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Objective questions:

CSQA Raw Question Bank

QUESTION BANK

CSQA

Table of Contents

1QUESTION BANK

Page 23-253Page 32-344Page 38-405Page 47-486Page 73-757Page 76-788Page 90-929Page 96-9810Page 105-10711Page 111-11311Page 117-11912Page 120-12214Page 123-12514Page 139-14115Page 142-14417Page 145-14719Page 160-16220Page 163-16521Page 166-16822Page 175-17723Page 198-20024Page 204-20625Page 234-23628Page 240-24228Page 243-24430Page 260-26231Page 263-26532Page 269-27033Page 274-27634Page 280-28235Page 286-28836Page 292-29437Page 298-30039

Page 23-25

1. The effort required for locating and fixing an error in an operational program

a. Testability

b. Maintainability

c. Usability

d. Efficiency

ANS: Maintainability

2. The contributors to poor quality in an organization are

a. Lack of involvement by management

b. Lack of knowledge about quality

c. Time constraints

d. A and B

ANS: d

3. According to a quality expert, accomplishing quality requires a thought revolution by management. Name the quality expert.

a. Dr. W.Edwards

b. Dr. Ishikawa

c. Dr. Shewart

d. Harold.S.Geneen

ANS: b

4. Briefly explain the critical success factors for an Information system.

Objective questions:

1. The effort required for modifying an operational program.

a) Flexibility

b) Maintainability

c) Portability

d) Reliability

2. Definition of Integrity

a) Extent to which a program satisfies its specs and fulfils the users mission and goalsb) Effort required for learning, operating, preparing input, interpreting output of a programc) Effort required to couple one system with anotherd) Extent to which access to software or data by unauthorized persons can be controllede) All of the above

3. Achieving quality is easy. True/False

4. Accomplishing quality requires a thought revolution by management was said by

a) Ishikawa

b) Deming

c) Harold S.Geneen

d) Dr. Barry W. Boehm

5. Failure to enforce standards as a contributor to poor quality belongs to which category?

a) Lack of involvement by management

b) Lack of knowledge

6. To achieve quality (i.e., defect free products and services), we requirea) Close cooperation between management and staff

b) Commitment

c) An environment in which quality can flourishd) All of the above7. Quality is not a long-term strategy. True/False

8. PDCA cycle is developed by

a) Deming

b) Dr. Shewhart

c) Ishikawa

d) Harold S.GeneenSubjective questions:

1. Briefly explain any 5 commonly accepted quality attributes?

2. List some of the contributors, to poor quality in many organizations.

Key

1-a; 2-d; 3-False; 4-a; 5-a; 6-d; 7-False; 8-b

Page 32-34

1. Quality Assurance (QA) and Quality Control (QC) are both necessary to make quality happen. Of the two QA is more important than QC

A. True

B. False

2. QC is a line function, performed by the same group that produces the goods

A. True

B. False

3. QA is a management function

A. True

B. False

4. QC is a related to the product

A. True

B. False

5. QA is related to the process producing the product

A. True

B. False

6. If you make the process consistent, then the product produced by the process will be consistent. This is main aim behind

A. Quality Control

B. Quality Assurance

C. Both of the above

D. Neither of the above

7. Check for defects in product with the primary aim of correcting defects. This is

A. Quality Control

B. Quality Assurance

C. Both of the above

D. Neither of the above

8. Check for defects in process for the primary aim of correcting or establishing new process. This is

A. Quality Control

B. Quality Assurance

C. Both of the above

D. Neither of the above

9. List few impediments to implementing QC and QA in your organization.

10. Your company has been contracted to implement a major IT project for a leading financial institution. Your company has completed a 6 month long requirements phase and now must document all this understanding in form of the Business Requirements document. The customer wants your company to provide a document that is non-technical and can provide the user a feel of the new system. Your company on the other hand employs a team of technical experts with a sound functional knowledge of the business domain to complete this activity. List some QC activities that your company must follow to complete this document?

Page 38-40

1) Quality principle Appreciate those who participate is proposed by,

a) Edward Deming

b) Joseph Juran

c) Philip Crosby

d) None of the above

2) Identify the essential personal characteristic of one who evaluates anothers work.

a) knowledge about his goals

b) consistency of attitude

c) purpose

d) all of the above

3) Which of the following does not belong to Joseph Jurans The Quality Trilogy.

a) quality planning

b) quality control

c) quality assurance

d) quality improvement

e) none of the above

4) Scope of big- Q is,

a) coordination of various activities conducted in other functions and groups to achieve the organisations quality goals

b) specific departmental mission

c) both A and B

d) none of the above

5) Explain about Philip Crosbys Quality principles

6) Explain about Joseph Jurans Quality trilogy

Page 47-48

QUESTIONS ON PAGES 47 48

Prepared by

:J Mary Praveena

Emp No

:115812

Pages from CBOK :47 48

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

1. The broader classification of the functions in an organizational structure are:

(a) Policy/Functional particpants and Oversight/Operational particpants

(b) Policy/Oversight particpants and Functional/Operational paticipants

(c) Oversight/Functional particpants and Policy/Operational paticipants

(d) None of the above

2. The individual responsible for developing uniform policies and procedures to ensure that the agency manages its records/information and its information sources is the :

(a) System Security Officer

(b) Information Resources Management Official

(c) Information Technology Manager

(d) Project Manager/COTR

3. The individual responsible for the development of the Agencys computer security program is the:

(a) System Security Officer

(b) Internal Control Officer

(c) System Security Specialist

(d) Internal Control Specialist

4. The Internal Control Officer is responsible for the financial management information systems. (a) True (b) False?

5.System Security Specialist is a post in the following function:

(a) Only Policy/Oversight

(b) Only Functional/Operational

(c) Both the above

(d) None of the above

6. This individual is responsible for identifying the various alternate solutions to a problem

(a) Information Resources Management Official

(b) Contracting Officer

(c) Internal Control Specialist

(d) None of the above

7. The Project Manager or COTR is responsible for

(a) Seeing that a system complies with the internal control policy

(b) ADP installations and operations of the angencys programs

(c) Seeing that the system is designed properly to meet the Sponsor/Users needs

(d) Developing uniform policies and procedures

8. The responsibility of the individual to seeing that the system complies with the internal control policy at the operational level belongs to

(a) Internal Control Specialist

(b) Internal Control Officer

(c) Information Resources Management Official

(d) None of the above

SUBJECTIVE QUESTION

1. If you head a new organization coming up, what are the variuos job titles, you feel, would be needed and explain their roles and responsibilities.

ANSWERS TO OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

1. (b)

2. (b)

3. (a)

4. (a)

5. (b)

6. (d) The exact answer is : Sponser/User

7. (c)

8. (a)

Page 73-75

ISO 9001:2000 Quality Model

---------------------------------------

Objective questions:

9. As per ISO protocols, all ISO standards should be confirmed, revised or with drawn in

e) Every years

f) Every 5 years

g) Every 10 years

h) As required

10. The ISO 9000:1994 family of standards contained -------------standards and documents.

11. Match the items in Tab A with Tab B.

Tab A

Tab B

1. ISO 9000

1. Guidelines for auditing the quality

2. ISO 9001

2. Guide to implement quality systems

3. ISO 9004

3. Describes quality models

4. ISO 10011

4. Introduction and guide to use other ISO 9000 standards

12. The ISO 9001:2000 standards are based on ----------- quality management principles.

13. As per ISO 9001 standards, verify the following statements.

A . The top management shall demonstarate its commitment to meet customer requirements for

Their products and services ( True / False ).

B. The organization should determine and provide the resources needed to establish and improve

quality management system( True / False ).

C. The organization should ensure that all processes are operated under controlled conditions and produce outputs that are consistent with organizations policy and objectives( True / False )

D. The organization should define and implement measurement, analysis and improvement processes

as a way of demonstrating that the product/service conforms to specified requirement.( True / False )

Answers:

1. b

2. 20

3. 1-4, 2-3, 3-2, 4-1

4. 8

5. A-True, B-True, C-True, 4-True

Subjective questions:

1. Describe ISO 9001:2000 Quality Management Model ? Assume that your organization is CMM certified. Do you still need to go for ISO standard quality models ? How will you implement the same in your Organization being a manager ?

Page 76-78

Objective questions:

14. When was the ISO/IEC 12207 published

i) 1993

j) 1994

k) 1995

l) 1996

Ans. 1995

15. What are the two types of reviews defined in ISO/IEC 12207

Ans. Joint technical review

Joint management review

3.

m) 1993

n) 1994

o) 1995

p) 1996

Subjective questions:

1.Give an overview of ISO/IEC 12207 quality model

2. What are the different points of view regarding software development as defined in ISO/IEC 12207 quality model

Page 90-92

Page 90 -92

1.How you can improve the quality management in the organisation?(subjective)

2.Management commitment is the single most important requirement for sucessful implementation of .....................

(answer - Quality Management)

3.Having management commitment does not guarantees quality management success but improves odds for successful implementation . (True/False) .

(answer -True)

4.Top down implementation model(waterfall effect) is most successful model for implementing quality management.(true/false)

(answer- true)

5.Commiting to quality management means

a.Understand the concept of quality management.

b.Adopt behaviour to show quality management.

c.Accept the need to change the perpective leadership.

d.Provide funds for training.

e.All of the above

(answer -e)

6.What are the changes can possible if management commitment is present in the organisation?(subjective)

7.Executive Management should develope

a.quality policy

b.mission

c.vision.

d.goals

e.value statement

f. all of the above

(answer -f)

8.As the lowest group to accept the process,middle management is the srongest link in the most quality management effort.(true/false).

(answer(false).

Page 96-98

1. Which is the deliberate effort to praise people for their accomplishments

a) Coaching

b) Modelling

c) Reinforcement

d) None of the above

Ans C

2. Which is the best source of motivation that a leader can provide to his team

a) Coaching

b) Reinforcement

c) Modeling

d) Training

Ans B

3. Employees know what is considered as praise (True/False) False

4. Which is the first step in establishing the trust among employees in implementation of quality

a) Actively listening down

b) Talking down

c) A) or B)

d) None of the above

Ans A

5. Understanding comes after behavior change (True/False) False

6. Developing a program for awareness training involves

a) 2 steps and 5 tasks

b) 5 steps and 2 tasks

c) 3 steps and 2 tasks

d) None of the above

1. What are the practices that need to used in IT leadership?

2. How do you prepare for an awareness training?

Page 105-107

Objective

Toyota Production System is also called as

a. Just In Time

b. Join In Time

c. Single Minute Exchange of Dies

d. None of the above

How many steps are to be followed for assessing the organisations climate

a. 5

b. 6

c. 4

d. 7

Visiting other companies and understanding its quality process reduces the lead-time for identifying the quality process to be implemented in an organization. True/False

Subjective type questions

Your company is part of a corporate. There are few companies in the group of companies in the corporate that has already implemented quality processes. Your company is planning to implement quality process. As a part of top management what are the procedures you would follow to implement similar quality process in your organization.

Page 111-113

Questions for CSQA (Pages 111 113)Objective Type Questions :

1. Which of the following is the most difficult of the decision making processes?

a)Authority

b)Voting

c)Avoidance

d)Consensus

Subjective Type Questions :

1.What points according to you the most important to ensure success of meetings?

2.What is a task force and what are the vital task force management principles?

3.What are the important Task Force Organisation principles

4.Define the following: a)Vision Statement b)Goal c)Values d)Quality Policy

Fill in the Blanks:

1.Task forces are _______ important for decision making than for solving problems.

2. _________ and _______ are the two important principles required for successful task force usage.

True or False:

1.Too many members in a task for can cause organisational problems to the Leader.

2.More members in a task force can prevent synergy in task force.

3.A mission statement explains how to achieve a companys vision.

4.Vision statement explains why a company exists.

Page 117-119

Objective questions:

16. The objective of constructive criticism is

q) to criticize some one on their bad works

r) to improve his performance

s) duty of the project manager

17. After criticism is made, what should be made with the candidate?

f) document regarding the bad work done.

g) Contract regarding what will happen afterwards

h) Agreed document between the manager and the candidate

i) All of the above

18. --------------------- is rated as the number one skill for a QA ananlyst

a) Analytical skill

b) To find out the quality related problems

c) Quality control

d) Constructive criticism

e) Listening skills

f) Hearing skills

g) All of the above

19. How many channels exists for listening to a speaker?

e) 4

f) 5

g) 6

h) 7

i) 3

5. Whether it is a must for the listener to listen to all parts of speech??? YES /NO

Subjective questions:

1.What are the tactics used in constructive criticism?

2.Given a situation that your subordinate did not do well in his job. How will you tell him and correct him??

3. Briefly explain the channels of speech?

Page 120-122

1. Which of the following is discriminating listening

a) Directed at selecting specifice pieces of information, not the entire communication.

b) Complete message with minimal distortion

c) To put youself in the speakers situation

d) To analyse what the speaker has said.

e) None of the above.

2. Which of the following is Therapeutic listening

a) Complete message with minimal distortion

b) Directed at selecting specifice pieces of information, not the entire communication.

c) To put youself in the speakers situation

d) To analyse what the speaker has said.

e) None of the above.

3. Which of the following help attening to the speaker

a) Maintain eye contgact

b) Provide continous feedback

c) Periodically restate what was said

d) Concentrate exclusively on the speakers communication

e) All the above

4. Which one below is not an attribute of executive management

a) purposeful

b) Compentent

c) Analytical

d) Decisive

e) Meaningful

5. Which attributes were included in establishing status when equated to IT environment.

a) leadership

b) technical skill

c) years of experience

d) all the above.

Page 123-125

Objective questions:

1. Quality promotes turning problems into opportunities (True / False)

2. Customer will give up if complaints are not resolved within

(a) 4 Days

(b) 4 Months

(c) 4 Seconds

(d) 4 Minutes

3. Following is part of complaint resolution process

(a) Get on your customers wavelength

(b) Follow up with the customer

(c) Establish and initiate an action program

(d) All the above

4. Writing a successful report requires a clear understanding of both _________________ and _____________

5. A good report has no more than ___________ and _______________

6. QA report is designed to

(a) Convey information

(b) Change behavior

(c) Trace problem

(d) None of the above

Subjective questions:

1. Briefly explain about Complaint resolution process?

2. List the tasks need to be performed to write a good report.

Page 139-141

Objective questions:

20. The scope of a IT Quality function includes

t) Supporting implementation of quality policy

u) Reducing producer and customer gap

v) All of the above

w) None of the above

21. When the quality processes are mature with defined ,improving work processes the focus of the quality function is on

j) Optimization

k) Product quality

l) Process deployment and compliance

m) All of the above

22. Why are product inspections needed?

h) To find out the best worker

i) To find the worst worker

j) To assist the worker in improving quality

k) For objectively appraising workers

l) All of the above

23. Which is the least important skill for a quality manager in the below list?

j) Verbal communication

k) Project management

l) Programming

m) Systems knowledge

n) Knowledge of operations

o) Written communication

24. Which is the best positioning of a quality manager?

a) Reporting to manager of systems/programming

b) Reporting outside the IT function

c) Reporting to manager of computer operations

d) Reporting to IT manager

25. The quality function is normally the weakest when reporting to _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _

a) Manager of systems/programming

b) Outside of IT function

c) Manager of computer operations

7. Based on research from the Quality Assurance Institute the percent of quality groups reporting outside the IT function is 15%. YES /NO

Subjective questions:

1.List the contents of a quality charter.

2.Given a situation that you have to select a manager for your organization quality function list all the desired skills you will look for in applicants?

Page 142-144

Implementing an IT Quality function:

1.What are the steps involved in implementing a quality functions?

2.List the activities that are to be performed in implementing a quality function.

Ans. Need to list all the seven steps in pages 135/136

3.How do you build support for quality?

4.What needs to accomplish support for quality?

Ans.Refer to page 142 under tasks helpful in building support for quality.

5.What is quality improvement program?

6.What is key for success of any quality improvement program?

Ans.Refer to page 143 under four principles for success of quality improvement program.

7.The size of the quality function ideally will vary with the size of the organization

(True/False)

Ans.True.

8.List any five responsibilities of a Quality Manager.

Ans.Refer to page 143 last paragraph for responsibilites. There are more than five listed.

9.What is a check list. Why is it used?

Ans.Refer to page 145

10. What is a quality tool box? List any five tools most commonly used in IT.

Ans.Refer to page 145

Objective Type Questions

1. Obtaining and sustaining support for quality is an ongoing activity-TRUE/FALSE.

2. Which are the following tasks helpful in building support of quality :

a. Teach a quality vocabulary

b. Issue a quality newsletter

c. Staffing

d. Meet daily on quality

3. In any organisation QA Analyst position will be

a. Part time staff position

b. Full time staff position

c. Not required at all

4. QA Analysts have to be trained quality functions :YES/NO

5. Which are following disciplines are helpful in performing the quality function :

1. Auditing

2. Individual engineering

3. SPC

4. All the above.

6. Which of the below tool help people to determine whether a process is in control or not:

a. Run Chart

b. Control Chart

c. Pareto Chart

d. U Chart

7. Which are following tools belong to Quality Tool Box:

a. Brainstorming

b. Affinity Diagram

c. X-mR chart

d. Pareto Chart

8. Briefly define the larger quality functions organised under a quality Manager.

9. Which are tasks helpful in building support for quality ?

10 . Describe the various training methods for QA Analysts.

Page 145-147

Knowledge Domain 5 Quality Assurance

Part 1 Establish a Function to Promote and Manage Quality (Page 5-11(145) thru 5-13(147))

1. What is the most commonly used / Powerful statistical tool?

Checklist

2. What is a simple list of questions that enables people to follow and verify processes?

Checklist

3. ___________ is a set of tools, which assists in defining, controlling and improving quality.

Quality Toolbox

4. List the tools commonly used by QA Analysts

Brainstorming

Flow charts

Cause-and-effect diagram

Hisograms

Pareto Charts

Control charts

Scatter diagrams

5. List few plans, a quality manager can use for driving and continually maturing the quality environment

Stay abreast with new quality practices

Study the change in criteria for winning the MBNQA

Frequently review the quality benchmark

Obtain and Maintain quality related certifications

6. How the role of QA changes as the quality function matures in an organization ?

Quality control to Quality Assurance to Quality consulting

7. Suggest another name for Independent Testing Department

Quality Control Department

8. Quality practitioners working in Quality control department are called _________.

Inspectors or Testers

9. What are the major activities in the Initial phase of quality management maturation ?

Perform Quality control activity

QA activities focuses on process definition- but not fully defines and follows the process

10. _____________ is the prerequisite to improved quality and productivity.

Consistency

11. What are the major activities in the Intermediate phase of quality management maturation ?

Quality control becomes shared responsibility of the customer, worker and QA analyst

Process definition and improvement are emphasized and performed Quality function and QA analyst acts as a quality consultant12. How does MBNQA program defines an organization which move towards optimization?

World-Class

13. What is the main identity of a World-class organization

Yield high customer satisfaction at minimum cost.

14. What are the major activities in the Final phase of quality management maturation ?

Workers are assigned responsibilities for process definition, measurement and improvement

Role of QA analysts changes to performing Quality consulting to management and employees in promoting and implementing quality initiatives

15. What are the two major drivers that change the role of the QA analyst

Management Philosophy used in the IT group

Personal belief system of managers

16. In the Initial phase of quality function maturation, what type of management exist?

Authoritarian

17. When quality management philosophy matures, the organization moves from hierarchical structure to _________.

Teams (that are organized and empowered to define, measure and improve processes.)

Page 160-162

Flowcharts

1) Flowcharts may be a:

a) Simple High level process flow

b) A detailed task flow

c) Any mix of a and b

d) All of the above

2) Flowcharts are useful to obtain knowledge of a process for improvement. It helps to document a process so that, inefficiencies and redundancies can be identified and reduced.

3) A process map is a more detailed flowchart that depicts:

a) Processes

b) Relationship Between Processes

c) Process Owners

d) All the above

4) Flow Charts should reference the following:

a) Process owners, suppliers and Customers

b) Key deliverables

c) Decision points

d) Interfaces

e) Task and Task Sequences

f) Policies, Standards, procedures and Tools

g) All of the above

Benchmarking

1) The process of measuring how well a companys products, services and practices measure against others is known as benchmarking.2) Benchmarking can be done against partners who could be

a) Internal Units

b) Competitors

c) Best in class or best in breed within any industry

d) Any of the above3) The objective of benchmarking is to identify performance gap and to determine a realistic improvement goal.

4) List the three types of benchmarking

a) Process Benchmarking

b) Product Benchmarkingc) Performance Benchmarking5) The defect rate of your organization is 3/ 1000 lines of code. You attend a vendor conference and there you find out that your competitor has got 2/1000 lines of code. Can you use this information to benchmark in your organization. Explain.

Answer: Yes. The information shows that there is a gap in my organizations performance when compared against the industry. I would then initiate a benchmarking process that would comprise of the following phases: planning phase, analysis phase, integration phase, action phase. ( Refer to CBOK page 162 to write in brief on these phases)Page 163-165

Pages 163 165

1) Matris is a

a) Problem Solving Technique

b) Problem Identifying Technique

c) Problem Cause Identifying Technique

d) Ranking Technique

2) Matrix is also known as _____________ and _____________

3) The two common types of Matrices are

a) L-Type and X-Type

b) X-Type and V-Type

c) L-Type and T-Type

d) T-Type and X-Type

4) L-Type matrix compares

a) 2 sets of items

b) 3 sets of items

c) none of the above

5) The Principal Developer of QFD (Quality Function Deployment) is

a) Dr. W. Edwards Deming

b) Dr. Joseph Juran

c) William Scherkenbach

d) Dr. Yoji Akao

e) Dr. Harold S. Geneen

f) None of the above

6) Quality System is an Organized approach to qaulity with ___________ , __________ and _________

7) Comprehensive Quality Deployment includes __________ , _________ , _________ and __________

1) What are the steps involved to produce L-Type and T-Type Matrices ?

2) Write in detail the different deployments within QFD.

Page 166-168

Objective questions:

26. The Quality Function Deployment is developed by

x) Joseph Juran

y) Dr Deming

z) Dr. Yoji Akao

27. QFD covers all special concerns of software organization and its customers with

n) Fundamental deployments

o) Horizontal deployments

p) Vertical deployments

q) All of the above

r) None of the above

28. Information deployment handles

m) Information aspects of product and services

n) Hardware aspects of product and services.

o) Daily activities required to satisfy customers.

p) All of the above

q) None of the above

29. Functional deployment handles

a) Information aspects of product and services

b) Hardware aspects of product and services

c) Daily activities required to satisfy customers

d) All of the above

r) None of the above

Subjective questions:

1.Describe in detail fundamental, horizontal and vertical deployments in QFD ?

2. Briefly explain the Playscript tool used in quality asssurance?

Page 175-177

1. Scatter plots are used for

a. Problem solving and understanding

b. Cause and effect relationships

c. Test influence of one variable over the other.

d. All of the above

Answer - d

2. Which of the following use Scatterplots

a. Defect level vs.Skills

b. Cost vs time

c. change response

d. Defect level vs Complexity

e. All of the above

Answer - a,b,d

3. The following are not types of scatter plots

a. Positive

b. Negative

c. Zero

d. Non zero

Answer - d

4. Which of the following are graphical presentation tools.

a. Table

b. Pie chart

c. Scatter plot

d. Bar chart

e. None of the above

Answer - a,b,d

5. Which of the following charts show direction of events

a. Bar chart

b. Run chart

c. Line chart

d. Table

Answer: c

6. Line charts can be used for the following:

a. Like units

b. Like periods

c. Like variables

d. Related or fixed variables.

Answer: a,b,d

7. The following are 2D charts:

a. Bar charts

b. Line chart

c. Run chart

d. Control chart

Answer: a

8. Data precision is not highly required for

a. Line chart

b. Control chart

c. Bar chart

d. pie chart

Answer: d

9. Which of the following chart represents data in percentage

a. stem and leaf chart

b. Bar chart

c. Pie chart

d. Line chart

Answer: c

10. Stem and leaf chart is a variation of

a. Line chart

b. Pie chart

c. Bar chart

d. Control chart

e. None of the above

Answer: c

11. It is practical to use stem and leaf charts when absolute no of values is

a. High(More than 100)

b. Low (Usually 100 or less)

c. Zero

d. None of the above

Answer: b

Page 198-200

\Explain various testing stages in a structured s/w development process?.

Explain the benefits of Independent testing?.

What is Statis and Dynamic testing?. Explain briefly with few examples.?

What are the responsibilities of a Test engineers?.

What are the responsibilities of a Test managers?.

Page 204-206

KNOWLEDGE DOMAIN 6

PART 3 - VERIFICATION AND VALIDATION TECHNIQUES

1. Verification is a(a) Static Analysis

(b) Dynamic Analysis

(c) None of the above

2. Validation is a(a) Static Analysis

(b) Dynamic Analysis

(c) None of the above

3. Testing performed by organizations other than the developer is (a) Unit testing

(b) Integration testing

(c) System testing

(d) Acceptance testing

(e) Independent testing 4. Validate that the functions meet stated requirements is

(a) Unit testing

(b) Integration testing

(c) System testing

(d) Acceptance testing

(e) Independent testing

5. Validate that all units work together according to the system design is(a) Unit testing

(b) Integration testing

(c) System testing

(d) Acceptance testing

(e) Independent testing

6. Validate that system meets the needs of the business is(a) Unit testing

(b) Integration testing

(c) System testing

(d) Acceptance testing

(e) Independent testing7. Incremental testing means

(a) White Box testing

(b) Black Box testing

(c) Top-down testing

(d) Regression testing

(e) Independent testing8. Data driven testing may be called as

(a) White Box testing

(b) Black Box testing

(c) Regression testing

(d) Independent testing

9. Incremental testing means

(f) White Box testing

(g) Black Box testing

(h) Top-down testing

(i) Regression testing

(j) Independent testing

10. Logic driven testing may be called as

(k) White Box testing

(l) Black Box testing

(m) Top-down testing

(n) Regression testing

(o) Independent testing

11. Verification should be performed for

(a) requirements

(b) design

(c) code construction

(d) operation / maintenance

(e) all of the above

12. Validation is mostly used to determine the _______ of the final software / program

(a) Correctness

(b) Completeness

(c) Consistency

(d) Quality

13. Verification is mostly used to determine the _________ (effectiveness / completeness) of the software

14. For small programs, verification is the process of determining the correspondence between a program and its specifications

True / False

15. Verification techniques are

(a) Program testing

(b) Static analysis

(c) Dynamic analysis

(d) B & c only

(e) All of the above

16. What is the difference between verification and validation? Verification: The process of confirming that interim deliverables have been developed according to their inputs, process specifications, and standards.

Validation: The end product meets requirements and expectations under defined operating conditions. The end product is typically an executable code

17. What are the various verification techniques? Feasibility reviews

Requirement reviews

Design reviews

Code walkthroughs

Code inspections(Fahan) or structured walkthroughs(Yourdon)

Requirement tracing

18. What are the various validation techniques? White box

Black box

Incremental testing

Thread test technique

Regression testing

Page 234-236

Pages 234 - 236

Questions : Subjective Type

1.What are the considerations to be taken into account for developing testing tactics.

2.Write down Characteristics and Test Tactics for Different Project Types.

3.How many software system types are there? Mention those different software system types.

Page 240-242

Objective Questions.

1. As part of configuration management, small changes need not be documented and controlled.

a. True.

b. False.

2. Someone independent of the team that designed the change should be involved in testing the final revised program.

a. True.

b. False.

3. The primary goal of defect management.

a. Defect correction.

b. Defect prevention.

c. Defect reduction.

d. All of the above.

4. The defect management, unlike the entire s/w development process need not be risk driven.

a. True.

b. False.

5. The general principles of recording management includes,

a. Preventing defects.

b. Capture and analysis of information should be automated.

c. Should focus on the person who caused the defect.

d. Defect information should be used to improve process.

6. The main purpose of recording defects are,

a. To ensure the defect is corrected.

b. To gather statistics used to develop defect expectations in future applications.

c. To go for continuous improvement.

d. All of the above.

7. Severity of defects should be assigned subjectively, whereas priority should be assigned objectively.

a. True.

b. False.

Subjective Questions.1. You are in the process of selecting a tool for defects tracking. Include all the fields that you feel should be present at the minimum in the defect log.

Page 243-244

Pages 243-244

1) How many steps will be there in simple Defect Tracking Process (DTP).

a) 2

b) 3

c) 4

d) Just one

2) From the following what are the steps in DTP.

a) Execute test and log any discrepancies

b) Draw Fish bone diagram

c) Assign defect to a developer

d) Do causal analysis

3) What are the recommended levels to Prioritize the correction

a) Critical

b) Major

c) Minor

d) Oversight or inadequate self review

4) Test reports issued periodically include ----------- by severity or priority

a) Summary of all the defects found

b) Summary of all closed defects

c) Summary of all open defects

d) None of the above

5) Test reports are issued to

a) Team alone

b) Team and Management

c) Management alone

d) None of the above

6) Test reports are issued

a) Periodically throughout the testing process

b) At the end of testing process

c) Once in a month

d) Once in the lifetime of a project

7) Defects can also be used for Process Improvement

True / False

8) Today many organizations use defects for Process Improvement

True / False

9) Based on research team findings, using defects for Process Improvement should include the following

a) Go back to the person who did coding

b) Go back to the process that originated the defect to understand what caused the defect

c) Go to the other project to know how they dealt with that problem

d) Go back to the verification and validation process, which should have caught them earlier

10) Human factors dimension alone can have a very large impact on the effectiveness of the review process

True/False

Answers

1: C

2: A and C

3:A, B and C

4: C

5:B

6:A

7:True

8: False

9: B and D

10:True

Page 260-262

7) Standard states,

e) what must happen to meet the intent of the policy

f) how to meet the requirements

g) both A and B

h) None of the above

8) Standards convert intentions into specific rules ( true / false )

9) Standards must be,

f) measurable

g) attainable

h) necessary

i) nice to have

j) all the above

10) Each unit of data information referenced in the requirements specification must be described in the data dictionary ( true / false )

11) Which of the following determines standards

a) customer requirements

b) internal requirements

c) cost and schedule requirements

d) all the above

12) which of the following is true

a) procedures are not always required and unless critical, should be minimised

b) skill set and knowledge requirements are prerequisites for performing the procedure

c) if the procedures are followed ALWAYS standards will be automatically met

d) none of the above

13) Controls should be designed based on the criticality of the process and what needs to be checked ( true / false )

14) Quality control procedures are

a) preventive costs

b) appraisal costs

c) failure costs

d) none of the above

Page 263-265

15) Which are not a main category of control method

i) automatic

j) self-checking

k) peer reviews

l) supervisory

m) third party

n) none of the above

16) Measurement provides quantitative feedback to an organisation about whether it is achieving its goals and moving towards its results ( true / false )

17) The purpose of process improvement is

a) to change the process

b) to reduce the frequency of defects including process ineffectiveness

c) both a and b

d) none of the above

18) Process improvement uses facts(measurement results) to identify the root causes of problems ( true / false )

19) The long range objective for process improvement is to

a) eliminate the need for quality assurance activities

b) eliminate the need for quality control activities

c) both a and b

d) none of the above

Page 269-270

IDENTIFY AND IMPROVE THE PROCESS

Assess the Process

1. Why should the measurement system, used to assess the process, be evaluated ?

2. What are the various tools that can be used to baseline the process inputs and outputs ?

3. If the control limits are within the specification limits, the process is capable of satisfying the customer. True/False.

4. What needs to be done if the control limits are not within the specification limits ?

5. Name a few tools that help in change of process location and reduction in variations.

IMPROVE THE PROCESS

1. Name the steps involved in improving a process.

Brainstorm for improvement

1. What kind of information should be reviewed during the brainstorming session ?

Plan how to test proposed improvements

1. A _________ is created in this step.

2. What kind of information is present in the process improvement plan ?

3. Does the process improvement plan need approval ? If yes, who approves it ?

Analyse results

1. Does the process improvement plan get reviewed ?

2. When and who reviews this plan ?

3. What are the tools used to analyse the results ?

Compare results

1. What are the various tools that help to compare results ?

2. With what are the results compared against ?

3. What can be deduced from the comparison reports ?

Change process or redo steps 4-8

1. When can the change recommended in the process improvement plan be implemented ?

Page 274-276

Question Bank for pages 274-276: -

Knowledge Domain 8 Quantitative Methods.

Part 1 Measurement Concepts.

Objective Questions: -

1) Measure is the basic building block for measurement program.

2) Metrics is a derived unit of measurement

3) What are the two types of measurement?

Objective and Subjective Measurement

4) Objective measurement uses hard data that can be obtained by counting, weighing etc.

5) Subjective measurement is normally observed or perceived

6) What is Nominal data?

Nominal data cannot be subjected to arithmetic operations of any type and the values cannot be ranked in any natural order.

7) What is Ordinal data?

Ordinal data can be ranked, but differences or ratios between values are not meaningful.

8) What is interval data?

Interval data can be ranked and can exhibit meaningful differences between values

9) Give an example for interval data?

T.J. McCabes complexity metric is an example for interval data.

10) What is Ratio Data?

Ratio data has absolute zero and meaningful ratios can be calculated.

11) For what are the measurement dashboards or key indicators used for?

Measurement dashboards or key indicators are used to monitor progress and to initiate change.

12) Before approving for use, what are the tests that the measures and metrics has to undergo?

1) Reliability Refers to the consistency of measurement

2) Validity indicates the degree to which a measure actually measures

3) Ease of Use and Simplicity

4) Timeliness Refers whether the information can be reported in sufficient time to impact the decisions needed to manage effectively

5) Calibration - indicates the modification of a measurement so it becomes more valid

13) How to know a measurement is good?

The measures and the resulting metrics should be

1) simple and precisely definable

2) Objective

3) Easily Obtainable at reasonable cost

4) Valid, measuring what they are intended to measure

5) Robust, being relatively insensitive to intuitively small changes in the process or product

Page 280-282

1) Give 2 examples of metrics for complexity measurement s?

a) Cyclomatic complexity

b) Knots

2) Explain cyclomatic complexity

a) Given any computer program, draw its control flow graph, G, where each node corresponds to a block of sequential code and each edge corresponds to a branch or decision point in the program. The Cyclomatic complexity of such a graph can be computed by a simple formula from graph theory, as V (G)=e-n+2, where e is the number of edges, and n is the no. of nodes in the graph.

3) Explain Knots

a) This is calculated by drawing the program control flow graph with a node for every statement or block of sequential statements. A knot is defined as a necessary crossing of directional lines in the graph. The same phenomenon can be observed by drawing transfer-of-control lines from statement to statement in a program listing.

4) A knot is A knot is defined as a necessary crossing of directional lines in the graph.

5) The quality characteristics for software that have received considerable attention are correctness, reliability and maintenance.

6) Give the main and alternative measures for measuring correctness

a) Main Defect counts (number of defects in a product)

b) Alternatives

i) Number of design changes

ii) Number of errors detected by code inspectors

iii) Number of errors detected in program tests

iv) Number of code changes required

7) How is reliability measured?

a) It would be useful to know the probability of s/w failure, or the rate at which s/w errors will occur. But this can only be estimated from data collected in s/w defects as a function of time. If certain assumptions are made, this data can be used to model and compute s/w reliability metrics. These metrics attempt to indicate and predict the probability of failure during a particular time interval, or the mean time to failure (MTTF) and mean time between failures (MTBF).

8) How is maintainability measured?

a) Bill Curtis and others investigated the ability of Halsteads effort metric E, and v (G) to predict the psychological complexity of s/w maintenance tasks. Assuming such predictions could be made accurately, complexity metrics could then be profitably used to reduce the cost of s/w maintenance. A carefully detailed experiment indicated that s/w complexity metrics could effectively explain or predict the maintainability of s/w in a distributed computer system.

9) How can a process be measured?

a) A process can be measured by either of the following

i) Attributes of the process, such as

(1) overall development time,

(2) type of methodology used, or

(3) the average level of experience of the development staff.

ii) Accumulating product measures into a metric so that meaningful information about the process can be provided. These could be

(1) Function points peer person month to measure productivity

(2) LOC per person month to measure productivity

(3) Number of failures per month to measure effectiveness of computer operations

(4) Number of helpdesk calls per KLOC to measure effectiveness of system design method

10) Give the standard s/w process metrics currently available:

a) Number of deliverables completed on time

b) Estimated costs Vs actual costs

c) Budgeted costs Vs actual costs

d) Time spent fixing errors

e) Wait time

f) Number of contract modifications

g) Number of proposals submitted Vs proposals won

h) Percentage of time spent performing value added tasks

11) Common causes are causes of variation that can be controlled by improving work processes.

12) Special causes are causes of variation that must be controlled outside the process.

13) Statistical tools are the only methods available to objectively quantify variation.

14) Specify the common causes of variation

a) Process inputs and conditions that regullarly contribute to the variability of process outputs

b) Common causes contribute to output variability as they themselves vary

c) Each common cause typically contributes a small portion to the total variation in process outputs

d) The aggregate variability due to common causes has a nonsystematic, random looking appearance

e) Because common causes are regular contributors, the process or system variability is defined in terms of them.

Page 286-288

1) How many Componnets are in Risk and name all of those Componnets?

Three componnets

The event that could occur the risk

The probability that the event will occur the likelihood

The impact or consequence of the event if it occurs the penalty

2) Risks can be categorized as one of the following:

Technical

Programmatic or performance

Supportability or environment

Cost

Schedule

3) How many Characteristics does Risk has and what are they?

Five Characteristics

Situational

Time based

Interdependent

Magnitude dependent

Value based

4) The PMBOK stands for?

Project Management Body of Knowledge

5) How many processes are there to address risk management as per PMBOK?

Four processes

Risk Identification

Risk Qualification

Risk Response Development

Risk Response Control

6) How many processes will address the discussion of risk management and what are they and map those with PMBOK processes?

Six processes

Risk Identification

a) Risk Identification

Risk Quantification

b) Risk Analysis

c) Risk Priorotization

Risk Response Development

d) Risk response planning

Risk Response Control

e) Risk Resolution

f) Risk monitoring

7) External risks can be controlled or influenced by the project team ------------ TRUE/FALSE

FALSE

7) Which of the following document will be required as a source of input when considering a list of possible risks?

a) Product documentation b) Project documentation c) Historical Information d) All of the above

Ans: D

Page 292-294

Objective questions.

1. In a traditional waterfall methodology, most risk management activity

occurs close to milestone.True/false

2. In a spiral development model the risk management activity falls in the explicit risk management portion. True/false

3. Risk management is an independent auditing process. True/False

4. Risk should be the sole responsibility of project manager. True/False

5. Within many software development organizations risk management remains ad hoc and _____________.

6. Testing strategies is included in sort term risk management. True/False

7. Who should be involved in determining risk management

a. Customer

b. Management

c. Development team

d. All of the above

e. None of the above

8. Mitigating the risk by

a. Minimizing the probability of occurrence

b. Minimizing the value of impact

c. Deflecting the risk elsewhere

d. All of the above

e. None of the above

Subjective question.

1. Your IT organisation need to integrate new technology. As a QA analyst what are the roles and responsibilities you need to perform to ensure that the integration is effective without compromising quality.

2. Build a checklist on how you are going to monitor the riks in your project.

Answer of objective questions.

1. True

2. True

3. False

4. False

5. Incomplete

6. True

7. d

8. d

Page 298-300

Quiz on Knowledge Domain 8: Quantitative Methods

1. A measurement program is defined as the ----------------------------------------

Ans: Entire set of activities that occur around quantitative data.

2. Mature organization use quantitative data to determine

a. Requirements are complete

b. To prevent problems

c. Budget

d. Schedule and project status

e. a&b

f. c&d

g. All of the above

Ans: e

3. Immature organization use quantitative data to determine

a. Requirements are complete

b. To prevent problems

c. Budget

d. Schedule and project status

e. a&b

f. c&d

g. All of the above

Ans: f

4. What are four major uses of Measurement?

Ans: 1.Manage and control the process

2. Manage and control the product (review and testing)

3. Improve the process (quantitative data gathered during process execution can

identify the weaknesses and therefore opportunities for improvement)

4. Manage the risks

5. Same software development process may be followed to produce two different applications

True /False

Ans: True

6. What is risk?

Ans: Risk is the opportunity for something to go wrong.

7. How do we Manage and control process?

Ans:

Measure Size by metric/measure LOC, Boxes, procedures, and units of output to answer

how much we have made/left to make

Measure Status by, metric/measure Earned value, amount of scheduled work, % of each

activity completed.

Measure Effort (hours spent for each phase of SDLC) to answer how much effort has been

expended

Measure Schedule (calender times of activity completed)

8. How do we manage control and product?

Ans: Measure Quality by no.of defects, Mean time to failure (MTTF) Mean time to repair

(MTTR)

Measure Performance by technical performance, measures specified by customer

and management.

9. How do we improve the process?

Ans: Identify the current performance, find how cost-efficient is the process. By measuring Time and effort.

10. How do we manage risks?

Ans: Identify the risks, its frequency, probability of risks occurring and impact of each risk if it occurs derive risk management plan.

11. What are the four phases in installing a measurement program?

Ans: 1.build the measurement base

2.Manage towards results

3. Manage by process

4. Management by fact

12. What are the key points in first phase?

Ans: Define the objectives for the measurement program

2. Create an environment receptive to measurement (establish SLA between IT and users, establish quality measurement environment)

3. Define the measurement hierarchy

Three levels of quantitative data are mapped to 3-level organization tier.

a. Metrics used by Line management such as variance between actual and budgeted

cost, user satisfaction, defects rates per LOC.

b. Measures Staff management uses basic measures such as product size, cycle time or defect count.

c. Strategic results Senior management uses strategic results dashboard to manage the IT function and track to mission, vision and goals.

4. Define the standard units of measurement.

13. What do we mean by manage towards results?

Ans: a. Identify goals for desired business results

b. Means for measuring each business result

14. What are the five steps in manage towards results phase?Ans:a. Identify desired business results. If each has subject, action, target value and time frame, as it is much easier to identify measure for each.

b. Identify current baseline

c. Select a measure or metric for each result. Should be only 3 to 5 but not greater than 7

d. Consider tradeoff between the results. For example consider the desired result Complete on time might affect Easy-to-read documentation.

e. Based on baseline and desired result, determine a goal for each result metric. (Bench marking tool is best for this).

Objective-Paper-1

1. To ensure effectiveness of checklists, checklists should have only yes and no responses.

a. True

b. False

2. Quality is an attribute of

a. a product

b. a service

c. a process

d. all of the above

e. none of the above

3. The characters of a service level are

a. It is an agreement between the producer & the customer of the product

b. It can be an oral / written agreement

c. It defines the method of measurement of services

d. All of the above

e. None of the above

4. Testing of the system to demonstrate system compliance with user requirements is

a. Black box testing

b. System testing

c. Independent testing

d. Acceptance Testing

5. The first stage in the software life cycle where test data is generated is

a. Planning stage

b. Requirement Analysis

c. Design

d. Construction

6. A complete validation of a program can be obtained only by testing for every element of the domain.

a. True

b. False

7. To divide & conquer while testing requires

a. Stubs

b. Manual simulation

c. Instrumentation

d. Coverage metrics

e. All of the above

f. None of the above

8. Configuration management is not the process of

a. Controlling the release of items through the life cycle

b. Evaluating & scheduling changes to configurable items

c. Recording & reporting the status of config. items

d. Verifying the completeness of configurable items

9. Which is not an objective of prototyping

a. Requirement Analysis

b. User Interface Development

c. Functional Development

d. Machine Performance Evaluation

e. Application Development

10. A program whose purpose is to reduce the number of defects produced is known as a Quality Improvement Program.

a. True

b. False

11. Creation of help desk is a

a. Preventive Cost

b. Appraisal Cost

c. Failure Cost

12. It is advisable to have a separate department for reviews & testing.

a. Yes

b. No

13. The results of peer reviews should be presented to

a. Author of the product & supervisor

b. QA function & the supervisor

c. Author & QA function

14. To ensure a Quality product requirements must be measurable.

a. True

b. False

15. QC is a managerial function desgned primarily to detect & correct defects.

a. True

b. False

16. Resistance to change is normally because of

a. Deffiant attitude of workers

b. Lack of awareness / training on the new technology / process

c. No direct benefits/incentives on change over

17. Measures that can be use to measure Quality include

a. Enhancements

b. Size

c. Complexity

d. Rework

18. Selection of tools is a

a. QC activity

b. QA activity

19. Which is the most important practical & economical way of meeting customers needs.

a. Doing it right the first time

b. After - the - fact defect removal

c. QC during development

20. For locating errors which span modules it is more effective to do

a. Reviews

b. Testing

21. Which is not an objective of testing

a. Determine whether system meets specifications

b. Determine whether system meets needs

c. Provide insight into SDP

d. Aid in appraisal of developing TMs

22. A defect is a

a. Deviation from specification

b. Deviation from a standard

c. Anything that causes customer dissatisfaction

d. All of the above

e. None of the above

23. ___________ Testing focuses on evaluating the interaction among units.

a. Unit testing

b. Integration testing

c. Functional testing

d. System testing

e. Acceptance testing

24. A step - by - step procedure on the action in testing & verifying of results is called a

a. Test case

b. Test script

c. Test condition

d. Testing tool

e. Test log

25. You cannot control what you cannot

a. Measure

b. Define

c. Change

d. Improve

26. Which of the following is not a defect metric

a. Location

b. Cause

c. Time to fix

d. Classification

e. Coverage

f. All of the above

27. As a QC professional you will be doing

a. RWI

b. Causal Analysis

c. SPC

d. Defect Prevention

28. Quality improvement programs may require the product itself to be changed.

a. True

b. False

29. The basis upon which adherence to policies is measured is a

a. Standard

b. Requirement

c. Expected result

d. Value

e. All of the above

f. None of the above

30. Which of the following does not form a part of a workbench.

a. Standards

b. Quality attributes

c. Quality control

d. Procedures

e. Rework

31. During an inspection, inspectors normally make suggestions on correcting the defects found.

a. True

b. False

32. Why does it help to visit other companies to identify effective Quality practices?

a. Reuse organisational learning

b. Continually benchmark

c. Interact with other Quality professionals

d. All of the above

e. None of the above

33. The focus on the product is highest during

a. a walkthrough

b. a checkpoint review

c. an inspection

34. Given the following costs:

Requirements analysis - $ 1000

Rework - $ 700

Code review - $ 500

Review of User Documents - $ 600

Continuing Edn. Progrms. - $ 800

Design - $ 400

The cost of Quality is

a. $1400

b. $1900

c. $2400

d. $2600

e. $4000

35. Verification ensures that the executable system performs as specified

a. True

b. False

36. When viewing product /service Quality from the customers view, a feature added by the producer, that was not included in the product specifications / requirements would be called:

a. an enhancement

b. a defect

c. an unspecified need identified by the builder of the product / service

d. a correction

e. none of the above

37. Prevention is a more effective means of improving Quality than appraisal

a. True

b. False

38. There are --------- no. of function types

a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 5

e. 6

39. The purpose of constructive criticism is to improve

a. productivity

b. profitability

c. the HR climate

d. creativity

40. The usual denominator in a reliability metric is

a. Development time

b. System size

c. Total run time

d. MTBF

41. The Quality manager will find it difficult to effectiviely implement the QAI Quality Improvement Process, unless his organisation is willing to accept the Quality principles as a

a. the organisations policy

b. a challenge

c. the corporate vision

d. the organisations goal

e. a management philosophy

f. all of the above

42. Pareto chart provides corrective action for high-frequency causes of problems

a. True

b. False

43. Function Points

a. provide a measure of the system size

b. can be used to compare different kinds of application systems

c. together with past data can be used to estimate future effort

d. all of the above

e. none of the above

44. Restructuring or modifying existing software system to take advantage of newer hardware and software technologies or to introduce efficiencies, or to improve maintainability is called

a. enhancements to the software

b. perfective maintenance

c. re-engineering of the software

d. none of the above

45. Who is normally responsible for initiating the suggestion-day program?

a. DP manager

b. Group moderator

c. Any one of the above

d. None of the above

46. The fundamental mistakes that impede an individual from becoming a leader are:

a. Isolation

b. Inability to reward

c. Lack of business perspective

d. All of the above

47. Training will be imparted to all employees . This statement is a

a. Vision

b. Goal

c. Principle

d. Value

48. A form used to record the discrepancies found during QC activities is a

a. Checksheet

b. Review report

c. Test log

d. Defect log

e. None of the above

49. The step-by-step method to ensure that standards are met is a

a. Procedure

b. Checklist

c. Process

d. Checksheet

50. An activity that verifies compliance with policies and procedures and ensures that resources are conserved is

a. an inspection

b. an audit

c. a review

d. an assessment

Objective-Paper-2

1. TQM means quality of management rather than management of quality

TRUE/FALSE

2. Baselines measure the ______________________ change.

a) Situation prior to

b) Expectation of benefits of

c) Effects of

d) Desirability of

e) None of the above

3. Malcolm Baldridge award was named by a public law after Malcolm Baldridge who was the secretary of Defense

TRUE/FALSE

4. Modifying existing standards to better match the need of a project or environment is

a) Definition

b) Standard for a standard

c) Tailoring

d) Customization

e) None of the above

5. Malcolm Baldridge National Quality Award has the following eligibility categories

a) Approach

b) Deployment

c) Results

d) All of the above

e) Manufacturing, Service and small businesses

f) None of the above

6. Quality experience indicates that about 40 percent of all defects are directly attributable to incorrect or ineffective processes

TRUE/FALSE

7. The process of helping the progress of some event or activity is

a) Negotiation

b) Conflict Resolution

c) Facilitation

d) Influencing

e) None of the above

8. The ability to apply beliefs, standards, guidelines, policies, procedures and values to a decision in a specific set of circumstances is

a) Recognition

b) Motivation

c) Judgement

d) All of the above

e) None of the above

9. Kanban means creating a visible record and is a push system

TRUE/FALSE

10. Testing will exercise 90% of the code. Is it a

a) Vision

b) Standard

c) Policy

d) Goal

e) Value

f) Non of the above

11. The organization will foster an atmosphere of creativity. Is it a

a) Vision

b) Mission

c) Policy

d) Goal

e) Value

f) None of the above

12. The following is problem identification tool

a) Flow Chart

b) Histogram

c) Scatter Diagram

d) Force Field Analysis

e) None of the above

13. The following is a problem analysis tool

a) Pareto Chart

b) Histogram

c) Force Field Analysis

d) All of the above

e) None of the above

14. When you need to identify and explore and display the possible causes of a specific problem or condition, you use,

a) Control Charts

b) Histogram

c) Scatter Diagram

d) Ishikawa Diagram

e) None of the above

15. Quality Assurance personnel must be involved in changing work products

TRUE/FALSE

16. The term benchmarking means

a) Comparing with past data from your organization

b) Comparing with the results of a market survey

c) Comparing with the results of a customer survey

d) None of the above

17. Employee awareness training courses are based on the fact that understanding follows behavior change

TRUE/FALSE

18. An example of deployment of a quality approach is:

a) The degree to which the approach embodies effective evaluation cycles

b) The appropriate and effective application to all product and service characteristics

c) The effectiveness of the use of tools, techniques, and methods

d) The contribution of outcomes and effects to quality improvement

e) The significance of improvement to the companys business

19. The concept of continuous improvement as applied to quality means

a) Employees will continue to get better

b) Processes will be improved by a lot of small improvements

c) Processes will be improved through a few large improvements

d) Improved technology will be added to the process, such as acquiring CASE tools

e) The functionality of the products will be enhanced

20. The reason(s) that one person hears what another person says is:

a) People are too impatient to listen

b) People are preparing what they will say next rather than listening

c) External stimuli breaks the train of thought in listening

d) All of the above

e) None of the above

21. Function Point is a measure of

a) Effort

b) complexity

c) usability

d) size

e) None of the above

22. Cost of Quality includes

a) Preventive costs

b) Corrective costs

c) Appraisal costs

d) All of the above

e) None of the above

23. You can improve the Quality of a process bya) Making large improvements, in a few areas

b) Making small improvements, in many areas

c) Implementing tools, techniques and methodologies

d) Spreading awareness about Quality

24. As a Quality Assurance professional, which of the following skills do you feel is the most important for your profession

a) Communication, written and oral

b) Measurement

c) Tools, techniques and methodologies

d) Combination of any of the above two

e) None of the above

25. 80-20 rule implies,

a) 20% of frequencies are due to 80% of the Causes

b) 20% to 80% of problems are caused by process changes

c) 80% of the frequencies are due to 20% of the Cause

d) 80% of the processes need to be changed atleast 20% of the time

26. The purpose of Risk Management in a project is to

a) Eliminate Risks

b) Minimize Risks

c) Avoid risks

d) Anticipate the risks involved, analyze them and plan for suitable action as and when the risk happens

27. Championing Quality is the job of

a) Senior Management

b) Junior Management

c) QA Manager

d) None of the above

28. The first thing required for Quality to happen is

a) Commitment from the Quality Assurance Manager

b) Mature understanding by all the employees

c) Commitment from Management

d) Quality Policy

29. Which, of the four given below, is not one of DR Edward Demings 14 Quality Principles?

a) Give adequate training

b) Have a number of numerical goals set

c) Work as one team. (Sink differences)

d) Senior Management must push all other points constantly and consistently

30. According to Dr. Ishikawa, the term Strive for Zero Defects helps the staff to achieve it.

TRUE/FALSE31. The activity which includes confirming understanding, brainstorming and testing ideas is a :

a) Code walkthru

b) Inspection

c) Review

d) Structured walkthru

32. The following is problem identification tool

a) Flow Chart

b) Histogram

c) Scatter Diagram

d) Force Field Analysis

e) None of the above

33. The following can be considered to measure quality :

a) Customer satisfaction

b) Defects

c) Rework

d) All of the above

e) None of the above

34. If a company establishes its plan and commitment to quality, it has a

level of :

a) Initial

b) Repeatable

c) Defined

d) Managed

35. The statement of an organization's commitment to quality is a:

a) Policy

b) Vision

c) Mission

d) Principle

e) Goal

36. The most common reason for the presence of a large number of bugs in a software product is,

a) Incompetence of the developer

b) Incompetence of the tester

c) Bad requirements

d) Wrong use of tools and techniques

37. What type of control is a job accounting log?

a) Corrective

b) Preventive

c) Detective

d) Protective

e) None of the above

38. The term defect is related to the term fault because a defect is a fault which has not yet been identified.

TRUE / FALSE

39. On a random basis application systems are audited after implementation to determine whether or not the system met standards. This is an example of

a) Detective control

b) Quality control

c) Quality Assurance

d) Corrective control

e) None of the above

40. The following is (are) not part of a data center operations

a) Capacity planning

b) I/O control

c) Scheduling

d) All of the above

e) None of the above

41. The process of securing future processing capability with proper data for future contingencies by duplicating systems procedures and data is

a) providing a Help Desk

b) Database Design

c) Artificial Intelligence

d) System Backup

e) All of the above

f) None of the above

42. The activities performed to increase the functionality of a current production system to better service the changing business needs is

a) Development

b) Maintenance

c) Reengineering

d) Enhancement

e) None of the above

43. To tap ideas from an entire group we may use

a) Nominal Group technique

b) Check sheets

c) Pareto chart

d) Brainstorming

e) None of the above

44. Level 3 of the SEI CMM is the _________________________ level

a) Managed

b) Measured

c) Defined

d) Optimizing

45. Control Limits are the same are Specifications Limits

TRUE / FALSE

46. The objective of TQM is

a) To improve processes

b) To improve profitability

c) All of the above

d) None of the above

47. System Test Plan will not include

a) Approach

b) Pass/Fail criteria

c) Risks

d) Suspension and Resumption criteria

e) None of the above

48. The two types of checklists are _______________ and ________________________

49. Internal System Controls are used to ensure

a) Data integrity

b) Process Integrity

c) Financial Integrity

d) All of the above

e) None of the above

50. As the IT Director, you buy a new productivity improvement tool, train the users, do the set up, provide support, helpdesk and even give access to your personal phone. However, after 6 months you find that no one is using the tool. What went wrong? (write only the most important reason)

________________________

Objective-Paper-3

51. One of the purposes of the MBNQ Award Program is not to publicize successful quality strategies.

a) Trueb) False

52. Baselines measure the ______________________ change.

f) Situation prior to

g) Expectation of benefits of

h) Effects of

i) Desirability of

j) None of the above

53. Malcolm Baldridge award was named by a public law after Malcolm Baldridge who was the secretary of Commerce

a) Trueb) False

54. Pareto analysis is designed to rank items by frequency.

a) Trueb) False

55. Modifying existing standards to better match the need of a project or environment is

f) Definition

g) Standard for a standard

h) Tailoring

i) Customization

j) None of the above

56. Malcolm Baldridge National Quality Award has the following dimensions

g) Approach

h) Deployment

i) Results

j) All of the above

k) Manufacturing, Service and small businesses

l) None of the above

57. Six sigma quality, when expressed as defects per million parts represents:

a) 6667 defects per million

b) 3444 defects per million parts

c) 687 defects per million parts

d) 233 defects per million parts

e) 3.4 defects per million parts

f) None of the above

58. The following is not a category in MBNQA criteria

a) Leadership

b) HR Focus

c) Quality Management

d) Information and Analysis

e) None of the above

59. An optimizing organization is a perfect organization. They make no mistakes

a) True b) False

60. A Level 4 organization has a

f) Defined Process

g) Repeatable Process

h) Managed Process

i) Optimizing Process

j) None of the above

61. Quality experience indicates that about 80% of all defects are directly attributable to

f) Lack of skills

g) Persons in the team

h) Incorrect/Ineffective Processes

i) None of the above

62. The following are types of listening are

a) Descriptive listening

b) Compensation listening

c) Apprehensive listening

d) All of the above

e) None of the above

63. Complaints must be resolved within

(a) An hour

(b) four minutes

(c) a day

(d) four hours

(e) None of the above

64. The process of helping the progress of some event or activity is

(a) Negotiation

(b) Conflict Resolution

(c) Facilitation

(d) Influencing

(e) None of the above

65. Developing and asking questions for the purpose of collecting oral data to be used in an analysis or evaluation is

(a) Effective listening

(b) Interviewing

(c) Negotiation

(d) None of the above

66. An example of deployment of a quality approach is

(a) The degree to which the approach embodies effective evaluation/improvement cycles

(b) The appropriate and effective application to all product and service characteristics

(c) The effectiveness of the use of tools, techniques and methods

(d) The contribution of outcomes and effects to quality improvement

(e) The significance of improvement to the company's business

67. Kanban means creating a visible record and is a pull system

a) Trueb)False

68. The concept of continuous improvement as applied to quality means

a) Employees will continue to get better

b) Processes will be improved by a lot of small improvements

c) Processes will be improved through a few large improvements

d) Improved technology will be added to the process, such as acquiring case tools

e) The functionality of the product will be enhanced

69. The purpose of cost-of -quality computations is to show how much is being spent for the quality control and quality assurance program

a) Trueb) False

70. Management must

a) Mange By Objective (MBO)

b) Manage By Power (MBP)

c) Manage By Objection (MBO)

d) Manage By People (MBP)

e) All of the above

f) None of the above

71. Customer satisfaction is a

a) Tactical measurement

b) Strategic measurement

c) Operational measurement

d) All of the above

72. Abilities of a person relate to

a) Image of the person

b) How he listens and does not generalize

c) Performing job tasks using skills

d) Organizes thoughts before speaking

e) All of the above

73. Conformity behavior can be used to

a) Conform people to a group

b) Make everyone face the door in a lift

c) Change behavior

d) Find a leader for the group

e) None of the above

74. Awareness training should not last over two hours

g) Trueb) False

75. The statement of an enterprise's commitment to quality is its

g) Vision

h) Mission

i) Quality Policy

j) Goal

k) Value

l) None of the above

76. The following is problem identification tool

f) Flow Chart

g) Histogram

h) Scatter Diagram

i) Force Field Analysis

j) None of the above

77. The following is a problem analysis tool

f) Pareto Chart

g) Histogram

h) Force Field Analysis

i) All of the above

j) None of the above

78. When you need to identify and explore and display the possible causes of a specific problem or condition, you use,

f) Control Charts

g) Histogram

h) Scatter Diagram

i) Ishikawa Diagram

j) None of the above

79. Quality Assurance personnel must not be involved in changing work products

a) True b) False

80. The term benchmarking means

e) Comparing with past data from your organization

f) Comparing with the results of a market survey

g) Comparing with the results of a customer survey

h) None of the above

81. Employee awareness training courses are based on the fact that understanding precedes behavior change

a) True b) False

82. The reason(s) that one person hears what another person says is:

f) People are too impatient to listen

g) People are preparing what they will say next rather than listening

h) External stimuli breaks the train of thought in listening

i) All of the above

j) None of the above

83. Function Point is not a measure of

f) Effort

g) complexity

h) usability

i) all of the above

j) size

k) None of the above

84. Cost of Quality includes

f) Preventive costs

g) Corrective costs

h) Appraisal costs

i) All of the above

j) None of the above

85. As a Quality Assurance professional, which of the following skills do you feel is the most important for your profession

f) Communication, written and oral

g) Measurement

h) Tools, techniques and methodologies

i) Combination of any of the above two

j) None of the above

86. 80-20 rule implies,

e) 20% of people should not do 80% of the work

f) 20% time you have to return to

g) 20% to 80% of problems are caused by process changes

h) 80% of the frequencies are due to 20% of the Cause

i) 80% of the processes need to be changed atleast 20% of the time

87. Statistical Process Control can help to identify the root cause of problems

a) True b) False

88. Normal variance in the operation of processes is due to

a) Assignable causes

b) Random causes

c) Common causes

d) Uncommon causes

e) None of the above

89. In Function Point counting there are _____ function types

a) 3 b) 2 c) 5 d) 4 e) 6

90. In Function Point counting there are _____ classification

a) 3 b) 2 c) 4 d) 6

91. An ongoing negotiation and improvement process whose purpose is to satisfy customer needs in an efficient, effective and economical manner is

a) Requirements Analysis

b) a Contract

c) a Service Level Agreement

d) None of the above

92. A quality assurance analyst can estimate the frequency or severity of events using

a) Judgmental Sampling

b) Statistical Sampling

c) All of the above

d) None of the above

93. The ultimate responsibility for good internal control rests with the

a) QA groupb) Design teamc) Managementd) Audit Group

94. Controls can be

a) Preventive, adaptive or corrective

b) Preventive, corrective or appraisal

c) Preventive, detective or corrective

d) None of the above

95. Which of the following are true

a) Testing precedes debugging

b) Debugging is only done along with testing

c) Testing is not required if a program is debugged

d) Debugging precedes testing

96. The method by which release from the requirements of a specific standard may be obtained for a specific situation is a

f) Tailoring

g) Customization

h) Force Field Analysis

i) Waiver

j) None of the above

97. Measures designed to minimize the probability of modification, destruction, or inability to retrieve software or data is

a) Preventive security

b) Corrective security

c) Protective security

e) None of the above

98. In the TCS scenario a Project Leader is a Project Manager

a) Trueb) False

99. Right-the-first time costs (RFT) include

a) Cost of labour, material, equipment

b) Preventive and detective costs

b) All of the above

c) Cost of Quality

e) None of the above

100. The audit of application systems on a random basis after implementation, to determine whether or not the system meets standards, is

a) Quality Control

b) Quality Assurance

c) Quality Loss

d) None of the above

Objective-Paper-4

1. The two definitions of quality are:

Quality means meeting requirements

Quality means fit for use.

Of the two definitions of quality, fit for use is the most important definition.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE

2. Producer views quality as meeting --------------------------------------.

a) whether the product or service does what the customer needs

b) product has zero defects

c) producers requirements or specifications

d) conformance to requirements

3. Quality control is defined as the processes and methods used to monitor work and observe whether ---------------------.

A) requirements are met.

b) product quality is assured

c) defects have been prevented from occurring

4. Quality control focuses on

A) inspections

b) testing

c) removal of defects

d) all of the above

e) none of the above

5Quality control is the responsibilty of the organisational unit producing the product.

a) true

b) false

6quality assurance is a function responsible for --------------------------------.

a) controlling quality

b) managing quality

c) inspections

d) removal of defects

7quality assurance is a catalytic function which should encourage quality attitudes and discipline on the part of management and workers..

a) true

b) false

8Quality control is designed primarily to detect and correct defects, while quality assurance is oriented towards preventing defects from occurring.

a) true

b) false

9quality control should be performed by the group responsible for the ----------------.

a) quality management

b) development of the product

10The quality manager will find it difficult to effectively implement the qai quality improvement process, unless his organisation is willing to accept the quality principles as ---------------------------.

a) the organisations policy

b) a challenge

c) the organisations objectives

d) a management philosophy

11Acceptable quality level is to accept some level of defects as normal and acceptable, as many believe that defect free information technology products are not practical or