ELECTRIC QUIZ

1. When Battery is only power of source, Battery Switch Off removes power from:A. Battery BusB. Switch Hot Battery BusC. AC & DC Stand By BusesD. Static InverterE. All of above

2. Higher than normal Temp rise indicates excessive Gen load or poor condition of the Gen Drive

A. TrueB. False

3. BUS TRANS Switch OFF isolates transfer buses by preventing:A. Ops of bus trans relaysB. Opens TR3 disconnect relayC. Prevents the Battery charger from switching to its alternate source main bus 1D. A&BE. ___&C

4. The battery provides backup power for AC & DC stand by systemsA. TrueB. False

5. The Battery Switch must be On for the ground power Switch to be operableA. TrueB. False

6. The ground service Switch is Magnetically held in the ON position even if the ground power switch is positioned to ON

A. TrueB. False

7. In flight all galley power is auto removed when operating on one GenA. TrueB. False

8. Which of the following is correct?A. TR1 received AC power from main bus1B. TR2 received AC power from transfer bus2C. TR3 received AC power from main bus

9. An Aux 28 V DC power receptacle is provided near the battery_______ compartmentA. TrueB. false

10. The BATTERY charger is powered by main bus 2 with stand by source as ground service bus

A. TrueB. False

11. The power to the static inverter is controlled by the stand by power switch. The battery switch on the overhead panel

A. TrueB. False

12. The generator drive disconnects gen from the engine in event of gen drive malfunction and can be reactivated by putting it back on.

A. TrueB. False

13. To check the residual voltage the associated gen switch must be on A. TrueB. False

14. Fully charged battery will provide a min of ________ minutes of stand by powerA. 12B. 15C. 30D. 20

15. The battery bus is powered by the hot battery bus, regardless of the battery switch position.

A. TrueB. False

16. In flight if one gen bus is powered by the APU and the other APU gen switch is moved to on, the second gen bus will

A. Connect to the APUB. Will not connect to the APU gen

17. Fire warning light push, extinguishes both master fire warn lights andA. Silences fire warning bellB. Silences remote APU fire warning hornC. Resets sys for additional warningsD. All of the above

18. System annunciator panel amber light illuminate, relating to illuminated system ofA. Forward overheadB. Aft overheadC. Overheat/fire protectionD. All of the above

19. A single fault in certain redundant sys, or some simple faults, cause the system annunciator and Master caution lights to illuminate

A. TrueB. False

20. Pushing the Landing gear warning light cut out switch silences landing gear configuration warning aural indication at flaps 15, when either forward thrust level is between idle and approx. 10 degrees and opposite forward thrust lever is greater than approx. 30 degrees

A. TrueB. False

1. Engine start switch at flt position provides ignition toA. Left ignB. Right ignC. Both ignD. Non of the above

2. Choose the correct statement about LOW IDLE lightA. It is deactivated when engine start lever is in cut outB. The thrust lever for either engine is near idle and the MEC on the either engine is not

commanded to maintain low idle rpm in flightC. The speed of either engine is below 25% N2 in flightD. Non of the above

3. Engine start lever when at idle positionA. De energizes ignition systemB. Electrically opens engine shut off valve in the wing leading edge outboard of the C. Mechanically closes MEC shut off valveD. Non of the above

4. In APU-MINT LOW OIL PRESSURE< FAULT and OVERSPEED lights cause an auto shutdown

A. TrueB. False

5. Airframe vibrations can best be reduced by climbing and reducing airspeedA. TrueB. False

6. When the round red warning light above the indicator is illuminated it indicates the limit for the engine parameter displayed below it has been reached or exceeded. The red warning light remains illuminated until the engine parameter is reduced below the limit

A. TrueB. False

7. For detectable failure conditions, the PMC schedeles a slow N1 drift over approximatelyA. 25 secB. 60 secC. 30 secD. non of the above

8. The engine shut off valve closes either the start lever is in cut out or the engine fire switch is in

A. True B. false

9. When the engine accelerates to the recommended value _______move the engine start lever to the idle position

A. 46%B. 32%C. max monitoringD. non of the above

10. The abnormal start advisory system monitor ______during ground engine starts to defect conditions which may lead to abnormal start

A. N2, fuel flow, and outside temp

B. N1, fuel flow, and out side air tempC. N1, N2 fuel flow and EGTD. Non of the above

11. During engine start, the alert indication will occur ifA. The EGT exceed a calculated EGT limit based on inputs of N2 and outside air tempB. The EGT reaches 725 deg CC. The engine fails to accelerate properly after N2 reaches 32%D. All of the above

12. Choose the correct answerA. IGN L, powered by AC Transfer BusB. IGN L powered by AC Transfer busC. IGN R Powered by AC standby busD. A and B are correctE. A and C are correct

13. The thrust reverser light illuminates for more the appro1 minute, a malfunction has occurred, and master caution and engine sys annunciator lights illuminate

A. trueB. false

14. The APU start cycle may take as long asA. 120 secB. 135 secC. 60 secD. 100 sec

15. Galley elec loads will automatically be shed the total airplane elec power requirments exceed design milits with the APU gen providing elec power

A. TrueB. False