QUESTION BANK FOR CLASS X - Social Science 2020-2021 …3. Question Bank History Chapter1- The Rise of Nationalism in Europe 1 4. Chapter 2- Nationalism in India 5 5. Chapter 3-The

KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN

REGIONAL OFFICE, JABALPUR REGION

QUESTION BANK FOR CLASS X - Social Science

2020-2021

PATRON

Shri Tajuddin Shaik

Deputy Commissioner KVS RO Jabalpur

OUR MENTOR

Mrs. Shahida Parveen

Asst. Commissioner KVS RO Jabalpur

Mr. Dharmendra Patle


Mr. S. R. Meda


Team Leaders

1. Shri Ajit Singh,

Principal

2. Shri Jitendra Kumar

Principal

3. Shri S K Dwivedi

Principal (I/c) KV No.1 Sagar KV NKJ, Katni KV 1STC, Jabalpur

Team Members

1. Mr. Alok Singh 7. Mr. Rajesh Dixit PGT (Eco.) . TGT (SOST) KV COD, Jabalpur KV 1STC, Jabalpur (S-2)

2. Anurag Chourasia 8. Mr. Lokesh Agnihotri TGT (SOST) TGT (SOST) KV GCF No.1, Jabalpur KV No 3, Sagar

3. Mrs. Radharani Singh 9. Ms. Shivani TGT (SOST) TGT (SOST) KV VFJabalpur (S-1) K V OF, Katni

4. Mr. R C Singh 10. Mr.Balmiki Sharma TGT (SOST) TGT (SOST) KV 1STC, Jabalpur(S-1) K V NKJ, Katni

5. Mrs. Kiran Minocha 11. Ms. Shikha Khulbe TGT (SOST) TGT (SOST) KV 1STC, Jabalpur(S-1) K V COD, Jabalpur

6. Mrs. Hemlata Shrivastava 12. Mr. R K Namdeo TGT (SOST) TGT (SOST) KV OF, Katni KV No 1, Sagar

.

Contents

1. Syllabus of Class Tenth for the session 2020-21 i

2. Question Paper Design for the session 2020-21 viii

3. Question Bank History Chapter1- The Rise of Nationalism in Europe 1

4. Chapter 2- Nationalism in India 5

5. Chapter 3-The Making of a Global World 10

6. Chapter 4-The Age of Industrialization 18

7. Chapter5- Print Culture and the Modern World 25

8. Question Bank Geography Chapter1- Resources and Development 32

9. Chapter 3- Water Resources (Only Map Work) 36

10. Chapter 4- Agriculture 37

11. Chapter 5- Minerals and Energy Resources 41

12. Chapter 6- Manufacturing Industries 46

13. Chapter 7- Life Lines of National Economy 50

14. Question Bank Democratic Politics Chapter1- Power Sharing 53

15. Chapter 2- Federalism 57

16. Chapter 4- Gender, Religion and Caste 61

17. Chapter 6- Political Parties 67

18. Chapter 7- Outcomes of Democracy 69

19. Question Bank Economics Chapter1- Development 72

20. Chapter 2- Sectors of the Indian Economy 75

21. Chapter 3- Money and Credit 77

22. Chapter 4- Globalization and the Indian Economy 80

23. Chapter 5- Consumer Rights 82

i

Theory Paper

COURSE STRUCTURE CLASS X (2020-21)

Time: 3 Hrs. Max. Marks: 80

No. Units No. of Periods Marks

I India and the Contemporary World – II 60 20

II Contemporary India – II 55 20

III Democratic Politics - II 50 20

IV Understanding Economic Development 50 20

Total 215 80

COURSE CONTENT

Unit 1: India and the Contemporary World – II 60 Periods

Themes Learning Objectives

Section 1: Events and Processes 1. The Rise of Nationalism in Europe

• The French Revolution and the Idea of the Nation

• The Making of Nationalism in Europe

• The Age of Revolutions: 1830-1848

• The Making of Germany and Italy

• Visualizing the Nation

• Nationalism and Imperialism

2. Nationalism in India

• The First World War, Khilafat and Non – Cooperation

• Differing Strands within the Movement

• Towards Civil Disobedience

• The Sense of Collective Belonging

• Enable the learners to identify and comprehend the forms in which nationalism developed along with the formation of nation states in Europe in the post-1830 period.

• Establish the relationship and bring out the difference between European nationalism and anti- colonial nationalisms.

• Understand the way the idea of nationalism emerged and led to the formation of nation states in Europe and elsewhere.

• Recognize the characteristics of Indian nationalism through a case study of Non-Cooperation and Civil Disobedience Movement.

• Analyze the nature of the diverse social movements of the time.

• Familiarize with the writings and ideals of different political groups and individuals.

ii

Section 2: Livelihoods, Economies and Societies: Any one theme of the following:

• Appreciate the ideas promoting Pan Indian belongingness.

3. The Making of a Global World

• The Pre-modern world

• The Nineteenth Century (1815-1914)

• The Inter war Economy

• Rebuilding a World Economy: The Post-War Era

• Show that globalization has a long history and point to the shifts within the process.

• Analyze the implication of globalization for local economies.

• Discuss how globalization is experienced differently by different social groups.

4. The Age of Industrialization

• Before the Industrial Revolution

• Hand Labour and Steam Power

• Industrialization in the colonies

• Factories Come Up

• The Peculiarities of Industrial Growth

• Market for Goods

• Familiarize with the Pro- to- Industrial phase and Early – factory system.

• Familiarize with the process of industrialization and its impact on labour class.

• Enable them to understand industrialization in the colonies with reference to Textile industries.

Section 3: Everyday Life, Culture and Politics 5. Print Culture and the Modern World

• The First Printed Books

• Print Comes to Europe

• The Print Revolution and its Impact

• The Reading Mania

• The Nineteenth Century

• India and the World of Print

• Religious Reform and Public Debates

• New Forms of Publication

• Print and Censorship

• Identify the link between print culture and the circulation of ideas.

• Familiarize with pictures, cartoons, extracts from propaganda literature and newspaper debates on important events and issues in the past.

• Understand that forms of writing have a specific history, and that they reflect historical changes within society and shape the forces of change.

iii

Unit 2: Contemporary India – II 55 Periods


1. Resources and Development

• Types of Resources

• Development of Resources

• Resource Planning in India

• Land Resources

• Land Utilization

• Land Use Pattern in India

• Land Degradation and Conservation Measures

• Soil as a Resource

• Classification of Soils

• Soil Erosion and Soil Conservation

• Understand the value of resources and the need for their judicious utilization and conservation.

2. Forest and Wildlife

• Biodiversity or Biological Diversity

• Flora and Fauna in India

• Vanishing Forests

• Asiatic Cheetah: Where did they go?

• The Himalayan Yew in trouble

• Conservation of forest and wildlife in India

• Project Tiger

• Types and distribution of forests and Wildlife resources

• Community and Conservation

Note: The chapter ‘Forest and Wildlife’ to be assessed in the Periodic Tests only and will not be evaluated in Board Examination.

• Understand the importance of biodiversity with regard to flora and fauna in India.

• Analyse the importance of conservation of forests and wildlife.

3. Water Resources

• Water Scarcity and The Need for Water Conservation and Management

• Multi-Purpose River Projects and Integrated Water Resources Management

• Rainwater Harvesting Note: The theoretical aspect of chapter ‘Water Resources’ to be assessed in the Periodic Tests only and will not be evaluated in Board Examination. However, the map items of this chapter as given in the Map List will be evaluated in Board Examination.

• Comprehend the importance of water as a resource as well as develop awareness towards its judicious use and conservation.

iv

4. Agriculture

• Types of farming

• Cropping Pattern

• Major Crops

• Technological and Institutional Reforms

• Impact of Globalization on Agriculture

• Explain the importance of agriculture in national economy.

• Identify various types of farming and discuss the various farming methods; describe the spatial distribution of major crops as well as understand the relationship between rainfall regimes and cropping pattern.

• Explain various government policies for institutional as well as technological reforms since independence.

5. Minerals and Energy Resources

• What is a mineral?

• Mode of occurrence of Minerals

• Ferrous and Non-Ferrous Minerals

• Non-Metallic Minerals

• Rock Minerals

• Conservation of Minerals

• Energy Resources

• Conventional and Non-Conventional

• Conservation of Energy Resources

• Identify different types of minerals and energy resources and places of their availability

• Feel the need for their judicious utilization

6. Manufacturing Industries

• Importance of manufacturing

• Contribution of Industry to National Economy

• Industrial Location

• Classification of Industries

• Spatial distribution

• Industrial pollution and environmental degradation

• Control of Environmental Degradation

• Bring out the importance of industries in the national economy as well as understand the regional disparities which resulted due to concentration of industries in some areas.

• Discuss the need for a planned industrial development and debate over the role of government towards sustainable development.

v

7. Life Lines of National Economy

• Transport – Roadways, Railways, Pipelines, Waterways, Airways

• Communication

• International Trade

• Tourism as a Trade

• Explain the importance of transport and communication in the ever-shrinking world.

• Understand the role of trade and tourism in the economic development of a country.

Unit 3: Democratic Politics – II 50 Periods


1. Power Sharing

• Case Studies of Belgium and Sri Lanka

• Why power sharing is desirable?

• Forms of Power Sharing

• Familiarize with the centrality of power sharing in a democracy.

• Understand the working of spatial and social power sharing mechanisms.

2. Federalism

• What is Federalism?

• What make India a Federal Country?

• How is Federalism practiced?

• Decentralization in India

• Analyse federal provisions and institutions.

• Explain decentralization in rural and urban areas.

3. Democracy and Diversity

• Case Studies of Mexico

• Differences, similarities and divisions

• Politics of social divisions

Note: The chapter ‘Democracy and Diversity’ to be assessed in the Periodic Tests only and will not be evaluated in Board Examination.

• Analyse the relationship between social cleavages and political competition with reference to Indian situation.

4. Gender, Religion and Caste

• Gender and Politics

• Religion, Communalism and Politics

• Caste and Politics

• Identify and analyse the challenges posed by communalism to Indian democracy.

• Recognise the enabling and disabling effects of caste and ethnicity in politics.

• Develop a gender perspective on politics.

vi

5. Popular Struggles and Movements

• Popular Struggles in Nepal and Bolivia

• Mobilization and Organization

• Pressure Groups and Movements

Note: The chapter ‘Popular Struggles and Movements’ to be assessed in the Periodic Tests only and will not be evaluated in Board Examination.

• Understand the vital role of people’s struggle in the expansion of democracy.

6. Political Parties

• Why do we need Political Parties?

• How many Parties should we have?

• National Political Parties

• State Parties

• Challenges to Political Parties

• How can Parties be reformed?

• Analyse party systems in democracies.

• Introduction to major political parties, challenges faced by them and reforms in the country.

7. Outcomes of Democracy

• How do we assess democracy’s outcomes?

• Accountable, responsive and legitimate government

• Economic growth and development

• Reduction of inequality and poverty

• Accommodation of social diversity

• Dignity and freedom of the citizens

• Evaluate the functioning of democracies in comparison to alternative forms of governments.

• Understand the causes for continuation of democracy in India.

• Distinguish between sources of strengths and weaknesses of Indian democracy.

8. Challenges to Democracy

• Thinking about challenges

• Thinking about Political Reforms

• Redefining democracy Note: The chapter ‘Challenges to

Democracy’ to be assessed in the Periodic

• Reflect on the different kinds of measures possible to deepen democracy.

• Promote an active and participatory citizenship.

Tests only and will not be evaluated in

Board Examination.

vii

Unit 4: Understanding Economic Development 50 Periods

Themes Objectives

1. Development

• What Development Promises - Different people different goals

• Income and other goals

• National Development

• How to compare different countries or states?

• Income and other criteria

• Public Facilities

• Sustainability of development

• Familiarize with concepts of macroeconomics.

• Understand the rationale for overall human development in our country, which includes the rise of income, improvements in health and education rather than income.

• Understand the importance of quality of life and sustainable development.

2. Sectors of the Indian Economy

• Sectors of Economic Activities

• Comparing the three sectors

• Primary, Secondary and Tertiary Sectors in India

• Division of sectors as organized and unorganized

• Sectors in terms of ownership: Public and Private Sectors

• Identify major employment generating sectors.

• Reason out the government investment in different sectors of economy.

3. Money and Credit

• Money as a medium of exchange

• Modern forms of money

• Loan activities of Banks

• Two different credit situations

• Terms of credit

• Formal sector credit in India

• Self Help Groups for the Poor

• Understand money as an economic concept.

• Understand the role of financial institutions from the point of view of day- to- day life.

4. Globalization and the Indian Economy

• Production across countries

• Interlinking production across countries

• Foreign Trade and integration of

• Explain the working of the Global Economic phenomenon.

markets

• What is globalization?

• Factors that have enabled

Globalisation

• World Trade Organisation

• Impact of Globalization on India

• The Struggle for a fair Globalisation

5. Consumer Rights

Note: Chapter 5 ‘Consumer Rights’ to be

done as Project Work

• Gets familiarized with the rights

and duties as a consumer; and legal

measures available to protect

from being exploited in markets.

viii

SOCIAL SCIENCE (CODE NO. 087)

QUESTION PAPER DESIGN

CLASS X (2020-21)

Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 80

Sr. No.

Competencies Total Marks % Weightage

1 Remembering and Understanding: Exhibiting memory of previously learned material by recalling facts, terms, basic concepts, and answers; Demonstrating understanding of facts and ideas by organizing, comparing, translating, interpreting, giving descriptions and stating main ideas

28 35%

2 Applying: Solving problems to new situations by applying acquired knowledge, facts, techniques and rules in a different way.

14 17.5%

3 Formulating, Analysing, Evaluating and Creating: Examining and breaking information into parts by identifying motives or causes; Making inferences and finding evidence to support generalizations; Presenting and defending opinions by making judgments about information, validity of ideas, or quality of work based on a set of criteria; Compiling information together in a different way by combining elements in a new pattern or proposing alternative solutions.

32 40%

4 Map Skill 6 7.5%

80 100%

Page | 1

KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN, REGIONAL OFFICE JABALPUR

Question Bank: Social Science

CLASS: X

Part A: HISTORY

Chapter-1: The Rise of Nationalism in Europe

Very Short Answer Type Questions (VSA) [1]

Q 1. By which of the following treaties was the United Kingdom of Great Britain formed?

(a) Treaty of Versailles (b) Act of Union

(c) Treaty of Paris (d) Treaty of Vienna

Q 2. Which of the following group of powers collectively defeated Napoleon?

(a) England, France, Italy, Russia

(b) England, Austria, Spain, Russia

(c) Austria, Prussia, Russia, Britain

(d) Britain, Prussia, Russia, Italy

Q 3. Which of the following countries is considered as the ‘cradle of European civilization’?

(a) England (b) France

(c) Greece (d) Russia

Q 4. ‘Nationalism’, which emerged as a force in the late 19th century, means

(a) strong devotion for one’s own country and its history and culture.

(b) strong devotion for one’s own country without appreciation for other nations.

(c) strong love for one’s own country and hatred for others.

(d) equality strong devotion for all the countries of the world.

Q 5. Match the term with the statements given below:

A ‘Utopian Society’ is

(i) a society under a benevolent monarchy

(ii) a society that is unlikely to ever exist

(iii) a society under the control of a chosen few wise men

(iv) a society under Parliamentary Democracy

(a) (i) and (ii)

(b) (ii) and (iii)

(c) (ii) only

(d) (iii) only

Q 6. Ernst Renan believed that the existence of nations is a necessity because

(a) it ensures protection to all inhabitants.

(b) it ensures liberty to all inhabitant citizens.

(c) it ensures Parliamentary form of government to its inhabitants.

(d) it ensures jobs and good health to all its inhabitants.

Q 7. Which of the following countries did not attend the Congress of Vienna?

(a) Britain (b) Russia

(c) Prussia (d) Switzerland

Q 8. The liberal nationalism stands for:

(a) freedom for the individual and equality before law.

(b) preservation of autocracy and clerical privileges.

(c) freedom for only male members of society and equality before law.

(d) freedom only for senior citizens

Page | 2

Q 9. The term ‘Universal Suffrage’ means:

(a) the right to vote and get elected, granted only to men.

(b) the right to vote for all adults.

(c) the right to vote and get elected, granted exclusively to property owning men.

(d) the right to vote and get elected, granted only to educated men and women.

Q 10. Who said ‘When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold’?

(a) Garibaldi (b) Bismarck

(c) Mazzini (d) Duke Metternich

Q 11. Who played the leading role in the unification of Germany?

(a) German Emperor (formerly King of Prussia) — Kaiser William I.

(b) Otto Von Bismarck (Prussian Chief Minister).

(c) Johann Gottfried Herder — German philosopher.

(d) Austrian Chancellor — Duke Metternich.

Q 12. Who was proclaimed the emperor of Germany in 1871?

(a) Otto Von Bismarck (b) Victor Emmanuel II

(c) Count Cavour (d) Kaiser William I of Prussia

Q 13. Who was responsible for the unification of Germany?

(a) Count Cavour (b) Bismarck

(c) Garibaldi (d) Giuseppe Mazzini

Q 14. Austrian Chancellor hosted the Congress of Vienna.

Q 15. A large part of the Balkans was under the control of the Empire.

Q 16. Giuseppe Mazzini formed a secret society called Young Italy for the dissemination of his goals.

(True/False)

Q 17. To which country did the artist Frederic Sorrieu belong?

Q 18. Match the columns

Column A Column B

(a) French Revolution (i) brought the conservative regimes back to power

(b) Liberalism (ii) ensured right to property for the privileged class

(c) Napoleonic Code (iii) recognized Greece as an independent nation

(d) The Treaty of Vienna (iv) transfer of sovereignty from monarch to the French citizens

(e) Treaty of Constantinople (v) individual freedom and equality before law

Q 19. What did the new social group comprise of that came into being in the 19th century comprised of?

Q 20. Which dynasty was deposed during the French Revolution and later restored to power by

conservatives?

Q 21. What views did Giuseppe Mazzini have about Italy?

Q 22. How was Mazzini described by Metternich?

Q 23. How did Lord Byron contribute to the Greek war of Independence?

Q 24. Who holds the credit of unifying Germany?

Q 25. Who was proclaimed the German Emperor in a ceremony held at Versailles in January 1871?

Page | 3

Q 26. Who headed Sardinia-Piedmont?

Q 27. Who led the movement to unify the regions of Italy?

Q 28. Name the ethnic groups who inhabited the British Isles.

Q 29. What was the result of the Act of Union (1707)?

Q 30. Who were the slaves?

Short Answer Type Questions (SAQ) [3 Marks]

Q 31. Briefly explain Greek war of Independence?

Q 32. 1830’s is called the year of Economic hardship. Explain?

Q 33. What were the measures taken by French revolutionaries forge a sense of collective identity?

Q 34. Explain the consequences of the Vienna congress?

Q 35. Why the 1830s were the year of great economic hardship in Europe?

Q 36. How was the history of Nationalism in Britain unlike the rest of Europe?

Q 37. What is the other name for Napoleonic code? Write any four changes brought by this?

Q 38. What were the ideals of liberal Nationalism?

Q 39. Explain the different stages of unification of Germany?

Q 40 Briefly explain the unification of Italy, highlight the value you learn from this?

Q 41. How had the female figures become an allegory of the nation during the 19th century in Europe?

Q 42. ‘The decade of 1830 had brought great economic hardships in Europe’. Support the statement with

arguments?

Q 43. Culture had played an important role in the development of nationalism in Europe during the 18th

and 19th centuries. Support the statement with examples?

Q 44. “Nationalism spreads when people begin to believe that they are all part of the same nation.”

Support the statement?

Q 45. What were Jacobin Clubs? How did their activities and campaigns help to spread the idea of

nationalism abroad? Explain?

Q 46. Write a note on Frankfurt parliament and zollverein economic union?

Long Answer Type Questions (LAQ) [5 Marks]

Q 47. Describe the process of unification of Germany?

Q 48. Analyse the measures and practices introduced by the French revolutionaries to create a sense of

collective identity amongst the French people?

Q 49. How had revolutionaries spread their ideas in many European states after 1815? Explain with

examples?

Page | 4

Q50. Explain causes of conflict in the ‘Balkan area’ after 1871?

Q 51. Explain changes brought about in Europe by the Treaty of Vienna (1815)?

Picture Based Very Short Answers Type Questions (VSAQ)

Study the picture and answer the question that follows: 1 mark

Which of the following aspect best signifies this image of 'Germania'?

A. Heroism and Justice

B. Folk and Cultural Tradition

C. Austerity and Asceticism

D. Revenge and Vengeance

Page | 5

Chapter-2: Nationalism in India

Very Short Answer Type Questions (VSAQ) [1 Mark]

Q.1 Fill in the blanks:

(a) The image of Bharat Mata was first created by .

(b) Martial law was imposed and took command.

(c) Simon Commission arrived in India in year.

(d) In 1928, led the peasant movement in Bardoli.

(e) and formed the Swaraj Party.

Q.2.1 Match the following:

Column A Column B

(a) Quit India Movement -1930.

(b) Rowlatt Act -1942.

(c) Depressed Classes Association -1919.

(d) Inland Emigration Act - 1932.

(e) Civil Disobedience re-launched 1859


Column A Column B

(a) Satyagraha -1922.

(b) Champaran - - A form of protest.

(c) Hind Swaraj -1917.

(d) Boycott - 1909.

(e) Chauri Chaura - Mass agitation.


Column A Column B

(a) Dandi -1930.

(b) Purna Swaraj - Bankim Chandra Chattopadhayay.

(c) Begar - Ananda Math

(d) Vande Mataram - 6th April 1930.

(e) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhayay -. Work without pay.

Q.2.4 State whether true or false:

(a) Vallabha Bhai Patel led the peasant movement in Bombay.

(b) The Rowlatt Act increased the power of people.

(c) Mahatma Gandhi returned to India from South Africa in 1915.

(d) Khilafat Committee was formed in March 1917.

(e) Simon Commission was welcomed by Indians.

Q.3 According to Mahatma Gandhi, what is satyagraha?

Q.4 When did the Khilafat Committee form?

Q.5 Define ‘boycott’.

Q.6 When did Non-Cooperation program adopted?

Page | 6

Q.7 Who was Baba Ramchandra?

Q.8 Oudh Kisan Sabha was headed by?

Q.9 Which political party send Simon commission to India ?

Q.10 When did Abdul Ghaffar Khan arrested?

Q.11 When did Mahatma Gandhi decided to withdraw the Non-Cooperation Movement?

Q.12 Who was Muhammed Ali Jinnah?

Q.13 Swaraj flag was designed by whom and when?

Q.14 When did Gandhiji send a letter to Viceroy Irwin?

Q.15 Write full form of FICCI?

Q.16 Who took command in martial law?

Q.17 What was puna pact?

Q.18 Which content was used to symbolized in Civil Disobedience Movement?

Q.19 Define the term picket.

Q.20 Write one problem of plantation workers.

Q.21 In which year congress started support of Khilafat movement?

Q.22 When did the demand of “Purna Swaraj” pass by Congress?

Q.23 Name any two prominent industrialists during freedom struggle of India.

Q.24 Give the one feature of Civil Disobedience Movement.

Q.25 What did Gandhi ji call “untouchables”?

Q.26 Who created the image of Bharat Mata?

Q.27 Who published a Tamil folk tales “The Folklore of Southern India”?

Q.28 In “Swaraj Flag” spinning wheel in the center, representing which idea?

Q.29 By whom a slogan “Do or Die “delivered?

Q.30 An elephant and lion in Bharat Mata image represented which idea?


Q.1 Explain the reason for the Lahore session of the congress in 1929 to be called the historical session?

Q.2 Explain new economic and political situations created in India during the First World War?

Q.3 What was the Rowlatt Act? How it affected the National Movement?

Page | 7

Q.4 What were the 3 local issues in which Gandhiji experimented his technique of Satyagraha during the

years 1917 – 1918? How were these issues resolved?

Q.5 How was the Non- Cooperation Movement converted into a national movement by Gandhiji? Explain?

Q.6 Mention three main proposals with reference to the Non- Cooperation Movement as suggested by

Mahatma Gandhi?

Q.7 What were circumstances which led to Jallianwala Bagh incident?

Q.8 How did the business community provide a big boost to the movement?

Q.9 Why was the Civil Disobedience Movement called off by Gandhiji?

Q.10 Explain any three causes of the rise of nationalism in India?

Q.11 Explain the role of women in the Civil Disobedience Movement?

Q.12 What were the impact of Non-Cooperation Movement in plantation workers?

Q.13 What was the impact of swadeshi and boycott movement on Indian industry?

Q.14 Who founded the Swaraj Party? Why was the party formed?

Q.15 Why was the Simon Commission formed? Why Indians boycott the commission?


Q.1 What were the circumstances which led to the Khilafat and the Non-Cooperation Movement?

Q.2 What was the reaction of the people against the Rowlatt Act?

Q.3 Under what circumstances the Civil Disobedience or the Salt Movement was launched? Explain.

Q.4 Explain the impact of Jallianwala Bagh incident on the people?

Q.5 Explain the main features of Gudem rebellion.

Page | 8

IMPORTANT MAP ITEMS

1. Indian National Congress sessions:

a. Calcutta- September 1920

b. Nagpur- December 1920

c. Madras- December 1927

Page | 9

2. Important Centres of Indian National Movement

a. Champaran (Bihar) - Movement of Indigo Planters

b. Kheda (Gujarat) - Peasant Satyagrah

c. Ahmedabad (Gujarat) - Cotton Mill Workers Satyagraha

d. Amritsar (Punjab) - Jallianwala Bagh Incident

e. Chauri Chaura (U.P.) - Calling off the Non-Cooperation Movement

f. Dandi (Gujarat) - Civil Disobedience Movement

Page | 10

Chapter-3: The Making of a Global world


Q 1. What was the Bretton Wood system?

(a) Post war the military system (b) Post war political system

(c) Post war international economic system (d) None of these

Q 2. People livelihood and local economy of which one of the following was badly affected by the disease

named Rinderpest.

(a) Asia (b) Europe

(c) Africa (d) South America

Q 3. Which of the following place was an important destination for indentured migrants?

(a) Florida (b) Melbourne

(c) Caribbean island (d) Mexico

Q 4. The group of powers collectively known as the Axis power during the Second World War were:

(a) Germany, Italy, Japan (b) Austria, Germany, Italy

(c) France, Japan, Italy (d) Japan, Germany, Turkey

Q 5. Who among the following is a Nobel Prize winner?

(a) V.S. Naipaul (b) J.M. Keynes

(c) Shivnarine Chanderpaul (d) Ramnaresh Sarwan

Q 6. Which of the following statements correctly identifies the corn laws?

(a) Restricted the import of corn to England

(b) Allowed the import of corn to England

(c) Imposed tax on corn

(d) Abolished the sale of corn

Q 7. Which of the following is the direct effect of Great Depression on Indian Trade?

(a) Peasants and farmers suffered

(b) Indian exports and imports nearly halved between 1928-1934

(c) Peasants’ indebtedness increased

(d) Led to widespread unrest in rural India

Page | 11

Q 8. Which of the following enabled the Europeans to conquer and control the Africans?

(a) Victory in war

(b) Control over the scarce resource of cattle

(c) Death of Africans due to rinderpest

(d) Lack of weapons in Africa to fight against the Europeans

Q 9. Who discovered the vast continent, later known as America?

(a) Vasco de Gama (b) Christopher Columbus

(c) V S Naipaul (d) None of these

Q 10. Until 18th century which two countries were considered the richest in the world?

(a) India and China (b) China and Japan

(c) England and France (d) England and Italy

Q 11. Why were the Europeans attracted to Africa?

(a) By its natural beauty

(b) By the opportunities for investment

(c) For its vast land resources and mineral wealth

(d) For recruitment of labour

Q 12. Transport of perishable goods over long distance was possible because of

(a) improved railways (b) airline services

(c) refrigerated ships (d) steam ships

Q 13. The World Bank was set-up to

(a) finance rehabilitation of refugees. (b) finance post war construction.

(c) finance industrial development (d) help third world countries.

Q 14. The Chutney music was popular in and .

Q 15. Before the war, was a major supplier of wheat in the world market.

Q 16. The method used by Henry Ford for faster and cheaper automobile production was known as_

State whether True/False

Q 17. Peru was called the city of gold.

Q 18. The silk route helped in cultural and commercial exchange.

Q 19. Second World War did not result in economic devastation and social disruption.

Q 20. Match the columns.

COLUNMN A COLUMN B

Great Depression IMF and World Bank

Hosay Group of developing countries

Bretton Wood institution Punjab

Canel colonies Riotous carnival

G- 77 Agricultural overproduction

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Q 21. Most Indian indentured workers came from:

(a) Eastern Uttar Pradesh (b) North-eastern states

(c) Jammu and Kashmir (d) None of these

Q 22. Who adopted the concept of an assembly line to produce automobiles?

(a) Henry Ford (b) Karl Benz

(c) V.S. Naipaul (d) Samuel Morse

Q 23. travelled west from China to be called “Spaghetti’.

Q 24. Tax imposed on a country’s imports from the rest of the world is called .

Q 25. Britain was the world’s leading economy during the pre-First World War period. (True/False)

Q 26. The IMF and the World Bank were designed to meet the financial needs of the industrial countries.

(True/False)

Q 27. What is 'El Dorado' in South America famous for?

Q 28. Through which route the Early Christian missionaries travelled to Asia?

Q 29. Which food travelled west from China to be called spaghetti?

Q 30. The introduction of which crop led the European poor to eat better and live longer?

Q 31. Name the crop that our ancestors did not know until about five centuries ago?

Q 32. Who discovered the continent of America?

Q 33. Which European country first conquered America?

Q 34. Which powerful weapon was used by Spanish to conquer America?

Q 35. Name two countries which were world's richest countries till the 18th century.

Q 36. What were Corn Laws?

Q 37. How was the transport of perishable foods possible over long distances?

Q 38. Why did the big European powers meet in Berlin in 1885?

Q 39. What was rinderpest? When did it arrive in Africa?

Q 40. What is indentured labour?

Q 41. What were the main destinations of Indian indentured migrants?

Q 42. What was 'Hosay'?

Q 43. Who popularised Rastafarianism?

Q 44. What was Chutney music?

Q 45. Name a Nobel Prize winning writer who is a descendant of indentured labour from India?

Q 46. Which West-Indies cricketers trace their roots to indentured labour migrants from India?

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Q 47. Who were 'Coolies'?

Q 48. What is meant by trade surplus?

Q 49. Who were the ‘Allies’ during the First World War?

Q 50. Which country was not a member of the Central Powers?

Q 51. Who adopted the concept of an assembly line to produce automobiles?

Q 52. Who made the best-cost cutting decision?

Q 53. What was the 'hire purchase' system?

Q 54. Name the countries who were members of Axis Powers.

Q 55. Who were the Allies during the Second World War?

Q 56. Which institution was established in the Bretton Woods Conference?

Q 57. What was the Bretton Woods System?

Q 58. What is referred to as the ‘Bretton Woods twins’?

Q 59. What is G-77?

Q 60. Define fixed exchange rates.

Q 61. How were cowries used in the ancient period?

Q 62. What does Silk Route refer to?

Q 63. In the context of industrial production what is meant by assembly line production?

Q 64. Which country has an effective right of veto over IMF and World Bank?

Q 65. What was the aim of post-war international economic system?


Q 66. How did silk routes link the world? Explain with three suitable examples.

Q 67. How did food habits travel from one place to another in the process of cultural exchange?

Q 68. Explain with the help of any three suitable examples that the pre-modern world changed with the

discovery of new sea routes to America.

Q 69. What were the Corn Laws? Why were the Corn Laws abolished? What were its effects?

Q 70. Explain any three benefits of refrigerated ships.

Q 71. Why were Europeans attracted to Africa in the late nineteenth century? Mention any three reasons.

Q 72. What was rinderpest? State any two effects of rinderpest on Africa.

Q 73. How did Rinderpest help the European colonies to conquer and subdue Africa?

Q 74. Why did the European employers find it difficult to recruit labour in Africa? Give two methods they

used to recruit and retain labour.

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Q 75. Write any three factors responsible for indentured labour migration from India.

Q 76. Define the term ‘trade surplus’. How was the income received from trade surplus with India used

by British?

Q 77. What was the importance of the Indian trade for the British?

Q 78. Explain the impact of the First World War on British economy.

Q 79. How did the First World War affect the socio-economic conditions of the world? Mention any three

points

Q 80. Explain why the economy of USA was strong in the early 1920s. Would you agree that the roots of

the Great Depression lay in this ‘boom’? Give reasons for your answer.

Q 81. How did the withdrawal of US loans during the phase of the Great Depression affect the rest of the

world? Explain .

Q 82. What was the impact of Great Depression on India?

Q 83. ‘Two crucial influences shaped post-war reconstruction.’ What were these influences? Explain.

Q 84. Describe any three features of Bretton Woods Agreement.

Q 85. What decisions were taken at the Bretton Woods Conference?

Q 86. ‘China became an attractive destination for investment by foreign MNCs in the 19th and 20thcenturies’.

Justify the statement.

Q 87. What is meant by the term ‘globalisation’? Describe the three types of movements or flows within

international economic exchange.

Q 88. Explain what we mean when we say that the world shrank in the 1500s.

Q 89. What were canal colonies in Punjab?

Q 90. Why did thousands of people flee away from Europe to America in the 19th century? Give any three

reasons.

Q 91. Discuss the importance of language and popular traditions in the creation of national identity.

Q 92. Who profits from jute cultivation according to the jute growers’ lament? Explain.

Long Answer Type Questions (LSAQ) [5 Marks]

Q 93. 'Trade and cultural exchange always went hand in hand'. Explain the statement in the light of Silk

Route.

Q 94. 'The Spanish conquest and colonization of America was decisively underway by the mid-sixteenth

century'. Explain with example.

Q 95. ‘Britain self-sufficiency in food meant lower living standards and social conflicts in the 19th century’.

Why was this so? Give reasons.

Q 96. Explain how the abolition of Corn Laws in Britain led to the emergence of a global agricultural

economy.

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Q 97. Examine the main features of global agricultural economy that emerged around 1890.

Q 98. Explain giving examples, the role played by technological inventions in transforming 19th century

world.

Q 99. Why has 19th century indenture been described as a ‘new system of slavery’? Explain.

Q 100. How far is it correct to say that “The First World War was the first modern industrial war”? Explain.

Q 101. Describe in brief the economic conditions of the post-First World War period.

Q 102. One important feature of the US economy in the 1920’s was mass production. Explain.

Q 103. Explain any five measures adopted by America for post-war recovery.

Q 104. Explain any five causes of the Great Depression.

Q 105. Explain any five consequences of the Great Depression of 1929 on Indian economy?

Q 106. What were the major economic effects of the Second World War?

Q 107. What key lessons did politicians and economists learn from the interwar economic experiences?

Q 108. Describe the factors that led to the end of Britton Woods system and the beginning of globalization.

Q 109. Describe the circumstances responsible for the formation of G-77.

Q 110. How were the working conditions for the indentured migrants overseas? How did the different

cultural form blend into new forms?

Passage Based Short Answers Type Questions (SAQ)

1. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follow.

Source A-Conquest, Disease and Trade

In fact, the most powerful weapon of the Spanish conquerors was not a conventional military weapon at all. It was the germs such as those of smallpox that they carried on their person. Because of their long isolation,

America’s original inhabitants had no immunity against these diseases that came from Europe. Smallpox in

particular proved a deadly killer. Once introduced, it spread deep into the continent, ahead even of any

Europeans reaching there. It killed and decimated whole communities, paving the way for conquest. Guns could

be bought or captured and turned against the invaders. But not diseases such as smallpox to which the conquerors

were mostly immune. Until the nineteenth century, poverty and hunger were common in Europe. Cities were

crowded and deadly diseases were widespread. Religious conflicts were common, and religious dissenters were

persecuted. Thousands therefore fled Europe for America. Hereby the eighteenth century, plantations worked by

slaves captured in Africa was growing cotton and sugar for European markets.

Source B- A World Economy Takes Shape

Population growth from the late eighteenth century had increased The demand for food grains in Britain. As

urban centers expanded and industry grew, the demand for agricultural products went up, pushing up food grain

prices. Under pressure from landed groups, the government also restricted the import of corn. The laws allowing

the government to do this were commonly known as the ‘Corn Laws’. Unhappy with high food prices,

industrialists and urban dwellers forced the abolition of the Corn Laws. After the Corn Laws were scrapped, food

could be imported into Britain more cheaply than it could be produced within the country. British agriculture was

unable to compete with imports. Vast areas of land were now left uncultivated, and thousands of men and

women were thrown out of work. They flocked to the cities or migrated overseas.

Page | 16

Source C – Silk Routes Link the World

The silk routes are a good example of vibrant pre-modern trade and cultural links between distant parts of the

world. The name ‘silk routes’ points to the importance of West-bound Chinese silk cargoes along this route.

Historians have identified several silk routes, overland and by sea, knitting together vast regions of Asia, and

linking Asia with Europe and northern Africa. They are known to have existed since before the Christian Era and

thrived almost till the fifteenth century. But Chinese pottery also travelled the same route, as did textiles and

spices from India and Southeast Asia. In return, precious metals – gold and silver – flowed from Europe to Asia.

Trade and cultural exchange always went hand in hand. Early Christian missionaries almost certainly travelled

this route to Asia, as did early Muslim preachers a few centuries later. Much before all this, Buddhism emerged

from eastern India and spread in several directions through intersecting points on the silk routes. five centuries

ago. These foods were only introduced in Europe and Asia after Christopher Columbus accidentally discovered

the vast continent that would later become known as the Americas.

Source A- Conquest, Disease and Trade

Q.1 Which problems were common in Europe until the nineteenth century?

Source B- A World Economy Takes Shape

Q.2. What happened after the Corn Laws were abolished?

Source C –Silk Routes Link the World

Q3. ‘Silk routes are a good example of vibrant pre-modern trade and cultural links between distant parts of the

world.’ Examine the Statement.


Source A- Indentured Labour Migration from India

The example of indentured labour migration from India also illustrates the two-sided nature of the nineteenth-

century world. It was a world of faster economic growth as well as great misery, higher incomes for some and

poverty for others, technological advances in some areas and new forms of coercion in others. In the nineteenth

century, hundreds of thousands of Indian and Chinese labourers went to work on plantations, in mines, and in

road and railway construction projects around the world. In India, indentured labourers were hired under

contracts which promised return travel to India after they had worked five years on their employer’s plantation.

Source B- Rinderpest or the Cattle Plague

In Africa, in the 1890s, a fast-spreading disease of cattle plague or rinderpest had a terrifying impact on people’s

livelihoods and the local economy. This is a good example of the widespread European imperial impact on

colonised societies. It shows how in this era of conquest even a disease affecting cattle reshaped the lives and

fortunes of thousands of people and their relations with the rest of the world. Historically, Africa had abundant

land and a relatively small population. For centuries, land and livestock sustained African livelihoods and people

rarely worked for a wage. In late nineteenth- century Africa there were few consumer goods that wages could

buy. If you had been an African possessing land and livestock – and there was plenty of both – you too would

have seen little reason to work for a wage.

Source C – Food Travels

Many of our common foods such as potatoes, soya, groundnuts, maize, tomatoes, chillies, sweet potatoes, and so

on were not known to our ancestors until about five centuries ago. These foods were only introduced in Europe

and Asia after Christopher Columbus accidentally discovered the vast continent that would later become known

as the Americas. (Here we will use ‘America’ to describe North America, South America and the Caribbean.) In

fact, many of our common foods came from America’s original inhabitants – the American Indians. Sometimes

the new crops could make the difference between life and death. Europe’s poor began to eat better and live

longer with the introduction of the humble potato. Ireland’s poorest peasants became so dependent on potatoes

that when disease destroyed the potato crop in the mid-1840s, hundreds of thousands died of starvation.

Source A- Indentured Labour Migration from India-

Q1. What do you mean by ‘Indentured Labour’?

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Source B- Rinderpest or the Cattle Plague

Q2. What was Rinderpest?

Source C – Food Travels

Q3. In what ways did food items offer scope for long distance cultural exchange? Explain2


Source A- MNCs

Corporations (MNCs) are large companies that operate in several countries at the same time. The first MNCs

were established in the 1920s. Many more came up in the 1950s and 1960s as US businesses expanded

worldwide and Western Europe and Japan also recovered to become powerful industrial economies. The

worldwide spread of MNCs was a notable feature of the 1950s and 1960s. This was partly because high import

tariffs imposed by different governments forced MNCs to locate their manufacturing operations and become

‘domestic producers’ in as many countries as possible.

Source B-End of Bretton Woods and the Beginning of ‘Globalisation’

The IMF and the World Bank were designed to meet the financial needs of the industrial countries. They were

not equipped to cope with the challenge of poverty and lack of development in the former colonies. But as

Europe and Japan rapidly rebuilt their economies, they grew less dependent on the IMF and the World Bank.

Thus from the late 1950s the Bretton Woods institutions began to shift their attention more towards developing

countries. Despite years of stable and rapid growth, not all was well in this post-war world. From the 1960s the

rising costs of its overseas involvements weakened the US’s finances and competitive strength. The US dollar

now no longer commanded confidence as the world’s principal currency. It could not maintain its value in

relation to gold. This eventually led to the collapse of the system of fixed exchange rates and the introduction of

a system of floating exchange rates.

Source C- Indentured Labour

Recruitment was done by agents engaged by employers and paid a small commission. Many migrants agreed to

take up work hoping to escape poverty or oppression in their home villages. Agents also tempted the prospective

migrants by providing false information about final destinations, modes of travel, the nature of the work, and

living and working conditions. Often migrants were not even told that they were to embark on a long sea voyage.

Sometimes agents even forcibly abducted less willing migrants. Nineteenth-century indenture has been described

as a ‘new system of slavery’. On arrival at th plantations, labourers found conditions to be different from what

they had imagined. Living and working conditions were harsh, and there were few legal rights.

Source A- MNCs

Q1. What is meant by the term ‘Tariff’? 1

Source B- End of Bretton Woods and the Beginning of ‘Globalisation’

Q2. On what the Bretton Woods system was based on? 2

Source C – Indentured Labour

Q3. ‘Nineteenth Century indenture has been described as a new system of slavery.’ Explain any two

points. 2

OR

Page | 18

Chapter-4: The Age of Industrialisation


Q1. The person, who got people from village, ensured them jobs, helped them settle in cities and provided

them money in times of need was known as:

(a) Stapler (b) Fuller

(c) Gomastha (d) Jobber

Q2 Why did Manchester export to India decline after the First World War?

(a) People were busy fighting the war.

(b) Factories closed down due to security problem.

(c) Factories and mills were busy producing goods to fulfill the need of army.

(d) Export trade was restricted by the government.

Q3. Why were workers in England hostile to machines and new technology?

(a) They did not know how to use these.

(b) They feared that they would lose their jobs and livelihood.

(c) The workers were too poor to buy new machines.

(d) They were scared of machines.

Q4. From which of the following trade did the early entrepreneurs make a fortune?

(a) Textile trade (b) China trade

(c) Trade in tea (d) Industries

Q5. Why were there frequent clashes between the gomastha and the weavers?

(a) The weavers hated foreigners.

(b) The gomastha forced the weavers to sell goods at a dictated price.

(c) Gomasthas were outsiders without long term social link with the village.

(d) None of the above.

Page | 19

Q6. Which war materials were produced in India to supply to Britain during World War I?

(a) Gunpowder, cannons and other ammunition.

(b) Jute bags, cloth for army uniforms, tents and leather boots.

(c) Medicines for the wounded soldiers.

(d) Hammers, axes and other building material.

Q7. Guilds were associations of .

Q8. was a mechanical device used for weaving.

Q9. Manchester in England was well-known for .

Q10. The yarn produced in Indian industries was exported to .

Q11. In Bengal, Dwarakanath Tagore made his fortune in China Trade. (True/False)

Q12. Advertisements make the products appear desirable and necessary. (True/False)

Q13. When there is plenty of labour, wages are low. (True/False)

Q14. Match the columns.

Column A Column B

(a) Gomasthas (i) Seth Hukumchand

(b) Spinning Jenny (ii) Official who acted as company’s agent

(c) Steam engine (iii) Richard Arkwright

(d) Cotton mill (iv) James Hargreaves

(e) First Indian jute mill (v) James Watt

1. (a) (ii), (b) (iv), (c) (v), (d) (iii), (e) (i)

2. (a) (ii), (b) (iii), (c) (v), (d) (iv), (e) (i)

3. (a) (i), (b) (iv), (c) (v), (d) (iii), (e) (ii)

4. (a) (ii), (b) (iv), (c) (i), (d) (iii), (e) (v)

Q15. What is proto-industrialization?

Q16. Why the merchants from towns in Europe began to move countryside in seventeenth and

eighteenth centuries?

Q17. What was the first symbol of the new era in England in the late 18th century?

Q18. How did the early Indian entrepreneurs make their fortune?

Q19. Who are the bourgeoisie?

Q20. Why did Britain turn to India for cotton supplies by 1860s?

Q21. Why did the East India Company appoint Gomasthas?

Page | 20

Q22. Who was Henry Patullo? What did he say about the Indian textiles?

Q23. Why did Britain turn to India for cotton supplies by 1860s?

Q25. The expansion of railways boosted the growth of _ and industries.

Q26. G.D. Birla was a Parsi entrepreneur who built huge industrial empire in India. (True/False)

Q27. Where was the first jute mill established?

(a) Surat (b) Delhi

(c) Calcutta (d) Bombay

Q28. The given picture is based on

a) The use of machines, railways and steamships narrates us a story of industrialisation and development.

b) Proto industrialisation.

c) A network of commercial exchanges.

d) Regulation of a labour.


Q29. What was the result of First World War on Indian industries?

Q30. Who was a jobber? Explain his functions.

Q31. What were the problems of Indians weavers at the early 19th century?

Q32. What does the picture indicate on the famous book ‘Dawn of the century’?

Q33. How did the seasonality of employment affect the lives of Indian workers during 18th century? Explain.

Q34. What were guilds? How did they make it difficult for new merchants to set business in towns of

England? Explain.

Page | 21

Q35. Explain the role played by advertisements in creating new consumers for the British products buying

them.

Q36. Why did the East India Company appoint gomashthas? Give three reasons.

Q37. Why the system of advances proved harmful for the weavers?

Q38. How did industries develop in India in the second half of the nineteenth century? Explain.

Q39. “Although wages increased somewhat in the nineteenth century, yet they could not improve the welfare

of the workers.” How far do you agree with the statement?

Q40. Why were Victorian industrialists not interested to introduce machines in England? Give reasons.

Q41. Explain the position of Indian Textiles in the international market before machines were introduced in

India.

Q42. Why did the network of export trade in textiles controlled by the Indian merchants break down by the

1750s?


Q43. Explain the main features of Proto – Industrialization?

Q44. How did the British market expand their goods in India?

Q45. ‘The Industrial Revolution was a mixed Blessing.’ Explain?

Q46. “Historians now have come to increasingly recognised that the typical worker in the mid- nineteenth

century was not a machine operator but the traditional craftsperson and labourer.”Analyse the

statement.

Q47. By the first decade of the twentieth century a series of changes affected the pattern of

industrialization in India.” Support the statement with examples.


Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follow.

Source A- What Happened to Weavers?

The consolidation of East India Company power after the 1760s did not initially lead to a decline in textile

exports from India. British cotton industries had not yet expanded and Indian fine textiles werein great demand

in Europe. So the company was keen on expanding textile exports from India. However, once the East India

Company established political power, it could assert a monopoly right to trade. It proceeded to develop a system

of management and control that would eliminate competition, control costs, and ensure regular supplies of cotton

and silk goods. This it did through a series of steps.

Source B- Where Did the Workers Come From?

Factories needed workers. With the expansion of factories, this demand increased. In 1901, there were 584,000

workers in Indian factories. By 1946 the number was over 2,436, 000. Where did the workers come from? In

most industrial regions workers came from the districts around. Peasants and artisans who found no work in the

Page | 22

village went to the industrial centres in search of work. Over 50 per cent workers in the Bombay cotton

industries in 1911 came from the neighbouring district of Ratnagiri, while the mills of Kanpur got most of their

textile hands from the villages within the district of Kanpur. Most often millworkers moved between the village

and the city, returning to their village homes during harvests and festivals. Over time, as news of employment

spread, workers travelled great distances in the hope of work in the mills. From the United Provinces, for

instance, they went to work in the textile mills of Bombay and in the jute mills of Calcutta.

Source C – Industrial workforce

Getting jobs was always difficult, even when mills multiplied and the demand for workers increased. The

numbers seeking work were always more than the jobs available. Entry into the mills was also restricted.

Industrialists usually employed a jobber to get new recruits. Very often the jobber was an old and trusted worker.

He got people from his village, ensured them jobs, helped them settle in the city and provided them money in

times of crisis. The jobber therefore became a person with some authority and power. He began demanding

money and gifts for his favour and controlling the lives of workers. The number of factory workers increased

over time. However, as you will see, they were a small proportion of the total industrial workforce.

Source A- What Happened to Weavers?

Q1. Why did the industrial groups in England pressurised the government to impose import duties cotton

textiles? 1

Source B- Where Did the Workers Come From?

Q2. Where were most of the large scale industries located in 1911? 2

Source C – Industrial workforce

Q3. Who were the Jobbers? Explain their main functions. 2


Source A- The Early Entrepreneurs

In Bengal, Dwarkanath Tagore made his fortune in the China trade before he turned to industrial investment,

setting up six joint-stock companies in the 1830s and 1840s. Tagore’s enterprises sank along with those of others

in the wider business crises of the 1840s, but later in the nineteenth century many of the China traders became

successful industrialists. In Bombay, Paresis like Dinshaw Petit and Jamsetjee Nusserwanjee Tata who built huge

industrial empires in India, accumulated their initial wealth partly from exports to China, and partly from raw

cotton shipments to England. Seth Hukumchand, a Marwari businessman who set up the first Indian jute mill in

Calcutta in 1917, also traded with China. So did the father as well as grandfather of the famous industrialist G.D.

Birla.

Source B- Before the Industrial Revolution

There is a problem with such ideas. Even before factories began to dot the landscape in England and Europe,

there was large-scale industrial production for an international market. This was not based on factories. Many

historians now refer to this phase of industrialisation as proto-industrialisation. In the countryside poor peasants

and artisans began working for merchants. this was a time when open fields were disappearing and commons

were being enclosed. Cottagers and poor peasants who had earlier depended on common lands for their survival,

gathering their firewood, berries, vegetables, hay and straw, had to now look for alternative sources of income.

Many had tiny plots of land which could not provide work for all members of the household. So when merchants

came around and offered advances to produce goods for them, peasant households eagerly agreed. By working

for the merchants, they could remain in the countryside and continue to cultivate their small plots. Income from

Page | 23

proto-industrial production supplemented their shrinking income from cultivation. It also allowed them a fuller

use of their family labour resources.

Source C – The Pace of Industrial Change

The new industries could not easily displace traditional industries. Even at the end of the nineteenth century, less

than 20 percent of the total workforce was employed in technologically advanced industrial sectors. Textiles was

a dynamic sector, but a large portion of the output was produced not within factories, but outside, within

domestic units. the pace of change in the ‘traditional’ industries was not set by steam-powered cotton or metal

industries, but they did not remain entirely stagnant either. Seemingly ordinary and small innovations were the

basis of growth in many non-mechanised sectors such as food processing, building, pottery, glass work, tanning,

furniture making, and production of implements. Technological changes occurred slowly. They did not spread

dramatically across the industrial landscape. New technology was expensive and merchants and industrialists

were cautious about using it. The machines often broke down and repair was costly. They were not as effective

as their inventors and manufacturers claimed.

Source A- The Early Entrepreneurs

Q1. Where was the first jute mill set up in India? 1

Source B- Before the Industrial Revolution

Q2. What is meant by proto-industrialization? Why was it successful in the countryside in England the 17th

Century? 2

Source C – The Pace of Industrial Change

Q3.Why did technological changes occur slowly in Britain in the early nineteenth century? Explain two

reasons. 2

Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follow.

Source A- The Age of Industrialisation

In 1900, a popular music publisher E.T. Paull produced a music book that had a picture on the cover page

announcing the ‘Dawn of the Century’. As you can see from the illustration, at the centre of the picture is a

goddess-like figure, the angel of progress, bearing the flag of the new century. She is gently perched on a wheel

with wings, symbolising time. Her flight is taking her into the future. Floating about, behind her, are the signs of

progress: railway, camera, machines, printing press and factory.

Source B- Hand Labour

A range of products could be produced only with hand labour. Machines were oriented to producing uniforms,

standardised goods for a mass market. But the demand in the market was often for goods with intricate designs

and specific shapes. In mid-nineteenth-century Britain, for instance, 500 varieties of hammers were produced and

45 kinds of axes. These required human skill, no mechanical technology. In Victorian Britain, the upper classes –

the aristocrats and the bourgeoisie – preferred things produced by hand. Handmade products came to symbolise

refinement and class. They were better finished, individually produced, and carefully designed. Machine-made

goods were for export to the colonies. In countries with labour shortage, industrialists were keen on using

mechanical power so that the need for human labour can be minimised. This was the case in nineteenth-century

America. Britain, however, had no problem hiring human hands.

Source C- Market for Goods

We have seen how British manufacturers attempted to take over the Indian market, and how Indian weavers and

craftsmen, traders and industrialists resisted colonial controls, demanded tariff protection, created their own

spaces, and tried to extend the market for their produce. But when new products are produced people have to be

Page | 24

persuaded to buy them. They have to feel like using the product. How was this done? One way in which new

consumers are created is through advertisements. As you know, advertisements make products appear desirable

and necessary. They try to shape the minds of people and create new needs. Today we live in a world where

advertisements surround us. They appear in newspapers, magazines, hoardings, street walls, television screens.

But if we look back into history we find that from the very beginning of the industrial age, advertisements have

played a part in expanding the markets for products, and in shaping a new consumer culture.

Source A- The Age of Industrialisation

Q1. Who produced a popular music book that had a picture on the cover page announcing of the Century? 1

Source B- Hand Labour

Q2. “The upper classes, during Victorian period, preferred things produced by hands.” Explain. 2

Source C – Market for Goods

Q3. Explain the role played by advertisements in creating new consumers for the British product 2

Page | 25

CHAPTER-5: Print Culture and the Modern World


Q 1. Who was Marcopolo?

(a) German scientist (b) English philosopher

(c) Spanish explorer (d) Italian traveller/explorer

Q 2. Who wrote about the injustices of the caste system in ‘Gulamgiri’?

(a) Raja Rammohan Roy (b) Jyotiba Phule

(c) Balgangadhar Tilak (d) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay

Q 3. Which of the following refers to print revolution?

(a) Invention of printing press

(b) Shift from hand printing to mechanical printing

(c) Revolt of people against printed matters

(d) Handwritten manuscripts for printed books

Q 4. Aim of Protestant Reformation was to:

(a) Reform religion (b) reform the Catholic Church

(c) Reform Jewish religion (d) to protest against all reform

Q 5. Why was James Augustus Hickey persecuted by Governor General Warren Hastings?

(a) For poor editing of Bengal Gazette

(b) For publishing a lot of gossip about company’s Senior Official

(c) For publishing substandard material

(d) None of these

Q 6. By whom was ‘Sambad Kaumudi’ published in 1821?

(a) Iswer Chandra Vidyasagar (b) C.R. Das

(c) Raja Rammohun Roy (d) Swami Vivekanand

Q 7. In ancient India which of the following material was used for writing manuscripts?

(a) Parchments (b) Vellum

(c) Palm leaves (d) Paper

Q 8. Skilled hand writers were known as .

Q 9. was the Latin scholar who expressed deep anxiety about printed book.

Q 10. ‘Amar Jiban’ is the autobiography of .

Q 11. Amar Jiban was the autobiography written by Rashsundari Debi. (True/False)

Q 12. Vellum is the parchment made of animal skin. (True/False)

Q 13. Monnocchio said “The printing press is the most powerful engine of progress”. (True/False)

Q 14. Match the columns.

Column A Column B

(a) Chap book (i) Earlier name of Tokyo

(b) Gutenburg (ii) First printed book published in Europe

(c) Manuscript (iii) Pocket size cheap book

(d) Edo (iv) Handwritten original text

(e) Bible (v) Printing Press

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Q 15. Which one of the following is the oldest Japanese book? [CBSE 2014]

(a) Sutta Pitaka (b) Diamond Sutra

(c) Mahavamsa (d) Dipavamsa

Q 16. The reformation movement was launched against the corrupt practices of which of the following

group?

(a) Feudal Lords (b) Protestant Church

(c) Catholic Church (d) Absolute rulers

Q 17. Who among the following was not a women novelist?

(a) Jane Austen (b) Bronte Sisters

(c) George Eliot (d) Maxim Gorky

Q 18. The first printing press was developed by .

Q 19. is an art of beautiful and stylised writing.

Q 20. American explorer Marco Polo brought back the knowledge of printing to Italy. (True/False)

Q 21. ‘Bengal Gazette’ the weekly magazine was brought out by Gangadhar Bhattacharya. (True/False)

Q 22. Where did the earliest kind of print technology i.e., the system of hand printing develop?

Q 23. Name the Chinese traditional book which was folded and stitched at the side.

Q 24. What is calligraphy?

Q 25. Name the city in China, which became the hub of new print culture in the late nineteenth century.

Q 26. Name the oldest Japanese book.

Q 27. What was the earlier name of Tokyo?

Q 28. In early times how did silk and spices from China reach Europe?

Q 29. What is vellum?

Q 30. How were woodblocks used in Europe in the early fifteenth century?

Q 31. What are taverns?

Q 32. Why did the Roman Catholic Church begin to maintain an Index of Prohibited Books from 1558?

Q 33. What are almanacs?

Q 34. What are chapbooks?

Q 35. What were Biliotheque Blue in France?

Q 36. Who said the following words: ‘Tremble, therefore, tyrants of the world! Tremble before the virtual

writer!’

Q 37. What was the contribution of Richard M. Hoe to the art of printing?

Q 38. What were Shilling Series?

Q 39. Mention any one characteristic feature of an offset press.

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Q 40. Who brought the printing press first to Goa?

Q 41. Who brought out the Bengal Gazette?

Q 42. Who published Sambad Kaumudi?

Q 43. Name two Persian newspapers which were published from 1822 onwards.

Q 44. Name the first edition of Indian religious text published in vernacular.

Q 45. Who wrote the autobiography Amar Jiban?

Q 46. What was the subject matter of the writings of Tarabai Shinde and Pandita Ramabai?

Q 47. Name the book published by Rama Chadha in Punjab. What was the main theme of the book?

Q 48. What was Battala?

Q 49. What was the main topic of Jyotiba Phule’s book Gulamgiri?

Q 50. Why was the Vernacular Press Act passed?

Q 51. Who was the editor of the newspaper Kesari?

Q 52. What is lithography?

Q 53. Who proclaimed printing as the ultimate and the greatest gift of God?

Q 54. What was Penny Magazine?

Q 55. Name two presses which published numerous religious texts in vernacular languages.


Q 56. ‘The imperial State in China, was the major producer of printed material’. Support this statement

with examples.

Q 57. How was printing culture influenced by the spread of cities and urban culture in China?

Q 58. Describe the progress of print in Japan.

Q 59. Mention some new interesting practices used in Japan.

Q 60. Who brought the technology of woodblock printing to Europe? Why was it not popular in

aristocratic circles? Who purchased the wood printed books?

Q 61. Who were the people who employed scribes to write in the 14th century?

Q 62. Why did the woodblock method become popular in Europe?

Q 63. Explain the main features of the first printed Bible.

Q 64. Why did the new technology not entirely displace the existing art of producing books by hand?

Q 65. In which three ways did the printed books at first closely resemble the written manuscripts?

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Q 66. How did print bring the reading public and hearing public closer?

Q 67. Explain the role played by print in bringing about a division in the Roman Catholic Church.

Q 68. How did ideas about science, reason and rationality find their way into popular literature in the 18th

century Europe?

Q 69. Who was Menocchio? Why and how did he face the wrath of the Roman Catholic Church?

Q 70. Print popularised the ideas of the enlightenment thinkers. Explain.

Q 71. Explain any three reasons which created a large number of new readers in the nineteenth century.

Q 72. How did Mercier describe the impact of printed word and power of reading on himself?

Q 73. What did the spread of print culture in the 19th century do to:

(a) Children (b) Workers in Europe

Q 74. Highlight any three innovations which have improved the printing technology from 19th century

onwards.

Or

Give three methods by which printed books became more accessible to people.

Q 75. What were the limitations of handwritten manuscripts in India? Explain.

Or

Explain any three features of handwritten manuscripts before the age of print in India.

Q 76. It is difficult for us to imagine a world without printed matter. Justify the statement giving any three

suitable arguments.

Q 77. What were the difficulties faced by manuscripts in India?

Q 78. Write a short note on how printing press came to India.

Q 79. Examine the role of missionaries in the growth of press in India.

Q 80. How did print help connect communities and people in different parts of India? Explain with

examples.

Q 81. How did Hindu religious texts benefit from printing?

Q 82. Why did the Ulema oppose English culture? What step did they take to counter the impact?

Q 83. What was the role of “new visual image” culture in printing in India?

Q 84. Write the name of any two women writers of India in 19th century and highlight the contribution

of anyone who wrote about the different experiences of the women.

Q 85. What was the role of cartoons and caricatures in the new forms of publications?

Q 86. How had the earliest printing technology developed in the world? Explain with examples.

Q 87. Who was Gutenberg? How did he invent the printing press? How did his invention bring a revolution

in the field of printing ideas?

Q 88. Examine the reasons for a virtual reading mania in Europe in the 18th century.

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Or

How did new form of popular literature appear in print targeting new audience in the 18th century?

Explain with examples.

Q 89. How did oral culture enter print and how was printed material transmitted orally? Explain.

Or

How did a new reading public emerge with the printing press? Explain.

Q 90. Who was Louise-Sebastien Mercier? What was his opinion on the printing press? Explain three reasons

why it is believed that print culture created the conditions within which the French Revolution occurred.

Q 91. (a) Explain the term ‘Inquisition’ and ‘Heretical’.

(b) ‘Print and popular religious literature stimulated many distinctive individual interpretations of faith’.

Explain with the help of example.

(c) Why did Church maintain an Index of Prohibited Books from 1558?

Q 92. Explain with examples the role of print culture in the bringing of French Revolution.

Q 93. Who was James Augustus Hickey? Name the paper edited by him? How did he describe his weekly

magazine? What did he publish in his magazine?

Q 94. What was Protestant Reformation?

Q 95. What strategies were developed by printers and publishers in the 19th and 20th century to sell their

product?


Q 96. When was Deoband Seminary founded? Why? Why did it publish thousands of fatwas?

Q 97. Explain how the print media and newspapers became agencies of religious reform and public debate

in India during the early 19th century.

Q 98. ‘‘By the end of 19th century a new visual culture was taking shape.’’ Explain.

Or

Explain the effect of print technology on Indian visual culture in the 19th century.

Q 99. ‘Printing technology gave women a chance to share their feelings with the world outside.’ Support the

statement with any five suitable examples.

Q 100. What was the attitude of liberal and conservative Indians towards women’s reading? How did women

like Kailash Bashini Debi respond to this in her writings?

Q 101. Why the printed books were popular even among illiterate people?

Q 102. Examine the various innovations in print technology in the late 19th century and early 20th century.


1. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows-

Source A- Religious Debates and the Fear of Print

Print created the possibility of wide circulation of ideas, and introduced a new world of debate and discussion.

Even those who disagreed with established authorities could now print and circulate their ideas. Through the

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printed message, they could persuade people to think differently, and move them to action. This had significance

in different spheres of life.

Source B-The Reading Mania

The ideas of scientists and philosophers now became more accessible to the common people. Ancient and

medieval scientific texts were compiled and published, and maps and scientific diagrams were widely printed.

When scientists like Isaac Newton began to publish their discoveries, they could influence a much wider circle of

scientifically minded readers. The writings of thinkers such as Thomas Paine, Voltaire and Jean Jacques

Rousseau were also widely printed and read. Thus their ideas about science, reason and rationality found their

way into popular literature.

Source C --- Print Culture and the French Revolution

Print popularised the ideas of the Enlightenment thinkers. Collectively, their writings provided a critical

commentary on tradition, superstition and despotism. They argued for the rule of reason rather than custom, and

demanded that everything be judged through the application of reason and rationality. They attacked the sacred

authority of the Church and the despotic power of the state, thus eroding the legitimacy of a social order based on

tradition. The writings of Voltaire and Rousseau were read widely; and those who read these books saw the

world through new eyes, eyes that were questioning, critical and rational.

Source A-Religious Debates and the Fear of Print

1. Evaluate the effectiveness of Print in the transmission of ideas and cultures.

Source B-The Reading Mania

2. To what extent do you agree that scientific ideas were circulated through Print? Give only one aspect.

Source C --- Print Culture and the French Revolution

3. To what extent did print culture create conditions for French Revolution?

Cite anyone evidence to support your answer.

2. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follow:

Source A: Print Comes to India From 1780

James Augustus Hickey began to edit the Bengal Gazette, a weekly magazine that described itself as ‘a

commercial paper open to all, but influenced by none’. So it was private English enterprise, proud of its

independence from colonial influence that began English printing in India. Hickey published a lot of

advertisements, including those that related to the import and sale of slaves. But he also published a lot of gossip

about the Company’s senior officials in India. Enraged by this, Governor-General Warren Hastings persecuted

Hickey.

Source B: Print Culture and the French Revolution

The ideas of scientists and philosophers now became more accessible to the common people. Ancient and

medieval scientific texts were compiled and published, and maps and scientific diagrams were widely printed.

When scientists like Isaac Newton began to publish their discoveries, they could influence a much wider circle of

scientifically-minded readers. The writings of thinkers such as Thomas Paine, Voltaire and Jean Jacques

Rousseau were also widely printed and read. Thus their ideas about science, reason and rationality found their

way into popular literature.

Source C: The Nineteenth Century Women became important as readers as well as writers

Penny magazines were especially meant for women, as were manuals teaching proper behaviour and

housekeeping. When novels began to be written in the nineteenth century, women were seen as important

readers. Some of the best-known novelists were women. Their writings became important in defining a new type

of woman: a person with a will, the strength of personality, determination and the power to think.

Questions: Source A: What led to the execution of Hickey?

Source B: Give one example to show that the ideas of scientists and philosophers now became more accessible

to the common people through print.

Source C: Name some best-known women novelists of Europe who re-defined the picture of women in society.

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Source A: Further Innovations Printers and publishers continuously developed new strategies to sell their

products. Nineteenth-century periodicals serialised important novels, which gave birth to a particular way of

writing novels. In the 1920s in England, popular works were sold in cheap series, called the Shilling Series.

The dust cover or the book jacket is also a twentieth century innovation. With the onset of the Great

Depression in the 1930s, publishers feared a decline in book purchases. To sustain buying, they brought out

cheap paperback editions.

Source B: The Nineteenth Century: Children As primary education became compulsory from the late

nineteenth century; children became an important category of readers. Production of school textbooks became

critical for the publishing industry. A children’s press, devoted to literature for children alone, was set up in

France in 1857. This press published new works as well as old fairy tales and folk tales.

Source C: Manuscripts before the Age of Print India had a very rich and old tradition of handwritten

manuscripts – in Sanskrit, Arabic, Persian, as well as in various vernacular languages. Manuscripts were

copied on palm leaves or on handmade paper. Pages were sometimes beautifully illustrated. They would be

either pressed between wooden covers or sewn together to ensure preservation. Manuscripts continued to be

produced till well after the introduction of print, down to the late nineteenth century.

Questions:

Source A: How publishers withstand the market during the Great Depression? Source B: What motivated a

large number of children in Europe to become readers? Source C: Mention the technique of preserving the

manuscript in India.

Picture Based Very Short Answers Type Questions (VSAQ)

Q.1:- Study the picture and answer the question that follows:

The above page is taken from which book?

a) Bible b) Diamond Sutra

c) Rigveda d) Gita Govinda

******************************************

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CLASS: X

Part B: GEOGRAPHY

CHAPTER 1- RESOURCE AND DEVELOPMENT

1 MARK QUESTIONS (VSA)

Ques.1: Multiple Choice Questions:-

I. Which one of the following type of resource is iron ore?

(a) Renewable (b) Biotic (c) Flow (d) Nonrenewable

II. Under which of the following type of resource can tidal energy be put?

(a) Replenishable (b) Human made (c) A biotic (d) Non-recyclable

III. Which one of the following is the main cause of land degradation in Punjab?

(a) Intensive cultivation (b) Deforestation (c) Over irrigation (d) Overgrazing

IV. In which one of the following states terrace cultivation is practiced?

(a) Punjab (b) Plains of Uttar Pradesh (c) Haryana (d) Uttarakhand

V. In which of the following states black soil is found?

(a) Jammu& Kashmir (b) Rajasthan (c) Gujarat (d) Jharkhand

Ques. 2:- Define Resources.

Ques. 3:- Give one example of Non-renewable resources.

Ques.4:- Resources which are surveyed and their quantity and quality have been determined for utilization, are

called?

Ques.5- Who said, “There is enough for everybody’s need and not for any body’s greed”.

Ques.6- Define net sown area.

Ques.7- Mention one method of checking soil erosion.

Ques. 8- In which broad category do the soils of Maharashtra falls?

Ques.9- When water flows as a sheet over large area down a slope causing which type of soil erosion?

Ques.10- What is meant by strip cropping?

Ques.11- Which type of soil is found in the river deltas of the eastern coast?

Ques.12-What do you understand by reserve resources?

Ques.13- State any one reason for over use of resources.

Ques.14- What are international resources?

Ques.15- Write the important objective of Agenda 21.

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Ques.16- In which five year Plan period, resources planning was introduced in India?

Ques.17- In which year Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit held?

Ques.18- State True or False

1. Red soil is developed in intense leaching in high rain fall areas.

2. Forest soil is acidic in snow covered areas.

3. Gully erosion makes land unfit for cultivation.

Ques.19- Fill in the blanks:

1. Agenda 21 was a major outcome of first United Nations Conference on Environment and Development

held in ________.

2. Water is an example of resources.

3. The oceanic resources beyond nautical miles of the Exclusive Economic Zone belong to

open ocean.

Ques.20- Define renewable resources?

Ques.21- Which one of the following statements refers to the sustainable development?

a) Overall development of various resources

b) Development should take place without damaging the environment.

c) Economic development of people.

d) Development that meets the desires of the members of all communities.

3 MARKS QUESTIONS (Short Answer Questions)

Ques.1- Classify resources on the basis of ownership by giving example.

Ques.2- “In India some regions are rich in certain types of resources but deficient in some other resources”.

Do you agree with the statement?

Ques.3- Explain three steps involved in the resources planning in India.

Ques.4- What are the main advantages of India’s land under a variety of relief features?

Ques.5- State any three physical factors as well as three human factors which determine the use of land in

India.

Ques.6- Name three states having black soil and the crop which is mainly grown in it?

Ques.7- What are the biotic and abiotic resources? Give some examples.

Ques.8- What is sustainable economic development? Suggest any two ways in which resources can be used

judiciously.

Ques.9- Explain any three human activities which are mainly responsible for land degradation in India.

Ques.10- Suggest any three measures of soil conservation.

Ques.11- What was agenda 21?

Ques.12- How far it is correct to say that the availability of resources is a necessary condition for the

development of any region? Explain.

Ques.13- Why is resource planning essential?

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5 MARKS QUESTIONS (Long Answer Questions)

Ques.1- Explain the role of humans in resource development.

Ques.2- Suggest any five measures to solve the problems of land degradation in India.

Ques.3- What steps can be taken to control soil erosion in the hilly areas?

Ques.4- Mention the different features of arid soil.

Ques.5- Distinguish between Khadar and Bangar. Name any two states where alluvial soils are found.

Ques.6:- Which soil is called regur soil? Explain any four characteristics of this soil.

Ques.7- What type of soil is found in the river deltas of the eastern coast? Give three main features of this type

of soil.

Ques.8- Explain land use pattern in India and why has the land under forest not increased much since 1960-61?

Ques.9- How has technical and economic development led to more consumption of resources?

Ques.10- What is the need for the conservation of resources? Explain it in the light of Gandhiji’s

view.

Ques.11- What was the purpose of the Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro Brazil in 1992? What

are the main provisions of Agenda 21 signed at this Summit?

Ques.12- Which type of soil is ideal for growth of cotton? What are the main characteristics of this type of soil?

Name some areas where they found.

Ques.13- What is soil? Analyze the four main factors which help in the formation of soil.

Map work

On the given outline map of India : Major soil Types (Identification only)

(a) Major Black soil area (b) Major Red soil area (c) Major Alluvial soil area

(d) Major Desert soil area (e) Major Forest and Mountain soil

(f) Major Laterite soil area

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Chapter -3: Water Resources

Note: The theoretical aspect of chapter ‘Water Resources’ to be assessed

in the Periodic Tests only and will not be evaluated in Board Exam.

However, the map items of this chapter as given in the Map List

will be evaluated in Board Examination.

&

Chapter -2: Forest and Wildlife

Note: This chapter to be assessed in the Periodic Test only and will

not be evaluated in Board Examination.

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MAP WORK- Chapter 3: Water Resources (Locating and Labelling)

Ques.1- Locate and label the following on the outline map of India.

Dams:

a. Salal b. Bhakra Nangal c. Tehri d. Rana Pratap Sagar

e. Sardar Sarovar f. Hirakud g. Nagarjuna Sagar h. Tungabhadra

Note: Items of Locating and Labelling may also be given for Identification.

Page | 37

CHAPTER 4- AGRICULTURE


1) Answer the following questions in one word or in one sentence.

I. Give at least one example of crop which may be commercial in one state and may provide subsistence in

another region.

II. Which fiber is known as golden fiber?

III. Which type of activity agriculture is?

IV. Describe Jhumming cultivation in one sentence.

V. Which is the leading state in India in coffee production?

VI. What was the main focus of the first Five-year plan?

2) Multiple choice Questions-

1. Bhoodan Gramdan movement was initiated by-

a) Mahatma Gandhi b) Jawaharlal Nehru

b) Vinoba Bhave d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

2. Rabi crops are sown in which season-

a) Winter b) Monsoon c) Summer d) None of these

3. Ragi is very rich in-

a) Zinc b) Iodine c) Iron d) Phosphorous

4. Which one of the following is announced by the Government in support of a crop?

a) Maximum Support Price

b) Minimum Support Price

c) Moderate Support Price

d) Influential Support Price

5. The commercial crop of Punjab and Haryana is

a) Rice b) Sugarcane c) Cotton d) Wheat

6. Which one of the following is a leguminous crop?

(a) Pulses (b) Jawar (c) Millets (d) Sesamum

7. Which one of the following describes a system of agriculture where a single crop is grown on a large area?

(a) Shifting Agriculture (b) Plantation Agriculture

(c) Horticulture (d) Intensive Agriculture

8. Agriculture provides livelihood to more than 63 percent of India’s ………………………. .

9. Millets are also called……………………

10. Coffee cultivation is an example of… ........................... Farming.

11. Write true or false.

a) Agriculture is an age-old and a primary economic activity.

b) Coffee plantation is located in Odisha, Bihar and Bengal.

c) Punjab is the largest producer of Bajra in India.

d) Intensive subsistence farming is a bush or tree farming.

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12. Complete the following table with correct information with regard to cultivation of rice

13. Name the country in which Jhumming agriculture is known as Milpa?

14. Which type of agriculture is practiced on small patches of land with the help of primitive tools?

15. Which crop is used both as food and fodder?

16. 11. In which part of India is Jhumming practiced in India?

3 MARKS QUESTIONS (Short Anwer Questions)

1) Differentiate between commercial farming and plantation farming.

2) Describe the three cropping seasons of India.

3) What climatic conditions are required for growing cotton?

4) Write any three changes in Indian agriculture after the Green Revolution?

5) Why India is called an agrarian country?

6) Describe the geographical conditions required for the growth of rice and wheat in India.

Kharif

Crop

Sown Harvested Major Crop

Onset of

monsoon

A - ? B - ?

7) Name one important beverage crop and specify the geographical conditions required for growth.

8) Describe the geographical conditions for the cultivation of sugarcane. Name two leading producer

states of India.

9) What is the main characteristic of commercial farming?

10) What is ‘slash and burn’ agriculture?

11) Enlist the various institutional reform programmes introduced by the government in the interest of

farmers.

12) The land under cultivation has got reduced day by day. Can you imagine its consequences?


1) Suggest the initiatives taken by the government to ensure the increase in agricultural activities.

2) Distinguish between primitive subsistence farming and intensive subsistence farming.

3) Which geographical conditions are needed for the second most important cereal crop of India?

Name regions where it is grown.

Page | 39

4) Why has Indian agriculture started a declining trend in food production? Explain.

5) Why subsistence agriculture is still practiced in certain parts of the country? Give reasons.

Map Work (Identification only)

On an outline map of India identify the places give below-

(A) Major areas of Rice and Wheat.

Page | 40

(B) Major states of (1) Sugarcane, (2) Tea, (3) Coffee, (4) Rubber, (5) Cotton and (6) Jute.

(1) Sugarcane (2) Tea

(3)Coffee (4) Rubber

(5) Cotton (6) Jute

Page | 41

Chapter-5 Minerals and Energy Resources


1. Name the rock that consists of a single mineral.

2. Name the best variety of iron ore found in India.

3. What are the full forms of CNG and LPG?

4. Which energy resources are most commonly used in rural India?

5. Which is the largest mica producing state of India?

6. Name the mineral which is used to harden steel during manufacturing?

7. Which of the following is considered to be an environmental friendly fuel?

a) Coal b) Petroleum

c) Natural Gas d) Uranium

8. Minerals are generally found in -

a) Ores b) Rocks c) Soil d) None of these

9. Kodema, in Jharkhand is the leading producer of which one of the following minerals?

a) Bauxite b) Mica c) Iron ore d) Copper

10. Which one of the following mineral is contained in the monazite sand?

a) Oil b) Uranium c) Thorium d) Coal

11. Rocks are combination of homogenous substances called………………………….

12. Geographers study ..................... as part of the Earth’s crust for a better understanding of landforms.

13. ......................is an example of energy mineral.

14. Fluoride which is used to reduce cavities comes from a mineral…………...

15. Write true or false.

a) The largest solar plant of India is located at Madhpur near Bhuj.

b) Odisha is the largest bauxite producing state.

c) Thermal energy is obtained by altering the structure of atoms.

d) Mineral oil is the next major energy resources in India after coal.

3 MARKS QUESTIONS (Short Anwer Questions)

1) Differentiate between ferrous and non-ferrous minerals, with examples.

2) What is Rat-hole mining?

3) Describe any three characteristics of ‘Odisha-Jharkhand belt’ of iron ore in India.

4) Why conservation of mineral resources is essential? Explain any three reasons.

Page | 42

5) Which state is the largest producer of manganese in India? Mention any two uses of it.

6) “India is an important iron and steel producing country in the World. Yet we are not able to perform

to our full potential.” Suggest and explain any three measures to get full potential.

7) What are the uses of copper? Name the two leading copper producing states of India.

8) Which is the most abundantly available fossil fuel in India? Assess the importance of its different

forms.

9) How can biogas solve the energy problem mainly in rural India? Give your suggestion.

10) Minerals are indispensable part of our lives. Support the statement with examples.

11) Why is mining activity often called a “Killer Industry”. Give three reasons.

12) Give three reasons in the favour of use of ‘Atomic energy’.

13) How minerals are formed in sedimentary rocks? Name any two mineral formed due to evaporation

especially in arid region.

14) Study the given chart carefully and answer the following questions:

A. Which state is the largest producer of manganese in India?

B. What is the use of manganese?

C. What is the share of Madhya Pradesh in the production of manganese ore?

15) Write any two features of natural gas. Why is it considered an environment friendly fuel?

16) Describe any three non-conventional sources of energy.

17) Distinguish between Natural Gas and Bio Gas.

18) Write about the formation of Tidal energy.

19) Why the use of fire wood and dung cake should be discouraged?

20) Why does solar energy in Rajasthan have greater potential as non –conventional source of energy?

Page | 43


1) How is mining activity injurious to the health of the miners and environment? Explain.

2) “Minerals are unevenly distributed in India.” Support the statement with examples.

3) ‘Natural gas is an important source of clean energy’. Support the statement with examples.

4) Why do you think that solar energy has a bright future in India?

5) How can we conserve energy resources in India? Explain.

6) How would you classify the types of coal depending on the degrees of compression?

7) Explain any five types of non- conventional sources of energy developed in India.

Map work

Minerals and Energy Resources Minerals (Identification only)

a. Iron Ore mines

• Mayurbhanj • Durg • Bailadila • Bellary • Kudremukh

Page | 44

b. Coal Mines

• Raniganj • Bokaro • Talcher • Neyveli

c. Oil Fields

• Digboi • Naharkatia • Mumbai High • Bassien • Kalol • Ankaleshwar

Page | 45

Power Plants (Locating and Labelling only)

a. Thermal

• Namrup • Singrauli • Ramagundam

b. Nuclear

• Narora • Kakrapara • Tarapur • Kalpakkam


Page | 46

CHAPTER 6- Manufacturing Industries

1 MARK QUESTIONS (VSA) Questions carrying 1 mark. Q.1. The industries that produces goods for direct use by consumers e.g. sugar, toothpaste paper etc. are called? a) Agro based industries b) Consumer industries c) Basic industries d) Mineral based industries. Q.2. Which city is called the electronic capital of India? a) Chennai b) Kolkata c) Bangluru d) Hydrabad

Q.3. ......................is large, handles everything in one complex form putting together

raw material to steel making rolling and shaping. Q.4. .....................are smaller in size, have electronic furnaces, use steel scrap and sponge

iron. They have re-rollers that use steel ingots as well. Q.5. Where and when the first Jute mill was set up in India? Q.6. Where and when the first successful cotton textile mill was set up in India? Q.7. Rewrite the following sentences by making correction.

The factors responsible for the location of jute industry near Hugli basin are proximity of the jute

producing area, expensive water transport supported by good network of railways roadways and waterways

to facilitate movement of raw materials to the mills.

Q.8. Rewrite the following sentences by making correction. The chotanagpur plateau has the maximum concentration of sugar industries.

Q.9. All public sector undertakings market their steel through………………… Q.10. In which year National Jute Policy was formulated? Q.11. Where and when the first cement plant was set up in India? Q.12. Which one of the following is owned and operated by Public sector?

a) OIL b) BHEL c) TISCO d) None Q.13. Which one of the following industries uses limestone as a raw material? A ) Aluminium b) Cement c) Sugar d) Jute Q.14. Which one of the following industries use bauxite as a raw material? a) Steel b) Aluminium c) Sugar d) Cotton Q.15. Which one of the following industry manufactures telephone, computer etc.

a) Information Technology b)Electronic c) Aluminium d) Steel

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Q.1. Which physical and human factors are responsible for the location of Industries?

Q.2. Which factors are responsible for concentration of cotton textile mills in Gujrat and Maharashtra?

Q.3. What are the challenges faced by cotton textile mills in India?

Q.4. Which factors are responsible for setting up jute mills in Hugli region?

Q.5.What are the challenges of Jute industry in India?

Q.6. What steps are taken up by the government of India to increase demand of jute in the market?

Q.7. Which factors are responsible for shifting of sugar mills to southern and western states?

Q.8. What are the challenges of sugar industries?

Q.9. What are agglomeration economies?

Q.10. ”Industrialisation and urbanization go hand in hand”. Justify this statement.

Q.11. Why is iron and steel industry called a basic industry?

Q.12. What are the impacts of mining on the health of the miners and the environment?


Q.1. Why manufacturing industry is considered as backbone of economic development of the

country? Q.2. NTPC has set an example of pollution free industry. Explain.

Q.3. How Integrated steel plants are different from mini steel plants? What problems does the industry face?

Q.4. How industries pollute the environment?

Q.5. Which steps can be taken to minimize environmental degradation by industries?

Q.6. India is an important iron and steel producing country in the world yet, we are not able to perform to

our full potential. Give any four reasons.

Q.7. Bring out the importance of information Technology and Electronic in India?

Q.8. What ideas justify that agriculture and industry are not exclusive of each other?

Q.9. What is importance of the manufacturing industries?

Q.10. Which factors are responsible for the decentralization of cotton textile mills in India?

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Map work.

Manufacturing Industries (Locating and Labelling Only)

Cotton Textile Industries:

a. Mumbai b. Indore c. Surat d. Kanpur e. Coimbatore

Cotton Textile Industries


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Iron and Steel Plants:

a. Durgapur b. Bokaro c. Jamshedpur d. Bhilai e.

Vijaynagar f. Salem

Software Technology Parks:

a. Noida b. Gandhinagar c. Mumbai d. Pune e.

Hyderabad f. Bengaluru

g. Chennai h. Thiruvananthapuram


Software Technology Parks Iron and Steel Plants

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CHAPTER 7-Lifelines of the National Economy


Q.1. Which one of the following is the most important modes of transportation in India?

a) Pipelines b) Roadways c) Railways d) Airways

Q.2. Which one of the following is not connected by H.V.J. pipelines?

a) MadhyaPradesh b) Maharashtra c) Gujrat d) UttarPradesh

Q.3 Which two of the following extreme locations are connected by east-west corridor?

a) Mumbai and Nagpur b) Mumbai and Kolkata c) Silcher and Porbandar d) Nagpur and Siligudi

Q.4. Which is the northernmost point of the North-south corridor?

Q.5. Which is the southernmost point of the North-South corridor?

Q.6. The easternmost point of the East –West corridor is……………….

Q.7. The westernmost point of the East –West corridor is…………………

Q.8. The Border Road Organisation was established in the year……………..

Q.9. Write true or false.

The National Highways are constructed and maintained by Public Works Department (PWD).

Q.10. Rewrite the following sentence by making correction.

Golden Quadrilateral super Highways are 5 lane highways connecting major metropolitan cities

of Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai.

Q.11. Rewrite the following sentence by making correction.

Kochchi port of Karnataka export the iron ore concentrates from Kudremukh mines.

12. Rewrite the following sentence by making correction.

Paradip port was developed as a subsidiary port, in order to relieve growing pressure on Kolkata port.

Q.13. In which year the air transport was nationalised in India?

Q.14. Which of the following National Highway is called Sher-Shah Suri Marg?

a) NationalHighway-5 b) NationalHighway-7 c) National Highway-1 d) National Highway-9

Q.15. Which port was planned with a view to decongest the Mumbai port and serve as a hub port?

Q.16. Which is the longest National Highway of India?

Q.17. Which is the cheapest mode of transport?

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Q.1 What are the merits of roadways in India?

Q.2.What are the challenges of Roadways in India?

Q.3. What are the benefits of railways in India?

Q.4. What are the challenges/problem of railways in India?

Q.5. Why airways is considered better in comparison to roadways and railways especially in the north-eastern

part of India?

Q.6. What is the importance of pipelines?

Q.7. What are the features of waterways?

Q.8. What is balance of trade? In which situations it is favorable and unfavorable?

Q.9. Describe the significance of tourism as trade in India.

Q.10. ‘‘Road transport in India is not competitive but complimentary to Railways.” Justify this statement

by giving three points.

Q.11. Where and why is rail transport the most convenient means of transportation?

Q.12. What is the significance of the border roads?

Q.13. What is meant by trade? What is the difference between international and local trade?

Q.14. Why the means of transportation and communication are called the lifelines of a nation and its economy?

Q.15. Rich agriculture resources and Great Industrial activities in the Great Plains as compared with

Himalayan Mountains, further provides favourable conditions for the development of Railway. Explain?


Q.1. What is the importance of international trade?

Q.2. Why tourism is considered as a trade as well as an industry?

Q.3.What are the advantages of airways?

Q.4. Which factors are responsible for the uneven distribution pattern of the railway network in India?

Q.5.The roadways have an edge over railways. Give reasons.

Q.6. Classify roads of India on the basis of their capacity.

Q.7. Highlight the importance of radio and television as an effective means of mass communication in India.

Q.8. “Railways are the principal mode of transportation in India”Explain.

Q.9. How do physiographic and economic factors influence the distribution pattern of Indian railway network?

Explain with example.

Q.10. Name any two navigational Rivers of India? In which part of India Inland Water ways are widely used?

Write two Merits and Demerits of Inland waterTransport.

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Q.11. Efficient network of transport and communication is a pre-requisite for local, national and global trade of

today? Explain.

Q.12. Highlight the importance of Pipeline transportation and network.

Map work

Major Ports: (Locating and Labelling)

a. Kandla b. Mumbai c. Marmagao d. New Mangalore e. Kochi

f.Tuticorin g.Chennai h. Vishakhapatnam i. Paradip j. Haldia

International Airports:

a .Amritsar (Raja Sansi) b. Delhi (Indira Gandhi International)

c. Mumbai (Chhatrapati Shivaji) d. Chennai (Meenam Bakkam)

e. Kolkata (Netaji SubhashChandra Bose) f. Hyderabad (Rajiv Gandhi)


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1 Mark Questions (VSA)


CLASS: X

Part C: DEMOCRATIC POLITICS-ii

Chapter-1: Power sharing

1. How many people speak French and Dutch in the capital city of Brussels?

a) 60 percent French 40 percent Dutch b) 50% Dutch 50% French

c) 80% French 20% Dutch d) 80% Dutch 20% French

2. How many times leaders of Belgium amended their constitution?

A) Two times B) Three times C) Four times D) Six time

3. Which one of the following is correct regarding power sharing?

A) It leads to conflict between different groups.

B) It ensures the stability of the country.

C) It helps to reduce the conflict between different groups.

a) Only A is true b) Only B is true c) Both A and B are true d) Both B and C are true

4. Which was the only official language of Sri Lanka?

a) Tamil b) Malyalam c) Sinhala d) none of the mention above

5. Which community was rich and powerful in Belgium?

a) German b) French c) Dutch d) none of the mention above

6. Power struggle demanding separate Eelam was launched by:

a) Sinhalese b) Buddhists c) Tamilians d) None of the above

7. Belgium shares its border with:

a) France b) Gerrmany c) Luxembourg d) All of these

8. What is Majoritarianism?

9. Name the country which has lost peace due to Majoritarianism.

10. In which year, Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country?

11. What is the linguistic composition of Belgium?

12. What is civil war?

13. What do you mean by federal division of power?

14. What was a community government?

15. Where is the headquarter of European Union?

16. Which religion is followed by majority of Sinhala speaking people?

17. Which language is mainly spoken in Flemish region of Belgium?

18. Which language is spoken by the people of Wallonia region of Belgium?

19. What does the word ethnic refer to?

20. Who elects the community government in Belgium?

21. How is power shared in modern democracies?

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22. Power shared among governments at different levels is also called:

(a) Horizontal distribution (b) Vertical distribution (c) Slant distribution (d) None

23. Consider the following statements about power sharing arrangements in Belgium and Sri

Lanka.

A. In Belgium, the Dutch-speaking majority people tried to impose their domination on the

minority French-speaking community.

B. In Sri Lanka, the policies of the government sought to ensure the dominance of the

Sinhala-speaking majority.

C. The Tamils in Sri Lanka demanded a federal arrangement of power sharing to protect

their culture, language and equality of opportunity in education and jobs.

D. The transformation of Belgium from unitary government to a federal one prevented a

possible division of the country on linguistic lines.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Options:

(a) A, B, C & D (b) A, B & D (c) C & D (d) B, C & D

24. Different arguments are usually put forth in favour of and against power sharing. Identify those

which are in favour of power sharing and select the answer using the codes given below? Power

sharing:

A. reduces conflict among different communities

B. decreases the possibility of arbitrariness

C. delays decision making process

D. accommodates diversities

E. increases instability and divisiveness

F. promotes people’s participation in government

G. undermines the unity of a country

Options:

(a) A, B, D, F (b) A, C, E, F (c) A, B, D, G (d) B,C, D,G

25. Consider the following two statements on power sharing and select the answer using the

codes given below:

A. Power sharing is good for democracy.

B. It helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups.

Which of these statements are true and false?

Options:

(a) A is true but B is false (b) Both A and B are true

(c) Both A and B are false (d) A is false but B is true

26. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the

statements and choose the correct option:

Assertion (A): Belgium and Spain has ‘holding together’ federation.

Reason (B): A big country divides power between constituent states and national government.

(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

(b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

(c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.

(d) Both assertion and reason are false.



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Assertion (A): Sinhala was recognized as only official language of Sri Lanka.

Reason (R): The government of Sri Lanka wanted to establish the supremacy of Sinhala community.

(a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.




28. Which one of the following option best signifies this cartoon?

A. Relationship between democracy and concentration of power.

B. Visit of US President to Russia.

C. Both the Head of the State drive democracy by their own.

D. Making rules to facilitate democracy.

3 Mark Questions (Short Answer Questions)

1. Explain the ethnic problem of Srilanka.

2. How Belgian government solved its ethnic problem?

3. How is power shared among different organs of the government, i.e., legislature, executives and judiciary?

4. What is majoritarianism? How it has led to alienation of majority community in Sri Lanka?

5. How is federal government better than a unitary government? Explain with examples of Belgium and Sri

Lanka.

6. Write down the features of Horizontal division of power sharing.

7. Write Down the features of Vertical division of power sharing.

8. What is the reason for tension in Belgium?

9. Describe the diverse composition of Sri Lanka.

10. Describe three demands of Sri Lankan Tamils. How did they struggle for their independence?

11. Briefly explain the ways in which power sharing between different organs of the government results in the

maintenance of balance of power.

12. Mention any three provisions of the Act which passed in Sri Lanka in 1956 to establish Sinhala Supremacy.

13. Why power sharing is desirable?

14. What’s wrong with a Majoritarianism?

15. What is power sharing?

16. State one prudential reason and one moral reason of power sharing with an example from the Indian context.

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17. What is community government?

18. What is coalition government?

5 Mark Questions (Long Answer Questions)

1. What are the different forms of power sharing in modern democracies? Give example of each.

2. How are the ethnic problem solved in Belgium? Mention any four steps which were taken by the

governments to solve the problem?

3. Explain the power sharing arrangement among the different political parties, pressure groups and

movements.

4. Explain the power sharing arrangement among the different organs of the government.

5. Explain the power sharing arrangement among the different social groups.

6. Explain the power sharing arrangement among the different levels of the government.

7. What are advantages enjoyed by the Sinhala Community in Sri Lanka? Describe the consequences.

8. What measures were adopted by the Belgium government to accommodate regional and cultural diversities?

9. What are the outcomes and the lessons we learnt from the style of governance in Sri Lanka and Belgium?

***************************************

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Chapter-2: Federalism

1. How many scheduled languages are recognized by the constitution?

a) Besides Hindus, there are 18 scheduled, languages.

b) Besides Hindi, there are 21 scheduled languages.

c) Besides Hindi there are 22 scheduled languages.

d) Besides Hindi there are 19 scheduled languages

2. The distinguishing feature of a federal government is:

(a) National government gives some powers to the provincial governments.

(b) Power is distributed among the legislature, executive and judiciary.

(c) Elected officials exercise supreme power in the government.

(d) Governmental power is divided between different levels of government.

3. By what name local govt. at urban area called?

A) Municipality B) Municipal corporation C) Panchayat Samiti

a) Only A is true b) Only B is true c) Both B and C are true d) Both A and B are true

4. Consider the following statements.

A. In a federation the powers of the federal and provincial governments are clearly demarcated.

B. India is a federation because the powers of the Union and State Governments are

specified in the Constitution and they have exclusive jurisdiction on their respective

subjects.

C. Sri Lanka is a federation because the country is divided into provinces.

D. India is no longer a federation because some powers of the states have been devolved to

the local government bodies. Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) A, B and C (b) A, C and D (c) A and B only (d) B and C only

5. What is decentralization of power?

6. What is federalism?

7. What is Unitary Government?

8. According to our constitution, who has the power to legislate on 'residuary' subjects?

9. How many lists of subject have been provided in the Indian Constitution?

10. The Subjects like-Defense, Banking and Communication are come under which list?

11. How many languages have been included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?

12. When was State Reorganization Commission was implemented?

13. Who can make laws relating to the subjects mentioned in the concurrent list?

14. Examine the following pairs that give the level of government in India and the powers of the government at

that level to make laws on the subjects mentioned against each. Which of the following pairs is not correctly

matched?

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(a) State government State List

(b) Central government Union List

(c) Central and State government Concurrent List

(d) Local governments Residuary powers

15. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List I List II

1. Union of India A. Prime Minister

2. State Β. Sarpanch

3. Municipal C. Governor

4. Gram Panchayat D. Mayor

1 2 3 4

(a) D A B C

(b) B C D A

(c) A C D B

(d) C D A B

16. The first major test of Indian federalism was:

a) Language problem b) Caste problem

c) Creation of linguistic statesd) Problems related to Union territories

17. The state governments are required to share some power and............ with local governments

bodies.


(a) Midday meal program

(b) Relationship between centre and states

(c) Relationship between people and state government

(d) Demand of reservation

Ans. (b) Relationship between centre and states


1. Point out one feature in the practice of federalism in India that is similar to and one feature that is

different from that of Belgium.

2. What is the main difference between a federal form of government and a unitary one? Explain with

an example.

3. State any two differences between the local government before and after the constitutional

amendment in 1992.

4. What do we call the Indian government? Is it Union, Federal or central?

5. If agriculture and commerce are state subjects, why do we have ministers of agriculture and

commerce in the Union cabinet?

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6. What is the real reason for the successes of federalism in India?

7. What are the objectives of the federal system?

8. What happened to the centre state relations when different parties ruled at the centre and state

levels till 1990?

9. Why is the central government of India not compelling states to adopt Hindi as their official

language?

10. What are significances of Panchayat Raj?

11. What was the Amendment in regard to decentralization?

12. Is it easy to make changes to power sharing arrangements between centre and the state? Explain.

13. What are the powers and responsibilities of village Panchayat?

14. What are the demerits of local self-government?

15. What makes India a federal country?

16. Which policies have strengthened federalism in India?

17. Examine the holding together nature of Indian Federalism.

18. Write down the features of coming together federations.

19. Write down the features of holding together federations.

20. “Local people know the local problems and its solutions better”. Explain.

21. What major steps taken in 1992 towards decentralization?

22. Explain the role of Judiciary.

23. What are the steps taken by our Constitution to safeguard the different languages?


Source A: Union List Union List includes subjects of national importance such as defence of the country,

foreign affairs, banking, communications and currency. They are included in this list because we need a uniform

policy on these matters throughout the country. The Union Government alone can make laws relating to the

subjects mentioned in the Union List.

Source B: State List State List contains subjects of State and local importance such as police, trade, commerce,

agriculture and irrigation. The State Governments alone can make laws relating to the subjects mentioned in the

State List.

Source C: Concurrent List Concurrent List includes subjects of common interest to both the Union Government

as well as the State Governments, such as education, forest, trade unions, marriage, adoption and succession.

Both the Union as well as the State Governments can make laws on the subjects mentioned in this list. If their

laws conflict with each other, the law made by the Union Government will prevail.

Source A : 24 (1) How many items are listed in the Union List?

Source B : 24 (2) Which kind of subjects are listed in the state list?

Source C: 24 (3) Who makes laws in the concurrent list? It conflict occurs then what happen in the List?

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Q2. What is decentralisation? What are the advantages of decentralisation of power?

Chapter -3: Democracy and Diversity



5 Mark Questions (Long answer Questions)

Q1. If federalism works in big countries, why did Belgium adopted it?

Q3. What are the power sharing arrangements in India?

Q4. How is federalism practiced in India? Or Why has federation succeeded in India? Which three

policies adopted by India have ensured this success?

Q5. What are the key features of Federalism? Or Which five provisions of the Indian constitution make

India a full-fledged federation? Explain.

Q6. Describe the language policy of India?

Q7. Why does the exact balance of power between the central and the state governments vary from

one federation to another? Explain with two examples.

Q8. Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

A second test for Indian federation is the language policy. Our Constitution did not give the status of national

language to any one language. Hindi was identified as the official language. But Hindi is the mother tongue of

only about 40 per cent of Indians. Therefore, there were many safeguards to protect other languages. Besides

Hindi, there are 21 other languages recognised as Scheduled Languages by the Constitution. A candidate in an

examination conducted for the Central Government positions may opt to take the examination in any of these

languages. States too have their own official languages. Much of the government work takes place in the official

language of the concerned State. Unlike Sri Lanka, the leaders of our country adopted a very cautious attitude in

spreading the use of Hindi. According to the Constitution, the use of English for official purposes was to stop in

1965. However, many non-Hindi speaking States demanded that the use of English continue. In Tamil Nadu, this

movement took a violent form. The Central Government responded by agreeing to continue the use of English

along with Hindi for official purposes. Many critics think that this solution favoured the English-speaking elite.

Promotion of Hindi continues to be the official policy of the Government of India. Promotion does not mean that

the Central Government can impose Hindi on States where people speak a different language. The flexibility

shown by Indian political leaders helped our country avoid the kind of situation that Sri Lanka finds itself in.

(i) How many official languages recognised as scheduled Languages by the Constitution?

(ii) How does Constitution of India safeguard the other languages?

(iii) How does India avoid the kind of situation that Sri Lanka finds itself in?

***************************************

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Chapter-4: Gender, Religion and Caste


1. Which one of the following social reformers fought against caste inequalities.

(a) Periyar Ramaswami Naiker (b) Swami Dayanand Saraswati

(c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy (d) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

2. Which one of the following was the view of Mahatma Gandhi about religion?

(a) He was in favour of Hinduism.

(b) He was an ardent supporter of Muslim Religion.

(c) By religion, Gandhi meant for moral values that inform all religions.

(d) He said that India should adopt Christianity.

3. When we speak of gender divisions, we usually refer to:

(a) Biological difference between men and women

(b) Unequal roles assigned by the society to men and women

(c) Unequal child sex ratio

(d) Absence of voting rights for women in democracies

4. In India seats are reserved for women in

(a) Lok Sabha (b) State Legislative Assemblies (c) Cabinets (d) Panchayati Raj bodies

5. Consider the following statements on the meaning of communal politics. Communal politics is based on the

belief that:

Α. One religion is superior to that of others.

Β. People belonging to different religions can live together happily as equal citizens.

C. Followers of a particular religion constitute one community.

D. State power cannot be used to establish the domination of one religious group over others.

Which of the statements is/are correct?

(a) A, B, C and D (b) A, B and D (c) A and C (d) B and D

6. Which among the following statements about India’s Constitution is wrong? It

(a) prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion (b) ensures equality of citizens within religious communities

(c) provides to all individuals freedom to profess any religion (d) gives official status to one religion

7. Social divisions based on are peculiar to India.

8. Which one of the following refers to gender division?

(a) The hierarchical unequal roles assigned to man and woman by the society.

(b) Biological difference between man and woman.

(c) The ratio of male child and female child.

(d) The division between male labourers and female labourers.

9. Which one of the following is the basis of communal politics?

(a) People of different religions may have the same interests.

(b) People of different religions have different interests that involve conflicts.

(c) People of different religions live in mutual co-operation.

(d) People who follow different religions belong to the same social community.

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10. What is the literacy rate among women and men respectively in India?

(a) 54% and 76% (b) 46% and 51% (c) 76% and 85% (d) 37% and 54%

11. Which one of the following is a form of communalism?

(a) Communal Unity and integrity. (b) Communal fraternity.

(c) Communal violence, riots and massacre. (d) Communal harmony.

12. Which one of the following refers to a feminist?

(a) The female labourers

(b) The employer who employs female workers

(c) A woman who does not believe in equal rights for women.

(d) A woman or a man who believes in equal rights and opportunities for woman and man.

13. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List I List II

1. A person who believes in equal rights and Α. Communalist

opportunities for women and men

2. A person who says that religion is the principal Β. Feminist

basis of community

3. A person who thinks that caste is the principal basis of community C. Secularist

4. A person who does not discriminate others on the D. Castiest

basis of religious beliefs

1 2 3 4

(a) B C A D

(b) B A D C

(c) D C A B

(d) C A B D

14. Name any two countries where women’s participation in public life is very high.

(a) Sri Lanka and Nepal (b) Pakistan and Bhutan

(c) Sweden and Finland (d) South Africa and Maldives

15. Which of the following is not a feature of communalism?

(a) Communal politics is based on the idea that religion is the principal basis of social community.

(b) Religion is seen as the basis of nation.

(c) Beliefs of one religion are presented as superior to those of other religions.

(d) The followers of a particular religion can belong to different communities

16. Correct the following statement and rewrite.

Democracy is based on the principle of the caste equality.


(a) Secular Governance (b) Caste discrimination

(c) Problem of apartheid (d) Gender discrimination

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18. 18.

In the above figure what was apartheid?

(a) Former policy of racial segregation in South America

(b) Former policy of racial segregation is South Africa

(c) Poverty of South Africa

(d) State authority of the South Africa


(a) Bank lockers of corrupted leaders

(b) Poverty and unemployment

(c) Politics with in caste

(d) Caste inequality



Assertion (A): Suppose the literacy rate in a state is 78% and the net attendance ratio in secondary stage is 47%.

Reason (R): More than half of the students are going to other states for elementary education.







Assertion (A): Equal Remuneration Act, 1976, provides that equal wages should be paid for equal work,

irrespective of gender and caste.

Reason (B): Women are physically weak so they are righteously paid less than men.





22. State the definition of Feminist.

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23. What is the percentage of women in Lok Sabha as recommended by women’s Reservation Bill?

24. What is caste Hierarchy?

25. Name any two laws that enacted by the Indian parliament for the welfare of women.

26. When is International Women’s day celebrated?

27. In which country was the “Civil Rights Movement” Started? Name any leaders related to this

movement? Why did he start this movement?

28. What equal wages act signifies?


1. State two reasons to say that caste alone cannot determine election results in India.

2. State how caste inequalities are still continuing in India.

3. What is the status of women’s representation in India’s legislative bodies?

4. What are family laws?

5. What do you mean by secular state? Mention any two constitutional provisions that make India

a secular state.

6. Explain the factors responsible for low female literacy rate.

7. Give three ill-effects of communalism in the society.

8. How have the feminist movements helped in improving women’s conditions?

9. How political mobilization on the question of gender equality helps to improve women’s role in public

life? Are they successful in achieving their objective?

10. Why is the idea of communal politics fundamentally flawed?

11. Mention the negative aspects of caste in politics?

12. Do you agree that caste alone cannot determine election results in India?

13. How does the Constitution of India ensures that India remains a secular state?

14. Describe the positive impact of casteism with regard to political expression.

15. Is the association of political parties with social groups always bad? Give three arguments in

support of your answer.

16. Describe the negative impact of casteism with regard to political expression.

17. What is the basis of caste based politics? Explain.

18. Discuss any four steps taken by the government towards women empowerment and gender

inequality.

19. What do you mean by gender division? How is it linked with division of labour in most of the

societies?

Page | 65

1. Mention different aspects of life in which women are discriminated or disadvantaged in India.

2. State different forms of communal politics with one example each.

3. What is communalism? What are the major beliefs of communal people?

4. Assess the influences of politics on caste system.

5. Examine the basic features of the caste system prevailing in India.

6. Explain the status of women’s representation in India’s legislative bodies.

7. How does communalism threaten the Indian Democracy? Explain.

9. What is feminist movement? What are the results of political expressions of gender divisions?

10. Explain the various forms that communalism takes in politics.

20. How Casteism is dangerous to a democratic country?

21. Read the following extract taken from the textbook and answer the questions that follow:

It is indeed ridiculous and unreasonable to deny women political rights even though they enjoy the

right to property which they make use of. They perform functions and assume responsibilities

without however getting the benefits that accrue to men for the same ... Why this injustice? Is it

not a disgrace that even the stupidest cattle-herder possesses the right to vote, simply because

he is a man, whereas highly talented women owning considerable property are excluded from

this right, even though they contribute so much to the maintenance of the state?

(i) Who is the writer of the above passage?

(ii) What is the grudge (complaint) of the writer?

(iii) What example does the writer cite in support of her view point?

5 Mark Questions (Long Answer Questions)

8. Women face disadvantage, discrimination and oppression in various ways even today. Assess the

statement by giving five suitable arguments.

11. Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

How were liberty and equality for women to be defined? The liberal politician Carl Welcker, an elected member

of the Frankfurt Parliament, expressed the following views: ‘Nature has created men and women to carry out

different functions... Man, the stronger, the bolder and freer of the two, has been designated as protector of the

family, its provider, meant for public tasks in the domain of law, production, defence. Woman, the weaker,

dependent and timid, requires the protection of man. Her sphere is the home, the care of the children, the

nurturing of the family... Do we require any further proof that given such differences, equality between the sexes

would only endanger harmony and destroy the dignity of the family?’ Louise Otto Peters (1819-95) was a

political activist who founded a women’s journal and subsequently formed a feminist political association. The

first issue of her newspaper (21 April 1849) carried the following editorial: ‘Let us ask how many men,

possessed by thoughts of living and dying for the sake of Liberty, would be prepared to fight for the freedom of

the entire people, of all human beings? When asked this question, they would all too easily respond with a

“Yes!”, though their untiring efforts are intended for the benefit of only one half of humanity – men. But Liberty

is indivisible! Free men therefore must not tolerate to be surrounded by the unfree...’ An anonymous reader of

the same newspaper sent the following letter to the editor on 25 June 1850: ‘It is indeed ridiculous and

unreasonable to deny women political rights even though they enjoy the right to property which they make use

of. They perform functions and assume responsibilities without however getting the benefits that accrue to men

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Chapter -5: Popular Struggles and Movement



for the same... Why this injustice? Is it not a disgrace that even the stupidest cattle-herder possesses the right to

vote, simply because he is a man, whereas highly talented women owning considerable property are excluded

from this right, even though they contribute so much to the maintenance of the state?’

(i) Evaluate the role of equality for women in the development of the nation.

(ii) To what extent it is true to say that nature has created men and women to carry out

different functions?

(iii) To what extent you feel that equality helped in bringing the dignity of women in the family back?

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Chapter-6: POLITICAL PARTIES

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (1 Mark Questions)

Q.1) What is a political party?

Q.2) Match the column

List1 List2

1. Congress Party a. National democratic alliance

2. Bhartiya Janta Party b. State party

3 .Communist Party of India c. United progressive alliance

4. Telugu Desam Party d. Left front

Q.3) Who among the following is the founder of the bahujan samaj party?

a. Kanshi Ram b. Sahu Maharaj

c. B.R. Ambedkar d. Jyotiba Phule

Q.4) A group of people who come together to contest elections and hold power in the government is called a

.

Q.5) What do you understand by partisan?

Q.6) What do you understand by ‘partisanship’?

Q.7) What are the components of a political party?

Q.8) How do parties run the government of a country?

Q.9) What is the role of opposition in a democracy?

Q.10) What is one-party system?

Q.11) Give one merit of multi-party system.

Q.12) When was INC formed? What is its symbol?

Q.13) When was BJP founded? What is its symbol?

Q.14) Which coalition alliance was formed by BJP?

Q.15) Explain the term coalition government?

Q.16) How many parties are registered with the Election Commission?

Q.17) After 1990, there was the rise of regional political parties as well as the beginning of era of ........... at the

centre.

Q.18) Arrange the following party according to its foundation year.

1. Indian National congress 2. Bharatiya Janta Party

3. Bahujan Samaj Party 4. Communist Party of India

(a) 1, 4, 2, 3

(b) 1, 2, 3, 4

(c) 4, 3, 2, 1

(d) 3, 4, 2, 1

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SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (3 Marks)

Q.1) Assess the importance of political parties?

Q.2) What is a multi-party system? Why has India adopted a multi-party system? Explain.

Q.3) What is the difference between a national party and a state party?

Q.4) Explain three functions of opposition political parties.

Q.5) ’Political parties are a necessary condition for a democracy’. Analyse the statement with examples

Q.6) Examine the concept of money and muscle power in a political party.

Q.7) What is the first thing the Election Commission does after recognising a party? Does it treat every party as

equal?

Q.8) No system is ideal for all countries and all situations. Explain.

Q.9) Write a short note on one-party system.

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS (5Marks)

Q.1) Which three challenges do you feel are being faced by political parties in India? give your opinion.

Q.2) Analyse the main functions of ‘political parties’?

Q.3) Describe some of the recent efforts taken in our country to reform political parties and its leaders.

Q.4) ”Opposition is important for democracy”. Comment

Q.5) “Political parties are a necessary condition for a democracy”. Analyse the statement with

examples.

Q.6) Explain the challenges faced by Indian democracy while holding free and fair elections.

Q.7) Discuss the merits and demerits of two-party system and multi-party system.

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CHAPTER -7: OUTCOMES OF DEMOCRACY

Multiple choice questions (1 mark each) Q 1) We can judge democracy by its -

a) people b) outcomes c) political parties d) none of the above

Q 2) People feel that democracy is better as it promotes -

a) equality b) freedom c) dignity d) all of the above

Q 3) The successful democracy needs

a) right to vote b) freedom c) periodic elections d) all of the above

Q 4) The political parties and democratic government is accountable to-

a) people b) society c) world d) none of the above

Q 5) People should be vigilant and participate actively in the process of

a) representation b) governance c) choosing party d) all of the above

State True orFalse Q 6) Responsive and accountable government are the result of democracy.

Q 7) Democratic governments are better than its alternatives.

Q 8) Gandhiji said democracy is a government of the people for the people and by the people

Q 9) Democracy offers certain economic and social rights also.

Fill in the blanks -

Q 10) Democracy is based on the idea of deliberation and .

Q 11) Democracy has more positive outcomes than .

Q 12) Democracies are based on political .

Q 13) In country more than half of its population live in poverty.

Q 14) Practically democracies do not appear to be very successful in reducing inequalities.

Q 15) Match the following

COLUMN A COLUMN B

1) Method of assessing the outcomes of democracy a) Education the citizen

2) Evaluating Indian democracy b) fundamental rights

3) Factors strengthening Indian democracy c) An alert and impartial election commission

4) Required to sustain democracy d) when some minimum expectations are not

fulfilled

1 2 3 4a) d c b a

b) d a c b

c) d b c ad) d a b c

Q 16) What does democracy ensure?

Q 17) Which form of government is found in most of the countries of the world?

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Q 18) What do you mean by an accountable government?

Q 19) What does a legitimate government mean?

Q 20 ) Which South Asian country has always had a democratic government since independence?

Q 21) Which of the following option best describe this cartoon?

a) Demand for separate state from Democratic Government b) Democratic government is facing territorial issues with the bordering states c) Democratic government is coping with multiple pressures through accommodation d) Democratic government accepts demands based on separate state

Short Answer Questions (3 marks each)

Q 22) On which factor does economic development of a country depend?

Q 23) Examine the political outcome of democracy.

Q 24) Which features of democracy are common in most countries of the world?

Q 25) “A democratic government is efficient and effective” analyses the statement.

Q 26) What outcomes can one expect of democracy?

Q 27) Read the sources given below answer the questions that follow –

There is one respect in which democratic government is certainly better than its alternative democratic

government is legitimate government. it may be slow less efficient not always very responsive for clean but a

democratic government is peoples on government that is why there is an overwhelming support from the idea of

democracy all over the world People wish to be ruled by representatives elected by then they also believe that

democracy suitable for their country. Q 27) 1. Why democracy is better than its alternatives? Q 27) 2. Write some drawbacks of democracy.

Q 28) What are the conditions under which democracies accommodate social diversities?

Long Answer Questions (5 marks each)

Q 29) Which values make democracy better than any other form of Government? Explain.

Q 30) “A democracy must look after the interest of all not just one section support the statement with arguments.

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Chapter -8: Challenges to Democracy



Q 31) “Democracy is seen to be good in principle but felt to be not so good in practice”. Justify the statement.

Q 32) “Democracy is not approve appearing to be very successful in reducing economic inequalities”. Analyse the statement.

Q 33) Describe the role of citizens in a democracy.

Q 34) Discuss any five factors that describe the successful working of democracy in India.

Q 35) How does democracy produce an accountable, responsive and legitimate

government?

36) How do we assess democracy’s outcome?

Q 37) How do people take part in decision making in democracy? Explain.

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CLASS: X

Part D: ECONOMICS

Chapter-1: DEVELOPMENT Very Short Answer Type Questions [1 Mark]

Ques 1. What is per capita income?

Ques 2. What is infant mortality rate?

Ques3 .What you understand by HDI?

Ques 4. Mention any one limitation of per capita income as an indicator of development.

Ques 5. Through which act is Right to Work implemented?

Ques 6. What is the rank of India as per the HDI report of 2019?

Ques 7. Define average income.

Ques 8. Suppose there are four families in a country with per capita income of $15000. The income of

three families is $10000, $20000 and $12000. What is the income of the fourth family?

Ques 9. Give any two common developmental goals of the people.

Ques10. What do you mean by Development?

Ques11. Development of a country can generally be determined by

i. its per capita income ii. its average literacy level

iii. Health status of its people iv. all the above

Ques12. Which of the following neighbouring countries has better performance in terms of human

development than India?

i. Bangladesh ii. Sri Lanka iii. Nepal iv. Pakistan

Ques13. Which organization publishes the Human Development Report:

(a) WHO (b) UNDP (c) WTO (d) IMF

Ques14. Suggest any one way to solve under-employment situation in rural areas.

Ques15. What is Literacy rate?

Ques16. In which year the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act was implemented?

Ques17. How do we calculate BMI?

Ques18. Define Net Attendance Ratio?

Short Answer Type Questions [3 Marks]

Ques 1. In what respects is the criterion used by the UNDP for measuring development different from the one

used by the World Bank?

Ques 2. “People have conflicting development goals”. Support the statement with suitable example.

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Ques 3. What is the main norm used by the World Bank in classifying different countries as rich and poor

countries? What are the restrictions of such norms?

Ques 4. Study the data given below and answer the Question that follow:

Some comparative data on Punjab, Kerala and Bihar:

Which state appears the most developed and why?

Ques 5. What may be the development for one may be the destruction for the other.” Explain the statement

with appropriate examples.

Ques 6. Study the data given below and answer the Question that follow. Some Comparative Data on

Punjab, Kerala and Bihar

A. Which state has the highest infant mortality rate?

B. Why does this state have the highest infant mortality rate? Give two reasons.

Ques 7. Why does Kerala have a better Human Development Index ranking in comparison to Punjab? Explain

with three reasons.

Ques 8. Describe any three possible development goals of landless rural labourers.

Ques 9. “Money cannot buy all the goods and services that one needs to live well” Do you agree with this statement? Justify your answer with any three suitable arguments.

Ques 10. State the three factors other than income that are important in life.

Ques 11. Why do we use averages? Are there any limitations to their use? Illustrate with your own examples

related to development.

Ques 12. “The Earth has enough resources to meet the needs of all but not enough to satisfy the greed of even

one person”. How is this statement relevant to the discussion of development? Discuss.

Ques 13. Why average income is taken into consideration instead of total income while making comparison

between countries?

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Ques 14. Explain the important aspects of our lives that are important than income.

Ques 15. ‘Human development is the essence of social development.’ Explain.

Long Answer Type Questions [5 Marks]

Ques 1. “Though the level of income is important, it is an inadequate measure of the level of development.”

Justify the statement.

Ques 2. What is Human Development Index? Which organization measures the HDI? Explain the three

major indicators of the HDI.

Ques 3. What is sustainable development? Suggest any three ways in which resources can be used judiciously.

Ques 4. Distinguish between Human Development and Economic Development.

Ques 5. Compare India and Sri Lanka on the basis of any three indicators of Human Development Index for

2019.

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Chapter-2: Sectors of the Indian Economy

Very Short Answer Type Questions [1 Mark]

Ques 1. Who has the ownership of the assets in the public sector?

Ques 2. What does GDP stand for?

Ques 3. Mention one feature of unorganized sector.

Ques 4. Where is the disguised employment found mostly in India?

Ques 5. In which sector are a large number of workers losing their jobs in, since 1990?

Ques 6. What was the most important sector of economic activities at the earliest stages of development?

Ques 7. Name the sector which forms the base for all other products.

Ques 8. Name the sector in which natural products are changed into other forms.

Ques 9. Name the sector which helps in the development of primary and secondary sectors.

Ques 10. Name the sector that is the largest employer in India.

Ques 11. Choose the most appropriate answer.

(a) The sectors are classified into public and private sector on the basis of:

(i) employment conditions (ii) the nature of economic activity

(iii) ownership of enterprises (iv) number of workers employed in the enterprise

(b) Production of a commodity, mostly through the natural process, is an activity in sector.

(i) primary (ii) secondary (iii) tertiary (iv) information technology

(c) GDP is the total value of produced during a particular year.

(i) all goods and services (ii) all final goods and services

(iii) all intermediate goods and services (iv) all intermediate and final goods and services

Ques 12. Find the odd one out:

i. Tourist guide, dhobi, tailor, potter

ii. Teacher, doctor, vegetable vendor, lawyer

iii. Postman, cobbler, soldier, police constable

iv. MTNL, Indian Railways, Air India, SAHARA Airlines, All India Radio

Ques 13. The sectors are classified in to public and private sectors on the basis of:

(a) Employment conditions (b) The nature of economic activity

(c) Ownership of enterprises (d) Number of workers employed in the enterprises

Ques 14. Define Unemployment?

Ques 15. What is the new name of NREGA?

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Short Answer Type Ques [3 Marks]

Ques 1. How does service sector help in the development of primary and secondary sectors? Explain with

examples.

Ques 2. With the example of sugar cane, explain the interdependence of all the three sectors of economy.

Ques 3. Explain the working condition of workers in unorganized sector.

Ques 4. Explain disguised unemployment with two examples, one from urban areas and other from rural areas.

Ques 5. Distinguish between public and private sectors.

Ques 6. Explain the interdependence of all three sectors giving examples from transportation system.

Ques 7. Highlight the three factors responsible for the growth of service sector in the Indian economy.

Ques 8. Explain the objectives of implementing the NREGA 2005.

Ques 9. What is unorganized sector? Describe the working procedure of this sector.

Ques 10. How is the tertiary sector different from other sectors? Illustrate with a few examples.

Ques 11.What is the meaning of under employment? In which economic sector is under employment conditions

more prevalent? Why?

Ques 12. What are economic and non-economic activities?

Ques 13. Explain any three adverse effects of unemployment.

Ques 14. Give the classification of economic activities on the basis of Nature of activity on the basis of the

people’s employment and on the basis of employment?

Long Answer Type Ques [5 Marks]

Ques 1. How far is it correct to say that several services which cannot be provided by private sector can be

provided by the public sector? Explain.

Ques 2. Give five reasons for the rising importance of the tertiary sector in production

Ques 3. Describe the provisions of the National Rural employment Guarantee Act 2005

Ques 4. What is GDP? Explain the process to calculate GDP.

Ques 5. Compare the employment conditions prevailing in the organized and unorganized sector?

Ques 6. In what ways can employment be increased in urban areas?

Ques 7. Why does disguised employment not help in productivity of a country? Explain with the help of an

example.

Ques 8. How did NREGA 2005 bring upliftment of the rural people? Explain.

Ques 9. Explain how public sector contributes to the economic development of nation.

Ques10. Do you think the classification of economic activities into primary, secondary and tertiary is useful?

Explain how.

Ques11. Explain how public sector contributes to the economic development of a nation.

Ques12. Why is the tertiary sector becoming more important in India? Explain.

Ques13. Explain three causes of unemployment in India and suggest any two measures to reduce

unemployment in India.

Ques 14. What are the measures to protect the labourers in the unorganized sector?

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Chapter-3: Money And Credit


Ques 1. What is the meaning of barter system?

Ques 2. What is meant by double coincidence of wants?

Ques 3. How does money act as a medium of exchange?

Ques 4. What is a cheque?

Ques 5. Who supervises the functioning of formal sources of loans?

Ques 6. What are the two forms of modern currency?

Ques 7. What is collateral?

Ques 8. Define credit.

Ques 9. Which are the two major sources of formal loan for rural households?

Ques 10. Fill in the blanks:

i. Majority of the credit needs of the households are met from informal sources.

ii. of borrowing increase the debt burden.

iii. issues currency notes on behalf of the Central Government.

iv. Banks charge a higher interest rate on loans than what they offer on .

v. is an asset that the borrower owns and uses as a guarantee until the loan is repaid

to the lender.

Ques 11. Choose the most appropriate answer.

(i) In an SHG most of the decisions regarding savings and loan activities are taken by:

(a)Bank. (b) Members. (c) Non-government organization.

(ii) Formal sources of credit do not include:

(a) Banks. (b) Cooperatives. (c) Employers.


Ques 1. How do the deposits with the banks become their source of income?

Ques 2. Why can one not refuse a payment made in rupees in India?

Ques 3. Compare formal sector loans with informal sector loans regarding interest only.

Ques 4. Why is the supervision of the functioning of formal sources of loans necessary?

Ques 5. Prove with an argument that there is a great need to expand formal sources of credit in rural India.

Ques 6. Why are most of the poor households deprived from the formal sector of loans?

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Ques 7. How does money eliminate the need for double coincidence of wants?

Ques 8. How can money be easily exchange for goods or services? Give an example to explain.

Ques 9. ‘Credit has its own unique role for development.’ Justify the statement with arguments.

Ques 10. “Poor households still depend on informal sources of credit.” Support the statement with

examples.

Ques 11. Why is it necessary for the banks and cooperative societies to increase their lending facilities

in rural areas? Explain.

Ques 12. Why is modern currency accepted as a medium of exchange without any use of its own? Find

out the reason.

Ques 13. What is the basic idea behind the SHGs for the poor? Explain in your own words.

Ques 14. How does money solve the problem of double coincidence of wants? Explain with an

example.

Ques 15. How is money used in everyday life? Explain with examples.

Ques 16. Explain with examples, how people are involved with the banks.

Ques 17. Explain with an example how credit plays a vital and positive role for development.

Ques 18. Why do lenders ask for collateral while lending? Give any three reasons.

Ques 19. How is money used as a medium of exchange? Explain with examples

Ques 20. What are the modern forms of money? Why is rupee widely accepted as a medium of

exchange? Explain two reasons.

Ques 21. What are demand deposits? How is money safe in the banks? Explain.

Ques 22. Mention any three points of distinction between formal sector loans and informal sector

loans.

Ques 23. What are the two categories of sources of credit? Mention four features of each.

Ques 24. Which government body supervises the functioning of formal sources of loans in India?

Explain its functioning.

Ques 25. Explain any four terms of credit with examples.


Ques 1. ‘Cheap and affordable credit is essential for poor households both in rural and urban areas.’ In

the light of the above statement, explain the social and economic values attached to it.

Ques 2. “Cheap and affordable credit is crucial for the country’s development.” Assess the statement.

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Ques 3. “Deposits with the banks are beneficial to the depositors as well as to the nation.” Examine the

Statement.

Ques 4. “The credit activities of the informal sector should be discouraged.” Support the statement with

arguments

Ques 5. How do SHGs help borrowers to overcome the problem of lack of collateral? Explain with an

example.

Ques 6. Why is there a great need to expand formal sector of credit in India? Explain.

Ques 7. “Whether credit will be useful or not, depends upon the situation.” Give two different

examples in support of this statement

Ques 8. How can the formal sector loans be made beneficial for poor farmers and workers? Suggest

any five measures.

Ques 9. What are Self-Help Groups? How do they work? Explain.

Ques 10. Why is it necessary for banks and cooperatives to extend their lending activities in rural

areas? Explain.

Ques 11. Describe any four advantages of Self-Help Groups for the poor.

Ques 12. How does the use of money make exchange of things easier? Explain with examples.

Ques 13. Why are the deposits in the banks called ‘demand deposits’? What are the benefits of

deposits with the banks?

Ques 14. What are the reasons why the banks might not be willing to lend to certain borrowers?

Ques 15. When does credit push the borrower into a debt-trap? Explain with the help of an example.

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Chapter-4: Globalisation and Indian Economy


Ques 1. What is the meaning of investment?

Ques 2. What is meant by trade barrier?

Ques 3. In which two different forms do we participate in the market?

Ques 4. What is multinational corporation?

Ques 5. Define the term privatization.

Ques 6. Give the meaning of globalizations.

Ques 7. Name the organization lay emphasize liberalization of foreign trade and foreign investment.

Ques 8. Write full form of LPG.

. Ques 9. Write full form of FDI.

Ques 10. Write full form of SEZ.

Ques 11. When was WTO (World Trade Organization) established?

Ques 12. Match the following.

(i) MNCs buy at cheap rates from small producers (a) Automobiles

(ii) Quotas and taxes on imports are used to regulate trade (b) Garments, footwear, sports items

(iii) Indian companies who have invested abroad (c) Call centres

(iv) IT has helped in spreading of production of services (d) Tata Motors, Infosys, Ranbaxy

(v) Several MNCs have invested in setting up factories in (e) Trade barriers

India for production

Options:

i ii iii iv v

a) d c b a e

b) b e d c a

c) d b c a e d) e a b c d

Ques 13. Investment made by MNCs is called

(i) Investment (ii) Foreign Trade

(iii) Foreign Investment (iv) Disinvestment

Ques 14. Process of integration of different countries is called

(i) Liberalisation (ii) Privatisation

(iii) Globalisation (iv) None of the above

Ques 15. Production of services across countries has been facilitated by

(i) Money (ii) Machine (iii) Labour (iv) ICT

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Ques 1. Differentiate between investment and foreign investment.

Ques 2. Why do MNCs set up their offices and factories in those regions where they get cheap labour and

other resources?

Ques 3. Why had the Indian Government put barriers to foreign trade and foreign investment after

independence? State reasons.

Ques 4.‘Barriers on foreign trade and foreign investment were removed to a large extent in India since

1991.’ Justify the statement.

Ques 5. In recent years how our markets have been transformed? Explain with examples.

Ques 6. “Foreign trade integrates the markets in different countries.” Support the statement with arguments.

Ques 7. What do you understand by globalisation? Explain in your own words.

Ques 8. How has liberalisation of trade and investment policies helped the globalisation process?

Ques 9. What would happen if Government of India puts heavy tax on import of Chinese toys? Explain any

three points.

Ques 10. “The impact of globalisation has not been uniform.” Explain this statement.

Ques 11. Globalisation will continue in the future. Can you imagine what the world would be like twenty

years from now? Give three reasons for your answer.


Ques 1. “A wide-ranging choice of goods are available in the Indian markets.” Support the statement with

examples in context of globalisation.

Ques 2. “Globalisation and greater competition among producers has been of advantageous to consumers.”

Justify the statement with examples.

Ques 3. Explain by giving examples how Multinational Corporations (MNCs) are spreading their products in

different ways.

Ques 4. “Information and communication technology have played a major role in spreading out production of

services across countries”. Justify the statement with examples.

Ques 5. What is trade? Explain the importance of international trade.

Ques 6. How did ‘Cargill Foods’ become the largest producer of edible oils in India? Explain.

Ques 7. Why did Ford Motors want to develop Ford India as a component supplying base for its other plants

across the globe? Explain.

Ques 8. Why do developed countries want developing countries to liberalise their trade and investment? What

do you think should the developing countries demand in return?

Ques 9. What is the main aim of World Trade Organisation? Explain its functions.

Ques 10. What has been the impact of globalisation on India Economy? Explain.

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Chapter -5: Consumer Rights

Note: This chapter ‘Consumer Rights’ to be done as Project Work.

Ques 11.“Globalisation has been advantageous to both consumers as well as producers.” Support the

statement with suitable examples.

Ques 12. Explain four ways in which globalisation and pressure of competition has changed the lives of workers

substantially.

Ques 13. How is foreign trade inter-connecting the markets in different countries? Explain with examples.

Ques 14. What are the various ways in which MNCs set up, or control, production in other countries?

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Documents

QUESTION BANK FOR CLASS X - Social Science 2020-2021 …3. Question Bank History Chapter1- The Rise of Nationalism in Europe 1 4. Chapter 2- Nationalism in India 5 5. Chapter 3-The