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10/24/2013
1
Question:
10
What is the capacity and what is the duration of the Short Term Memory store?
The correct answer is: 10
Capacity = 5-9 items Duration = 20-30 seconds
Question:
20
Compare the relative sensitivity of the measures of memory...
The correct answer is: 20
The least sensitive measure is recall, then recognition, and the most sensitive measure of retention is relearning.
Question: 30
What formula do you use to calculate a savings score?
The correct answer is: 30
(Number of original learning trials - Number of relearning trials) x 100
Number of original learning trials
10/24/2013
2
Question:
40
Explain and give an example of how Maintenance and Elaborative rehearsal can improve your recall of a list of Psychology key terms.
The correct answer is: 40
Maintenance rehearsal is repeating information to be remembered, so it could be used by saying the key terms and their definitions over and over again to reinforce their meaning. Elaborative rehearsal is expanding on the information to be remembered by creating links with existing knowledge or memories. For example, you could create a concept map of the key terms, with links between similar ideas and terms that relate to each other.
Question:
50
Explain what is meant by the Recency Effect and the Primacy Effect, also explaining why these effects occur...
The correct answer is: 50
The Recency Effect is the term used to identify the phenomenon in which people have a superior recall of the words at the end of a word list, because these words are the most 'recent' and are still in your sensory memory when using immediate recall. The Primacy Effect is the term used to describe the phenomenon in which people have a superior recall of the words at the beginning of a word list, because there is little interference at the beginning of the list, and these words can more easily progress from your STM to your LTM.
Question:
60
What are the different types of long term memory and how are they categorised? Use an example of each to help clarify your response.
The correct answer is: 60
Long term memory
Declarative memory - memory
store for information (knowing what).
Procedural memory - memory store for actions (knowing how). e.g. how to tie your shoe laces
Semantic memory - memory store for facts about world. e.g. the capital city of Italy is Rome
Episodic memory - memory
store for personal events. e.g. my first tooth fell out when I was eating an apple- it stayed in the fruit!
10/24/2013
3
Question:
10
Define the Decay theory of forgetting
The correct answer is: 10
That if memories are not accessed the physical trace of that memory can fade over time.
Question:
20
What is the major symptom of anterograde amnesia, and what is the underlying cause for that symptom?
The correct answer is: 20
Anterograde amnesia is characterised by the inability to consolidate new memories into LTM because of damage to the hippocampus.
Question:
30
Explain the term 'Motivated Forgetting', and give an example of the sort of situation where motivated forgetting might occur.
The correct answer is: 30
Motivated forgetting is when memories are repressed
so that they are essentially 'forgotten' and
unacknowledged by the person who experienced those
memories.
This is often an unconscious, self-preservation
technique because the person has been through a
traumatic event like seeing their best friend killed in a
car accident (repression).
It can also be a conscious decision to forget an
embarrassing event for instance (suppression).
10/24/2013
4
Question:
40
Outline the differences between retroactive and proactive interference with reference to the following scenario: On Friday's Shelby has Latin session 1, and Spanish session 2 and often gets confused between the two languages.
The correct answer is: 40
Retroactive interference is where recall of the old information is impaired because of the interference of new information. For example, if Shelby found it difficult to remember his Latin terms from session 1 because the Spanish is interfering. Proactive interference is where recall of the new information is impaired because of the interference of old information. For example, if Shelby found it difficult to remember his Spanish terms from session 2 because the Latin is interfering.
Question:
50
Explain how context-dependent cues and state-dependent cues can each enhance retrieval with reference to an example for each. Context-dependent cues: _______________________ ___________________________________________ Example: ___________________________________ State-dependent cues: _________________________ ___________________________________________ Example:___________________________________
The correct answer is: 50
Context-dependent cues can enhance memory because objects in the environment can act as a retrieval cue. e.g. when you visit the local play-ground you suddenly remember playing there as a child with three of your best friends. State-dependent cues can enhance memory because your emotional 'state' can act as a retrieval cue. e.g. when stressing out in an exam, you remember the last time you were stressing out... during your Psychology SAC, and you suddenly remember some very useful information from that SAC!
Question:
60
Explain how Erin could use Narrative Chaining to remember a list of ingredients needed to bake a chocolate cake (milk, flour, cocoa, eggs and sugar), so that when she gets to the supermarket she doesn't forget what she needs to buy.
The correct answer is: 60
Erin should create a story to link the words in a meaningful and memorable way. E.g. Bobby had to milk the cow every day and often got bored. One day as he was milking he noticed a pretty red flower (flour) and decided he would pick it. Before he finished milking Cocoa the cow she ate it!. He was so angry he through eggs at her and refused to give her any sugary words of praise like he usually did.
10/24/2013
5
Question: 10
What does an EEG measure?
The correct answer is: 10
An EEG detects, amplifies and records
the electrical activity of the brain.
Question:
20
Outline two changes that occur when a person enters REM sleep.
The correct answer is: 20
The electrical activity of the brain decreases in amplitude and increases in frequency (becoming more beta-like). Body temperature rises (due to increased brain activity and muscular spasms). Heart rate increases and becomes more irradic. Breathing rate increases.
Question:
30
Outline three changes that indicate that a person is an Altered State of Consciousness such as an alcohol induced state.
The correct answer is: 30
Decreased level of awareness of surroundings during an ASC.
Lowered content limitations - a person in an ASC would find it more difficult to focus on one piece
of incoming information alone, they are often 'swamped' by the incoming content.
Distorted perceptions - someone who is in an alcohol induced state may perceive that sounds are slurred, images blurred etc.
Distrorted cognitions - a person in an alcohol induced state is likely to have less organised, more illogical thought processes.
Altered perception of time - time may appear to slow down or speed up compared to normal.
Changes in emotional awareness - in an alcohol induced state, a person is may experience either a lowered or heightened awareness of their emotions.
Changes in self control - a person in an alcohol induced state is likely to have lowered self-control, acting in ways that they would not act under normal circumstances.
10/24/2013
6
Question: 40
How do the Survival Theory of sleep and the Restorative Theory of sleep differ in their explanation of the purpose of sleep?
The correct answer is: 40
The Survival Theory of sleep explains that we sleep at night because this is when most of our predators are active and that by making ourselves immobile we decrease the chance of accidentally coming in contact with them or drawing attention to ourselves. The Restorative Theory of sleep doesn’t hold this view. It explains that sleep restores our body and brain. It cites evidence from elite athletes who spend more time in deep Stage 3 and 4 sleep after physically demanding events, and REM rebound after mentally draining sleep deprivation (more time spent in REM is said to restore the brain).
Question:
50
What changes occur in sleep requirements over the lifespan?
The correct answer is: 50
Infancy: an infant needs approximately 16 hours total sleep and about 50% of this sleep is spent in REM sleep. Adolescence: adolescents experience a shift in their sleep-wake cycle, often dropping from 10 hours to 8 hours sleep because their circadium rhythm alters and they no longer feel tired at their usual bedtime. Despite the shift in bedtime, they usually have commitments such as school that mean they need the wake at the usual time. This leads to symptoms of partial sleep deprivation because their bodies still need 10 hours sleep (about 25% of which is spent in REM) to cope with their active lifestyle and the changes that occur in their bodies such as puberty. Adult hood and old age: adults and the elderly tend to sleep for approximately 8 hours, and about 20% of this sleep is spent in REM sleep.
Question:
60
What two features of an EEG reading are unique to Stage 2 NREM sleep, and how can each of these features be recognised?
The correct answer is: 60
K-complexes: a K-complex is a single surge of neural activity (which is caused by the brain responding to external stimuli such as noises or internal stimuli like muscle tension as we move an arm). It can be recognised on the EEG by its higher amplitude and slower frequency than the surrounding brain waves. Sleep spindles: a burst of neural activity lasting about 1 full second (which might be caused by thoughts that creap back into our consciousness as we are 'drifting off'). It can be recognised on the EEG by a series of higher frequency and slightly higher amplitude brain waves.
10/24/2013
7
Question:
10
Explain hemispheric specialisation.
The correct answer is: 10
Hemispheric Specialisation is used describe the dominance of one of the hemispheres when completing certain tasks. For instance, the left hemisphere is dominant when completing verbal and analytical tasks such as speaking and problem solving, while the right hemisphere is dominant when completing spatial and creative tasks such as mentally rotating an object or using your imagination.
Question:
20
Explain the difference between Afferent and Efferent neurons.
The correct answer is: 20
Afferent neurons ascend (go up) from the body’s sensory receptors to the brain (specifically to the somatosensory cortex), therefore they are Sensory neurons. Efferent neurons descend (go down) from the brain (specifically from the Primary Motor Cortex) to the muscles, therefore they are Motor neurons.
Question:
30
Explain the similarities and differences between Broca’s Aphasia and Wernicke’s aphasia.
The correct answer is: 30
Broca’s aphasia and Wernicke’s aphasia are SIMILAR because they
are both impairment of language caused by brain damage.
They are DIFFERENT because:
• Broca’s aphasia is caused by damage in the Frontal Lobe whereas
Wernicke’s aphasia is caused by damage in the Temporal lobe AND
• Broca’s aphasia creates an inability to produce clear and fluent
speech whereas Wernicke’s aphasia creates an inability to understand
speech.
10/24/2013
8
Question:
40
Outline at least one associative function of each of the four lobes of the cerebral cortex.
The correct answer is: 40
Frontal Lobe: associative functions include reasoning, planning, judgement, problem solving and analysis of appropriate reactions to different situations.
Temporal Lobe: associative functions include memory processes such as storing memories, recognising faces, recognising emotions in memories, in speech and in facial expressions.
Occipital Lobe: associative functions include analysing and interpreting the meaning of the visual information that is received from the eyes and initially processed in the primary visual cortex.
Parietal Lobe: associative functions include integrating and analysing the meaning of sensory information.
Question:
50
Explain the action of the autonomic nervous system during and after a fight-or-flight response.
The correct answer is: 50
During the fight-or-flight response the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system would improve the body's chance of survival by acting to suppress unnecessary functions such as the digestive and reproductive systems, so that more energy can be utilised by the body muscles, heart and lungs which all work harder to cope with the situation. After the fight-or-flight response the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system will work to reverse the effects of the sympathetic nervous system so that the body can return to it's normal, stable level of activity and normalise it's energy requirements.
Question:
60
There are 6 Key Cortical Areas of the brain, name and briefly explain the function of each.
The correct answer is: 60
Primary Motor Cortex: Controls voluntary muscle movements on the opposite side of the body. Somatosensory Cortex: Receives and processes tactile sensory information from the opposite side of the body. Primary Visual Cortex: Receives and processes visual information by organising shapes, colours and patterns in what we see so that the image can be recognised. Primary Auditory Cortex: Receives and processes auditory information by analysing tone, pitch, volume and rhythm so that sounds can be recognised. Wernicke's Area: Processes verbal language and plays a role in both understanding grammar and making sure that speech makes grammatical sense. Broca's Area: Controls the production of clear and fluent speech sounds.
10/24/2013
9
Question:
10
Explain the requirements of a truly ‘Random Sample'.
The correct answer is: 10
Every person in the population must have an equal chance of being selected into the sample.
Question:
20
What CAN and CANNOT correlational studies establish? Correlational studies CAN establish... But Correlational studies CANNOT establish...
The correct answer is: 20
Correlational studies CAN establish the relationship (and the direction of the relationship) between two variables e.g. age and memory ability tends to have a negative relationship. But Correlational studies CANNOT establish the cause and effect of that relationship. e.g. a correlational study cannot prove that an increase in age causes a decrease in memory ability.
Question:
30
Damien wants to investigate the effect of having a half-hour delay between learning and recalling a list of 20 nonsense syllables. Suggest how Damien could use his 40 participants (20 boys and 20 girls) to test the effect of delayed or immediate recall if he was to use: *An Independent Groups design *A Repeated Measures Design *A Matched participants Design
The correct answer is: 30
Independent Groups design: Damien would randomly allocate the participants into two groups. Group 1 (containing 20 participants) would learn the word list then immediately recall it. Group 2 (containing the other 20 participants) would learn the word list, then have a half hour delay before recalling. Repeated Measures design: Damien would still randomly allocate the participants into two groups of 20 for ease, but this time, Group 1 will immediately recall word list A, then the next day, they will have a half-hour delay between learning and recalling List B. Group 2 will have a half-hour delay between learning and recalling List A, then the next day immediately recall list B. The two word lists will have the same number of words and a similar difficulty. Matched Participants design: Damien would split his participants into the 20 males and the 20 females, then randomly select 10 of the boys to go into Group 1, and the other 10 to enter Group 2. The girls would then be randomly allocated so that 10 go into group 1, and 10 into group 2. This way participants are matched on gender in case this acts as another independent variable (extraneous if un-controlled). The procedure would be the same as for Independent Groups design.
10/24/2013
10
Question:
40
Telitha set her critical p-value at p<0.01 for her experiment investigating the effect of relearning on completion time of a problem solving task. Upon analysing her experimental results, she found her p-value to be p=0.04. What does this p-value mean, and should she accept or reject her hypothesis? Why?
The correct answer is: 40
A p-value of p=0.04 means that there is less than a 4% probability that the difference in the results between the control and experimental group were due to chance factors rather than the independent variable (relearning). Because Telitha set her critical p-value at p<0.01, and her calculated p-value was higher than that level, she must reject her hypothesis (even though most experiments in Psychology use a critical p-value of 0.05)
Question:
50
Caleb wanted to investigate the effect of fatigue on Monash University students' ability to learn. He randomly selected 40 students from Monash University, Gippsland Campus, and allocated 20 participants to each of the two groups. Group 1 were woken at 6am and spent the next 4 hours doing an intensive set of complex problem-solving tasks. Group 2 was permitted to sleep in until 9:30. At 10am, both groups watched a 5 minute video that showed them how to create a working model of a tractor using lego, and were timed on how long it took them to successfully complete their model. Identify the: * Independent and Dependent Variables (basic) * Population * Experimental Design * Potential confounding variable (at least one) * Potential Extraneous variable (at least one)
The correct answer is: 50
IV = Whether the participants were fatigued or not. DV = Learning ability/speed. Population = University students from the Gippsland campus of Monash University, Experimental Design = Independent groups design Confounding = the time that participants went to bed. Stress levels etc. Extraneous = gender, age, spatial ability etc.
Question:
60
Caleb wanted to investigate the effect of fatigue on the ability to learn. He randomly selected 40 students from Monash University, Gippsland Campus, and allocated 20 participants to each of the two groups. Group 1 were woken at 6am and spent the next 4 hours doing an intensive set of complex problem-solving tasks. Group 2 was permitted to sleep in until 9:30. At 10am, both groups watched a 5 minute video that showed them how to create a working model of a tractor using lego, and were timed on how long it took them to successfully complete their model. Create a research hypothesis for Caleb's experiment. Then identify the operational IV and DV.
The correct answer is: 60
It is hypothesised that students from Monash University (Gippsland Campus) who are fatigued will perform worse on a learning task than those who are not fatigued. IV = whether participants slept-in and did nothing prior to testing (LOW fatigue) or if they had an early wake-up call and high mental activity between waking and testing (HIGH fatigue). DV = Learning ability, operationalised as the time taken to successfully create a model tractor out of lego.
10/24/2013
11
Question: 10
Using the idea of a DOG, its LEAD,
and the dog’s EXCITEMENT, create
an example of operant conditioning
and an example of classical
conditioning to differentiate
between the two learning theories.
The Correct Answer is: 10
Operant Conditioning: If the DOG went and
collected it’s LEAD and took it to its owner
(operant response), and the owner took the
dog for a walk (consequence) then the dog
would be reinforced with EXCITEMENT.
Classical Conditioning: If a DOG has learned
to associate the LEAD (CS) with going for a
walk (UCS), the dog would develop a
conditioned response of EXCITEMENT
whenever the LEAD is picked up by the
owner.
Question: 20
On Pam’s farm, the cows are fed during the
winter months with the ‘big blue’ tractor. The
cows are now conditioned to start walking
towards the gateways when they hear the big
blue tractor.
The cows also walk to the gateways if they hear
the big blue tractor in the summer months, but
never walk to the gateways when the ‘little
yellow’ tractor starts up.
Explain this phenomenon in regards to stimulus
generalisation and stimulus discrimination.
The Correct Answer is: 20
By walking up to the gateways in the summer
months, the cows are demonstrating stimulus
generalisation – a failure to distinguish between the
conditioned stimulus (big blue tractor in winter) and
a similar stimulus (big blue tractor in summer).
By not responding to the little yellow tractor, the
cows are demonstrating stimulus discrimination, an
ability to successfully distinguish between the
conditioned stimulus (big blue tractor) and a
stimulus that will not be followed by the UCS (food).
Question: 30
Explain why phobias can be considered
as a form of classical conditioning with
reference to the following scenario:
When he was six years old, Shane was
camping with his family and woke up to
find a huntsman spider on his face. Ever
since, he has been afraid of camping.
The Correct Answer is: 30
Shane’s phobia of camping could be seen
as a form of classical conditioning because
he has made an association between a
neutral stimulus (camping) and an
unconditioned stimlus (shock of finding a
spider on his face), and developed a
conditioned response (fear) to the
conditioned stimulus of camping.
10/24/2013
12
Question: 40
Charlotte hasn’t been sticking to her curfew.
Considering that Charlotte loves to catch up
with friends on Facebook, hates to clean her
room and usually gets pocket money,
suggest the best options for Charlotte’s
parents to alter Charlotte’s behaviour of
staying out late.
Positive Reinforcement:
Negative Reinforcement:
Punishment:
Response Cost:
The Correct Answer is: 40
Positive Reinforcement: When Charlotte displays the target
behaviour of returning home before her Curfew, her parents
should reward her by giving the good consequence of time
on Facebook (or pocket money).
Negative Reinforcement: When Charlotte displays the target
behaviour of returning home before her Curfew, her parents
should reward her by removing the unpleasant consequence
of having to clean her room.
Punishment: When Charlotte displays the alternative behaviour of
returning home after her Curfew, her parents should punish
her by giving the unpleasant consequence of having to clean
her room.
Response Cost: When Charlotte displays the alternative behaviour
of returning home after Curfew, her parents should punish
her by removing the good consequence of Facebook (or
pocket money).
Question: 50
Provide an example of each of
the four Schedules of
Reinforcement, with a brief
explanation of each.
The Correct Answer is: 50
Fixed Interval Schedule: e.g. Working at a job that pays your
wage per hour – you only have to be at work for an hour
(fixed time period) before being reinforced with money,
and the amount of work that you get done (behaviour) in
that hour is irrelevant.
Variable Interval Schedule: e.g. Fishing – you only have to
cast the fishing rod once and you will catch something
eventually, but the length of time that you have to wait
to be rewarded constantly changes.
Fixed Ratio Schedule: e.g. For every $10 that you spend at
Coles supermarket (fixed amount of behaviours) you
will be rewarded with a “sports for schools” voucher.
Variable Ratio Schedule: e.g. Playing the pokies – you have
to play a changing amount of games (behaviour) before
being rewarded with winning money.
Question: 60
For the following scenario, identify each of
the 5 key terms related to classical
conditioning and explain the process of
acquisition:
Harley the dog has started to bark every
single time that he hears the microwave
‘bing’ because of the unfortunate
coincidence that for the last few weeks,
there have been visitors every time dinner is
being prepared...!
The Correct Answer is: 60
Neutral Stimulus = microwave ‘bing’
Unconditioned Stimulus = visitors arriving
Unconditioned Response = barking
Conditioned Stimulus = microwave ‘bing’
Conditioned Response = barking
Process of Acquisition: Repeated pairings
between the UCS and NS until Harley
associates the two things and learns to
respond (CR) to the NS/CS the same way
he originally responded (UCR) to the
UCS.
10/24/2013
13
Question: 10
Why is a ‘neutral stimulus’ called
that?
The Correct Answer is: 10
Because it is a stimulus that does not
cause a relevant response. E.g. a bell is a
neutral stimulus for a dog because it
doesn’t cause any relevant response like
salivation etc…
Question: 20
Differentiate between
developmental and
adaptive plasticity.
The Correct Answer is: 20
Developmental Plasticity: is the name for the natural
processes that the brain goes through as we mature.
For instance, by the age of approximately 4, our brain
has far more neural pathways than we need, but by the
age of 25, the neural pathways have been ‘pruned’ so
that the commonly used pathways are simplified. This
helps the brain naturally adapt to the individuals uses.
Adaptive Plasticity: is the brain’s ability to adapt to
abnormal events in a person’s life that alter the
requirements of the brain’s functioning. For instance, if
a person has an amputation, the relevant area of the
primary motor and somatosensory cortices can change
to be responsible for other body areas instead.
Question: 30
Name, define and give an
example of each of the three
behaviours that are NOT
dependent on learning.
The Correct Answer is: 30
Reflexes are simple responses to direct stimulation.
E.g. You sneeze if you get dust up your nose.
Fixed Action Patterns are species-specific complex
and instinctive behaviours e.g. A spider spinning it’s
web.
Behaviours dependent on Maturation are those that
require some developmental ‘maturity’ before they
can be displayed. For example, a human infant cannot
walk immediately, they need the physical
developments of muscle strength and coordination
before they can successfully walk, but walking is
innate.
10/24/2013
14
Question: 40
Rupert has seen his mother baking his
favourite chocolate cake a dozen times in
the last few years, and now that he has
left home, has decided to attempt the
recipe himself.
Explain the terms “Attention”,
“Retention”, “Reproduction” and
“Motivation” in relation to this scenario,
in terms of what Rupert needs to
successfully bake the cake.
The Correct Answer is: 40
To successfully bake the cake, Rupert needs
to have paid ATTENTION whilst his mother
baked the cake, rather than simply passively
observing her actions. He needs to also have
RETAINED the information in his memory. In
order to bake his cake, he needs all of the
tools and baking skills/knowledge that are
necessary to REPRODUCE his mother’s
behaviour, and finally he needs to be
MOTIVATED to bake the cake (such as this
being his favourite cake – which according to
the scenario it is).
Question: 50
Explain what is meant by a “token
economy” and give an example of
what this might look like in real life
situations.
The Correct Answer is: 50
A token economy is a method of
reinforcing good behaviours by
providing a ‘token’ or symbolic
reward like a star on a chart for each
good behaviour like using manners,
doing chores etc. These symbolic
rewards build up and can later be
exchanged for an actual reward e.g.
10 stars exchanged for a chocolate
bar.
Question: 60
Eric Kandel investigated the neural basis of
memory and learning by repeatedly stimulating
the siphon of a sea slug. He had three key
findings. Explain these findings and then link
them to the term Long Term Potentiation (LTP).
The Correct Answer is: 60
• After learning, the dendrites of the relevant neurons appear to
become ‘bushier’ because the new dendritic spines/branches are
added.
• Extra synapses are also created as a result of the extra dendritic
spines.
• At each synaptic gap, the production of neurotransmitters
(especially glutamate) is increased.
• These changes all function to improve the efficiency of the neural
pathway, making it more likely that the presynaptic neuron will
successfully stimulate the postsynaptic neuron.
• LTP is the term for this overall process where ‘neuron’s that fire
together wire together’. Meaning that the improved efficiency
means that the neurons that have undergone these changes fire
simultaneously rather than one after the other as usually happens.
• LTP also highlights the role of NMDA receptors on the
postsynaptic neuron’s dendrites which are specifically designed
to receive glutamate, the neurotransmitter which has increased
production after learning something new.
10/24/2013
15
Question: 10
Define Eustress and
provide an example.
The Correct Answer is: 10
Eustress is ‘positive’
stress that occurs
when for example, we
find out that we’ve won
a raffle prize.
Question: 20
Differentiate between
Allostasis and
Allostatic Load.
The Correct Answer is: 20
Allostasis is a mechanism to maintain
survival by changing bodily functions in
order to adapt to changes in the
environment.
Allostatic Load refers to the ‘wear and
tear on the brain and body’ that can
occur if allostasis is prolonged due to
stress or if we fail to adapt to a stressful
situation.
Question: 30
Kim is studying for her final law
exam when her boyfriend breaks up
with her. Use the Lazarus and
Folkman Transactional Model of
Stress and Coping to explain the
likely outcome of her primary,
secondary and reappraisal of her
situation.
The Correct Answer is: 30
Kim’s primary appraisal would be in response to
the stressor of her final Law Exam. The outcome
of the primary appraisal may be stressful, but in
secondary appraisal she realises that she has time
to study for the exam and is well prepared,
therefore her stress is relatively mild. When she is
presented with the additional stressor of her
boyfriend breaking up with her, she would be
forced into a reappraisal of her situation. This
reappraisal is likely to lead to her feeling very
stressed because she now has two stressors and
doesn’t feel that she has the coping resources to
deal with both stressors at once.
10/24/2013
16
Question: 40
Distinguish between
Dimensional and Discrete
Categorical approaches to
classifying mental
disorders, with reference
to at least two differences.
The Correct Answer is: 40
• Dimensional approaches rank a persons symptoms on
a scale whereas Discrete Categorical approaches use
a Yes/No approach to if a participant has a symptom.
• Dimensional approaches avoid labelling and
diagnosing people, whereas Discrete Categorical
approaches are primarily aimed at diagnosing people
with a common label so that they can be treated with a
common understanding.
• Dimensional approaches can create a profile of a
person’s changes over time in regards to the
degrees/scale of their symptoms, whereas Discrete
Categorical approaches classify a person as having
the mental disorder until they no longer display the
symptoms.
Question: 50
Use a biopsychosocial
framework to explain how a
person could improve their
ability to cope with stress
with reference to
biofeedback, meditation, and
social support.
The Correct Answer is: 50
Biofeedback aims to calm the body’s physiological (bio)
response to stress by providing visual feedback to the
person about their body’s physiological reactions so
that the person can then use breathing techniques for
example to calm those physiological responses back to
within normal limits.
Meditation aims to calm the psychological reactions
(and/or physiological reactions) to stress back to their
normal limits by reducing electrical brain activity and
muscle tension.
Social Support networks provide assistance,
encouragement and confidence to deal with stressors
which alleviates the stress response.
Question: 60
Outline what happens
to a person’s ‘level of
resistance’ in each
stage of the General
Adaption Syndrome
and why the level of
resistance changes in
each stage.
The Correct Answer is: 60
Alarm-Reaction: Shock – level of resistance drops below the normal
level of resistance as we are first confronted with the stressor until
the sympathetic nervous system is activated.
Alarm-Reaction: Countershock – the level of resistance rapidly rises
above the normal level as the sympathetic nervous system prepares
our body to deal with the stressor.
Resistance: Stress hormones that are released by the sympathetic
nervous system allow the level of resistance to remain well above the
normal level of resistance as our body confronts/ deals with the
stressor.
Exhaustion: the prolonged presence of stress hormones and the
increased physiological activity that have allowed the body to remain
in the resistance stage eventually causes the body to enter the
exhaustion stage where the level of resistance falls below its normal
level because of the huge amount of resources that the body has
used up during resistance stage. The prolonged presence of stress
hormones also weakens the immune system making the person more
prone to contracting illnesses during this period.