Process Space

SNO Question Option 1

1 Which among below are the focus areas under operations maturity?

(a) Metrics culture

(b) Strong interface with COE and PE

(c) Process definition, Implementation and Compliance

(d) Recording customer complaints

(e) Conducting meetings

2 Which tool(s) is used for recording the audit findings? All of above

(a) Prolite

(b) Qsmart

(c) Wiki

(d) Remedy

3 Which function administers the six monthly IT IS business CSAT process? d

(a) Operations maturity

(b) DAG

(c) HR

(d) Finance

4 Which are the 3 phases in the transition framework? a, b, and e

(a) Planning

(b) Knowledge transfer

(c) Pilot and guided support

(d) Service operations

(e) Business relationship management

5 b

(a) Proposal

(b) Transition

(c) Formalization and Due diligence

(d) Service delivery

6 c

(a) Service operations

(b) Transition

(c) Formalization and Due diligence

(d) Service delivery

7 d

(a) Planning

(b) Pilot and guided support

All of above

Objective of this phase is to ensure Proposal terms and conditions are clearly understood by the delivery team and corresponding statement of work is agreed upon by all stakeholders’. Which phase is this?

Objective of this phase is to ensure effective transfer of all the information and knowledge required from customer/vendor to run offshore services independently by Cognizant Team. Which phase is this?

Cognizant Team starts handling tickets and circulates daily dashboard in which phase of transition?

(c) Knowledge transfer

d

(d) None of above

8 d

(a) Weekly

(b) Fortnightly

(c) Monthly

(d) Quarterly

9 The service capability of each engagement is evaluated and tracked using d

(a) Six Sigma score

(b) CSAT score

(c) Delivery maturity index

(d) Compliant register

10 a

(a) OM Quality person requires it

(b) Daily measurement triggers real-time corrective actions

(c) Because it needs to be considered for daily practice level SLA compliance score

(d) None of above

11 Which of the following statements is true for a service management plan (SMP)?

(a) Once approved the SMP is not revised.

(b) SMP requires a review whenever there are major changes.

(d) None of above

12 b

(a) Request fulfillment

(b) Release management

(c) Capacity management

(d) Incident management

13 b

(a) Availability of signed off run books or technical SOPs

(b) Daily dash board implemented

(c) KT execution as per plan.

(d) Process documents reviewed and signed-off

14 Which of the following is not an objective of problem management? c

(a) Minimize the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented

What is the frequency of the steady state phase Project management review (PMR) for large engagements?

Why is it important to daily measure the SLA/KPI performance and publish daily dashboard?

b

(c) It is necessary to update the Change Log on subsequent reviews and approvals of SMP

To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible and minimize the adverse impact on business operations is the objective of which ITIL process?

Which among the following is not an exit criterion for the Pilot and guided support phase?

(b) Preventing problems and resulting incidents

c

(c) Eliminating recurring incidents

15 What is best description of a known error? b

(a) Incident with causal analysis done

(b) A problem that has a documented root cause and a work around.

(c) Service request which has not been completed but scheduled

(d) Knowledge base with errors

16 The four stages of the Deming cycle are? a

(a) Plan-Measure-Monitor-Report

(b) Plan-check-React-Implement

(c) Plan-Do-Act-Audit

(d) Plan-Do-Check-Act

17 Which of the following is the correct sequence of activities for handling an incident? a

18 The goal of configuration management is to? b

(a) Account for all the financial assets of the organization

(c) Build service models to justify ITIL implementation

(d) Implement ITIL across the organization

19 Which among the following is not an aim of change management process? b

(a) Minimize impact of change related incidents

(c) All changes are handled in a prompt manner.

(d) All budgets and expenditure are accounted for

20 c

(a) Capacity management

(b) Supplier management

(c) Incident management

(d) Restoring normal service operations as quickly as possible and minimize the adverse impact on

(a) Identification, logging, categorization, prioritization, Initial diagnosis, Functional escalation, Investigation and diagnosis, Resolution and recovery, closure.

(b) Identification, prioritization, logging, categorization, Initial diagnosis, Functional escalation, Investigation and diagnosis, Resolution and recovery, closure.

(c) Identification, logging, Initial diagnosis, categorization, prioritization, Functional escalation, Investigation and diagnosis, Resolution and recovery, closure.

(d) Identification, Investigation, logging, categorization, Functional escalation, Prioritization, Initial diagnosis, Resolution and recovery, closure.

(b) Provide accurate information on configurations and their documentation to support all the other Service Management processes

(b) Standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of changes

Business, service and component based considerations are handled as a sub-process of which ITIL process?

(d) Change management

c

21 c



(c) Availability management


22 c


(b) Global information security (GIS)

(c) Finance

(d) HR

23 An Incident occurs when: All of the above

24 c



(c) Availability management


25 The following is not a key activity of the IT service continuity process? c

(a) Business impact analysis

(b) Risk Assessment

(c) Testing strategy

(d) Monitoring service availability

26 Service level agreement is? c

(a) The part of the contract that specifies responsibility of each party

(b) An agreement between service provider and an internal organization

(c) An agreement between service provider and an external organization

(d) An agreement between service provider and their customer

27 c

(a) Critical success factor

(b) Key performance indicator

(c) Kano model

(d) Operational level agreement

Determining the vital business functions and impact arising from IT component failure is done in which ITIL process.

Which is the team from CTS that reviews the project specific BCP requirements and tests the BCP at defined frequency?

(a) A user is unable to access a service during service hours

(b) An authorized IT staff member is unable to access a service during service hours

(c) A network segment fails and the user is not aware of any disruption to service

(d) A user contacts the Service Desk about slow performance of an application.

Determining vital business functions and designing greater level of resilience is done by?

Important metric used to actively manage and report on the process, IT service or activity is called as?

28 A root cause analysis is to be done when? c

(a) There are SLA breaches

(b) Customer escalations

(c) Customer satisfaction survey is not meeting the expectations

(d) There are non-conformances reported in internal audit cycle

(e) None of above

(f) All of above

29 DMAIC are the phases of which methodology? c

(a) Six Sigma

(b) SIPOC

(c) Service Transformation

(d) IT IS

30 ESA project creation is carried out in which phase? c

(a) Proposal

(b) Formalization and due diligence

(c) Transition

(d) Delivery management

31 The risk exposure value is a factor of which parameters listed below? a, b, and c

(a) Probability

(b) Impact

(c) Detectability

(d) Skills of delivery manager

(e) Customer location

32 The delivery maturity index for a project is a factor of which parameters listed below? b, c

(a) SLA performance

(b) Escalations

(c) Knowledge management

(d) Risk Assessment

(e) Monetary Awards from customer

33 The technology maturity index for an engagement is assessed by which function? d


(b) COE (Committee of expertise)

(c) Production engineering

(d) NSS

34 b

(a) Operational level agreement

A formally negotiated agreement to identify expectations, clarify responsibilities and facilitate communication between service provider and customer, to provide a certain level of service is called as

(b) Project plan

b

(c) Service level agreement

(d) Work Order

35 b

(a) Operational level agreement

(b) Project plan

(c) Service level agreement

(d) Work Order

36 b

(a) SLA/KPI Operational definition document

(b) PMR

(c) Heat Map report

(d) Automation maturity index

37 b

(a) Risk and escalation report

(b) Transition status report

(c) Heat Map assessment report

38 Which are the mandated training(s)/certifications in IT IS practice?

(a) Qview

(b) Six Sigma yellow belt

(c) ITIL-CCP

(d) CSQA

(e) PMP

39 Which activity takes place immediately after recording and registering an incident? Analysis and diagnosis

40 Capacity Mgt

41 Which statement best describes the role of a service desk

42 Which activity is not a service desk activity? Registering incidents

A formally negotiated agreement to identify expectations, clarify responsibilities and facilitate communication between service provider and customer, to provide a certain level of service is called as

A document which explains the formulae details, exceptions, data source etc for a metrics is called as

Which report mentions the trending of DMI/AMI and TMI across verticals and engagements?

b

Which ITIL process has the objective to monitor the IT services by maintaining a logical model of the IT infrastructure and IT services?

First point of contact for the customer

43 A service desk receives different type of calls. Which if the following is an incident?

44

45 A, b, and c only

a. To ensure there are clear release and deployment plans

b. To ensure that skills and knowledge are transferred to operations and support staff

d. To provide cost justifiable IT capacity that is matched to the needs of the business

46 The priority of an incident refers to?

47 Which of the following is not an example of a service request?

48 Incident management has a value to the business by?

Information about roll-out of a specific application

Which process is responsible for discussing reports with the customer showing whether services have met their targets?

Continual service improvement

Which of the following are the objectives of release and deployment management process?

c. To ensure there is minimal unpredicted impact on production services, operations and support

Service level agreement is The part of contract that specifies responsibility of each party

The relative importance of the incident based on impact and urgency

User calls to order a toner cartridge

Helping control infrastructure cost of adding new technology

49 Which of the following best describes the purpose of event management?

50 Change

51 Which of the following is NOT an objective of problem management?

52 Which of the following best describes a major incident?

53 Urgency

54

55 A problem management is an Proactive process

56 Which of the following tasks is a part of proactive problem management

57 When is a known error identified?

The ability to detect events, make sense of them and determine appropriate control action

An Incident or Problem for which the root cause is known and for which a temporary Work-around or a permanent alternative has been identified is called as

Minimize the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented

A complex incident which requires a root cause analysis before any workaround can be found

A measure of how long it will be until an incident, problem or change has a significant impact on the usiness is a definition of

A process to notify all stakeholders, opening a dedicated bridge and updating stakeholders on the progress, implementing decisions taken in the call, contacting COEs/SMEs if the issue is not resolved is defined in

Problem management process

Making a change to resolve a problem

When the cause of problem is known

58 Incident classification

59 Of which ITIL process are reliability, serviceability and maintainability components?

60 Resilience

61 Availability management

62 Availability management

63 How a change that must be made quickly is called? Fast change

64 What is a request to replace something within the IT infrastructure called? Replacement request

65 Request for change

66

67

68 When is a back-out plan invoked?

69 What is the first activity when implementing a release?

70 Some of the invitees for the transition kick-off meeting are VP-IT IS

71 Planning

72 a, b, and c

b. Transfer of knowledge between onshore and offshore teams

c. Obtain call/ticket history and baseline figures

What is the use of additional technical expertise in the incident management process called?

IT service continuity management

The ability of a Configuration Item or IT Service to resist Failure or to Recover quickly following a Failure is called as

Which ITIL process is responsible for determining the hardware necessary in order to support an application?

An analysis is made regarding the expansion of the customer information database. The result indicates that the mainframe disk capacity must be increased to accommodate the expected growth of the database in the foreseeable future. Which process is responsible for sharing this information on time, to make sure that the available disk space is sufficient?

What is the term used for a fully described and approved change that does not have to be evaluated by change management each time?

Which ITIL process carries out a risk analysis on the possible threats to and vulnerabilities of the IT infrastructure?

Configuration management

What does the term ‘detail level’ mean in context of the configuration management data base?

Relationship between the different configuration items

When it is found that something went wrong when building a change

Designing and building a release

Contract review, Resource/Infrastructure requirements review and set-up, establishing transition governance are carried out in which stage of the transition process?

Few activities carried out in the KT Phase of the transition are

a. Organize Quiz / Tests to evaluate the effectiveness of knowledge acquisition by the team

d. Obtain information on interfaces and handoffs with third party vendors.

a, b, and c

e. Publish daily dashboard on ticket/call handling performance.

73 Which of the following statements about a standard change is INCORRECT?

74 The three sub-processes of capacity management are:

75 Which of the following statement are correct? A only

76 The following options are considered within which process? Incident management

a. Big bang Vs phased

b. Push and Pull

c. Automated Vs manual

77 Which statement best describes a problem? One or more known errors

78 In which cases must a review take place after implementation of a change?

Change management

Which process is responsible for this?

79 An issue resulting in a financial loss to the customer or a work stopper issue is a Level 1 escalation

80 Solution database

81 The Automation Maturity index for an engagement is assessed by which function? NSS

82 PMR

A standard change is one for which the approach is pre-authorized by change management

Business, service and component capacity management

a. Problem management can support service desk by providing known errors to speed up the incident resolution.

b. Problem management provides information to service level management about the impact of changes.

If another incident of the same type occurs again

It is important for the operation of a given application that the version of the software installed on each of the computers on the network is the same.

An up-to date database containing carefully written articles of tickets which have been resolved overtime by technical specialists and which has an excellent information retrieval system (search engine), and a well designed content format and classification structure is

IT IS Projects reports the SLA compliance, Customer Complaints & any project issues, if any on a daily basis in the form of a

83 A customer-based Service Level Agreement structure includes:

84

85 1 & 2 only

(1) One Incident to one Problem

(2) One Incident to many Problems

(3) Many Incidents to one Problem

86 At what point does an Incident turn into a Problem? When it is urgent

87 The wording of SLAs and OLAs should be:

88 The process to implement SLAs comprises of the following activities in sequence:

89 Check, Plan, Do, Act

An SLA covering all Customer groups and all the services they use

Which of the following metrics is most relevant in determining the value added by Problem Management to the Service Desk?

The number of Problems raised

Within a CMDB, which relationships are most likely to exist between Incidents and Problems?

Does Problem Management depend ENTIRELY on having a mature Incident Management process in place?

Yes, because without a mature Incident Management process in place there is no reliable information available

Technically focused, so that they may be understood by IT professionals

Draft SLAs, catalogue services, review underpinning contracts and OLAs, draft SLRs, negotiate, agree SLAs

Which of the following represents the four stages of the Demming cycle in the correct order

90 One of the key objectives of Metrics group(SMG) is to

91 Baseline

92 PMR stands for Peer Management Review

93 The suggestion RCA techniques for any SLA deviation is/are Pareto Analysis ONLY

94 PE

95 1

96 IT IS QView is aligned to ITIL V3 LifeCycle 1

97 What is the RACI model used for?

98 Which are the missing Service Operation processes from the following?

1. Incident Management

2. Problem Management

3. Access Management

4?

5 ?

9 Establishing Governance is a part of which Transition Phase Knowledge Transfer

99 Infrastructure Readiness is a part of Pilot & Guided Phase 1

100 SMP stands for Service Management Plan

101 Effectiveness of Transition is measured as part of DashBoard

102 Resource Identification is a part of which Transition Phase Knowledge Transfer

103 It is equally important to understand the Customer Infrastructure during the KT Phase 1

104 OM

105 Statement

Define KPIs that reflect efficiency and effectiveness of the operations

Combination of two or more measures used to compare processes, projects, products. E.g. Productivity, Seat Utilization etc is defined as

The group that is involved in defining & maintaining the Technical procedures to run day to day activities required to support the service at an operations or procedural level is

OM facilitates productivity and automation initiatives in various deliveries along with COE and PE teams.

Documenting the roles and relationships of stakeholders in a process or activity.

Event management and Request Fulfillment

Transition CSAT survey is administered to Customer to obtain feedback on Transition by

A business agreement between organization and the customer, forming the basis for project execution.

106 1

107

108 During the Transition Phase, Risk updation is a part of 1 and 2 only

(a) Transition ScoreCard

(b) Deployment & Effectiveness ScoreCard

(c) Transition PMR

(d) Transition Workbook

109 The objective of the Change Management process is most accurately described as?

110 The Information Security Policy should be available to which groups of people?

111

112 Of which ITIL process are Reliability, Serviceability and Maintainability components?

113 The ISO standard for IT service management is ISO 20000

114 Risk

115 First call resolution % is a typical metrics for a Problem management

116 Mean time to resolve/repair is a typical metrics for a Incident management

117 Configuration items discrepancy % is a typical metrics for a Change management

118 Which of the following is NOT an agenda item in the PMR Project metrics

Contract/ SoW Should are reviewed by technical, finance and legal groups before submitting to customer.

The Agreement containing terms and conditions and description of services which may be used in absence of Master Agreement to serve as contractual documents –

Master Business Agreement

Ensuring that all changes are recorded, managed, tested and implemented in a controlled manner

Senior business managers and all IT staff

The spell check module of a word-processing software package contains a number of errors. The Development department has corrected these errors in a new version. Which process is responsible for ensuring this updated version is tested?

Configuration Management

IT Service Continuity Management

The cumulative effect of the chances of uncertain occurrences adversely affecting project objectives is a

119 Which among the following is not a KPI for service level management

120 Which among the following a NOT a parameter in the delivery maturity index? SLA performance

121 Recovery time objective

122 Change

123 Definitive software library

124 Ticket review is done because It is mandated by OM QR

125 QMS

126 Which of the following is correct with regards to organization quality objectives/

127

128 Operations Maturity group has a strong interface with; TCG and PE team

129 Quality and productivity organization structure includes: IT IS SEG

130

131 Service strategy


Number of services covered by SLAs

The total time elapsed from the time of disaster until IT infrastructure and data is recovered and project can resume operations is the

A collection of one or more changes that includes new and/or changed configuration items that are tested and then introduced into the live environment is a

Term used to describe a secure compound in which the definitive authorized versions of all software CIs are stored and protected is

What is Q view?

Exceed customer expectation

QView processes are compliant to : ISO 20000 and ITIL Framework

Proposal phase of the IT IS Process framework belongs to which ITIL process areas? Service strategy & Service design.

Formalization and Due diligence phase of IT IS Process framework belongs to which ITIL process areas?

Knowledge transfer of IT IS Process framework belongs to which ITIL process areas?


134 Resource identification is a part of which phase of Transition lifecycle? Planning Phase

135 Project Planning is done during which phase of Transition lifecycle? Planning Phase

136 CSAT is done during which phase of Transition lifecycle? Planning Phase

137 CSAT is administered during the KT phase of the Transition ? TRUE or FALSE TRUE

138 How is the transition progress tracked in an engagement D&E Scorecard

139 Daily Dashboards are initiated during Steady State

140 Audits are conducted only during steady state TRUE

141 RFP stands for Response For proposal

142 Deployment parameters in the D&E scorecard are : (i), (ii) & (iii)

(i) Governance

(ii) Customer reports

(iii) Process Documentation

(iv) CritSit Management

143 Effectiveness parameters in the D&E scorecard are : (i), (ii) & (iii)

(i) Governance

(ii) Customer reports

(iii) Process Documentation

(iv) CritSit Management

144 PMR is conducted only during steady state TRUE

145 TCG leads are not a part of Transition Governance meetings TRUE

146 Quality Representative

147 MSA stands for Major Supplier Agreement

148 LOI stands for Level Of Investigation

149 CRITSIT Management is done during which phase Deployment

150 BusinessImpact Understanding presentation is done during ? Planning Phase

Pilot and guided support of IT IS Process framework belongs to which ITIL process areas?

Preparing Transition Plan in line with SoW and obtain customer sign off is responsibility of

151 Transition Planning activities? Obtain sales handover

152 Non-disclosure agreement signed at the start of interaction with the customer TRUE

153 Input for Knowledge Transfer phase is Project plan

154 Process & Technical SOP documentation are done during? Planning Phase

155 During Knowledge Transfer first draft of SMP is prepared TRUE

156 Objective of Pilot & Guided Support phase is? start shadowing

157 What is purpose of Cognizant's Policy

158 Qview is hosted on?

159 What are the challenges related to Business and IT allignment

160 What are the challenges in Insufficient Collabration? Compliance and control

161 In which stage is the Start up audit conducted? Transition phase

162 PM/ PL

163 What are the 3 phases of Transition Phase Transition Planning

164 What does DMI stand for? Delivery Maturity Index

165 Run books contain information about: Technical Procedures

166 Transition C-Sat is conducted at the end of which phase? Due-Deligence

Provides Vision and approach

https://c20ecosystem.cognizant.com

Large teams and people issues

Which group administers the Business C-sat survey

https://c20ecosystem.cognizant.com/

167 Q-View is a : Reporting Tool

168 The ISO standard applicable for IT IS is? ISO 20000

169 RACI Stands for

170 SAG team key objective is ? Assurance

171 SEG team key objective is ? Engineering

172

Qview Process are compliant to:

173

Multi-location support

174

Which are the Short cycle Time IT service management Challenges Changing architectures

175

Why do we need Qview?

176The objective of Daily Dashboard is to? SLA Compliance

177

Proposal

178Practice level Daily dashboard is : Internal Report

179 Audit Findings are logged in ? Q-view

180

Six Sigma Initiatives are a part of : Pilot and guided Support

181 In IT IS Process framework which are the ITIL activities Proposal

Responsible, accountable, Conuslted , Infomed

ISO 20000 and ITIL Framework

Which one is people and Process challenge ?

Helps control costs and risks that can potentially damage customer relationships

Which phase has the Objective to ensure Proposal terms and conditions are clearly understood by the delivery team and corresponding statement of work is agreed upon by all stakeholders

Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Option 5

a, b and c a, b, and e 2

c and d b None of above 3

b a None of above 3

b, c and d c, d an e a, b and c 4

a c d 3

b a d 2

c b a 3

Correct Option

None of above

c b a 3

b a c 4

b a c 4

b and c d c 2

2

a d c 3

a c d 3

a b d 4

b and c d a

a b d 4

a d c 1

c b d 4

c b d 1

a d c 1

a d c 3

d b a 4

d b a 4

d b a 1

d b a 3

1 and 4 only 2 and 3 only None of the above 1

d b a 1

d b a 2

d b a 2

d b a 3

d b a f 5

d b a 4

d b a 3

b and c d and e b 2

a, b, and c b and d d and e a, b, c, and d. 5

c b a 3

c d a 2

c d a 2

c d a 2

c d a 4

c a 2

4

Classification Matching Solving and restoring 2

Change Mgt Configuration Mgt Financial Mgt 3

1

Solving a problem Applying temporary fixes 2

c a a, b and c

Primary deck of Service desk is to investigate problems

It ensures that the agreed IT service is available

It ensures that the telephone is always manned.

Relating an incident to a known error

3

Service level management Availability management 3

All of above A and c only A, c and d only 1

4

1

2

4

A notification that a new toner cartridge has been installed

A system message that a printer is not working

A request to install a new book keeping package

Business relationship management

An agreement between service provider and an internal organization

An agreement between service provider and an external supplier

An agreement between service provider and their customer

The speed with which the incident needs to be resolved

The number of staff that will be assigned to work on the incident so that it is resolved in time

The escalation path that would be followed to ensure resolution of incident

User calls because they would like a change to application functionality.

Manager submits a request for a new employee to be given access to an application

A user logs onto an internal website to download a licensed copy of software from a list of approved options.

Enabling users to resolve problems

Helping to align people and process for a delivery of service

Contributing to the reduction of impact.

1

Problem Known error Event 3

4

4

Impact Priority MTTR 1

Service desk process 2

Reactive process None of the above 3

3

1

The ability to implement monitoring tools

The ability to monitor and control the activities of technical staff

The ability to report on the successful delivery of services by checking the uptime of infrastructure services

Preventing problems and resulting incidents from happening

Eliminating recurring incidents

Restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible and minimizing adverse impact on business

An incident that requires large number of people to resolve

An incident that is so complex that the service desk takes longer than five times the normal time to log it.

The incident which has high impact on the business.

Critical situation management process

Change management process

Both reactive and proactive process

Registering frequently occurring errors

Analyzing trends Managing known errors

When the incident has been sent to problem management

When the problem is known

When the problem has been resolved.

Functional escalation Problem analysis 2

Service level management Problem management Availability management 4

Resistance Repeatability Toughness 1

Capacity management Change management 2

Capacity management Change management Security management 2

Urgent change An unplanned change Standard change 2

Request for change Request for release Service request 2

Service request Standard change Urgent change 3

Problem management Capacity management. 2

2

2

Testing a release 3

VSL DL TCG and OM team All of above 5

Knowledge transfer Pilot and guided support 1

a, b, c, d and e b and c all except e All of above. 4

Resolution and recovery of incident


IT service continuity management

The depth of database structure

The quantity of stores configuration items

The location of the Configuration item

When it is found that something went wrong when implementing a change

When it is found that something went wrong when scheduling resources

When it is found that something went wrong when testing a change.

Compiling the release schedule

Communicating and preparing the release.

a, b, c, d and e b and c all except e All of above. 4

4

1

B only Both A and B Neither of above. 1

Release management 2

3

Always Randomly 2

Network management Release management 4

Level 2 escalation Level 3 escalation. 3

Change database Configuration database 1

COE Production engineering Operations maturity 3

MetBook Daily Dashboard SLA Assessment Report 3

Each standard change is granted by the nominated authority for that change

Standard changes are usually low risk and well-understood

Standard changes are only raised using the request fulfillment process.

Supplier, service and component capacity management

Supplier, service and technology capacity management

Business, capacity, technology and component capacity management

Service asset and configuration management

A known cause of one or more disruptions

An unknown cause of one or more incidents

A known error with one or more incidents.

At the request of the person who submitted the change request


Capacity management database

4

2

2 & 3 only 1 & 3 only All of them 3

3

Never 4

3

4

Act, Plan, Do, Check Plan, Do, Check, Act Act, Check, Do, Plan 3

SLAs for each service that are Customer-focused and written in business language

An SLA for each service type, covering all those Customer groups that use that Service

An SLA with each individual Customer group, covering all of the services they use

The number of Known Errors identified

The number of Problems correctly categorized

The number of RFCs raised

No, because the quality of Incident Management information is of little importance to proactive Problem Management

No, because progress can still be made on solving long-standing Problems

Yes, because trend analysis cannot be undertaken without a lot of accurate Incident Management information

When it is a Major Incident If the person reporting the incident is very senior

A mixture of business, technical and legal language, so that they can be understood by everyone

Clear and concise, leaving no room for ambiguity.

Legally worded as they must be contractually binding

Draft SLAs, review underpinning contracts and OLAs, negotiate, catalogue services,

Review underpinning contracts and OLAs, draft SLAs, catalogue services, negotiate, agree SLAs

Catalogue services, establish SLRs, review underpinning contracts and OLAs, negotiate service levels, agree SLAs

Define & Maintain 1

Metrics Request Measure 2

Project Metrics Review 3

FishBone Diagram ONLY SIP 2

OM TCG PE, OM & TCG 3

0 1

0 1

1

1

Steady State Planning Pilot & Guided Phase 3

0 2

1

MetBook Transition WorkBook D&E ScoreCard 4

Steady State Planning Pilot & Guided Phase 3

0 1

Transition Manager PE COE 2

Contract Clause Letter 2

Identify opportunities for Service Improvement

Drive Six Sigma & Lean Projects

Performance Management Review

Project Management Review

Pareto Analysis & FishBone Diagram

Defining requirements for a new service or process

Analyzing the business impact of an incident

Creating a balanced scorecard showing the overall status of Service Management.

Event Management and Service Desk

Facilities Management and Event Management

Change Management and Service Level Management.

Service Management Process

Software Management Process

Service Management Project

0 1

Master Service Agreement Statement of Work Letter of Intent 4

4

1

3

4

Problem Management Availability Management 4

ISO 9000 ISO 14000 ISO 9004 1

Issue Problems Concerns 1

Service desk Change management Access management 2

Change management Capacity management Availability management 1

Availability management Incident management 2

Profitability Service improvements 4

2 only 1, 2 and 3 only All of the above.

Ensuring that changes to IT infrastructure are managed efficiently and effectively

Ensuring that all changes have appropriate back-out plans in the event of failure

Protecting services by not allowing changes to be made.

Senior business managers, IT executives and the Security Manager

All customers, users and IT staff

Information Security Management staff only.

Incident Management Problem Management Release Management.

Service Level Management


Organization BES survey compliance

4

Knowledge management Ticket creation automation 3

Recovery point objective BCP Objective. 1

Release Incident Request. 2

Definitive hardware stores CMDB 1

It is a template in qview 3

A template Process A document 1

All of the above 4

ISO 9001 : 2000 All of the above 4

Vertical and horizontals Third party vendors 1

IT IS SAG IT IS SMG All of the above 4

1

Service design Service transition Service Operations 2


Number of SLAs where the agreed service levels are fulfilled

Number of Services where SLAs are backed up by corresponding OLAs/ UCs

Number of resources which have cleared ITIL v3.

Risk management

SKMS (Service knowledge management system).

To verify if the incident classification/resolution process is followed as per guidelines.

Meet specific product quality requirements.

Delivered within the budgeted cost.

CMMI Level 5 ver 1.2 and ISO 27001 (Security processes)

Service design and Service Transition

Service Transition & Service operations

Service strategy & Service Operation


KT All of the above 1



0 2

Weekly report Transition PMR Transition Governance 1

KT phase Project planning phase Pilot & Guided Support 4

0 2

Request for Proposal Request for policy Request for project 2

(ii) & (iii) (i) & (iii) All of the above 3

(ii) & (iii) (ii) & (iv) All of the above 3

0 2

0 1

Delivery Lead Transition Manager Operations Manager 3

Master Service Agreement 2

Letter Of Intent Line Of Initiation Letter Of Investigation 2

Effectiveness 2


Pilot & Guided Support Phase



Management Supplier Agreement

Master Supplier Agreement


Contract review All of the above 4

0 1

Transition Plan SOW All of the above 2


0 1

All of the above 4

Tells us how to do Provides tools, format all the above 1

3

Changing architectures Weak Tool support 2

Compliance and control None of the above 4

Service Initiation phase None of the above 2

Service Desk OM Third - Party None of the above 3

Knowledge Transfer Pilot & guided Support Option 1 and 2 above All of the above 4

Delivery Monthly Index Delivery Monitory Index Delivery Monthly Indicator 1

BCP Guidelines Transition Process Ticket Status 1

Pilot and guided Support Steady State operations After 1st Audit 2

Resource and transition planning


ram up providing support to customer

Measuring, tracking & reporting of SLAs & KPIs

Tells us what to do

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Convergence of strategy, governance and management

Measuring IT in business value outcomes

Large teams and people issues

Steady state Operation Phase

Continous Improvement Phase

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Feedback Tool Audit Tracker 3

ISO 9000 ISO 14000 ISO 9004 1

1

Audit Accountable 1

Effectiveness Enabling 1

ISO 9001 : 2000 CMMI Level 5 ver 1.2 ISO 27001 All of the above

4

Multi-location support

1

Communication Option 1 and 2 above All of the above

3

Option 1 and 3 above All of the above

4

Customer Complaints SIP's Option 1 and 2 above Option 1 and 3 above4

Due Diligence Transition Knowledge Transfer Pilot and Guided support

2

Customer Report None of the above1

Q-smart Audit Tracker Daily Dashboard 2

Steady State Operations Customer Relationship Mgmt

2

Service Support Service Delivery Business Relationship Mgm Option 2 and 3 above 5

Process Document Repository

Responsible, auditable, Conuslted , Infomed

Review, auditable, Conuslted , Infomed

Review,accountable, Conuslted , Infomed

Faster time to resolve incidents

Balancing stability v. responsiveness

Balancing stability v. responsiveness

Set of industry best practices to increase the likelihood of achieving service excellence

Based on ITIL Framework and ISO 20000

Continous Improvement Process

Documents

Process Space