PRE-MEDICAL : LEADER COURSEthephenol.com/images/download802512345_compressed.pdf · Test Type : MAJOR Test Pattern : NEET(UG) TEST DATE : 16 - 04 - 2019 TEST SYLLABUS : FULL SYLLABUS

Test Type : MAJOR Test Pattern : NEET(UG)

TEST DATE : 16 - 04 - 2019

TEST SYLLABUS : FULL SYLLABUS

Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to [email protected] within 2 days along with Paper code and YourForm No.

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1. Ëhuf Mkex Ãkh Reg. No. {kfo fhu÷ Au su rðãkÚkeo™u ykÃku÷ Au. rðãkÚkeoyu íkuLkk No. Check fheLku yu s Mkex Ãkh çkuMkðw.

òu rðãkÚkeo fkuE çkeS Mkex Ãkh çkuMku÷ku nþu íkku íkuLku Exam {ktÚke çknkh fkZe {wfðk{kt ykðþu.

2. «&™ÃkºkLkku fw÷ Mk{Þ 3.00 f÷kf Au. «&™Ãkºk{kt fw÷ 180 «&™ku Au, fw÷ økwý 720 Au.

3. rðãkÚkeoykuLku log tables yLku calculators WÃkÞkuøk fhðkLke {LkkE Au.

4. rðãkÚkeoyu Ãkheûkk Ëhr{ÞkLk fuLÿLkk yrÄfkhe yÚkðk rLkrhûkf îkhk ykÃkðk{kt ykðíke Mkw[LkkLkwt Ãkk÷Lk fhðwt.

5. sðkçk ÷ÏÞk Ãknu÷k «&™ ÃkºkLkk çkÄk s ÃkkLkk íkÃkkMke ÷uðk íku{s fkuE «&™ AÃkkÞk rðLkkLkku Au fu Lknª íkuLke [fkMkýe fhðe.

6. Ëhuf Mkk[k sðkçku 4 økwý «kó Úkþu ßÞkhu Ëhuf ¾kuxkt sðkçku 1 økwý ykuAkt Úkþu. ykÚke sðkçkLke Äkhýk fhðe nkrLkfkhf ÚkEþfu.

7. W¥khðne{kt sðkçk ¼hðk {kxu ¼qhe/fk¤e þkneLkku WÃkÞkuøk fhðku. íkuLkk rðfÕÃk ÃkhLkk ðíkwo¤Lku ÃkuLkÚke Ãkqýo ½è fhðkLkwt hnuþu.

8. Pencil WÃkÞkuøkLke {LkkE Au.

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2019

ßÞkt MkwÄe Mkw[Lkk ykÃkðk{kt Lk ykðu íÞkt MkwÄe «&™Ãkºk ¾ku÷ðwt Lknª.

Important Instructions

PRE-MEDICAL : LEADER COURSE

In case of any ambiguity in translation of any question, English version shall be treated as final.

Form Number :

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME(Academic Session : 2018 - 2019)E

nglis

h PAPER CODE : 3002CM347318015

Enthusiast & Leader Course/16-04-2019

1/35ADI/3002CM347318015

1. The temperature of two bodies measuredby a thermometer are t1 = 20 ºC + 0.5 ºC andt2 = 50ºC + 0.5 ºC. The temperature difference

and the error there in is.

(1) 30ºC + 1ºC (2) 70ºC + 0.5ºC

(3) 30ºC + 0.5ºC (4) 70ºC + 1ºC

2. A bar of cross-sectional area A is subjected twoequal and opposite tensile forces at its ends as

shown in figure. Consider a plane BB' makingan angle with the length.

The ratio of tensile stress to the shearing stresson the plane BB' is :

(1) tan (2) sec (3) cot (4) cos

3. A charge q is placed at the centre of cubical boxof side a with top open. The flux of the electricfield through one of the surface of the cubical

box is :-

(1) zero (2) q/ 0

(3) q/6 0 (4) 5q/6 0

4. Find out velocity of image of given object :-

object

30 cm

V =4cm/sec0f = 10 cm

V = 2cm/secL

(1) 4 cm/sec.

(2) 2.5 cm/sec.

(3) 6 cm/sec.

(4) None of the above

5. In young's double-slit experiment, the intensityat a point is (1/4) of the maximum intensity.

Angular position of this point is -

(1) sin–1 ( /d) (2) sin–1 ( /2d)

(3) sin–1 ( /3d) (4) sin–1 ( /4d)

1. çku ÃkËkÚkkuoLkk íkkÃk{kLkLku {kÃkíkk t1 = 20 ºC + 0.5 ºC yLkut2 = 50ºC + 0.5 ºC. òuðk {¤u Au íkku íkkÃk{kLkLkku íkVkðíkyLku íku {kÃkLk{kt ºkwxe þkuÄku.(1) 30ºC + 1ºC (2) 70ºC + 0.5ºC

(3) 30ºC + 0.5ºC (4) 70ºC + 1ºC

2. A ykzAuËLkwt ûkuºkV¤ Ähkðíkku xqfzku çku Mk{kLk yLku rðYØrËþk{kt íkýkðçk¤Lke yMkh nuX¤ ykf]rík{kt ËþkoÔÞk {wsçk÷køku Au. BB' Mk{ík÷ íkuLke ÷tçkkE MkkÚku ¾qýku çkLkkðu Au.íkku BB' Mk{ík÷ Ãkh íkýkð-«ríkçk¤ yLku ykfkh-«ríkçk¤ðå[uLkku økwýku¥kh þkuÄku.

(1) tan (2) sec

(3) cot (4) cos

3. yuf rðs¼kh q Lku ‘a’ çkksw Ähkðíkk xku[Úke ¾wÕ÷k nkuÞ íkuðkMk{½Lk çkkuõMkLkk fuLÿ Ãkh {qfu÷ Au. Mk{½Lk çkkuõMkLke fkuEMkÃkkxeLku ÷eÄu {¤íkwt rðãwík ûkuºkLkwt V÷õMk ....... Au.(1) þqLÞ (2) q/ 0

(3) q/6 0 (4) 5q/6 0

4. ykÃku÷ ðMíkwLkk «rík®çkçkLkku ðuøk þkuÄku ?

object

30 cm

V =4cm/sec0f = 10 cm

V = 2cm/secL

(1) 4 cm/sec.

(2) 2.5 cm/sec.

(3) 6 cm/sec.

(4) yufÃký Lkrn5. ÞtºkLkk çku ÂM÷xLkk «Þkuøk{kt yuf ®çkËwyu íkeðúíkk {n¥k{

íkeðúíkkLkk (1/4) ¼køkLke Au. ®çkËwyu fkuýeÞ MÚkkLk ..... Au.(1) sin–1 ( /d) (2) sin–1 ( /2d)

(3) sin–1 ( /3d) (4) sin–1 ( /4d)

BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING

HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS

ADI/3002CM3473180152/35

Target : Pre-Medical 2019/Major/16-04-2019

6. A polaroid is placed at 45° to an incoming light

of intensity I0. Now the intensity of light passing

through the polaroid after polarisation would be-

(1) I0 (2) I0/2 (3) I0/4 (4) zero

7. Suppose a current carrying wire has a cross-

sectional area that, gradually become smaller

along the wire, has the shape of a very long cone

as shown in figure. Choose the correct statement

A B

(1) Electric current is different in different

portions of wire.

(2) Electric field at point A is same as that of point

B.

(3) Drift speed of electrons at point A is lesser

than that of at point B.

(4) Drift speed of electrons at point A is same

as that of at point B.

8. The de-Broglie wavelength of the electron in

the ground state of the hydrogen atom

is____(radius of the first orbit of hydrogen

atom = 0.53Å) :-

(1) 1.67 Å (2) 3.33 Å

(3) 1.06 Å (4) 0.53 Å

9. Two stars of masses m1 and m2 are parts of a

binary star system. The radii of their orbits are

r1 and r2 respectively, measured from the centre

of mass of the system. The magnitude of

gravitational force m1 exerts on m2 is :

(1) 1 2

21 2

m m Gr r (2)

12

1 2

m Gr r

(3)2

21 2

m Gr r (4)

1 22

1 2

G m mr r

6. yuf Ãkku÷uhkuRzLku I0 íkeðúíkk Ähkðíkk «ðuþíkk «fkþÚke 45°

Lkk ¾qýu hk¾u÷ Au nðu Ãkku÷hkEÍuþLk (Äúwðe¼ðLk) çkkËÃkku÷uhkuEz{ktÚke ÃkMkkh Úkíkk «fkþLke íkeðúíkk ....... nþu.

(1) I0 (2) I0/2 (3) I0/4 (4) þqLÞ

7. Äkhku fu yuf rðãwík«ðkn Äkheík íkkhLkk ykzAuËLkwt ûkuºkV¤ ÄehuÄehu íkkhLke MkkÃkuûku LkkLkwt çkLkíkwt òÞ Au. ykf]rík{kt ËþkoÔÞk{qsçk íkuLkku ykfkh ÷ktçkk þtfw suðku Au Mkk[wt ðkõÞ ÃkMktË fhku:-

A B

(1) rðãwík «ðkn íkkhLkk swËk swËk ¼køk{kt swËku nkuÞ Au.

(2) A ®çkËwyu rðãwíkûkuºk B ®çkËw yu rðãwík ûkuºkLku Mk{kLk Au.

(3) A ®çkËw yu E÷uõxÙkuLkLke rzÙ̂ x ÍzÃk yu B ®çkËw fhíkk ykuAe Au.

(4) A ®çkËwyu E÷uõxÙkuLkLke rzÙ^x ÍzÃk yu B ®çkËw yu rzÙ^xÍzÃk sux÷e Au.

8. nkEzÙkusLk Ãkh{kýwLke ÄhkðMÚkk{kt E÷uõxÙkuLkLke Ë-çkúkuø÷eíkhtøk÷tçkkE ....... Au. (nkEzÙkusLk Ãkh{kýwLke «Úk{ fûkkLkerºkßÞk = 0.53Å) :-

(1) 1.67 Å (2) 3.33 Å

(3) 1.06 Å (4) 0.53 Å

9. m1 yLku m2 Ë¤Lkk çku íkkhkyku yu çkkÞLkhe Mxkh MkeMx{Lkk¼køkku Au íkuLke fûkkykuLke rºkßÞk yLkw¢{u r1 yLku r2 Au.(rºkßÞk ÿÔÞ{kLk fuLÿÚke {kÃku÷ Au.) m2 Ãkh m1 îkhk ÷køkíkwøkwYíðkf»koý çk¤Lkwt {qÕÞ ........ Au.

(1)1 2

21 2

m m Gr r (2)

12

1 2

m Gr r

(3)2

21 2

m Gr r (4)

1 22

1 2

G m mr r


3/35ADI/3002CM347318015

10. The following configuration of gate is

equivalent to :-

(1) NAND (2) XOR

(3) OR (4) None of these

11. A particle moving with a uniform accelerationtravels 24 m and 64 m in the first two consecutiveintervals of 4 sec each. Its initial velocity is

(1) 1 m / sec. (2) 10 m /sec

(3) 5 m /sec (4) 2 m /sec

12. A block of mass m = 0.1 kg is released from a

height of 4 m on a curved smooth surface. On

the horizontal surface, path AB is smooth and

path BC offers coefficient of friction µ = 0.1. If

the impact of block with the vertical wall at C

be perfectely elastic, the total distance covered

by the block on the horizontal surface before

coming to rest will be (take g = 10 ms–2)

A B C

2m1m

4m

(1) 29 m (2) 49 m

(3) 59 m (4) 109 m

13. Find the potential difference (Va – Vb) between

a and b in the given circuit

c6V

5

ba3A

3V2A

1A

5V

(1) 14 V (2) 17 V (3) 12 V (4) –14V

10. Lke[u ykÃku÷ økuxLkku ÃkheÃkÚk ...... Lku Mk{kLk Au.

(1) NAND (2) XOR

(3) OR (4) yuf Ãký Lkrn

11. fý rLkÞr{ík «ðuøkÚke 4 MkufLzLkk çku ¢r{f ytíkhk÷{kt yLkw¢{u24 m yLku 64 m ytíkh fkÃku Au. íkku «khtr¼f ðuøk þwt ÚkkÞ ?

(1) 1 m / sec. (2) 10 m /sec

(3) 5 m /sec (4) 2 m /sec

12. m = 0.1 kg Ë¤ Ähkðíkk ç÷kufLku 4 m Ÿ[k ÷eMkk ð¢{køko ÃkhÚke Akuzðk{kt ykðu Au. Mk{rûkríks MkÃkkxe Ãkh AB

{køko ÷eMkku Au. íkÚkk BC {køkoLkku ½»koýktf µ = 0.1 Au.òu C ykøk¤ rþhku÷tçk rËðk÷ MkkÚkuLkku Mkt½kík MktÃkqýo ÂMÚkríkMÚkkÃkf nkuÞ, íkku Mk{rûkríks MkÃkkxe Ãkh ç÷kuf ÂMÚkh ÂMÚkrík{ktykðu íku Ãknu÷kt fkÃku÷ fw÷ ytíkh þwt ÚkkÞ ?(g = 10 ms–2)

A B C

2m1m

4m

(1) 29 m (2) 49 m

(3) 59 m (4) 109 m

13. ykÃku÷ ÃkrhÃkÚk{kt a y™u b ðå[uLkku ðesÂMÚkrík{kLkLkku íkVkðík(Va – Vb) þkuÄku.

c6V

5

ba3A

3V2A

1A

5V

(1) 14 V (2) 17 V (3) 12 V (4) –14V

ADI/3002CM3473180154/35


14. The v – t graph of a rectilinear motion is shownin adjoining figure. The distance from startingpoint after 8 seconds is :-

1 3t(s)

4 5 7 8

4

2

0

2

V(m

s)

–1

(1) 18 metre (2) 12 metre


15. A sphere of solid material of relative density9 has a concentric spherical cavity and floatshaving just sinked in water. If the radius of thesphere be R, then the radius of the cavity (r)will be related to R as :-

(1) 3 38r R

9(2) 3 32

r R3

(3) 3 38r R

3(4) 3 32

r R3

16. Magnetic field at point 'P' of given currentdistribution is :-

2IP

2aa

I

(1) 0I2 a

(2) 0I8 a

(3) 0I2 a

(4) zero

17. A conducting angle abc carries a current 5Athen magnetic force on wire bc is ;-

(1) 0.75 N

(2) 2N 5 cmB = 3T

6 cma

b

c(3) 0.1 N

(4) 1N

18. A bar magnet of magnetic moment 1.5 A× m2

lies aligned with the direction of a uniformmagnetic field of 2 Tesla. What is the amount

of work required to turn the magnet so as to

align its magnetic moment normal to the field

direction –

(1) Zero (2) 3J (3) 6J (4) 4.5J

14. ykÃku÷ ykf]rík{kt fýLke hu¾eÞ økrík {kxu v – t yk÷u¾Ëþkoðu÷ Au. íkku «khtr¼f ®çkËwÚke 8 MkufLz ÃkAeLkwt ytíkh þkuÄku.

1 3t(s)

4 5 7 8

4

2

0

2

V(m

s)

–1



15. ½Lk ÿÔÞLkku økku¤ku suLke MkkÃkuûk ½Lkíkk 9 Au y™u íkuLke ytËhMk{fuLÿeÞ økku¤eÞ Ãkku÷ký ykðu÷ Au. ykÚke íku MktÃkqýo zqçku÷eAu. yuðe heíku Ãkkýe{kt íkhu Au. òu økku¤kLke rºkßÞk R y™uÃkku÷kýLke rºkßÞk (r) nkuÞ, íkku r y™u R ðå[uLkku MktçktÄ þwtÚkkÞ :-

(1) 3 38r R

9(2) 3 32

r R3

(3) 3 38r R

3(4) 3 32

r R3

16. ykÃku÷ rðãwík«ðkn rðíkhý {kxu 'P' ®çkËw ÃkkMku [wtçkfeÞ ûkuºkþwt ÚkkÞ ?

2IP

2aa

I

(1) 0I2 a

(2) 0I8 a

(3) 0I2 a

(4) þqLÞ

17. yuf ðknf íkkh{kt fkuý abc {kt 5A «ðkn ðnu Au íkku íkkhbc Ãkh ÷køkíkwt [wtçkfeÞ çk¤ þkuÄku.(1) 0.75 N

(2) 2N 5 cm

B = 3T

6 cma

b

c(3) 0.1 N

(4) 1N

18. yuf økrsÞku [wtçkf suLke {uøLkuxef {ku{uLx 1.5 A× m2 Au.su 2 Tesla sux÷k rLkÞr{ík [wtçkfeÞ ûkuºkLke rËþk{kt hnu÷Au. [wtçkfLkk [wtçkfeÞ {ku{uLxLku [wtçkfeÞ ûkuºkLku ÷tçk fhðk {kxufux÷k fkÞoLke sYh Ãkzþu ?(1) þqLÞ (2) 3J (3) 6J (4) 4.5J


5/35ADI/3002CM347318015

19. An ideal coil of 10H is connected in series witha resistance of 5 and a battery of 5V. 2s afterthe connection is made, the current flowing (inampere) in circuit is :-

(1) (1 – e) (2) e

(3) e–1 (4) (1 – e–1)

20. Three photo diode D1, D2 and D3 are made ofsemiconductors having band gap of 2eV,2.5eV and 3eV respectively. Which one will beable to detect light of wavelength 4800 Å ?

(1) D1 (2) D2

(3) D3 (4) D1 and D2 both

21. The velocity of the particle at any time t is given

by

v = 2t (3–t) m s–1

At what time is its velocity maximum ?

(1) 2 s (2) 3 s (3) 23

s (4) 32

s

22. The torque acting on the wheel about centre is

F = 3N1

1m2m 2N

(1) 5N-m (2) 6 N-m (3) 8 N-m (4) 4 N-m

23. Two small conducting spheres of equal radiushave charges + 10 C and –20 C respectivelyand placed at a distance R from each otherexperience force F1. If they are brought incontact and separated to the same distance, theyexperience force F2. The ratio of F1 to F2 is :-

(1) 1 : 8 (2) –8 : 1 (3) 1 : 2 (4) –2 : 1

24. A rod of length L has a total charge Qdistributed uniformly along its length. It is bentin the shape of a semicircle. Find themagnitude of the electric field at the centre ofcurvature of the semicircle.

(1) Q/2 0L2 (2) Q/ 0L

2

(3) 20

2QL (4) Zero

19. 10H Lkwt ykËþo økwt[¤wt 5 Lkk yðhkuÄ y™u 5V Lke çkuxheMkkÚku ©uýe{kt òuzu÷ Au. òuzký ÚkÞk ÃkAe 2s çkkË ÃkheÃkÚk{ktÃkMkkh Úkíkku «ðkn yuÂBÃkÞh{kt þwt Úkþu ?(1) (1 – e) (2) e

(3) e–1 (4) (1 – e–1)

20. ºký Vkuxku zkÞkuz D1, D2 yLku D3 fu su yÄoðknf{ktÚke çkLku÷kAu. íkuyku yLkw¢{u 2eV, 2.5eV y™u 3eV sux÷e çkuLz økuÃkÄhkðu Au. Lke[uLkk{ktÚke fÞku zkÞkuz 4800 Å íkhtøk÷tçkkELkk«fkþLku Ãkkh¾e þfþu ?(1) D1 (2) D2

(3) D3 (4) D1 yLku D2 çktLku21. fkuE Mk{Þ t {kxu fýLkku ðuøk v = 2t (3–t) m s–1 ðzu ykÃke

þfkÞ Au. fÞk Mk{Þu ðuøk {n¥k{ Úkþu ?(1) 2 s (2) 3 s

(3) 23

s (4) 32

s

22. fuLÿLku yLkw÷ûkeLku Ône÷ Ãkh ÷køkíkwt xkufo þkuÄku.F = 3N1

1m2m 2N

(1) 5N-m (2) 6 N-m

(3) 8 N-m (4) 4 N-m

23. Mk{kLk rºkßÞk Ähkðíkkt çku LkkLkk t ðknf økku¤kyku yLkw¢{u+ 10 C yLku –20 C rðãwík¼kh Ähkðu Au. ík u{Lk uyufçkeòÚke R ytíkhu {qfíkkt F1 çk¤ yLkw¼ðu Au. òu íku{LkuMktÃkfo{kt ÷kðeLku VheÚke Mk{kLk ytíkhu {qfðk{kt ykðu, íkku F2

çk¤ yLkw¼ðu Au. íkku F1 yLku F2 Lkku økwýku¥kh þwt Úkþu ?(1) 1 : 8 (2) –8 : 1 (3) 1 : 2 (4) –2 : 1

24. L ÷tçkkELkk Mkr¤Þk Ãkh fw÷ rðãwík¼kh Q rLkÞr{ík heíku íkuLke÷tçkkE Ãkh rðíkheík ÚkÞu÷ku Au. íkuLku yÄoðíkw o¤ ykfkh{ktðk¤ðk{kt ykðu Au. yÄoðíkwo¤Lkk ð¢Lkk fuLÿ ykøk¤ rðãwíkûkuºkLkwt{qÕÞ þkuÄku.(1) Q/2 0L

2 (2) Q/ 0L2

(3) 20

2QL (4) þqLÞ

ADI/3002CM3473180156/35


25. A ball of thermal capacity 10 cal/°C is heated

to the temperature of furnace. It is then

transferred into a vessel containing water. The

water equivalent of vessel and the contents is

200 gm. The temperature of the vessel and its

contents rises from 10°C to 40°C. What is the

temperature of furnace?

(1) 640°C (2) 64°C

(3) 600°C (4) 100°C

26. If an A.C. main supply is given to be 220 V.

What would be the average e.m.f. during a

positive half cycle :-

(1) 198 V (2) 386 V

(3) 256 V (4) None of these

27. In YDSE with two identical slits when upper

slit is covered with a transparent sheet of mica

second order minima is observed above the

centre of the screen and second order maxima

below it. Which of the following can not be

possible value of phase difference caused by

the mica sheet :-

(1) 3

(2) 72

(3) 10

3(4)

113

28. Five equal resistances each of resistance R are

connected as shown in the Figure. A battery

of voltage V is connected between A and

B.The current flowing in AFCEB will be

(1) VR

A B

C

D E

R

R

RR R

F

(2) V

2R

(3) 2VR

(4) 3VR

25. 10 cal/°C W»{kÄkrhíkk Ähkðíkkt ËzkLku VLkuoMkLkk íkkÃk{kLkMkwÄe økh{ fhðk{kt ykðu Au. nðu íkuLku Ãkkýe ¼hu÷k Ãkkºk{kt{qfðk{kt ykðu Au. Ãkkºk yLku ÿÔÞLkku s÷íkwÕÞktf 200 gm

Au. nðu Ãkkºk yLku ÿÔÞLkwt íkkÃk{kLk 10°C Úke 40°C MkwÄe ðÄuAu. íkku VLkuoMkLkwt íkkÃk{kLk þwt Úkþu ?

(1) 640°C (2) 64°C

(3) 600°C (4) 100°C

26. òu A.C. Lkku {wÏÞ MkÃ÷kÞ 220 V nkuÞ, íkku ÄLk yÄo [¢Ëhr{ÞkLk Mkhuhkþ e.m.f. þwt Úkþu ?

(1) 198 V (2) 386 V

(3) 256 V (4) yufÃký Lknª

27. YDSE {kt çku Mk{kLk ÂM÷x{kt ßÞkhu WÃkhLke ÂM÷xLku ÃkkhËþofmica þexÚke Zktfðk{kt ykðu íkku rîíkeÞ LÞqLk¥k{ ÃkzËkLkkfuLÿÚke WÃkh yLku rîíkeÞ yrÄfík{ íkuLke Lke[u h[kÞ Au. mica

þex ðzu Lke[uLkk{ktÚke f¤k íkVkðíkLkwt fÞwt {qÕÞ þõÞ LkÚke ?

(1) 3

(2) 72

(3) 10

3(4)

113

28. R yðhkuÄ Ähkðíkkt Ãkk t[ Mk{kLk yðhkuÄkuLku ykf]rík {wsçkËþkoðu÷ Au. V ðkuÕxLke çkuxheLku A yLku B ðå[u òuzðk{kt ykðuAu. íkku AFCEB {kt ÃkMkkh Úkíkku «ðkn þwt Úkþu ?

(1) VR

A B

C

D E

R

R

RR R

F

(2) V

2R

(3) 2VR

(4) 3VR


7/35ADI/3002CM347318015

29. A particle starts from the point (0, 8m) and

moves with uniform velocity of ˆ3i m/s. After

2 seconds, the angular speed of the particle

about the origin will be :-

(1) 325

rad/s (2) 625

rad/s

(3) 1225

rad/s (4) 3

50 rad/s

30. An astronomical object is moving with such a

speed that red shift of 1nm is observed in

wavelength of 600 nm received from it, the

speed of object is :-

(1) 5 × 105 m/s (2) 4 × 105 m/s

(3) 3 × 105 m/s (4) 2 × 105 m/s

31. The ratio of the wavelength for 2 1 transitionin Li++, He+ and H is :-

(1) 1 : 2 : 3 (2) 1 : 4 : 9(3) 4 : 9 : 36 (4) 3 : 2 : 1

32. Fast neutrons can easily be slowed down by :-

(1) The use of lead shielding

(2) Passing them through heavy water

(3) Elastic collisions with heavy nuclei

(4) Applying a strong electric field.

33. Three liquids of densities 1, 2 and 3

(with 1 > 2 > 3), having the same value of

surface tension T, rise to the same height in

three identical capillaries. The angles of contact

1, 2 and 3 obey:-

(1) 1 2 32

(2) 1 2 3 2

(3) 1 2 3 02

(4) 1 2 302

29. (0, 8m) ®çkËwÚke fý ˆ3i m/s Lkk rLkÞr{ík ðuøkÚke økrík þY

fhu Au. 2 MkufLz ÃkAe, Wøk{®çkËwLku yLkw÷ûkeLku fýLke fkuýeÞ

ÍzÃk þwt Úkþu ?

(1) 325

rad/s (2) 625

rad/s

(3) 1225

rad/s (4) 3

50 rad/s

30. yuMxÙkuLkkur{f÷ ykìçsuõx yux÷e ÍzÃkÚke økrík fhu Au, suÚke

íku{ktÚke {¤íke 600 nm Lke íkhtøk÷tçkkE{kt 1 nm sux÷e

huzrþ^x òuðk {¤u Au. íkku ykìçsuõxLke ÍzÃk þwt nþu ?

(1) 5 × 105 m/s (2) 4 × 105 m/s

(3) 3 × 105 m/s (4) 2 × 105 m/s

31. Li++, He+ yLku H {kt 2 1 Mkt¢ktrík {kxu íkhtøk÷tçkkELkkuøkwýku¥kh þwt Úkþu ?(1) 1 : 2 : 3 (2) 1 : 4 : 9(3) 4 : 9 : 36 (4) 3 : 2 : 1

32. ÍzÃke LÞqxÙkuLk fkuLkk ðzu Mkh¤íkkÚke Äe{k Ãkkze þfkÞ Au ?(1) ÷ez (lead) rþÕzªøkLkk WÃkÞkuøkÚke(2) ¼khu Ãkkýe{ktÚke ÃkMkkh fhe(3) ¼khu LÞqÂõ÷ÞMk òuzu ÂMÚkríkMÚkkÃkf Mkt½kíkÚke(4) «çk¤ rðãwíkûkuºk ykÃkeLku

33. 1, 2 yLku 3 ½Lkíkkyku Ähkðíkk ( 1 > 2 > 3) «ðkneyku

Mk{kLk Ãk]cíkký T yLku Mk{kLk ºký fuþLk¤e{kt Mk{kLk Ÿ[kE

Ãkh Au. íkku MktÃkfofkuý 1, 2 yLku 3 þwt Úkþu ?

(1) 1 2 32

(2) 1 2 3 2

(3) 1 2 3 02

(4) 1 2 302

ADI/3002CM3473180158/35


34. Given ˆ ˆA 4i 6 j and ˆ ˆB 2i 3 j which of the

following is correct :-

(1) A B 0

(2) A B 24

(3) A 1

2B

(4) A and B are antiparallel

35. A wave y = asin( t – kx) on a string meetswith another wave producing a node at x =0. Then the equation of the unknown waveis-

(1) y = asin( t + kx)

(2) y = – asin( t + kx)

(3) y = asin( t – kx)

(4) y = – asin( t – kx)

36. Length of a string tied to two rigid supportsis 40 cm. Maximum length (wavelength in cm)of a stationary wave produced on it, is-

(1) 20 (2) 80 (3) 40 (4) 120

37. An observer moves towards a stationarysource of sound, with a velocity one-fifth ofthe velocity of sound. what is the percentageincrease in the apparent frequency ?

(1) zero (2) 0.5%

(3) 5% (4) 20%

38. Figure shows elliptical orbit of a planet P aboutthe sun S.

SA

BP

C

D

The shaded area SCD is twice the shaded areaSAB. If t1 is the time for the planet to movefrom C to D and t2 is the time to move fromA to B, then

(1) t1 = t2 (2) t1 = 2t2

(3) t1 = 4t2 (4) t1 > t2

34. ˆ ˆA 4i 6 j yLku ˆ ˆB 2i 3 j ykÃku÷ Au íkku Lke[uLkk{ktÚkefÞwt rðÄkLk Mkk[wt Au :-

(1) A B 0

(2) A B 24

(3) A 1

2B

(4) A ByLku «ríkMk{ktíkh nkuÞ

35. Ëkuhe ÃkhLkwt íkhtøk y = asin( t – kx) yLÞ íkhtøk MkkÚku{¤u Au suÚke x = 0 Ãkh rLkMÃktË ®çkËw {¤u. íkku yòÛÞk íkhtøkLkwtMk{efhý þkuÄku.(1) y = asin( t + kx)

(2) y = – asin( t + kx)

(3) y = asin( t – kx)

(4) y = – asin( t – kx)

36. çku áZ ykÄkh MkkÚku çkktÄu÷ ËkuheLke ÷tçkkE 40 cm Au. íkkuíku Ëkuhe{kt ÂMÚkík íkhtøkku îkhk WíÃkLLk fhe þfkíke {n¥k{íkhtøk ÷tçkkE cm {kt .......... ÚkkÞ.(1) 20 (2) 80

(3) 40 (4) 120

37. ©kuíkk ÂMÚkh æðrLk WËTøk{ íkhV økrík fhu Au íkuLkku ðuøk æðrLkfhíkk 1/5 ¼køk sux÷ku Au. yk¼kMke ykð]rík{kt Úkíkku «ríkþíkðÄkhku þwt Úkþu?(1) þqLÞ (2) 0.5% (3) 5% (4) 20%

38. yuf økún P Lke MkqÞoLke Vhíku WÃkð÷Þkfkh fûkk ykf]rík{ktËþkoðu÷ Au.

SA

BP

C

D

hu¾ktrfík ¼køk SCD Lkwt ûkuºkV¤ yu hu¾ktrfík ¼køk SAB LkkûkuºkV¤ fhíkkt çk{ýw Au. økúnLku C Úke D síkk ÷køkíkku Mk{Þt1 nkuÞ yLku A Úke B síkk ÷køkíkku Mk{Þ t2 nkuÞ íkku(1) t1 = t2 (2) t1 = 2t2

(3) t1 = 4t2 (4) t1 > t2


9/35ADI/3002CM347318015

39. A fully charged capacitor has a capacitance 'C'.

It is discharged through a small coil of

resistance wire embedded in a thermally

insulated block of specific heat capacity 's' and

mass 'm'. If the temperature of the block is

raised by T, the potential difference 'V' across

the capacitance is-

(1) ms T

C(2)

2ms TC

(3) 2mC T

s(4)

mC Ts

40. A simple pendulum is suspended in a car. The

car starts moving on a horizontal road according

to equation 2gx 3t

2. Find the time period

of oscillation of the pendulum.

(1) 2g (2)

2g

(3) 28g (4) 2

g 3

41. A block of mass m is pushed towards movable

wedge of mass nm and height h, with a velocity

u. All surfaces are smooth. The minimum value

of u for which the block reach the top of the wedge

is:-

u mnmh

(1) 2gh (2) 2ngh

(3) 1

2gh 1n

(4) 1

2gh 1n

39. yuf MktÃkqýo rðãwík¼kheík fuÃkurMkxhLkwt fuÃkurMkxLMk 'C' Au. suLkuyðhkuÄf íkkhLkk LkkLkk økqt[¤k îkhk rzM[kso fhðk{kt ykðuAu, íkÚkk yk økq t[¤wt 'm' Ë¤ y™u 's' sux÷e rðrþü W»{kÄhkðíkkt W»{eÞ heíku yðknf ç÷kuf{kt szu÷wt Au. òu yk ç÷kufLkwtíkkÃk{kLk T sux÷wt ðÄu íkk u f uÃk urMkxhLkk çku Auzk ÃkkMk urðãwíkÂMÚkrík{kLkLkku íkVkðík 'V' :

(1) ms T

C(2)

2ms TC

(3) 2mC T

s(4)

mC Ts

40. fkh{kt yuf MkkËwt ÷ku÷f ÷xfkðu÷ Au. fkh Mk{rûkríks hMíkk

Ãkh 2gx 3t

2 {wsçk økríkLke þYykík fhu Au. íkku ÷ku÷fLkk

Ëku÷LkkuLkku ykðíkofk¤ økýku.

(1) 2g (2)

2g

(3) 28g (4) 2

g 3

41. m Ë¤ Ähkðíkk ç÷kufLku nm Ë¤ y™u h Ÿ[kELkk Zk¤ðk¤k¾Mke þfu íkuðk ç÷kuf íkhV u ðuøkÚke Äfu÷ðk{kt ykðu Au. ËhufMkÃkkxeyku ÷eMke Au. yk ç÷kuf Zk¤ðk¤k ç÷kufLke xku[ ÃkhÃknkU[u íku {kxu sYhe LÞwLk¥k{ u Lkwt {qÕÞ þkuÄku.

u mnmh

(1) 2gh (2) 2ngh

(3) 1

2gh 1n

(4) 1

2gh 1n

ADI/3002CM34731801510/35


42. Three plates A,B,C each of area 50 cm2 have

separation 3 mm between A and B and 3 mm

between B and C. The energy stored when the

plates are fully charged is-

12V

A

B

C

(1) 1.6 × 10–9 J (2) 2.1 × 10–9 J

(3) 5 × 10–9 J (4) 7 × 10–9 J

43. A planet is observed by an astronomical telescope

having an objective lens of focal length 16m and

an eye-piece of focal length 2cm. Find correct

statement:-

(1) The distance between the objective lens and

the eye piece is 16.02 m.

(2) The angular magnification of the planet is –

800.

(3) The image of the planet is inverted

(4) All of the above are correct

44. Putting a dielectric substance between two

plates of condenser, capacity, potential and

potential energy respectively-

(1) Increase, decrease, decrease

(2) Decrease, increase, increase

(3) Increase, increase, increase

(4) Decrease, decrease, decrease

45. Phase of current in L–C–R circuits :-

(1) is in phase of potential

(2) leading from the phase of potential

(3) lagging from the phase of potential

(4) Before resonance frequency, leading from

the phase of potential & after resonance

freq. lagging from the phase of potential.

42. 50 cm2 ûkuºkV¤ Ähkðíke A,B y™u C yuðe ºký Ã÷uxku{ktÃ÷ux A yLku B ðå[uLkwt ytíkh 3 mm y™u B y™u C ðå[uLkwtytíkh 3 mm Au. ßÞkhu Ã÷uxku MktÃkqýo heíku rðãwík¼krhík ÚkEòÞ íkku MktøkúnkÞu÷e Qòo þwt Úkþu ?

12V

A

B

C

(1) 1.6 × 10–9 J (2) 2.1 × 10–9 J

(3) 5 × 10–9 J (4) 7 × 10–9 J

43. 16m fuLÿ÷tçkkE Ähkðíkku ykuçsufxeð ÷uLMk íkÚkk 2cm fuLÿ÷tçkkE Ähkðíkku ykEÃkeMkðk¤k yuMxÙkuLkku{ef÷ xur÷MfkuÃkLke{ËËÚke òuðk{kt ykðu Au. Mkk[wt rðÄkLk ÃkMktË fhku.

(1) ykuçsufxeð ÷uLMk y™u ykEÃkeMk ðå[uLkwt ytíkh 16.02

m Au.

(2) økúnLke fkuýeÞ {kuxðýe –800 Au.

(3) økúnLkwt «rík®çkçk Q÷xwt {¤u Au.

(4) WÃkhLkk ík{k{ Mkk[k Au.

44. ßÞkhu fuÃkurMkxhLke çku Ã÷uxku ðå[u zkEE÷ufxÙef ÃkËkÚko {wfðk{ktykðu Au íÞkhu íkuLke ûk{íkk, ÃkkuxuÂLþÞ÷ y™u ÂMÚkríkQòo yLkw¢{uþwt ÚkkÞ ?

(1) ðÄþu, Äxþu, Äxþu

(2) Äxþu, ðÄþu, ðÄþu

(3) ðÄþu, ðÄþu, ðÄþu

(4) Äxþu, Äxþu, Äxþu

45. L–C–R ÃkrhÃkÚk{kt «ðknLke f¤k ......

(1) ðesÂMÚkrík{kLkLke f¤k{kt nkuÞ Au.

(2) ðesÂMÚkrík{kLkLke f¤kÚke ykøk¤

(3) ðesÂMÚkrík{kLkLke f¤kÚke ÃkkA¤

(4) yLkwLkkËeÞ ykð]r¥k Ãknu÷k, ðesÂMÚkrík{kLkÚke f¤kÚkeykøk¤ y™u y™wLkkËeÞ ykð]r¥k ÃkAe ðesÂMÚkrík{kLkLkef¤kÚke ÃkkA¤


11/35ADI/3002CM347318015

46. x Lkk yuf Ãkh{kýwLkwt ðsLk 6.643 × 10–23g Au. íkku íkuLkkt20 kg {kt Ãkh{kýwLke {ku÷ MktÏÞk Lk¬e fhku.(1) 4 (2) 40 (3) 100 (4) 500

47. 2M H2SO4 Lkkt ÿkðýLke ½Lkíkk 1.8 g/ml Au. ík uLke{ku÷kr÷xe fux÷e nþu ?(1) 3 m (2) 1.25 m (3) 2.4 m (4) 4.8 m

48. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞw yurMkrzf KMnO4 Lkwt ÍzÃkÚke rðhtsLk fhuAu ?(1) CO2 (2) SO2

(3) NO2 (4) All

49. CCH3

HOCH3

Cl KCN C

OCH3

HCH3

CN

ykÃku÷ «r¢Þk {kxu Mkk[w ðkõÞ ....... Au.

(1) SN2, rðÃkrhík (ELðÍoLk) økkuXðýe MÚkkLk ÷u Au.

(2) SN2 {q¤ (hexuLþLk) økkuXðýe MÚkkLk ÷u Au.

(3) SN2 {q¤ (hexuLþLk) LkeÃks {¤u Au.

(4) SNi, rðÃkrhík (ELðÍoLk) økkuXðýe MÚkkLk ÷u Au.

50. «Úk{ ¢{Lke «r¢Þk {kxu ðuøk y[¤ktf

lnK = 14.34 – 41.25 10

T

íkku Mkr¢Þfhý Qòo økýku.(1) 2.393 × 105 J (2) 8.69 × 104 J

(3) 1.18 × 105 J (4) 8.69 × 105 J

51. e/m Lkk {wÕÞLkk [zíkk ¢{{kt økkuXðku.(1) e, p, n, (2) n, p, e,

(3) n, p, , e (4) n, , p, e

52. 27°C íkkÃk{kLku 0.2 M K4[Fe(CN)6] Lkk ÿkðýLk w tyr¼Mkhý Ëçkký fux÷wt Úkþu ?(1) 24.6 atm (2) 49.2 atm

(3) 4.92 atm (4) 2 atm

53. fÞwt rðÄkLk ¾kuxwt Au ?

(1) ËeðkMk¤eLke çkLkkðx{kt KClO3 ðÃkhkÞ Au.(2) fkçkoLkLkk yÃkhYÃkku{kt MkkiÚke þwØ MðYÃk Vq÷uheLk Au.

(3) ÷k÷ VkuMVhMk ytÄhk{kt [¤fu Au.(4) H2S + HNO3 fr÷÷{Þ MkÕVh

46. One atom of an element x weigh 6.643 × 10–

23g. Number of moles of atom in 20 kg is :

(1) 4 (2) 40 (3) 100 (4) 500

47. What will be the molality of 2M H2SO4 solution

having density 1.8 g/ml :-

(1) 3 m (2) 1.25 m (3) 2.4 m (4) 4.8 m

48. Readily decolorise acidified KMnO4 solution ?

(1) CO2 (2) SO2

(3) NO2 (4) All

49. CCH3

HOCH3

Cl KCN C

OCH3

HCH3

CN

Correct statement of the following reaction is :-

(1) SN2, inversion configration takes place

(2) SN2 retention configration takes place

(3) SN2 retention product obtain

(4) SNi, inversion configuration takes place

50. The rate constant for the first order reaction is

given by :

lnK = 14.34 – 41.25 10

T

Calculate the activation energy :

(1) 2.393 × 105 J (2) 8.69 × 104 J

(3) 1.18 × 105 J (4) 8.69 × 105 J

51. The increasing order for the values of e/m

(charge/mass) is :

(1) e, p, n, (2) n, p, e,

(3) n, p, , e (4) n, , p, e

52. What will be the osmotic pressure of 0.2 M

K4[Fe(CN)6] solution at 27°C ?

(1) 24.6 atm (2) 49.2 atm

(3) 4.92 atm (4) 2 atm

53. Which statement is incorrect ?

(1) In safety matches KClO3 is used.

(2) Purest form of carbon allotrope is fullerene.

(3) Red phosphorous glows in dark

(4) H2S + HNO3 Colloidal sulphur

ADI/3002CM34731801512/35


54. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞwt rðÄkLk Mkk[wt Au ?

(1) > > (H.O.H. ¢{)

(2) CH –C–CH3 3

CH3

>

CH2

>

CH

(C MÚkkrÞíkk)

(3)

COOH

>

COOHCH3 (yìrMkrzf «çk¤íkk)

(4) (C2H5)3N > (C2H5)2NH > C2H5 – NH2

(çkurÍf «çk¤íkk)

55. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞwt O3 îkhk ykìÂõMkzkEÍ Úkíkwt LkÚke ?(1) KI (2) KMnO4

(3) K2MnO4 (4) FeSO4

56. nkEzÙkusLk Ãkh{kýwLke rîíkeÞ fûkk yLku He+ ykÞLkLke ºkeòfûkk {kxu Mk{Þøkk¤kLkku økwýku¥kh (T1/T2) þwt nþu ?(1) 8/27 (2) 32/27

(3) 27/32 (4) 8/9

57. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞwt Mkk[wt LkÚke ?

(1) F– > Na+ > Mg+2 > Al+3 (ykÞLkef fË)

(2) B < C < N < O (I.E.1)

(3) I < Br < F < Cl (E.A.)

(4) Li < Na < K < Rb (ÄkÂíðf rºkßÞk)

58. H2S2O8 Lke s¤rð¼ksLk «r¢Þk Ëhr{ÞkLk þwt rLk{koý Ãkk{uAu ?(1) H2SO5

(2) H2O2

(3) H2SO4

(4) ykÃku÷k Ëhuf MktÞkusLkku çkLku Au.

59. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞwt Mku¬uhkEz BÞwxkhkuxuþLk Ëþkoðu Au.

(1) Mkw¢kuÍ (2) MkuÕÞw÷kuÍ

(3) {uLkkuÍ (4) fuhuxeLk

54. Which of the following statement correct :-

(1) > > (H.O.H. order)

(2) CH –C–CH3 3

CH3

>

CH2

>

CH

(C stability)

(3)

COOH

>

COOHCH3 (acidic strength)

(4) (C2H5)3N > (C2H5)2NH > C2H5 – NH2

(Basic strength)

55. Which of the following is not oxidised by O3 ?

(1) KI (2) KMnO4

(3) K2MnO4 (4) FeSO4

56. What is the ratio of time periods (T1/T2) in

second orbit of hydrogen atom to third orbit of

He+ ion ?

(1) 8/27 (2) 32/27

(3) 27/32 (4) 8/9

57. Which of the following is not correct ?

(1) F– > Na+ > Mg+2 > Al+3 (Ionic size)

(2) B < C < N < O (I.E.1)

(3) I < Br < F < Cl (E.A.)

(4) Li < Na < K < Rb (Metallic radius)

58. In the hydrolysis process of H2S2O8 which is

formed ?

(1) H2SO5

(2) H2O2

(3) H2SO4

(4) All given compound formed

59. Which of the following saccharide showsmutarotation :-

(1) Sucrose (2) Cellulose

(3) Mannose (4) Keratine


13/35ADI/3002CM347318015

60. The structure of K[PtCl3(C2H4)] and

hybridisation of Pt respectively are :-

(1)square planar, sp2d2 (2) square planar, dsp2

(3) tetrahedral, sp3 (4) octahedral, d2sp3

61. How many grams of phosphoric acid would be

needed to neutralise 100 g of magnesium

hydroxide? (The molecular weights are:

H3PO4 = 98 and Mg(OH)2 = 58.3):-

(1) 66.7 g (2) 252 g (3) 112 g (4) 168 g

62. 25 g ethylene glycol is present in 100 g of

water. The solution is cooled to –10°C. Kf for

H2O is 1.86 K kg mol–1. The amount of ice

separated on cooling is :-

(1) 25 g (2) 50 g

(3) 75 g (4) 20 g

63. Incorrect match is :-

(1) [Co(en)3]+3 d2sp3, Diamagnetic, Optical

isomerism

(2) [Co(en)2Cl2]Br Ionisation, Geometrical,

Optical isomerism

(3) [Fe(CN)6]4– m = 1.73 BM, d2sp3, Low

spin

(4) [Cr(NH3)]63+ m = 3.82 BM, d2sp3, Inner

orbital complex

64.V O2 5

450°C Major product

(1)

OH

(2) CH–C

O

CH–CO

O

(3)

OCH3

(4)

C

CO

O

O

60. K[PtCl3(C2H4)] Lkw t çktÄkhý yLku Pt Lkwt Mktfhý yLkw¢{u.....

(1) Mk{ík÷eÞ Mk{[kuhMk, sp2d2

(2) Mk{ík÷eÞ Mk{[kuhMk, dsp2

(3) Mk{[íkw»V÷feÞ, sp3

(4) yüV÷feÞ, d2sp3

61. 100 g {uøLkurþÞ{ nkEzÙkufMkkEzLku íkxMÚk fhðk fux÷k økúk{VkuMVkurhf yurMkzLke sYh Ãkzu ?(H3PO4 íkÚkk Mg(OH)2

Lkk ykÂÛðÞ Ë¤ yLkw¢{u 98 yLku 58.3 Au.)(1) 66.7 g (2) 252 g (3) 112 g (4) 168 g

62. 100 g Ãkkýe{kt 25 g ErÚk÷eLk ø÷kÞfku÷ nksh Au. ykÿkðý –10°C íkkÃk{kLku Xhu Au. òu H2O {kxu Kf = 1.86

K kg mol–1 nkuÞ íkku ÿkðýLku Xtzw fhíkkt çkhVLkku fux÷ku sÚÚkkuAwxku Ãkzu ?(1) 25 g (2) 50 g

(3) 75 g (4) 20 g

63. Lke[uLkk Ãkife yÞkuøÞ òuz fE Au ?(1) [Co(en)3]

+3 d2sp3, «rík[w tçkfeÞ, «fkþeÞMk{½xfíkk

(2) [Co(en)2Cl2]Br ykÞLkefhý, ¼ki r{ríkfMk{½xfíkk «fkþeÞ Mk{½xfíkk

(3) [Fe(CN)6]4– m = 1.73 BM, d2sp3, Lke[e

ÂMÃkLk(4) [Cr(NH3)]6

3+ m = 3.82 BM, d2sp3, yktíkhfûkfeÞ Mktrfýo

64.V O2 5

450°C {wÏÞ rLkÃks

(1)

OH

(2) CH–C

O

CH–CO

O

(3)

OCH3

(4)

C

CO

O

O

ADI/3002CM34731801514/35


65. Which of the following is employed as a

tranquilizer ?

(1) Naproxen (2) Tetracycline

(3) Chlorpheniramine (4) Equanil

66. If the PE of an electron in the first Bohr orbit

of H atom is x ev, the total energy of the

electron in same orbit is:-

(1) x8

eV (2) x8

eV

(3) x2

eV (4) x2

eV

67. A ionic solid A+B– crystallises as a bcc

structure. The distance between cation and

anion in the lattice is 338 pm. The edge length

of cell is:-

(1) 338 pm (2) 390.3 pm

(3) 292.7 pm (4) 507 pm

68. Zero crystal field stabilisation energy observed

in :- [octahedral complex]

(1) d5, low spin (2) d4, high spin

(3) d6, high spin (4) d5, high spin

69. Which of the following is a major product of

the reaction show below ?

CH3 Br2

H O2

(1) Br

CH3

H

OH(2)

Br

CH3

H

OH

(3) Br

CH3

H

OH

(4) OH

CH3

H

Br

65. Lke[uLkk Ãkife þuLkku WÃkÞkuøk «þktíkf (xÙkLfðe÷kEÍh) íkhefuÚkkÞ Au ?

(1) Lkku«kuÍuLk (2) xuxÙkMkkÞf÷eLk

(3) õ÷kuhVuLkehu{kELk (4) EfðkLke÷

66. òu nkEzÙkusLkLke «Úk{ çkkunh fûkk{kt E÷ufxÙkuLkLke ÂMÚkrík Qòo (PE)

x ev nkuÞ íkku yk fûkk{kt E÷ufxÙkuLkLke fw÷ Qòo fux÷e ?

(1) x8

eV (2) x8

eV

(3) x2

eV (4) x2

eV

67. A+B– ykÞkurLkf ÃkËkÚko bcc h[Lkk Ähkðu Au. MVrxf{kt ÄLky™u Éý ykÞLk ðå[uLkwt ytíkh 338 pm nkuÞ íkku yuf{fku»kLkeÄkhLke ÷tçkkE þkuÄku.

(1) 338 pm (2) 390.3 pm

(3) 292.7 pm (4) 507 pm

68. Lke[uLkk Ãkife õÞk yüV÷feÞ Mktfeýo{kt MVrxf ûkuºk MÚkkÞefhýQòo þqLÞ Au ?

(1) d5, Lke[e ÂMÃkLk (2) d4, ðÄw ÂMÃkLk

(3) d6, ðÄw ÂMÃkLk (4) d5, ðÄw ÂMÃkLk

69. Lke[u ykÃku÷ «r¢ÞkLke {wÏÞ LkeÃks fE Au ?

CH3 Br2

H O2

(1) Br

CH3

H

OH(2)

Br

CH3

H

OH

(3) Br

CH3

H

OH

(4) OH

CH3

H

Br


15/35ADI/3002CM347318015

70. N2O5 2NO2 + 12

O2;

In a definite time interval the rate ofdecomposition of N2O5 is 1.8 × 10–3 mol L–1

min–1, then the rate of formation of O2 will be

(1) 1.8 × 10–3 mol L–1 min–1

(2) 9 × 10–4 mol L–1 min–1

(3) 3.6 × 10–3 mol L–1 min–1

(4) 3.6 × 10–4 mol L–1 min–1

71. The wavelength associated with a golf ballweighing 200 g and moving at a speed of5 m h–1 is of the order:-

(1) 10–10m (2) 10–20m

(3) 10–30m (4) 10–40m

72. ' ' bond formed in :-

(1) overlapping of 2 2z zd d in z-axis

(2) overlapping of dxy + dxy in y-axis

(3) overlapping of 2 2 2 2x y x yd d in z-axis

(4) overlapping of dxy + dxy in z-axis

73. In which of the following central atom showsp2 hybridisation :-

(1) Boric acid (2) BF3

(3) ClO2 (4) All of these

74. Me C = CH–CH –CH2 2 3

H O2

H SO2 4

(X);

Major product of the reaction is :-

(1) Me–C–CH –CH –CH2 2 3

OH

Me

(2) Me2C=CH–CH2–CH2–OH

(3) Me C=CH–CH–CH –OH2 2

OH

(4) C Me2

OH

70. N2O5 2NO2 + 12

O2;

WÃkhkuõík «r¢Þk {kxu fkuE rLkÞík Mk{Þøkk¤k{kt N2O5 Lkkrð½xLkLkku Ëh 1.8 × 10–3 {ku÷ r÷xh–1 r{rLkx–1 Au íkku O2

Lkk WíÃkkËLkLkku Ëh þkuÄku.

(1) 1.8 × 10–3 mol L–1 min–1

(2) 9 × 10–4 mol L–1 min–1

(3) 3.6 × 10–3 mol L–1 min–1

(4) 3.6 × 10–4 mol L–1 min–1

71. 200 g ðsLk Ähkðíkku økkuÕV çkku÷ 5 m h–1 Lke ÍzÃku økríkfhu íkku íkuLke MkkÚku Mktf¤kÞu÷ íkhtøk÷tçkkE þkuÄku.

(1) 10–10m (2) 10–20m

(3) 10–30m (4) 10–40m

72. ........ {kt ' ' çktÄ çkLku Au.

(1) 2 2z zd dyLku Lkwt z-yûk Ãkh Mktr{©ý

(2) dxy y™u dxy Lkwt y-yûk Ãkh Mktr{©ý

(3) 2 2 2 2x y x yd dyLku Lkwt z-yûk Ãkh Mktr{©ý

(4) dxy yLku dxy Lkwt z-yûk Ãkh Mktr{©ý

73. Lke[uLkk{ktÚke fkuLkku {æÞMÚk Ãkh{kýw sp2 Mktfhý Ëþkoðu Au.

(1) çkkurhf yurMkz (2) BF3

(3) ClO2 (4) WÃkhLkk çkÄk s

74. Me C = CH–CH –CH2 2 3

H O2

H SO2 4

(X);

yk «r¢ÞkLke {wÏÞ LkeÃks ...... Au.

(1) Me–C–CH –CH –CH2 2 3

OH

Me

(2) Me2C=CH–CH2–CH2–OH

(3) Me C=CH–CH–CH –OH2 2

OH

(4) C Me2

OH

ADI/3002CM34731801516/35


75. For the cell T /T + (0.001M)||Cu+2 (0.1M)|Cu,

cellE at 25ºC is 0.83V. Ecell can be increased :-

(1) by increasing [Cu+2]

(2) by increasing [T +]

(3) by decreasing [Cu+2]

(4) None of these

76. Which relation is incorrect ?

(1) Molecular mass = H2O < D2O

(2) Melting point = H2O < D2O

(3) B.P. = H2O > D2O

(4) Reactivity = H2O > D2O

77. Which can show geometrical isomerism ?

(1)

Ph

Ph H

ClC=C (2)

H C3

Br

HC=C

H C3

(3)

H C3

C=CH H

CH3

(4) H3C–C C–CH3

78. Which of following do not gives alcohol withNaBH4 :-

(1) O

H(2)

O

(3) O

Cl(4)

O

O

79. A given mass of gas expands reversibly fromthe state A to the state B by three paths 1, 2 and3 as shown in the figure. If w1, w2 and w3

respectively be the work done by the gas alongthree paths then:

A

B

2

3

1

V

P

(1) w1 > w2 > w3 (2) w1 < w2 < w3

(3) w1 = w2 = w3 (4) w2 < w3 < w1

75. ykÃku÷ fku»k T /T + (0.001M)||Cu+2 (0.1M)|Cu {kxu

25ºC íkkÃk{kLku cellE Lkwt {wÕÞ 0.83V Lke[uLkk Ãk ife fÞkuVuhVkh fhíkk Ecell ðÄu.(1) [Cu+2] ðÄkhðkÚke(2) [T +] ðÄkhðkÚke(3) [Cu+2] ½xkzðkÚke(4) yufÃký Lknª

76. fÞku MktçktÄ ¾kuxku Au ?

(1) yýw¼kh = H2O < D2O

(2) øk÷Lk®çkËw = H2O < D2O

(3) Wíf÷Lk®çkËw = H2O > D2O

(4) r¢Þkþe÷íkk = H2O > D2O

77. fÞw ¼kir{íkef Mk{½xfíkk Ëþkoðþu?

(1)

Ph

Ph H

ClC=C (2)

H C3

Br

HC=C

H C3

(3)

H C3

C=CH H

CH3

(4) H3C–C C–CH3

78. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fkuý NaBH4 MkkÚku ykÕfkunku÷ ykÃkþu Lkne ?

(1) O

H(2)

O

(3) O

Cl(4)

O

O

79. yuf ðkÞwLkku rLkrïík sÚÚkku «ríkðíkeo heíku A Úke B ÂMÚkrík{ktÃkÚk 1, 2 yLku 3 îkhk ykf]rík{kt ËþkoÔÞk «{kýu rðMíkhu Au.òu w1, w2 yLku w3 yu ¢r{f ÃkÚk Ãkh Úkíkw fkÞo nkuÞ íkku :

A

B

2

3

1

V

P

(1) w1 > w2 > w3 (2) w1 < w2 < w3

(3) w1 = w2 = w3 (4) w2 < w3 < w1


17/35ADI/3002CM347318015

80. Calculate the current (in mA) required to deposit

0.195 g of platinum metal in 5.0 hours from a

solution of [PtCl6]2– : (atomic weight : Pt = 195)

(1) 310 (2) 31

(3) 21.44 (4) 5.36

81. Black Jack is an ore of :-

(1) Cr (2) Sn

(3) Zn (4) Ni

82. Which of the following is true for given

reaction

R – H + X2 h R – X + H – X

(1) Reactivity of different halogens for the

reaction is I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2

(2) The reaction follows electrophilic

substitution mechanism

(3) Iodination is carried out in presence of HIO3

to increase yield of alkyliodide

(4) All

83. Ph O— — PCl5 Products

Which of following is not product of reaction?

(1) (2)

OH

(3) (4) POCl3

84. The equlilibrium constant for the following

general reaction is 1030. Calculate Eº for the cell

at 298 K.

2X2(s) + 3Y2+ (aq) 2X23+ (aq) + 3Y(s)

(1) +0.105 V (2) +0.2955 V

(3) 0.0985 V (4) –0.2955 V

85. The bond angle and hybridization in ether

(CH3OCH3) is :-

(1) 106º51', sp3 (2) 104º31', sp3

(3) > 109º28', sp3 (4) None of these

80. 5 f÷kf{kt [PtCl6]2– Lkk ÿkðý{ktÚke 0.195 g Ã÷urxLk{

Äkíkw Awxe Ãkzu íku {kxu fux÷ku «ðkn (mA {kt) ÃkMkkh fhðku Ãkzþu?(Ãkh{kýw ¼kh : Pt = 195)

(1) 310 (2) 31

(3) 21.44 (4) 5.36

81. ç÷uf suf yu fkuLke ¾Lkes Au :-

(1) Cr (2) Sn

(3) Zn (4) Ni

82. ykÃku÷ «r¢Þk {kxu fÞwt Mkk[w Au?

R – H + X2 h R – X + H – X

(1) ykÃku÷ «r¢Þk {kxu nu÷kusLkLke r¢Þkþe÷íkkLkku ¢{

I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2

(2) «r¢Þe E÷ufxÙkuLk yLkwhkøke rðMÚkkÃkLk r¢ÞkrðÄeLku yLkwMkhu Au

(3) ykÕfkE÷ ykÞkuzkEz LkeÃks ðÄkhðk {kxu HIO3 Lkenkshe{kt ykÞkuzeLkuþLk fhðk{kt ykðu Au

(4) çkÄk s

83. Ph O— — PCl5 ProductsLkeÃks

Lke[uLkk{ktÚke «r¢ÞkLke LkeÃks nþu Lkne ?

(1) (2)

OH

(3) (4) POCl3

84. Lke[uLke Mkk{kLÞ «r¢Þk {kxu Mktíkw÷Lk y[¤ktf 1030 Au. fku»k{kxu 298 K íkkÃk{kLku Eº þkuÄku.

2X2(s) + 3Y2+ (aq) 2X23+ (aq) + 3Y(s)

(1) +0.105 V (2) +0.2955 V

(3) 0.0985 V (4) –0.2955 V

85. EÚkh (CH3OCH3) {kt çktÄfkuý y™u Mktfhý :-

(1) 106º51', sp3 (2) 104º31', sp3

(3) > 109º28', sp3 (4) yufÃký Lkrn

ADI/3002CM34731801518/35


86. A sulphide ore first converted into its oxide

before reduction. This is done because :

(1)A sulphide ore cannot be reduced to metal

at all

(2) No reducing agent is found suitable for

reducing a sulphide ore

(3) The enthalpy of formation of CO2 is more

than that of CS2

(4) A metal oxide is generally less stable than

the metal sulphide

87. Total number of secondary amines (Excluding

stereo isomer) possible with the molecular

formula C5H13N is :-

(1) 7 (2) 6

(3) 8 (4) 14

88. Which of following statement is correct ?

(1) Hinsberg reagent can be use to seperate

1º, 2º and 3º amine.

(2) Hinsberg reagent can not be use to

distinguish 1º, 2º and 3º amine

(3) Volatile nature of isomeric amine 1º > 2º > 3º

(4) Primary amine and secondary amine can

not be distinguished by liebermann nitroso

test

89. AB3(g) is dissociates as ;

AB3(g) AB2(g) + 12

B2(g), when the initial

pressure of AB3 is 800 torr and the total

pressure developed at equilibrium is 900 torr.

What percentage of AB3(g) is dissociated?

(1) 10 (2) 20

(3) 25 (4) 30

90. Dative bond is present in :-

(1) O3 (2) NH3

(3) BaCl2 (4) BI3

86. MkÕVkEz ¾LkesLk u ík uLkk rhzfþLk Ãknu÷k ykuõMkkEz{ktVuhððk{kt ykðu Au. fkhý fu :

(1) MkÕVkEz ¾Lkes fkuEÃký heíku Äkíkw{kt rhzfþLk Ãkk{íkeLkÚke.

(2) MkÕVkEz ¾LkesLkk rhzõþLk {kxu fkuE rhzfþLkfíkko ÞkuøÞLkÚke.

(3) CO2 Lke MksoLk yuLÚkkÕÃke CS2 fhíkk ðÄw Au

(4) ykuõMkkEzyu Äkíkw MkÕVkEz fhíkk ykuAku MÚkkÞe nkuÞ Au.

87. yýwMkqºk C5H13N ðk¤k fw÷ þõÞ rîíkeÞf yu{kELk Mk{½xfkufux÷k (yðfkþeÞ Mk{½xf rMkðkÞ) :-

(1) 7 (2) 6

(3) 8 (4) 14

88. Lke[uLkk Ãkife Mkk[w rðÄkLk fÞw?

(1) 1º, 2º yLku 3º yu{kELkLkk y÷økefhý {kxu rnLMkçkøko«r¢Þf WÃkÞkuøke Au.

(2) 1º, 2º yLku 3º yu{kELkLkk y÷økefhý {kxu rnLMkçkøko«r¢Þf Lk ðÃkhkÞ.

(3) Mk{½xfeÞ yu{kELk{kt çkk»Ãkþe÷íkkLkku ¢{ 1º > 2º > 3º.

(4) «kÚkr{f y™u rîíkeÞf yu{kELkLku ÷uçkh{uLk LkkExÙkuMkkufMkkuxe ðzu y÷øk Ãkkh¾e þfkíkk LkÚke.

89. AB3(g) rðÞkusLk Ãkk{u Au;

AB3(g) AB2(g) + 12

B2(g), sÞkhu þYykíkLkwt Ëçkký

is 800 xkuh y™u Mktíkw÷Lku WËT¼ðu÷wt fw÷ Ëçkký 900 xkuh nkuÞíkku AB3(g)Lkw t fux÷k xfk rðÞkusLk ÚkÞw nþu ?

(1) 10 (2) 20

(3) 25 (4) 30

90. þu{k Mkðøko MknMktÞkusf çktÄ nksh Au ?

(1) O3 (2) NH3

(3) BaCl2 (4) BI3


19/35ADI/3002CM347318015

91. Respiratory pigment in blood of cockroach is:-

(1) Haemoglobin (2) Haemocyanine

(3) Haemomerithrin (4) Absent

92. Select the incorrect statements :-

(1) Stomata only helps in transpiration

(2) Cellulose microfibrils are oriented radially

in gaurd cells.

(3) Transpiration is effected by light and wind

speed

(4) Plant factor affecting transpiration is

atmospheric humidity.

93. In a population of 1000 individuals, 500

individuals have Aa genotype and 500 have AA

genotype. What will be the proportion of a and

A alleles in their gametes ?

(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 1 : 3 (4) 3 : 1

94. Select the correct match :-

i Phosphorus a Nitrogenase

ii Magnesium b Water splitting

iii Sulphur c Nucleic acids

iv Chlorine d Thiamine

e Ribosome structure

i ii iii iv

(1) e a c d

(2) c e d b

(3) b c a e

(4) c a d b

95. The contraction of which muscles is

responsible for normal expiration :-

(A) Diaphragm (B) E.I.C.M.

(C) Abdominal muscles(D) I.I.C.M.

Choose correct options :-

(1) A, B and D

(2) C and D

(3) A and C

(4) No muscles contract during normal

expiration

91. ðtËkLkk YrÄh{kt hnu÷ ïMkLk htsfÿÔÞ .....

(1) rn{kuø÷kuçkeLk (2) rn{kuMkkÞLkeLk

(3) rn{ku{uheÚkúeLk (4) økuhnksh

92. ¾kuxwt rðÄkLk ÃkMktË fhku.

(1) Ãkýoht½ú yu Võík WíMðuËLk{kt {ËË fhu Au.

(2) hûkffku»kku{k t MkuÕÞw÷kuÍ Mkwû{ íktíkwfku yu yheÞ heíkuøkkuXðkÞu÷k nkuÞ Au.

(3) «fkþLke y™u nðkLke ÍzÃk yu WíMðuËLkLku yMkh fhu Au.

(4) WíMðuËLk Ãkh yMkh fhíkwt ðLkMÃkríkfkhf yu ðkíkkðhýeÞ¼us Au.

93. 1000 ÔÞÂõíkykuLke ðMíke{kt, 500 ÔÞÂõíkyku Aa sLkeLkMðYÃk y™u 500 ÔÞÂõíkyku AA sLkeLk MðYÃk Ähkðu Au. íkkuíku{Lkk sLÞwykuLkk a y™u A fkhýLkwt «{ký þwt nþu ?(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 1 : 3 (4) 3 : 1

94. Mkk[e òuz þkuÄku.

i VkuMVhMk a LkkExÙkuSLkuÍ

ii {uøLkurþÞ{ b ÃkkýeLkwt rð½xLk

iii MkÕVh c LÞwÂõ÷f yurMkz

iv õ÷kurhLk d ÚkkÞ{eLk

e rhçkkuÍku{Lkwt çktÄkhý

i ii iii iv

(1) e a c d

(2) c e d b

(3) b c a e

(4) c a d b

95. õÞk MLkkÞwykuLkwt Mktfku[Lk yu Mkk{kLÞ WåAðkMk {kxu sðkçkËkh Au.

(A) WhkuËhÃkx÷ (B) E.I.C.M.

(C) WËhLkk MLkkÞwyku (D) I.I.C.M.

Mkk[ku rðfÕÃk ÃkMktË fhku.

(1) A, B yLku D

(2) C yLku D

(3) A yLku C

(4) Mkk{kLÞ WåAðkMk Ëhr{ÞkLk fkuE MLkkÞw Mktfku[Lk ÚkíkktLkÚke.

ADI/3002CM34731801520/35


96. In pteridophyte, meiosis occurs when :

(1) Gametes are formed

(2) Spores are formed

(3) Prothallus is formed

(4) Sex organs are formed

97. Read following statements.

(A) Human leucocyte antigen is present on

leucocytes only.

(B) Alleles for expression of human leucocyte

antigen are present on chromosome no. 6.

(C) Human leucocyte antigen is present only

on RBC surface.

(D) Human leucocyte antigen mismatching is

major reason for allograft rejection.

(E) Allograft rejection is due to cell mediated

immunity.

(1) A, B, C are correct

(2) A, C, D are correct

(3) A, B, E are correct

(4) B, D, E are correct

98. Which one of the following is indispensable in

genetic engineering

(1) DNA ligase

(2) Restriction endonuclease

(3) RNA polymerase

(4) Reverse transcription

99. Which among the following is most cruicial

step of calvin cycle :-

(1) Cyclic photphosphorylation

(2) Carboxylation

(3) Reduction

(4) Regeneration

100. If filiform apparatus have 28 chromosome than

what will be their number in nucellus and

funicle cell respectively ?

(1) 56, 28 (2) 28, 56

(3) 56, 56 (4) 84, 56

96. rºkytøke{kt, yÄeofhý ÚkkÞ Au ßÞkhu .......

(1) sLÞwyku çkLku Au

(2) çkeòýwyku çkLku Au.

(3) MkqfkÞf çkLku Au.

(4) ®÷øke ytøkku çkLku Au.

97. Lke[uLkk ðkõÞku ðkt[ku.

(A) Ìkw{Lk ÕÞwfkuMkkEx yuÂLxsLk yu Võík ÕÞwfkuMkkExTMk Ãkhs nksh nkuÞ Au.

(B) Ìkw{Lk ÕÞwfkuMkkEx yuÂLxsLkLke yr¼ÔÞÂõík {kxuLkk fkhfkuyu htøkMkqºk Lktçkh 6 Ãkh nksh nkuÞ Au.

(C) Ìkw{Lk ÕÞwfkuMkkEx yuÂLxsLk yu Võík RBC Lke MkÃkkxeÃkh nksh nkuÞ Au.

(D) Ìkw{Lk ÕÞwfkuMkkExLke yuÂLxsLkLke ¾kuxe òuzýe yu Mk{òík«íÞkhkuÃkýLkk yMðefkhLkw t {wÏÞ fkhý Au.

(E) Mk{òík «íÞkhk u Ã kýLkk u yMðefkh yu fk u »k eÞ«ríkfkhfíkkLkk ÷eÄu ÚkkÞ Au.

(1) A, B, C Mkk[k Au.

(2) A, C, D Mkk[k Au.

(3) A, B, E Mkk[k Au.

(4) B, D, E Mkk[k Au.

98. Lke[uLkk{ktÚke fÞw sLkerLkf EsLkuhe{kt yrLkðkÞo Au ?(1) DNA ÷kEøkuÍ(2) heMxÙefþLk yutzkuLÞwõ÷uÞuÍ(3) RNA Ãkku÷e{huÍ(4) heðMko xÙkLM¢eÃþLk

99. Lke[uLkk{ktÚke fÞku íkçk¬ku yu fuÕðeLk [¢Lkku rLkýkoÞf íkçk¬kuAu.

(1) fuÂÕðLk VkuxkuVkuMVkuhkE÷uþLk

(2) fkçkkuoõMke÷uþLk

(3) hezfþLk

(4) ÃkwLk:rLk{koý

100. òu rV÷eVku{o «MkkÄLk 28 htøkMkqºkku Ähkðu íkku «Ëun y™uytzLkk÷ fku»k{kt yLkw¢{u htøkMkqºkkuLke MktÏÞk fux÷e nþu ?(1) 56, 28 (2) 28, 56

(3) 56, 56 (4) 84, 56


21/35ADI/3002CM347318015

101. Match the correct one :

a Chrysophytes i Saprophytes

b Dinoflagellates ii Diatomaceousearth

c Euglenoids iii Red tides

d Slime moulds iv Pellicle

(1) a-i,b-ii,c-iii,d-iv (2) a-ii,b-iii,c-iv,d-i

(3) a-ii,b-iv,c-iii,d-i (4) a-iii,b-i,c-iv,d-ii

102. Which of the following statement is incorrectabout amino acids ?

(1) they are called -amino acids

(2) they are substituted methanes

(3) based on the nature of R group there aremany amino acids

(4) more than 20 types of amino acids presentin protein

103. Kidney stone is produced due to :-

(1) Deposition of sand particles

(2) Precipitation of proteins

(3) Crystallisation of oxalates

(4) Blockage of fat

104. Read the following statements :

(a) It increases homozygosity

(b) Mating of animals with in the same breed

(c) Common ancestors present for 4-6generation

(d) Best breeding method for animals that arebelow average in productivity in milkproduction etc.

(e) It helps to overcome inbreeding depression

How many statement are incorrect regardingout-crossing ?

(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 4

105. Which of the following technique is used foramplification of DNA :-

(1) Repetitive DNA

(2) ELISA

(3) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

(4) VNTR

101. Mkk[e òuz ÃkMktË fhku.

a ¢kÞMkkuVkExTMk i Mku«kuVkExTMk

b zkÞLkku ^÷usu÷uxTMk ii zkÞxTBMkÞwfík Ãk]Úðe

c Þwø÷eLkkuEz iii hkíkk {kuò

d M÷kE{ {kuÕzTMk iv Ãkur÷f÷

(1) a-i,b-ii,c-iii,d-iv (2) a-ii,b-iii,c-iv,d-i

(3) a-ii,b-iv,c-iii,d-i (4) a-iii,b-i,c-iv,d-ii

102. Lke[uLkk{ktÚke fÞwt rðÄkLk yur{Lkku yurMkz {kxu ¾kuxwt Au ?(1) íkuykuLku -yur{Lkku yurMkz fnu Au.(2) íkuyku rðMÚkkrÃkík r{ÚkuLk Au.(3) R Mk{wnLkku «f]ríkLkk ykÄkhu Äýk çkÄk yur{Lkku yurMkz

Au.(4) «kuxeLk{kt 20 fhíkkt ðÄkhu «fkhLkk yur{Lkku yurMkz Au.

103. {qºk®ÃkzLke ÃkÚkhe ......îkhk WíÃkLLk ÚkkÞ Au.(1) huíkLkk fýkuLkk s{k Úkðk(2) «kuxeLkLkk yðûkuÃkLk(3) ykufÍ÷uxLkk MVxefefhý(4) [hçkeLkk yðhkuÄLk îkhk

104. Lke[uLkk rðÄkLkku ðkt[ku :

(a) íku Mk{Þwø{eíkk ðÄkhu Au.

(b) Mk{kLk òíkLkk «kýeyku ðå[u «sLkLk

(c) 4 Úke 6 ÃkuZeyku {kxu Mk{kLk ÃkqðosLke nkshe

(d) «kýeyku{kt W¥k{ MktfhýLke ÃkØríkyu Au fu su{kt ËwÄWíÃkkËLk Mkhuhkþ fhíkk ykuAwt nkuÞ.

(e) íku ytík:Mktfhý ËkçkLku rLkðkhðk {kxu {ËËYÃk Au.

çkŠnMktfhý™u y™w÷ûkeLku ykÃku÷k rðÄkLk Ãkife fux÷k ¾kuxk Au?

(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 4

105. Lke[uLkk{ktÚke fE íkfLkef DNA Lke ð]rØ {kxu WÃkÞkuøk{kt÷uþku :-(1) ÃkwLkhkðíkeoík DNA

(2) ELISA

(3) Ãkku÷e{huÍ [uELk rhyufþLk (PCR)

(4) VNTR

ADI/3002CM34731801522/35


106.

C

BA

D

Identify (A), (B), (C), (D).

(1) (A) Heavy chain (C) Epitope

(B) Disulphide bond (D) Light chain

(2) (A) Light chain (C) Antigen binding site

(B) Disulphide bond (D) Heavy chain

(3) (A) Light chain (C) Antigen binding site

(B) Heavy chain (D) Disulphite bond

(4) (A) Light chain (C) Heavy chain

(B) Disulphite bond(D) Epitope

107. The repressor of the lac operon is synthesised:-

(1) constitutively from the i gene

(2) only when required from the i gene

(3) constitutively from the y gene

(4) only when required from the y gene

108. Which of the following are correct matching

pairs :

Taxonomic Percent

group threat of extinction

(A) Birds (i) 31%

(B) Mammals (ii) 12%

(C) Amphibia (iii) 23%

(D)Gymnosperms (iv) 32%

(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv

(2) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii

(3) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i

(4) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv

109. In which group gametophyte is depend on

sporophyte :

(1) Algae (2) Bryophyta

(3) Moss (4) Gymnosperm

106. C

BA

D

(A), (B), (C), (D) Lku yku¤¾ku.(1) (A) ¼khu þ]t¾÷k (C) yuÂLxsLk yku¤¾ MÚkkLk

(B) zkÞMkÕVkEz çktÄ (D) n¤ðe þ]t¾÷k(2) (A) n¤ðe þ]t¾÷k (C) yuÂLxsLk òuzký MÚkkLk

(B) zkÞMkÕVkEz çktÄ (D) ¼khu þ]t¾÷k

(3) (A) ¼khu þ]t¾÷k (C) yuÂLxsLk òuzký MÚkkLk

(B) n¤ðe þ]t¾÷k (D) zkÞMkÕVkEz çktÄ

(4) (A) n¤ðe þ]t¾÷k (C) ¼khu þ]t¾÷k

(B) zkÞMkÕVkEz çktÄ (D) yuÂLxsLk yku¤¾ MÚkkLk107. ÷uf ykuÃkhkuLkLkku rLkøkúknf ......Mkt&÷u»ký Ãkk{u Au.

(1) Mkíkík i sLkeLk{ktÚke(2) ßÞkhu sYh Au íÞkhu i sLkeLk{ktÚke(3) Mkíkík y sLkeLk{ktÚke(4) ßÞkhu sYh Au íÞkhu y sLkeLk{ktÚke

108. Lke[uLkk{ktÚke Mkk[e òuz fE Au ?ðøkeof]ík ÷wóíkkLkk ¼ÞLke

Mk{wn xfkðkhe

(A) rðnøk (i) 31%

(B) MkMíkLk (ii) 12%

(C) W¼ÞSðe (iii) 23%

(D)y™kð]íkçkesÄkhe ðLkMÃkrík(iv) 32%

(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv

(2) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii

(3) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i

(4) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv

109. õÞk Mk{wn{kt sLÞwsLkf yu çkeòýwsLkf Ãkh ykÄkh hk¾uAu ?

(1) ÷e÷ (2) rîytøke

(3) {kuMk (4) yLkkð]¥kçkesÄkhe


23/35ADI/3002CM347318015

110. Peripheral stroma of ovary is made up of

(1) Yellow fibrous connective tissue

(2) White fibrous connective tissue

(3) Reticular connective tissue

(4) Adipose tissue

111. If pressure greater than atmospheric pressure

is applied to a solution or pure water, its water

potential :-

(1) Decreases greatly (2) Increases

(3) Decreases slowly (4) No effect

112. Match column I and II with correct among

given options :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Biomacromoleculesof food

(i) Alimentarycanal andassociated gland

(B) Human digestivesystem

(ii) Embeded in jawbones

(C) Stomach (iii) Outer wall ofVisceral organs

(D) Thecodont (iv) Convert intosimplesubstances

(E) Serosa (v) J-shaped baglike structure

(1) A - iv, B - i, C - v, D - ii, E - iii

(2) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv, E - v

(3) A - ii, B - i, C - v, D - iii, E - iv

(4) A - i, B - iii, C - ii, D - iv, E - v

113. During the conduction of nerve impulse, the

action potential is the result of movement of :-

(1) Na+ from intracellular fluid to extracellular

fluid

(2) Na+ from extracellular fluid to intracellular

fluid

(3) Na+ towards both directions


110. ytz®ÃkzLkwt Ãkhe½eÞ ykÄkhf ......Lkwt çkLku÷wt Au.

(1) Ãke¤e íktíkw{Þ MktÞkusf Ãkuþe

(2) MkVuË íktíkw{Þ MktÞkusf Ãkuþe

(3) ò÷kfkh MktÞkusf Ãkuþe

(4) {uËÃkqýo Ãkuþe

111. ßÞkhu ðkíkkðhý Ëçkký fhíkkt ðÄkhu Ëçkký òu ÿkðý yÚkðkþwØ Ãkkýe{kt ykÃkðk{kt ykðu íkku, íkuLke s÷ûk{íkk

(1) ¾qçk s ½xu Au. (2) ðÄu Au

(3) Äe{uÚke ½xu Au. (4) fkuEÃký yMkh Lknª

112. fkuüf I y™u II Lku òuzeLku Lke[u ykÃku÷k rðfÕÃk{ktÚke Mkk[kurðõÕÃk ÃkMktË fhku.

fku÷{-I fku÷{-II

(A) ¾kuhkfLkk sið {nkyýwyku (i) Ãkk[Lk{køko y™uMknkÞf Ãkk[føkútrÚkyku

(B) {Lkw»ÞLkwt Ãkk[Lk íktºk (ii) szçkkLkk yÂMÚk{kt¾qtÃku÷k

(C) sXh (iii) fkucktíkheÞ ytøkkuLkeçknkhLke rËðk÷

(D) fqÃkËtíke (iv) Mkh¤ ½xfku{ktYÃkktíkhý Ãkk{u Au.

(E) ÷MkeMíkh (v) J-ykfkhLke fkuÚk¤esuðe h[Lkk

(1) A - iv, B - i, C - v, D - ii, E - iii

(2) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv, E - v

(3) A - ii, B - i, C - v, D - iii, E - iv

(4) A - i, B - iii, C - ii, D - iv, E - v

113. Q{eoðuøkLkk ðnLk {kxu, f÷krðs ÂMÚkrík{kLk ......Lken÷Lk[÷LkLkk Ãkrhýk{u çkLku Au.

(1) Na+ Lke ytík:fku»keÞ «ðkne{ktÚke çkkÌkfku»keÞ «ðkne{kt

(2) Na+ Lke çkkÌkfku»keÞ «ðkne{ktÚke ytík:fku»keÞ «ðkne{kt

(3) Na+ Lke çktLku rËþk{kt

(4) WÃkhLkk{ktÚke yufÃký Lkrn

ADI/3002CM34731801524/35


114. BOD values of different samples of water aregiven :

A B C DBOD=5 BOD=12 BOD=2 BOD=7

Which of the above given sample will haveleast number of Daphnia ?

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

115. Arthropoda is characterised by :-

(1) Triploblastic, bilateral symmetry andabdominal appendages

(2) Bilateral symmetry and a pair of wings

(3) Acoelomates and radial symmetry

(4) Exoskeleton, metameric segmentation andjointed appendages

116. Given below is the karyotype of a Drosophila.On the basis of genic balance theory of C.B.Bridges, the sex of this fly would be :-

>>> <<<

(1) Super female (2) Super male

(3) Intersex (4) Fertile female

117. Correctly match the column-I with column-II:-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Statins (i) Streptococcus

(B) Streptokinase (ii) Penicillium notatum

(C) Penicillin (iii) Saccharomyces cerevisiae

(D) Ethanol (iv) Monascus purpureus

(1) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii

(2) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii

(3) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii

(4) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii

118. Which of the following element has not beenproved to be essential for plant

(1) Zinc (2) Potassium

(3) Sodium (4) Ferous

114. ÃkkýeLkk swËk swËk Lk{wLkkLkwt BOD {wÕÞ ykÃku÷wt Au.

A B C DBOD=5 BOD=12 BOD=2 BOD=7

WÃkh ykÃku÷k Lk{wLkk{ktÚke fkuLkk{kt zuVLkeÞkLkw t MkkiÚke ykuAwt«{ký òuðk {¤u Au ?

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

115. MktrÄÃkkË õÞkt ÷ûkýku îkhk Ëþkoðe þfkÞ.

(1) rºkøk¼oMíkheÞ, rîÃkkïo Mk{r{rík y™u WËheÞ WÃkktøkku

(2) rîÃkkïo Mk{r{íke y™u Ãkkt¾Lke òuzeyku

(3) yËunfkuce y™u yheÞ Mk{r{íke

(4) çkkÌkftfk÷, Mk{¾trzÞ ¾tzíkk y™u MkktÄkðk¤k WÃkktøkku

116. Lke[u ykÃku÷ yu zÙkuMkkurV÷kLkku fuÞkixkEÃk Au. C.B. çkúesLkesLkerLkf Mktíkw÷Lk ÚkeÞheLku ykÄkhu yk {k¾eLkku ®÷øk fÞku nþu.

>>> <<<

(1) MkwÃkh {kËk (2) MkwÃkh Lkh

(3) yktíkhòíkeÞ (4) V¤ÿwÃk {kËk

117. fku÷{-I Lku fkuu÷{-II MkkÚku Mkk[w òuzku :-

fku÷{-I fku÷{-II

(A) MxurxLMk (i) MxÙeÃxkufkufMk

(B) MxÙuÃxkufkELkuÍ (ii) ÃkurLkrMkr÷Þ{ Lkkuxux{

(C) ÃkuLkeMker÷Lk (iii) Mku¬uhku{kÞMkeMk MkuheðeMke

(D) EÚkuLkku÷ (iv) {kuLkkMfMk ÃkwhÃkwheyMk

(1) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii

(2) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii

(3) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii

(4) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii

118. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞw íkíð ðLkMÃkrík {kxu ykð~Þf íkíð MkkrçkíkÚkíkwt LkÚke ?(1) ®Íf (2) ÃkkuxurþÞ{(3) MkkuzeÞ{ (4) VuhMk


25/35ADI/3002CM347318015

119. Two friends x and y have same blood group,

when x donate blood to y, this transfusion will

lead to RBC agglutination in :-

(1) First transfusion if x is Rh– and y is Rh+

(2) First transfusion if x is Rh+ and y is Rh–

(3) Second transfusion if x is Rh– and y is Rh+

(4) Second transfusion if x is Rh+ and y is Rh–

120. The given pedigree is for autosomal dominant

disorder. What will be genotype of III-2 individual?

1

1

1 2

3 4

2

2

I

II

III

(1) AA (2) Aa (3) aa (4) AA or Aa

121. Which of the following food chain is the majorconduct of energy flow in aquatic and terrestrial

ecosystem respectively :

(1) GFC, DFC (2) GFC, PFC

(3) PFC, DFC (4) DFC, GFC

122. Human protein -1-antitrypsin, synthesised by

genetic engineering is used to treat :-

(1) Phenylketonuria

(2) Cystic fibrosis

(3) Emphysema

(4) Adenosine deaminase deficiency

123. Which of the following type of classification

is also called as cladistic :-

(1) Natural classification

(2) Phylogenetic classification

(3) Phenetic classification

(4) Artificial classification

124. Red drop effect is due to :

(1) Inactivation of PS-I

(2) Inactivation of PS-II

(3) Inactivation of both PS-I and PS-II

(4) Inactivation of neither PS-I nor PS-II

119. çku r{ºkku x y™u y Mk{kLk YrÄhsqÚk Ähkðu Au. ßÞkhu x yuy Lku YrÄhLkwt ËkLk fhu Au íÞkhu yk hõíkËkLkLkk fkhýu RBC

Lkwt yuø÷wxeLkuþLk õÞkhu ÚkkÞ ?(1) òu x yu Rh– y™u y yu Rh+ íkku «Úk{ hõíkËkLk Ëhr{ÞkLk(2) òu x yu Rh+ y™u y yu Rh_ íkku «Úk{ hõíkËkLk Ëhr{ÞkLk(3) x yu Rh– y™u y yu Rh+ íkku rîíkeÞ hõíkËkLk Ëhr{ÞkLk(4) x yu Rh+ y™u y yu Rh– íkku rîíkeÞ hõíkËkLk Ëhr{ÞkLk

120. Lke[u ykÃku÷ ðtþkð÷e Ãk]ÚÚkfhý yu «¼kðe Ëirnf ¾k{eËþkoðuAu. íkku III-2 ÔÞÂõík {kxu SLkkuxkEÃk þwt nþu ?

1

1

1 2

3 4

2

2

I

II

III

(1) AA (2) Aa (3) aa (4) AA or Aa

121. Lke[u ykÃku÷ fE yknkh þ]t¾÷k yu yLkw¢{u s÷eÞ y™u MÚk÷srLkðMkLkíktºk{kt þÂõík «ðknLkku {wÏÞ †kuík Au.(1) GFC, DFC (2) GFC, PFC

(3) PFC, DFC (4) DFC, GFC

122. {Lkw»Þ «kuxeLk su -1-yuLxerxÙÂÃMkLk Au suLkwt sLkerLkf EsLkuheîkhk Mkt&÷u»ký fhðk{kt ykðu Au, íkuLkku WÃkÞkuøk(1) rVLkkE÷rfxkuLÞwheÞk(2) rMkÂMxf VkÞçkúkuMkeMk(3) yuÂBÃkMke{k(4) ykurzLkkuMkkELk rzyu{eLkuMk zurVrMkyuÂLMk

123. Lke[uLkk{ktÚke fÞkt ðøkeofhýLku õ÷urzÂMxf ðøkeofhý Ãký fnuAu.(1) LkiMkŠøkf ðøkeofhý(2) VkÞ÷kuSLkuxef ðøkeofhý(3) VuLkuxef ðøkeofhý(4) f]rºk{ ðøkeofhý

124. huzzÙkuÃk yMkh ......îkhk ÚkkÞ Au.

(1) PS-I Lke rLkr»¢Þíkk

(2) PS-II Lke rLkr»¢Þíkk

(3) PS-I y™u PS-II çktLkuLke rLkr»¢Þíkk

(4) PS-I y™u PS-II {ktÚke yufÃkýLke rLkr»¢Þíkk Lknª

ADI/3002CM34731801526/35


125.Glucose, amino acid, Na , H O and K+ +

2

From the above mentioned box how many

things will be actively reabsorbed from PCT .

(1) Five (2) Four

(3) Three (4) Two

126. If the sequence of the coding strand in a

transcription unit is written as follows :

5'-ATGCATGCATGCATGCATGCATGCATGC-3'

Write down the sequence of m-RNA :

(1) 3'-AUGCAUGCAUGCAUGCAUGCAUGCAUGC-5'

(2) 5'-ATGCATGCATGCATGCATGCATGCATGC-3'



127. (a) Leaf tendril (i) Euphorbia

(b) Leaf Spine (ii) Pea

(c) Stem tendril (iii) Bougainvillea

(d) Stem thorn (iv) Gourds

(v) Grapes

Choose the correct match.

(1) a-v, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-v, d-i

(3) a-iv, b-i, c-v, d-iii

(4) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii

128. During mensturation cycle the hormone

responsible for LH surge is :-

(1) Estrogen (2) Progesterone

(3) Relaxin (4) Testosterone

129. Which of the following statement is not

correct :

(1) In translation, amino acids are added one

by one, translated into polypeptide

sequences dictaled by DNA and

represented by m-RNA

(2) Lac operator is present only in the lac

operon and it interact specifically with lac

repressor only

125. ø÷wfkuÍ, yur{Lkku yurMkz y™u, Na, HO K+ +2

WÃkh Ëþkoðu÷ fkuüf{ktÚke fux÷k Mkr¢Þ heíku PCT {ktÚkeÃkwLk:þku»ký Ãkk{u Au ?

(1) Ãkkt[ (2) [kh

(3) ºký (4) çku

126. «íÞktfLk yuf{{kt Mkktfuíkef þ]t¾÷k{kt ¢{ yk «{kýu nkuÞ : 5'-ATGCATGCATGCATGCATGCATGCATGC-3'

íkku m-RNA Lke þ]t¾÷kLkku ¢{ þwt nþu ?(1) 3'-AUGCAUGCAUGCAUGCAUGCAUGCAUGC-5'

(2) 5'-ATGCATGCATGCATGCATGCATGCATGC-3'



127. (a) Ãkýo Mkqºkktøkku (i) ÞwVkuçkeoÞk

(b) Ãkýo ftxf (ii) ðxkýk

(c) «fktz Mkqºkktøkku (iii) çkkuøkLkðu÷eÞk

(d) «fktz ftxf (iv) økkuyzo

(v) ÿkûk

Mkk[w ÃkMktË fhku.

(1) a-v, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-v, d-i

(3) a-iv, b-i, c-v, d-iii

(4) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii

128. {krMkf[¢ Ëhr{ÞkLk fÞku ytík:†kð LH Mkso {kxu sðkçkËkhAu ?

(1) EMxÙkusLk (2) «kusuMxuhkuLk

(3) rh÷uÂõMkLk (4) xuMxkuMxuhkuLk

129. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞw rðÄkLk Mkk[w LkÚke.

(1) ¼k»kktíkhý{kt, yur{Lkku yurMkz yuf ÃkAe yuf W{uhkÞ Auy™u DNA îkhk ykËuþeík Úkíke íkÚkk m-RNA îkhkrLkËuorþík Úkíke Ãkkur÷ÃkuÃxkEf þ]t¾÷k{kt ¼k»kktíkheík ÚkkÞAu.

(2) ÷uf ykuÃkhuxh Võík ÷uf ykuÃkuhkuLk{kt nksh nkuÞ Au y™uíku y{wf rðrþü ÷uf rLkøkúknf MkkÚku «ríkr¢Þk fhu Au.


27/35ADI/3002CM347318015

(3) UTR (Untranslated regions) are present at

both 5' end (before start codon) and at 3'

end (after stop codon)

(4) In eukaryotes, control of the rate of

transcriptional initiation is the predominant

site for control of gene expression

130. Select the process which is used to overcomethe effect of inbreeding depression ?

(1) Inbreeding

(2) Out breeding

(3) Out crossing

(4) Interspecific hybridisation

131. Which of the following statement is not true forthe given diagram.

(1) It provides the mechanical support to thegrowing part of plant such as young stemand petiole of leaves.

(2) It is present below the epidermis in the formof homogenous layer or a patches in dicotstem.

(3) It is present in form of semilunar patchesin the pericycle of dicot stem.

(4) They can assimilate food.

132. In the given four statements (A-D), select theoptions which includes all the correct ones :-

(A)LNG-20 makes uterus unsuitable forimplantation.

(B) Rete testis, testis, epididymis are maleaccessory ducts.

(C) Placenta is formed only by maternal tissues.

(D)By the end of second month of pregnancyfoetus develops limbs and digits.

(1) A, B, C (2) B, C

(3) A, D (4) B, D

(3) UTR (Untranslated regions) yu 5' Auzu (MktfuíkLkeþYykík Ãknu÷k) y™u 3' Auzu (MktfuíkLkk ytík ÃkAe) çktLkusøÞkyu nksh nkuÞ Au.

(4) Mkwfku»kfuLÿeÞ{kt «íÞktfLkLke þYykíkLkk ËhLkwt rLkÞtºký yusLkeLk yr¼ÔÞÂõíkLkk rLkÞtºkýLkwt {níðLkwt MÚkkLk Au.

130. Lke[uLkk{ktÚke yuðe «r¢Þk ÃkMktË fhku su ytík:Mktfhý ËkçkLkeyMkhLku rLkðkhðk {kxu WÃkÞkuøke Au ?

(1) ytík: Mktfhý

(2) çkŠn Mktfhý

(3) çkkÌk Mktfhý

(4) yktíkhòíkeÞ Mktfhý

131. Lke[u ykÃku÷ Ãkife fÞw rðÄkLk ykf]ríkLku yLkw÷ûkeLku Mkk[w LkÚke.

(1) íku ð]rØ Ãkk{íke ðLkMÃkríkLkk ytøkku suðk fu ÃkýoLkku ÃkýoËtzAu. íku{s íkYý «fktzLku Þktrºkf ykÄkh Ãkqhku Ãkkzu Au.

(2) íku yrÄMíkhLke Lke[u Mk{ktøk Míkh íkhefu yÚkðk íkwxf ÃkèkMðYÃku rîË¤e «fktz{kt nksh nkuÞ Au.

(3) íku rîË¤e «fktzLkk Ãkrh[¢Lkk yã[tÿkfkh Ãkèk MðYÃku nkshnkuÞ Au.

(4) íku ¾kuhkfLku Mðktøkef]ík fhe þfu Au.132. ykÃku÷k [kh rðÄkLkku (A-D), {ktÚke yuðku rðfÕÃk ÃkMktË fhku.

su çkÄk Mkk[k rðÄkLk Ähkðu Au.(A)LNG-20 øk¼koþÞLku øk¼oMÚkkÃkLk {kxu yÞkuøÞ çkLkkðu

Au.(B) Rete testis, þw¢®Ãkz y™u yrÄð]»ký Lkr÷fkyu ÃkwÁ»k

«sLkLk MknkÞf Lkr÷fkyku Au.(C) shkÞwLkw rLk{koý Võík {kík]Ãkuþe îkhk ÚkkÞ Au.(D)øk¼koðMÚkkLkk çkeò {rnLkkLkk ytík MkwÄe ¼úqý{kt WÃkktøk

y™u yktøk¤eyku rðfMku Au.(1) A, B, C (2) B, C

(3) A, D (4) B, D

ADI/3002CM34731801528/35


133. Which one of the following plants is

monoecious?

(1) Cycas (2) Marchantia

(3) Pinus (4) Papaya

134. In mammalian ear, a membranous structure

which separate the scala vestibuli and scala

media is :-

(1) Basilar membrane

(2) Reissner’s membrane

(3) Autolith membrane

(4) Tectorial membrane

135. How many of the following statements are

correct regarding properties of enzymes ?

(A)It lowers down the activation energy

(B) An active site of an enzyme is a pocket into

which the substrate fits.

(C) The catalytic structure of most of the

enzyme is primary and globular

(D)Carbonic anhydrase enzyme is considered

as fastest enzyme

(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 1

136. Which of the following statement is/are true ?

(1) Diffusion capacity of CO2 is 20-25 times

higher than that of O2

(2) The solubility of CO2 is 20-25 times higher

than that of O2

(3) The diffusion capacity of O2 is 20-25 times

higher than that of CO2

(4) More than one statements are correct.

137. If the vagus nerves (main nerves of the

parasympathetic nervous system) were cut,

which of the following would be true ?

(1) The heart would stop beating

(2) The diaphragm would be paralysed

(3) Adrenaline secretion by the adrenal gland

would cease

(4) None of (1), (2) and (3)

133. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fE ðLkMÃkrík yufMkËLke Au ?

(1) MkkÞfMk (2) {kfuoÂLþÞk

(3) ÃkkELkMk (4) ÃkÃkiÞk

134. MkMíkLkLkk fýo{kt, Ãkx÷eÞ çktÄkhý fu su Mfu÷k ðuMxeçÞw÷ y™uMfu÷k r{rzÞkLku y÷øk fhu Au.

(1) çkuMke÷h f÷k

(2) rhMkuLkMko f÷k

(3) ykuxkur÷Úk f÷k

(4) xufxkurhÞ÷ f÷k

135. WíMku[fLke ÷kûkrýfíkkykuLku yLkw÷ûkeLku Lke[uLkk{ktÚke fux÷kðkõÞku Mkk[k Au ?

(A) íku Mkr¢Þfhý QòoLku ½xkzu Au.

(B) WíMku[fLkwt Mkr¢Þ MÚkkLk ¾kt[ Ähkðu Au fu su{kt «r¢Þf çktÄçkuMku Au.

(C) {kuxk¼køkLkk WíMku[fkuLkwt WÆeÃkfeÞ çktÄkhý «kÚkr{f y™uøkku¤kfkh nkuÞ Au.

(D)fkçkorLkf yuLk nkEzÙuÍ WíMku[fLku MkkiÚke ÍzÃke WíMku[føkýðk{kt ykðu Au.

(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 1

136. Lke[uLkk{ktÚke fux÷k ðkõÞku Mkk[kt Au ?

(1) CO2 Lke «Mkhý ûk{íkkyu O2 Lke «Mkhý ûk{íkk fhíkk20-25 Äýe ðÄkhu nkuÞ Au.

(2) CO2 Lke ÿkÔÞíkkyu O2 Lke ÿkÔÞíkk fhíkk 20-25 ÄýeðÄkhu nkuÞ Au.

(3) O2 Lke «Mkhý ûk{íkkyu CO2 Lke «Mkhý ûk{íkk fhíkk20-25 Äýe ðÄkhu nkuÞ Au.

(4) yuf fhíkkt ðÄw ðkõÞku Mkk[k Au.

137. òu ðuøkMk [uíkk (ÃkhkLkwftÃke [uíkkíktºkLke {wÏÞ [uíkk)Lku fkÃkðk{ktykðu íkku, Lke[uLkk{ktÚke fÞwt Mkk[wt Au.

(1) ÓËÞ yu ÄçkfðkLkwt çktÄ fhþu.

(2) WhkuËhÃkx÷ ÷fðkøkúMík Úkþu.

(3) yurzÙLk÷økútrÚk îkhk Úkíkku yurzÙLkkr÷LkLkku †kð çktÄ Úkþu.

(4) (1), (2) yLku (3) {ktÚke fkuE Lkrn


29/35ADI/3002CM347318015

138. Which of the following statement is wrongregarding rules of nomenclature ?

(1) The first word denoting the genus starts witha capital letter.

(2) The specific epithet starts with a small letter.

(3) Biological names are printed in italics toindicate their latin origin.

(4) In the biological name - Mangifera indicaL, 'L' denotes the word 'Latin'.

139. In eukaryotic cells the proteins that willfunction as ribonucleoproteins are made by :-

(1) Ribosomes in nucleolus

(2) Ribosomes in mitochondria

(3) Ribosomes in cytoplasm

(4) Ribosome in chloroplast

140. According to Central Pollution Control Board(CPCB), PM 2.5 refers to particulate matterhaving an average diameter of :-

(1) 2.5 nm (2) 2.5 Å

(3) 2.5 µm (4) 2.5 mm

141. Which of following event is not take place afterthe degeneration of generative cell in pollengrain:-

(1) Entry of pollen tube inside the embryosac

(2) Fertilization

(3) Only triple fusion but not syngamy

(4) Neither entry of pollen-tube inside theembryosac nor fertilization

142. In which of the following, electron producedthrough photolysis of water will enter the noncyclic photophosphorylation ?

(1) PS I (2) PS II

(3) PC (4) PQ

143. Choose the correct statement about Darwinism:-

(1) It explains about arrival of fittest

(2) It doesn't talk about variations

(3) The main drawback was, it couldn't explainthe reason of variations

(4) According to darwin, fitness refers toultimately and only to adaptive fitness

138. Lkk{fhýLkk rLkÞ{kuLku yLkw÷ûkeLku Lke[u ykÃku÷ fÞwt rðÄkLk ¾kuxwtAu ?(1) «òrík Ëþkoðíkk þçËkuLkku Ãknu÷ku yûkh furÃkx÷ yûkhÚke

þYÚkkÞ Au.(2) yuf òríkÞ rðþu»kf (epithet) Lke þYykík LkkLke

r÷ÃkeÚke fhkÞ Au.(3) íkuykuLkk ÷urxLk {q¤Lku Ëþkoððk {kxu Sðrð¿kkLkef Lkk{

Exkr÷f{kt ÷¾ðk{kt ykðu Au(4) siðði¿kkrLkf Lkk{ - Mangifera indica L, yne 'L'

þçË 'Latin' Mkq[ðu Au.139. ÞwfuheÞkuxef fku»k{kt heçÞkuLÞwÂõ÷yku«kuxeLk íkhefu fkÞo fhíkkt

«kuxeLMk fuðe heíku çkLÞk nkuÞ Au.(1) fku»kfurLÿfk{kt heçkkuÍkuBMk îkhk(2) fýk¼Mkqºk{kt heçkkuÍkuBMk îkhk(3) fku»khMk{kt heçkkuÍkuBMk îkhk(4) nheíkfý{kt heçkkuÍkuBMk îkhk

140. MkuLxÙ÷ ÃkkuÕÞwþLk ftxÙku÷ çkkuzo (CPCB) yLkwMkkh PM 2.5Ëþkoðu Au fu ÃkkxeoõÞw÷ux {uxh yu Mkhuhkþ ...... sux÷ku ÔÞkMkÄhkðu Au.(1) 2.5 nm (2) 2.5 Å

(3) 2.5 µm (4) 2.5 mm

141. Ãkhkøkhs{kt sLkLkfku»kLkkt rð½xLk ÃkAe Lke[uLkk Ãkife fE «r¢ÞkÚkíke LkÚke ?

(1) ¼úqý Ãkqx{kt ÃkhkøkLkr÷fkLkku «ðuþ.

(2) V÷Lk

(3) Võík rºkfeÞ òuzký Ãkhtíkw sLÞwòuzký Lknª.

(4) ¼úqý Ãkqx{kt ÃkhkøkLkr÷fk «ðuþ Lknª. íku{ V÷Lk Ãký Lkrn.

142. Lke[uLkk Ãkife þu{kt, ÃkkýeLkkt «fkþ «uheík rð½xLk îkhk WíÃkLLkÚkÞu÷ku E÷uõxÙkuLk y[¢eÞ Vkuxku VkuMVkuhkÞ÷uþLk{kt «ðuþu Au ?

(1) PS I (2) PS II

(3) PC (4) PQ

143. zkŠðLkLkk Wí¢ktríkðkËLkk ykÄkhu Mkk[w rðÄkLk ÃkMktË fhku :-

(1) íku ÞkuøÞík{Lkw t ykøk{Lk Ëþkoðu Au.

(2) íku rðrðÄíkk rðþu ðkík fhíkkt LkÚke.

(3) {wÏÞ ¾k{e yu níke, íku rðrðÄíkkLkk fkhýku Mk{òðíkkuLkÚke.

(4) zkŠðLk {wsçk, ÞkuøÞíkk yu yk¾hu yLku {kºk yLkwfq÷Lkþe÷ÞkuøÞíkk Au.

ADI/3002CM34731801530/35


144. Recognise the figure and find out the correct

match :-

COOH|C|

H

H – – NH2

(a)

COOH|C|

CH3

COOH|C|

CH –OH2

H – – NH2 H – – NH2

(b) (c)(1) a-serine, b-glucine, c-alanine

(2) a-glycine, b-serine, c-alanine

(3) a-glycine, b-alanine, c-serine

(4)a-alanine, b-serine, c-glycine

145. Which type of plant shows clear cut vegetative,

reproductive and senescent phases :-

(1) Pea (2) Mango

(3) Orange (4) Plum

146. Mutations are :-

(A) Random (B) Discontinuous

(C) Continuous (D) Directionless

In above question, how many points are

correct.

(1) Two (2) Three

(3) Four (4) Five

147. Auxin is not used in :-

(1) Parthenocarpy in tomatoes

(2) Flowering in pineapple

(3) Improve shape in apple

(4) Xylem differentiation

148. The extinction of passenger pigeon was due to

(1) Increased number of predatory birds

(2) Over exploitation

(3) Non-availability of the food

(4) Disease in pigeon

149. Which of the following is most effective

method of contraception :-

(1) Spermicidal chemicals

(2) Condom

(3) Copper releasing IUDS

(4) Hormonal oral pills for females

144. ykÃku÷e ykf]ríkLkk ykÄkhu Mkk[e òuz ÃkMktË fhku :-COOH|C|

H

H – – NH2

(a)

COOH|C|

CH3

COOH|C|

CH –OH2

H – – NH2 H – – NH2

(b) (c)(1) a-MkuheLk, b-ø÷wMkeLk, c-yu÷uLkkELk(2) a-ø÷kÞMkeLk, b-MkuheLk, c-yu÷uLkkELk(3) a-ø÷kÞMkeLk, b-yu÷uLkkELk, c-MkuheLk(4)a-yu÷uLkkELk, b-MkuheLk, c-ø÷kÞMkeLk

145. fÞk «fkhLke ðLkMÃkrík ðkLkMÃkríkf, «sLkLk yLku Sýoíkk suðkMÃkü íkçk¬k Ëþkoðu Au ?(1) ðxkýk (2) fuhe(3) Lkkhtøke (4) shËk¤wt (Plum)

146. rðf]rík yu ......

(A) yMíkÔÞMík (B) yMkíkík

(C) Mkíkík (D) îeËeþkfeÞ

WÃkhLkk «&™{kt fux÷k {wÆk Mkk[k Au.(1) 2 (2) 3

(3) 4 (4) 5

147. ykìÂõÍLkLkku WÃkÞkuøk ...... {kt Úkíkku LkÚke.

(1) ÃkkÚkoLkkufkŠÃkf xk{uxk

(2) yLkkLkMk{kt Ãkw»ÃkkuËT¼ð

(3) MkVhsLkLkk ykfkh{kt MkwÄkhku

(4) s÷ðknf{kt rð¼uËLk

148. «ðkMke fçkqíkh ÃkûkeykuLkwt ÷wÃík ÚkðkLkwt fkhý

(1) rþfkhe ÃkûkeykuLke MktÏÞk{kt ðÄkhku ÚkÞku níkku.

(2) ðÄw Ãkzíkw þku»ký

(3) yknkhLke y«kÂÃík

(4) fçkwíkh{kt hkuøk

149. Lke[u ykÃku÷ Ãkife øk¼oyðhkuÄLk {kxu MkkiÚke «¼kðe ÃkØrík fEAu ?(1) þw¢fku»k Lkkþf Vku{(2) rLkhkuÄ(3) fkìÃkh {wõík fhíke IUDS

(4) †eyku {kxuLke {kU ðkxu ÷uðkíke ytík:†kðÞwõík økku¤eyku


31/35ADI/3002CM347318015

150. Choose the statement which is not incorrect :-

(1) Adaptive ability has no genetic basis

(2) When we describe the story of this worldwe describe evolution as a result

(3) According to Darwin natural selection isbased on certain observations which arefactual

(4) Mutations are small and directional whiledarwinian variations are large anddirectionless

151. Mycelium of Basidiomycetes is :-

(1) Branched and septate

(2) Unbranched and aseptate

(3) Branched and coenocytic

(4) Unbranched and coenocytic

152. Identify A,B & C in given diagram :-

A C

B

A B C

(1) Histone H1 DNA Histoneoctamer

(2) DNA Histone octamer Histone H1

(3) Histone octamer Histone H1 DNA(4) Histone octamer DNA Histone H1

153. How many of the following events are requiredfor the evolution of a species ?

Competition, struggle, variation, naturalselection, reproductive isolation.

(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Five

154. In roots :-

Type of development Condition of xylem

(1) Centrifugal Exarch

(2) Centripetal Mesarch

(3) Centrifugal Endarch

(4) Centripetal Exarch

150. su rðÄkLk ¾kuxw LkÚke íku ÃkMktË fhku.

(1) yLkwfq÷Lk ûk{íkk sLkeLkef ykÄkh Ähkðíke LkÚke.

(2) ßÞkhu ykÃkýu ËwrLkÞkLke ðkíkko fheyu Aeyu íÞkhu ykÃkýuWËTrðfkMkLku Ãkrhýk{ íkhefu Ëþkoðeu Aeyu.

(3) zkŠðLkLkk {ík «{kýu LkiMkŠøkf ÃkMktËøke yu y{wf yð÷kufLkykÄkheík Au su ðkMíkrðf Au.

(4) rðf]r¥k LkkLke yLku rËþkfeÞ Au ßÞkhu zkŠðLkLke rððÄíkkrðþk¤ yLku rËþkneLk Au.

151. çkuMkezeÞku{kÞMkexeMkLke fðfò¤ yu ......(1) þk¾eík yLku ÃkËzk Þwõík(2) yþk¾eík yLku ÃkËzk rðneLk(3) þk¾eíkLku yLku MkeLkkuMkkÞxef(4) yþk¾eík yLku MkeLkkuMkkÞxef

152 ykÃku÷ ykf]rík{kt A,B & C Lku yku¤¾ku :-

A C

B

A B C

(1) rnMxk uLk H1DNA rnMxkuLk

yk ufxk{h

(2) DNA rnMxkuLk yk ufxk{h rnMxkuLk H1

(3) rnMxk uLk ykufxk{h rnMxkuLk H1DNA

(4) rnMxk uLk yk ufxk{h DNA rnMxkuLk H1

153. òríkLkk WËTrðfkMkLku ykÄkhu Lke[u ykÃku÷ Ãkife fux÷e ½xLkkykusYhe Au ?

MÃkÄko, Mkt½»ko, rðrðÄíkk fwËhíke ÃkMktËøke, «sLkLk{kt rðrðÄíkk

(1) yuf (2) çku (3) ºký (4) Ãkkt[

154. {q¤{kt ....... :-

rðfkMkLkku «fkh s÷ðknfLke ÂMÚkrík(1) fuLÿíÞkøke çkŠnhkht¼e(2) fuLÿøkk{e {æÞkht¼e(3) fuLÿíÞkøke ytíkhkht¼e(4) fuLÿøkk{e çkŠnhkht¼e

ADI/3002CM34731801532/35


155. One pair segregates independently of anotherpair is always applicable for :-

(1) Chromosome

(2) Gene

(3) Neither chromosome nor gene

(4) Both chromosome and gene

156. Kyoto protocol aim at :-

(a) Control of CO2 emission

(b) Reduction of Ozone depletion substance

(c) Conserve biodiversity

(d) Control over global warming

(1) a,b (2) a,b,c

(3) c,d (4) a,d

157. Ctenoplana belongs to a group of animalswhich are best described as

(1) Multicellular with radial symmetry

(2) Organ level of organisation with radialsymmetry

(3) Unicellular with radial symmetry

(4) Blind sac body plan with organ level oforganisation .

158. Oxidative phosphorylation is related with :-

(1) Chloroplast (2) Mitochondria

(3) Lysosome (4) E.R.

159. Which of the following are not the commonsymptoms of typhoid :-

(1) Weakness (2) Loss of appetite

(3) Constipation (4) Intestinal blockage

160. At atmospheric pressure if water potetnial of asolution is w = – 2 bar, then what happen whenexternal pressure applied on the solution :-

(1) w increases (2) w decreases

(3) w no change (4) w = – 3 bar

161. Allelic sequence variation has traditionallybeen described as a DNA polymorphism ifmore than one variant (allele) at a locus occursin human population with a frequency________:-

(1) Less than 0.01 (2) Greater than 0.01

(3) Less than 0.1 (4) Greater than 0.1

155. yuf òuz yLÞ òuzíke nt{uþk Mðíktºk Ãkýu rð&÷u»ký Ãkk{u yuyu ykLkk {kxu ðÃkhkÞ Au.

(1) htøkMkqºk

(2) sLkeLk

(3) htøkMkqºk fu sLkeLk fkuEÃkýLkrn

(4) htøkMkqºk yLku sLkeLk çkLLku

156. õÞkuxku «kuxkufku÷ Lkwt yk ÷ûÞ Au :-

(a) CO2 Lkk WíMksoLkLkwt rLkÞtºký

(b) ykuÍkuLkLkwt ¼tøkký fhíkk ÃkËkÚkoLkwt ½xðwt.

(c) siðrðrðÄíkkLke Mkk[ðýe

(d) ðirïf íkkÃk{kLk ðÄkhk WÃkh rLkÞtºký

(1) a,b (2) a,b,c

(3) c,d (4) a,d

157. xeLkkuÃ÷kLkk yu «kýeLkk Mk{qn{kt Mk{kðuþeík Au su .....

(1) yheÞ Mk{r{íke MkkÚku çknwfku»keÞ

(2) yheÞ Mk{r{íke MkkÚku ytøkMíkheÞ ykÞkusLk

(3) yheÞ Mk{r{íke MkkÚku yuffku»keÞ

(4) ytøk MíkheÞ ykÞkusLk MkkÚku ytÄfkuÚk¤e suðw þheh Mk{ík÷

158. ykìÂõMkzuxeð VkuMVhefhý ykLke MkkÚku MktçktÄeík Au.

(1) nrhíkfý (2) fýk¼Mkqºk

(3) ÷kÞMkkuÍku{ (4) E.R.

159. Lke[uLkk{ktÚke fÞk Mkk{kLÞ ÷ûký LkÚke :-

(1) yþÂõík (2) ¼q¾Lkku y¼kð

(3) fçkSÞkík (4) yktºkeÞ yðhkuÄ

160. ðkíkkðhýeÞ Ëçkkýu òu yuf ÿkðýLke s÷ûk{íkk w = – 2çkkh Au. íkku ÿkðý WÃkh çkkÌk Ëçkký ykÃkíkk þwt Úkþu ?

(1) w ðÄu (2) w ½xu

(3) w çkË÷kþu Lkrn (4) w = – 3 çkkh

161. òu {Lkw»ÞLke ðMkíke{kt ........ ykð]ríkÚke fkuE yuf MÚkkLku yuffhíkk t ðÄw sLkeLk r¼Òkíkk òuðk {¤u íkku sLkeLkþ]t¾÷kLkuÃkhtÃkhkøkík heíku DNA Ãkku÷e{kuŠVÍe{ (polymorphism)íkhefu ðýoðk{kt ykðu÷ Au.

(1) 0.01 fhíkkt ykuAe (2) 0.01 fhíkkt ðÄw

(3) 0.1 fhíkkt ykuAe (4) 0.1 fhíkkt ðÄw


33/35ADI/3002CM347318015

162. In amphibians and reptiles, respiratory

structure/organ receives :-

(1) Deoxygenated blood

(2) Oxygenated blood

(3) Mixed blood


163. SnRNPs bind at :-

(1) 5' and 3' terminals of exons

(2) 5' and 3' terminals of introns

(3) 5' UTR of mRNA

(4) 3' UTR of mRNA

164. The body cells in Cockroach discharge their

nitrogenous waste in the haemolymph mainly

in the form of :-

(1) Calcium Carbonate (2) Ammonia

(3) Potassium Urate (4) Uric - acid

165. Select the odd one for geometric growth :-

(1) W1 = W0 ert (2) L1 = L0 e

rt

(3) N1 = N0 ert (4) Lt = L0 + rt

166. Which of the following is not a method of

physiological adaptation :-

(1) Antifreezing protein in fish to tolerate cold

(2) Urine concentration in kangaroo rat

(3) Internal fat oxidation for water in kangaroo rat

(4) Increased heart pulsation on high altitude

167. Which one is not characteristics feature of

community:

(1) Productivity

(2) Species dominancy

(3) Species diversity

(4) Stratification

168. Which one of the following is not a secondary

messenger in hormone action ?

(1) Cyclic AMP (2) IP3

(3) Ca++ (4) Sodium

162. Q¼ÞSðeyku yLku MkrhMk]Ãk{kt ïMkLkíktºk yk Mðefkhu Au.

(1) ykìÂõMksLk rðrnLk Yrh

(2) ykìÂõMksLk Þwõík YrÄh

(3) r{© YrÄh

(4) WÃkh{ktÚke yufÃký Lkne

163. SnRNPs yu ykLke MkkÚku òuzký fhu :-

(1) yuõÍkuLkLkkt 5' yLku 3' Auzk Ãkh

(2) ELxÙkuLkLkkt 5' yLku 3' Auzk Ãkh

(3) mRNA Lkk 5' UTR Ãkh

(4) mRNA Lkk 3' UTR Ãkh

164. ðtËk{kt ykðu÷kt Ëinef fku»kku, LkkExÙkusLk Þqõík WíMkøkoÿÔÞkuLkwtrn{kur÷BV{kt fÞkt MðYÃku †kð fhu Au ?

(1) fuÂÕþÞ{ fkçkkuoLkux (2) yu{kurLkÞk

(3) ÃkkuxurþÞ{ Þwhux (4) Þwrhf-yìrMkz

165. ¼kir{ríkf ð]rØ {kxu Lke[u{kLkwt fÞw yuf yMktøkík sýkÞ Au ?

(1) W1 = W0 ert (2) L1 = L0 e

rt

(3) N1 = N0 ert (4) Lt = L0 + rt

166. Lke[uLkk{ktÚke fÞwt yuf ËinÄkŠ{f yLkwfq÷LkLkwt QËknhý LkÚke ?

(1) XtzeÚke «ríkfkhfíkk {u¤ððkt {kA÷eyku{k t ykðu÷w tyuÂLxVeStøk «kuxeLk.

(2) fktøkkY ôËh{kt {qºkLkwt MktfuLÿý

(3) fktøkkY ôËh yu yktíkhef [hçkeLkkt ykìÂõMkzuþLk îkhkÃkkýeLkk «kÃíke fhu.

(4) ðÄwt Ÿ[kEyu ÓË ÄçkfkhkykuLke MktÏÞk ðÄðe.

167. õÞku yuf sirðf Mk{ksLke ÷kûkrýfíkk økwý LkÚke ?

(1) WíÃkLkkËfíkk (2) «¼krð òríkyku

(3) òrík rðrðÄíkk (4) Míkhefhý

168. Lke[uLkk{ktÚke fÞku yuf ytík:†kðe r¢ÞkrðÄe{kt rîíkeÞfMktËuþkðknf LkÚke ?

(1) MkkÞf÷ef AMP (2) IP3

(3) Ca++ (4) MkkuzeÞ{

ADI/3002CM34731801534/35


169. When a flower can be divided into two equal

halves in any radial plane passing through the

centre, it is said to be ......... and found in ........:-

(1) Actinomorphic, Bean

(2) Actinomorphic, Mustard

(3) Asymmetric, Pea

(4) Zygomorphic, chilli

170. In a diploid cell after S-phase quantity of DNA

is 80 Pg (picogram) after anaphase-II situation

will be in each daughter nucleus :-

(1) Diploid 40, Pg DNA

(2) Diploid 20, Pg DNA

(3) Haploid 40, Pg DNA

(4) Haploid 20, Pg DNA

171. Which of the following is not features of human

genome ?

(1) Lessthan 2% of genome codes for protein

(2) Chromosome 1 has fewest genes (231)

(3) Repetitive sequences make up very large

portion of human DNA

(4) Functions are unknown for over 50% of

discovered gene

172. Which of the following annelid is dioecious ?

(1) Nereis (2) Pheretima

(3) Hirudinaria (4) Both (2) & (3)

173. Identify the phase of mitosis from given

diagram:-

(C)(A) (B)

A B C

(1) Metaphase Anaphase Prophase

(2) Metaphase Anaphase Telophase

(3) Anaphase Metaphase Prophase

(4) Metaphase Telophase Anaphase

169. ßÞkhu Ãkw»ÃkLku íkuLke ykÞk{Äheyu yux÷u fu ÷tçk yûku {æÞ{ktÚkeøk{u íku ík÷u, fkÃkíkk çku Mkh¾k yÄo¼køk{kt ðnU[e þfkÞ íkuðkíkuLku ........ Ãkw»Ãk yLku íku ........ {kt òuðk {¤u Au.(1) yheÞ Mk{r{rík, ðk÷(2) yheÞ Mk{r{rík, hkE(3) yMk{r{rík, ðxkýk(4) îeyheÞ Mk{r{rík, {h[k

170. yuf rîfeÞ fku»k{kt S-íkçk¬k çkkË DNALkwt «{ký 80 PgAu íkku ¼ksLkku¥khk ðMÚkk-II çkkË Ëhuf çkk¤ fku»kfuLÿ{kt .....(1) rîfeÞ 40, Pg DNA

(2) rîfeÞ 20, Pg DNA

(3) yuffeÞ 40, Pg DNA

(4) yuffeÞ 20, Pg DNA

171. Lke[uLkk{ktÚke fÞwt Ìkw{Lk SLkku{Lkw t ÷ûký LkÚke ?(1) 2% fhíkk Ãký ykuAw sLkeLk ÿÔÞ «kuxeLkLkwt MktfuíkLk fhu.(2) htøkMkqºk 1 MkkiÚke ykuAk sLkeLk (231) Ähkðu.(3) ÃkqLkhkðŠíkík þ]t¾÷kyku {Lkw»ÞLkk DNA Lkku {kuxku ¼køk

çkLkkðu Au.(4) þkuÄkÞu÷k sLkeLkkuLkk 50% sLkeLkkuLkk fkÞkuo yòý Au.

172. Lke[uLkk{ktÚke fÞwt LkqÃkqhf yuf÷ªøke Au ?

(1) LkuheMk (2) Vuhexe{k

(3) neYzeLkkheÞk (4) (2) yLku (3) çktLku

173. Lke[u ykÃku÷ ykf]ríkLku yLkw÷ûkeLku Mk{rð¼ksLkLkk íkçk¬kLkuyku¤¾ku.

(C)(A) (B)

A B C

(1) ¼ksLkkðMÚkk ¼ksLkkuíkhkðMÚkk ÃkqðkoðMÚkk

(2) ¼ksLkkðMÚkk ¼ksLkkuíkhkðMÚkk ytíÞkðMÚkk

(3) ¼ksLkkuíkhkðMÚkk ¼ksLkkðMÚkk ÃkqðkoðMÚkk

(4) ¼ksLkkðMÚkk ytíÞkðMÚkk ¼ksLkkuíkhkðMÚkk


35/35ADI/3002CM347318015

174. Mineral that required for growth of pollen tubeis:-

(1) Mn (2) B

(3) Cu (4) Mg

175. What is not true for genetic code ?

(1) It is unambiguous

(2) It is nearly universal

(3) If a nucleotide is deleted or added, wholegenetic code read differently

(4) Codons in mRNA read in a non-contiguousfashion

176. Trap door mechanism of pollination is acharacteristic adaptation for entomophily inwhich plant :-

(1) Ficus (2) Vallisneria

(3) Salvia (4) Yucca

177. Which of the following plant roots absorb waterand minerals from soil through symbioticassociation ?

(1) Cycas (2) Pea

(3) Pinus (4) All angiosperm

178. Crossing over occurs :-

(a) Between non-sister chromatids ofhomologous chromosomes.

(b) Between two different linkage groups.

(c) Within a linkage group.

(d) Between non-homologous chromosomes.

Choose correct statements :

(1) a, b (2) a, c

(3) c, d (4) b, d

179. Connell's elegant field experiment wasperformed on sea coast's of which country :-

(1) America (2) Scotland

(3) Galapagos Island (4) Australlia

180. Autoecology does not deals with the study atwhich of the following level :-

(1) Population level

(2) species level

(3) Community level

(4) Organism level

174. ÃkhkøkLkr÷fkLke ð]rØ {kxu ........ ¾Lkesíkíð sYhe Au.(1) Mn (2) B

(3) Cu (4) Mg

175. sLkeLk Mktfuík {kxu þqt Mkk[wt LkÚke ?(1) íku yðLkík Au.(2) íku ÷øk¼øk Mkkðorºkf Au.(3) òu yuf LÞqõ÷eÞkuxkRz ze÷ex ÚkkÞ yÚkðk W{uhkÞ íkku

MktÃkqýo sLkeLk Mktfuík swËe heíku ðt[kþu.(4) mRNA {kt hnu÷k Mktfuíkku yMkíkík heíku ðt[kíkk nkuÞ Au.

176. ÃkhkøkLkÞLk {kxuLke Trap door ÃkØrík yu yuLx{kurV÷e {kxuyuf ÷kûkrýf yLkw÷wLk Au su ....... ðLkMÃkrík{kt òuðk {¤uAu.(1) ðz (2) ðu÷eMLkuheÞk(3) MkkÂÕðÞk (4) Þw¬k

177. Lke[uLkk{ktÚke fE ðLkMÃkríkLkk {q¤ s{eLk{ktÚke Ãkkýe yLkuÃkku»kfÿÔÞkuLkwt þku»ký ÃkhMÃkh MknSðLkLkk îkhk fhu Au.(1) MkkÞfMk (2) ðxkýk(3) ÃkkELkMk (4) çkÄe s ykð]íkçkesÄkhe

178. ÔÞríkfhý ....... {kt Úkþu.(a) Mk{òík htøkMkqºkLke yËkurnºk htøkMkqrºkfk ðå[u.(b) çku swËk swËk ÷ªfus Mk{qn ðå[u.(c) yuf ÷ªfus Mk{qn{kt(d) yMk{òík htøkMkqºkku ðå[uMkk[k rðÄkLk þkuÄku :

(1) a, b (2) a, c

(3) c, d (4) b, d

179. fkuLk÷Lkku ûkuºk ÃkhLkku ¼ÔÞ «Þkuøk yu fÞk ËuþLkk ËheÞk rfLkkhkWÃkh fhðk{kt ykÔÞku níkku ?(1) y{urhfk (2) Mfkux÷uLz(3) øku÷kÃkuøkkuMk xkÃkw (4) ykuMxÙu÷eÞk

180. ykuxufku÷kuS Lke[uLkk{ktÚke fÞk Míkh WÃkhLkk yÇÞkMk MkkÚkuMktf¤kÞu÷ LkÚke.

(1) ðMkrík Míkh

(2) òrík Míkh

(3) siðMk{ks Míkh

(4) MkSð Míkh

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PRE-MEDICAL : LEADER COURSEthephenol.com/images/download802512345_compressed.pdf · Test Type : MAJOR Test Pattern : NEET(UG) TEST DATE : 16 - 04 - 2019 TEST SYLLABUS : FULL SYLLABUS