM d.kksa dks /kkfRod flYoj esa vipf;r

djus ds fy,A

92. (I) When copper ore is mixed with silica, in a

reverberatory furnace copper matte is produced. The copper matte contains sulphides of copper (II) and iron (II).

(II) Zone refining is based on the principle that impurities are more soluble in molten metal than in solid metal.

(III) In the metallurgy of aluminium, graphite anode is oxidised to carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide.

Correct statements amongs the following are- (1) I, II (2) II, III (3) I, III (4) I, II (I) ijkoZruh HkV~Vh esa tc dkWij v;Ld dks flfydk ds lkFk

fefJr fd;k tkrk gS rks dkWij esV (matte) izkIr gksrh gSA

dkWij esV esa dkWij (II) o vkW;ju (II) lYQkbM gksrs gSA

(II) {ks=k ifj"dj.k (zone refining) bl fl)kUr ij

vkèkkfjr gS fd v'kqf);k¡ Bksl èkkrq dh rqyuk esa xfyr èkkrq

esa vfèkd foys; gksrh gSA

(III) ,Y;qfefu;e ds èkkrqdeZ esa xzsQkbV ,uksM dkcZu

eksuksvkWDlkbM o dkcZu MkbZvkWDlkbM esa vkWDlhd`r gks tkrk

gSA

fuEu esa ls lgh dFku gS&

(1) I, II (2) II, III (3) I, III (4) I, II






SAMPLE TEST PAPER

03

93. Electrode potential for Zn electrode varies

according to the equation.

2

059.0EE

Zn|ZnZn|Zn22

log ]Zn[

1

2 .

The graph of Zn|Zn2E vs log [Zn2+] is

Zn bysDVªksM ds fy, bysDVªksM foHko fuEu lehdj.k ds

vuqlkj ifjofrZr gksrk gS]

2

059.0EE

Zn|ZnZn|Zn22

log ]Zn[

1

2 rc

Zn|Zn2E rFkk log [Zn2+] ds eè; vkjs[k gS :

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

94. Consider the following statements ;

S1 : The [Co(ox)3]3 – complex is diamagnetic

and gains stability through chelation.

S2 : The [Co(NO2)6]4 – is inner orbital complex

involving d2sp3 hybridisation and is paramagnetic.

S3 : The complex [PtCl4]2 – is square planar

and diamagnetic. and arrange in the order of true / false (1) T T T (2) F F T (3) T F T (4) T T F fuEu dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft, (

S1 : [Co(ox)3]3 – ladqy izfrpqEcdh; gS rFkk ;g

dhysVhdj.k ds }kjk LFkkf;Ro xzg.k djrk gSA

S2 : [Co(NO2)6]4 – vkUrfjd d{kd ladqy gS] ftlesa

d2sp3 ladj.k gksrk gS rFkk ;g vuqpqEcdh; gSA

S3 : [PtCl4]2 – ladqy oxZ leryh; rFkk izfrpqEcdh;

izd`fr dk gksrk gSA

rFkk bUgsa lR;@vlR; ds Øe esa O;ofLFkr dhft,A

(1) T T T (2) F F T (3) T F T (4) T T F

95. The complex [Pt(NH3)4]2+ has ..... structure :

(1) square planar (2) tetrahedral (3) pyramidal (4) pentagonal

ladqy [Pt(NH3)4]2+ ----------------- lajpuk j[krk gS %

(1) oxkZdkj lery (2) prq"Qydh;

(3) fijkfeMh; (4) iapHkqth;

96. Which of the following is in order of increasing

covalent character ? fuEu e s a l s lgla;k std y{k.k dk c< +rk g qvk Øe

dk Sulk g S \

(1) LiClBClBeClCCl324

(2) 324

BClBeClCClLiCl

(3) 432

CClBClBeClLiCl

(4) 342

BClCClBeClLiCl

97. The number of P—O—P bonds in tricyclic

metaphosphoric acid is : (1) zero (2) two (3) three (4) four f=kpØh; esVkQkWLQksfjd vEy esa P—O—P cU/k dh la[;k

gSa %

(1) 'kwU; (2) nks

(3) rhu (4) pkj

98. The two forms of D-Glucopyranose obtained

from solution of D-Glucose are known as (1) Epimers (2) Anomers (3) Enantiomers (4) Geometrical Isomers D-Xywdksl ds foy;u ls D-Xywdksik;jsuksl dh nks lajpuk

izkIr gksrh gS] ftUgs dgrs gSa

(1) ,ihej (2) ,uksejl

(3) izfrfcEc :i (4) T;kfefr leko;oh

99. Nylon threads are made up of

(1) polyvinyl polymer (2) Polyester polymer (3) Polyamide polymer (4)Polyethylene polymer ukbykWu /kkxs cus gksrs gS %

(1) ikWyhfoukby cgqyd (2) ikWyh,LVj cgqyd

(3) ikfy,ekbM cgqyd (4) ikWfy,fFkyhu cgqyd

100. A substance forms zwitter ion. It can have

functional group. (1) – NH2 , – COOH (2) – NH2 , – SO5H

(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these ,d inkFkZ tks fToVj vk;u cukrk gS] esa fuEu fØ;kRed

lewg gks ldrs gS

(1) – NH2 , – COOH (2) – NH2 , – SO5H

(3) (1) rFkk (2)nksuksa (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha


1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (4) 4. (2) 5. (3) 6. (2) 7. (1) 8. (4) 9. (2) 10. (4) 11. (2) 12. (4) 13. (2) 14. (3) 15. (4) 16. (3) 17. (1) 18. (3) 19. (3) 20. (3) 21. (2) 22. (4) 23. (2) 24. (1) 25. (4) 26. (2) 27. (3) 28. (1) 29. (2) 30. (3) 31. (1) 32. (2) 33. (2) 34. (3) 35. (3) 36. (1) 37. (2) 38. (4) 39. (4) 40. (2) 41. (1) 42. (2) 43. (4) 44. (3) 45. (3) 46. (2) 47. (2) 48. (2) 49. (3) 50. (1) 51. (3) 52. (2) 53. (3) 54. (4) 55. (4) 56. (4) 57. (3) 58. (4) 59. (2) 60. (2) 61. (1) 62. (3) 63. (2) 64. (3) 65. (4) 66. (2) 67. (2) 68. (1) 69. (1) 70. (1) 71. (4) 72. (2) 73. (1) 74. (3) 75. (2) 76. (2) 77. (1) 78. (2) 79. (2) 80. (4) 81. (4) 82. (3) 83. (2) 84. (2) 85. (4) 86. (3) 87. (4) 88. (1) 89. (3) 90. (4) 91. (2) 92. (2) 93. (2) 94. (1) 95. (1) 96. (3) 97. (3) 98. (2) 99. (3) 100. (3)




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R TP) - Resonance · 2019-03-26 · SAMPLE TEST PAPER R TP) 19 INDEX S S.No. Contests Target page no. 1 How to prepare for the Resonance National Entrance Test (ResoNET)-2019 ResoNET