Practice Test-03 of AIATS Medical-2015 (Code-A)

for

2015

TOPICS OF THE TEST

Physics Gravitation; Properties of Bulk Matter; Thermodynamics

Chemistry

Biology

Solid State, Solutions, Electrochemistry, Chemical Kinetics, Surface Chemistry

Anatomy of Flowering Plants, Cell Structure and Function: Cell theory and cell as the basic unit of life; Structure of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell; Plant cell and animal cell; Cell envelope, cell membrane, cell wall; Cell organelles-structure and function; Endomembrane system-endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi bodies, lysosomes, vacuoles; mitochondria, ribosomes, plastids, micro bodies; Cytoskeleton, cilia, flagella, centrioles (ultra structure and function); Nucleus-nuclear membrane, chromatin, nucleolus, Cell division; Cell cycle, mitosis, meiosis and their significance, Digestion and Absorption, Breathing and Respiration, Body fluids and Circulation

Test No. 3 (Code-A)

Practice Paperfor

Test - 3 (Objective) Code-A All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015

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[ PHYSICS ]1. Planets A and B have same average density. Radius

of A is twice that of B. The ratio of acceleration dueto gravity on the surface of A and B is

(1) 2:1 (2) 1:2

(3) 1:4 (4) 4:12. If the area enclosed by earth's orbit in one year

(3.5×107 s) is 7 × 1022 m2, then find the ratio ofearth's orbital angular momentum to its mass

(1) 4 × 1015 m2/s (2) 3 × 1015 m2/s

(3) 1015 m2/s (4) 2 × 1015 m2/s

3. Two particles A and B of equal mass m each areseparated by a distance r. If they are executinguniform circular motion due to their mutualgravitational attraction then orbital speed of B is

(1)Gm

r(2)

1 Gm2 r

(3)Gm2r

(4) Gm43r

4. A sample of gas follows process represented byPV2 = constant. Bulk modulus for this process is B,then which of the following graph is correct ?

(1)

B

V(2)

B

V

(3)

B

V(4)

B

V

5. The molar heat capacity of a monoatomic ideal gasundergoing process PV1/2 = constant is

(1)15 R2

(2)23R2

(3)7R2

(4) Zero

6. Two gases have same initial pressure, volume andtemperature. They expand to the same final volume,one adiabatically and the other isothermally(1) The final pressure is greater for isothermal(2) The f inal temperature is greater for the

isothermal process(3) The work done by the gas is greater for the

isothermal process(4) All of these

7. For the given composite arrangement of two differentmaterials at steady state. The ratio of temperaturegradient is (symbols have their usual meanings)

(1) 5 (2) 2

(3)76 (4) 1

8. An ideal gas absorbs Q heat in an isobaric process.If adiabatic exponent of the gas is , then whatfraction of heat is used to perform work ?

(1)1 (2)

1

(3) 1

(4)1

1

9. The P-V diagram of 8 g of Helium gas for a certainprocess A B is shown in figure. Heat given to thebody during process A B is

(1) 12P0V0 (2) 6P0V0

(3) 4P0V0 (4) 15P0V0

10. If a gas is compressed adiabatically, then(1) The internal energy of the gas increases(2) The internal energy of the gas decreases(3) The internal energy of the gas does not change(4) Work done by the gas is positive

11. To what depth must a rubber ball be taken in deepsea so that its volume is decreased by 0.1% ?(Density of sea water = 103 kg/m3, bulk modulus ofrubber = 9 × 108 N/m2, g = 10 m/s2)(1) 18 m (2) 90 m

(3) 180 m (4) 9 m


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12. Choose the incorrect statement, regarding theassumptions of kinetic theory of gases(1) Gas molecules obey Newton’s laws of motion(2) Gas molecules travel in a straight line(3) There is force of attraction between gas

molecules(4) Volume of a molecule is neglected in comparison

to volume of gas13. Water is flowing in streamline motion through a

horizontal tube. The pressure at a point in the tubeis P where the velocity of flow is v. At another point,where the pressure is P/2, the velocity of flow is(= density of water)

(1)2 Pv

(2)2 Pv

(3)2 2Pv

(4)2 2Pv

14. The load versus elongation graph for four wires of thesame material and same length is shown in thefigure. The thickest wire is represented by the line

DC

BA

ElongationO

Load

(1) OD (2) OC

(3) OB (4) OA15. A particle of mass m moving horizontally strikes the

bob of a simple pendulum of mass m and length l.After the impact, particle sticks to the bob. If thecompound mass just completes a vertical circle,then initial velocity of the particle is

(1) mv2 (2)2mv

2

(3) Zero (4)2mv

416. A liquid film is formed over a frame ABCD as shown in

figure. Wire CD can slide without friction. The mass tobe hung from CD to keep it in equilibrium is

(1)TLg

LD C

BA

(2)2TLg

(3)2gTL

(4) T × L

17. 20 g of ice at 0°C mix with 30 g of water at 20°C.The final temperature of mixture is (latent heat of ice80 cal/g, specific heat capacity of water 1 cal/g°C)(1) 10°C (2) 0°C(3) 20°C (4) 5°C

18. When a diatomic gas is allowed to expand atconstant pressure, it does work of 280 J. Total heatsupplied to the gas is equal to(1) 780 J (2) 880 J(3) 380 J (4) 980 J

19. Change in internal energy of the ideal gas in theprocess ABC is 30 J. Change in internal energy inthe process CDA is

200

100

0 50 150 V (cc)

P (kPa)A B

CD

(1) –40 J (2) –30 J(3) +30 J (4) +40 J

20. An ideal gas is undergoing two processes atconstant volume V1 and V2 as shown in figure.Which of the following relation is correct?

T

P

V2

V1

(1) V1 = V2 (2) V1 > V2(3) V1 < V2 (4) V1 V2

21. If a body of mass m is sent to a height of R3 from

earth's surface, the change in potential energy is (R= radius of earth, g = gravitational acceleration atearth surface)

(1)mgR

3 (2)mgR

4

(3) mgR (4)3mgR

4


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22. For the same area of cross-section and for a givenload, the ratio of depression for beam of a squarecross-section and circular cross-section is

(1)3

(2) 3

(3) 1 (4)1

23. A vessel contains liquid of density d as shown infigure, the gauge pressure at the point A is

(1) Hdg (2) hdg(3) (H–h)dg (4) (H–h)dg cos

24. Two soap bubbles having diameter D1 and D2 invacuum, coalesce under isothermal conditions. Thediameter of the new bubble is

(1) 1 2D D2

(2)2 21 2D D

2

(3) 2 21 2D D (4) 2 2

1 21 D D2

25. A straight capillary tube is immersed in water andthe water rises to 5cm. If the capillary is bent asshown in figure, then the height of water column willbe

(1) 5 cm (2) < 5 cm(3) > 5 cm (4) 5 cos

26. A U-tube is rotating with constant angular velocity about a vertical axis xy as shown. The difference inthe height of liquid column in two vertical limbs is (= density of liquid)

(1)2 2

2g

(2)2 22

3g

(3)2 2

9g

(4)2 2

6g

27. A tank is filled with water upto height H. There is ahole of area of cross-section A2 at the bottom of thetank (A2 <<< A1 = Area of cross-section of the tank).If water is allowed to come out of hole at t = 0,then time after which water height in tank becomes

H3

(1)1

2

A 2H 2HA g 3g

(2)

1

2

A H HA g 3g

(3)1

2

A 4H 4HA g 3g

(4)

1

2

A H HA 2g 6g

28. A point isotropic radiating source of power P is keptat centre of a spherical shell of radius r andthickness t (t <<< r). If coefficient of thermalconductiv ity of material of shell is K then thetemperature difference across the shell is

(1) 3Pt

4 r k(2) 3

Pt4 r k

(3) 2Pt

4 r k(4)

2

2P t

4 r k29. A lake starts freezing when temperature goes below

0°C. The time taken to freeze first 2 mm, 4 mm,6 mm, 8 mm are t1, t2, t3 and t4 respectively. Then(t2 – t1) : (t3 – t2) : (t4 – t3) is(1) 1 : 3 : 5 (2) 1 : 4 : 8(3) 3 : 5 : 7 (4) 1 : 4 : 9

30. Let be the angular speed of rotation of the earthat which an object kept on equator will feelweightless. The ratio of to the present angularspeed of rotation of the earth is approximately(1) 6 (2) 12(3) 17 (4) 1

31. If the breaking stress of steel is 8 × 108 N/m2 andthe density of steel is 8 × 103 kg/m3 then thegreatest length of steel wire that can hang verticallywithout breaking is (take g = 10 m/s2)(1) 104 m (2) 103 m(3) 102 m (4) 10 m

32. Water is flowing through a horizontal tube ofnonuniform cross-section. At a place the radius ofthe tube is 1 cm and the velocity of water is4 m/s. The velocity of water where the radius of thepipe is 2 cm is(1) 0.5 m/s (2) 1 m/s(3) 2 m/s (4) 4 m/s


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33. The temperature at which oxygen molecules wouldhave the same RMS speed as the hydrogenmolecules would have at 27°C, is

(1) 4800 K (2) 2400 K

(3) 1200 K (4) 600 K

34. In a sudden expansion of an ideal diatomic gas, thepressure P and temperature T are related as PTx,here x is equal to

(1) 3.5 (2) 2.5

(3)17

(4) 1.4

35. The intensity of radiation emitted by the sun hasmaximum value at a wavelength of 5000 Å and thatemitted by a star is at 3500 Å. Assuming them tobe black bodies, ratio of absolute temperature of thesun and the star is

(1) 0.7 (2) 0.6

(3) 0.5 (4) 0.4

36. If a point mass m is placed at the centre of earthof mass M and radius R, then the magnitude ofbinding energy of the system would be

(1)1 GMm2 R

(2)3 GMm4 R

(3)1 GMm4 R

(4)3 GMm2 R

37. Two masses, m1 = 2 kg and m2 = 8 kg at an infinitedistance apart are initially at rest. They startinteracting gravitationally. When the separationbetween them becomes 1 m, the velocity of m2 willbe

(1)G45

(2)G35

(3)G25

(4)G5

38. Two satellites of equal masses revolve in the samesense around a heavy planet in circular orbit of radiiR and 3R. Which of the following is correct ?

(1) Ratio of period of revolution is 1: 3 3

(2) Ratio of their velocities is 3 : 1

(3) Ratio of their kinetic energy is 3 : 1

(4) All of these

39. If 32

mole of a monatomic gas 53

is mixed

with one mole of a diatomic gas 75

, then the

value of for the mixture is

(1)1121

(2)2919

(3)1929 (4)

1131

40. Two mole monatomic gas absorb 50 cal isobarically.The change in internal energy of the gas is(1) 30 cal (2) 20 cal(3) 50 cal (4) 10 cal

41. Terminal velocity of small sized spherical body ofmass m falling vertically in a viscous liquid is v. Findterminal velocity when spherical body of mass 8mmade by the same material falling vertically in sameliquid(1) v (2) 8v(3) 2v (4) 4v

42. Temperature difference between body andsurroundings falls from 40°C to 20°C in 10 minute.Time interval in which the difference will fall from20°C to 5°C is

(1) 20 minute (2) 15 minute

(3) 10 minute (4) 30 minute

43. Temperature of a body increased by 25°C. Its rise oftemperature in Fahrenheit scale is

(1) 25 °F (2) 35 °F

(3) 45 °F (4) 55 °F

44. Two metallic rods of equal length and diameter havethermal conductivities 3K and 4K. If they are joined inseries, then the equivalent thermal conductivity ofcombination is

(1) 2K (2)72K

(3) 7K (4)24

7K

45. A boat having a length of 3 m and breadth of 2 m isfloating on a lake. The boat sinks by 1 cm when aman gets on it. The mass of man is

(1) 60 kg (2) 62 kg

(3) 72 kg (4) 128 kg


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46. The distance between two nearest neighbours inbody centred cubic lattice of axial length a, is

(1) a (2)3 a2

(3)2 a

2(4)

3 a4

47. Which of the following interstitial site is formed whenthe three close packed spheres of one layer is putover three close packed spheres of the second layer,their positions being inverted w.r.t. each other?

(1) Tetrahedral (2) Octahedral

(3) Rhombohedral (4) Tetragonal

48. Which of the following is incorrect?

(1) The coordination number of each type of ions inCsCl crystal is 8

(2) A metal that crystallises in bcc structure has acoordination number of 12

(3) A unit cell of an ionic crystal shares some of itsions with other unit cells

(4) The length of the unit cell in NaCl is 552 pm

Na Cl(r 95 pm, r 181 pm)

49. The number of atoms in 100 g of a fcc crystal withdensity = 10.0 g/cm3 and cell edge length equal to200 pm is

(1) 5 × 1024 (2) 5 × 1025

(3) 6 × 1023 (4) 2 × 1025

50. Which of the following is distance between twotetrahedral voids?

(1)3a2

(2)a2

(3)a2

(4) All of these

51. Which of the following statements is true?

(1) The existence of certain intermediates in areaction mechanism can sometimes be provenbecause intermediates can sometimes betrapped and identified

(2) Intermediates in a reaction mechanism cannot

[ CHEMISTRY ]be isolated because they do not have finite lifetimes

(3) Reaction mechanisms cannot have more thanone intermediate

(4) Intermediates in a reaction mechanism appear inthe overall balanced equation for the reaction

52. Gaseous N2O5 decomposes according to thefollowing equation

2 5 2 21N O (g) 2NO (g) O (g)2

The experimental rate law is 2 52 5

N Ok[N O ]

t

.

At a certain temperature the rate constant isk = 5 × 10–4 sec–1. In how many seconds will theconcentration of N2O5 decrease to one-tenth of itsinitial value?

(1) 2 × 103 s (2) 4.6 × 103 s

(3) 2.1 × 102 s (4) 1.4 × 103 s

53. A and B are two dif ferent chemical speciesundergoing first order decomposition with rateconstants kA and kB which are in the ratio of 3 : 2respectively. If the initial concentration of A and B arein the ratio of [A]0 : [B]0 = 3 : 2. What would be theratio of [A] : [B] after three half lives of A?

(1) 1 : 1 (2) 3 : 4

(3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1

54. 0.9 gm of a hydrocarbon with molecular formulaH2(CH2)n when dissolved in 180 gm of solvent freezesat 8.48°C. If freezing point of pure solvent is 9°C,then the formula of hydrocarbon (kf = 12)

(1) C8H6 (2) C8H18

(3) C8H16 (4) C7H8

55. Select the correct statement(1) Freezing point, boiling point and vapour pressure

are all colligative properties(2) The freezing point, boiling point and vapour

pressure all decrease when a solute is dissolvedin a solvent

(3) Plots of freezing point depression versus molalconcentration for ethyl alcohol, propyl alcoholand butyl alcohol dissolved in water will all belinear with different slopes

(4) All are incorrect


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56. The vapour pressure of two liquids A and B are 100and 80 torr respectively. The total pressure of thesolution obtained by mixing 2 moles of A and3 moles of B would be(1) 20 torr (2) 36 torr(3) 88 torr (4) 180 torr

57. When you dissolve sugar in a glass containing iceand water in equilibrium, and assuming that no heatenters or leaves the system(1) Some of the ice should melt and the

temperature of water/ice mixture should increase(2) Some of ice should melt and the temperature of

the water/ice mixture should decrease(3) Some of the water should freeze and the

temperature of the water/ice mixture shouldincrease

(4) Some of the water should freeze and thetemperature of the water-ice mixture shoulddecrease

58. x mole of KCl and y mole of BaCl2 are bothdissolved in 1 kg of water. Given that x + y = 0.1and kf for water is 1.86 k/molal. What is theobserved range of Tf if the ratio of x and y isvaried?

(1) 0.37° to 0.55° (2) 0.185° to 0.93°

(3) 0.56° to 0.93° (4) 0.37° to 0.93°

59. If a 500 ml brine is electrolysed with a current ofstrength 0.5 A, how many seconds would it take forthe pH of solution to rise to a value of 9?

(1) 0.965 second (2) 0.663 second

(3) 0.965 minute (4) 0.663 minute

60. The reaction occurring at the cathode duringcharging of lead storage battery is

(1) Pb2+ + 2e– Pb

(2) Pb2+ + SO42– PbSO4

(3) Pb Pb2+ + 2e–

(4) PbSO4 + 2H2O 2PbO2 + 4H+ + SO42– + 2e–

61. Given the following information, rank the ‘activity’ ofthe metals as reducing agents. Cr reacts with NiBr2and CdBr2, but not with ZnBr2. Cd reacts with NiBr2but not with ZnBr2 or CrBr3.

(1) Zn > Cr > Cd > Ni

(2) Ni > Cr > Cd > Zn

(3) Zn > Cr > Ni > Cd

(4) Zn > Cd > Cr > Ni

62. The equation for one of the half reactions in a leadstorage battery is

22 4 4 2PbO 4H SO 2e PbSO 2H O

What happens to the properties of the electrolyte asthis cell discharge?

Density pH

(1) Increase Increase

(2) Increase Decrease

(3) Decrease Decrease

(4) Decrease Increase

63. Ionic conductance of H+ and SO4–2 at infinite dilution

are x and y s cm2 eq–1. Hence the equivalentconductance of H2SO4 at dilution is

(1) x + y (2) 2x + y

(3) x + 2y (4) x + 0.5y

64. According to adsorption theory of catalysis thereaction rate increases because

(1) Adsorption produces heat which increases therate of reaction

(2) In the process of adsorption, the kinetic energyof the molecules increases

(3) The concentration of reactants at the activecentres becomes high due to adsorption

(4) The activation energy of the reaction becomeshigh due to adsorption

65. The volume of gases H2, CH4, CO2 and NH3adsorbed by 1 g of adsorbent at 288 K are in theorder

(1) H2 > CH4 > CO2 > NH3

(2) CH4 > CO2 > NH3 > H2

(3) CO2 > NH3 > H2 > CH4

(4) NH3 > CO2 > CH4 > H2

66. Bleeding is stopped by application of ferric chloride.This is because

(1) The blood starts flowing in opposite direction

(2) The ferric chloride seals the blood vessel

(3) The blood reacts and forms a solid which sealsthe blood vessel

(4) The blood is coagulated and thus the bloodvessel is sealed


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67. Gold number is a measure of the

(1) Protective action by a lyophilic colloidal onlyophobic colloid

(2) Protective action by a lyophobic colloid onlyophilic colloid

(3) Number of milligram of gold in a standard redgold solution

(4) Number of millimoles of lyophilic solution68. The possible distance between two tetrahedral voids

in CCP unit cell is

(1)a2

(2) 3a2

(3)a2 (4) All of these

69. Choose the incorrect match

(1) Freezing point of pure solvent : TQ(2) Boiling point of pure solvent : TR(3) Elevation in boiling point : TS– TR(4) Depression in freezing point : TR – TP

70. An electrolyte AB undergoes 50% dissociation and50% dimerisation in solution then van’t Hoff factor (i)would be(1) 1.25 (2) 1(3) 0.90 (4) 1.50

71. If ‘i’ is van’t Hoff factor and m is the number of soluteparticles obtained after the dissociation of 1 moleculethen degree of dissociation () is given by

(1)i 11 1m

(2)i 1

m 1

(3)i 1

m 1

(4)i 1

m 1

72. The degree of dissociation can be approximated tothe ratio of molar conductivity m at the concentration

c to the limiting molar conductivity om as

mom

.

The dissociation constant for acetic acid can berepresented as

(1) 2c

1 (2)

2m

2 mm o

m

c

1

(3) 2m

o om m m

c (4) All of these

73. In the equation o 1/2m m Ac , the constant ‘A’’

depends on(1) Nature of solvent (2) Temperature(3) Type of electrolyte (4) All of these

74. In the electrochemical cell,Cd + Sn+4 Cd+2 + Sn+2

Increase in the concentration of Sn+2

(1) Increasing the emf of cell(2) Decreasing the emf of cell(3) No change in emf of cell(4) Unpredictable

75. The degree of dissociation of first order reaction isgiven by(1) 1 + e–kt (2) e–kt

(3) 1 – e–kt (4) ekt

76. The “collodion” solution is(1) 4% solution of picric acid in ether(2) 4% solution of starch in alcohol(3) 4% solution of nitrocellulose in a mixture of

alcohol and ether(4) 4% solution of As2S3 in dilute HCl

77. Which of the following is not a colloidal solution?(1) Froth (2) Butter(3) Pumice stone (4) Mixture of gases

78. In Fe0.93O, the percentage of Fe+3 by number is nearly(1) 15% (2) 10%(3) 20% (4) 25%

79. Which of the following is a molecular solid?(1) SiC (2) Diamond(3) AlN (4) I2

80. The point defect which is shown by AgBr(s) crystalsis/are(1) Metal excess defect (2) Frenkel defect(3) Schottky defect (4) Both (2) & (3)

81. Which of the following graph is correct for an idealbinary liquid solution containing nonvolatile solute?

(1)

XA=1 XA=0

XB=0 XB=1

Total V.P.


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(2)XA=1 XA=0

XB=0 XB=1

Total V.P.

(3)XA=1 XA=0

XB=0 XB=1

Total V.P.

(4) All are correct

82.

Which of the following is correct about van’t Hoff factorof A, B & C?(1) iA > iB > iC (2) iA < iB < iC(3) iA > iB < iC (4) iA = iB = iC

83. On electrolysis of aqueous solution of NaCl using Ptelectrode(1) pH of the solution will decrease(2) pH of the solution will increase(3) pH of the solution will remain constant(4) pH of solution may increase or decrease

84. Which of the following is intensive property?

(1) Ecell (2) ocellE

(3) Molarity (4) All of these85. Which of the following graph is correct for Freundlich

adsorption isotherm?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

86. Consider the following statements regardingelectrochemical cellZn(s)|Zn2(+)(aq) || Cu2(+)(aq)|Cu(s)I. Electrons move from Zn to CuII. Concentration of Zn2(+) will increase and that of

Cu2(+) will decrease when cell operates

III. When cell becomes dead, ocellE 0 Choose the

correct statement(s)(1) I, II & III (2) I & III(3) I & II (4) II & III

87. Match column I to column IIColumn-I Column II

a. Osmosis (i) Movement of dispersedphase partic lestowards oppositelycharged electrode

b. Dialysis (ii) Movement of solventparticles through SPMtowards concentratedsolution side

c. Electrophoresis (iii) Colloidal sol formationd. Peptisation (iv) Purification of colloids(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)

88. Consider the following EMF diagram for Fe,

2 3 22.20V 0.77V4FeO Fe Fe

the value for 2 24

oFeO /Fe

E will be

(1) 7.37 V (2) 3.685 V(3) 2.456 V (4) 1.843 V

89. Consider the following graph

Choose the incorrect statement(s)(1) Reaction is exothermic in forward direction i.e.,

H = –ve(2) Activation energy for forward reaction is x – y(3) Using catalyst will decrease H value of the re-

action(4) All of these

90. If r is the radius of tetrahedral void and R is the radiusof sphere forming ccp, then which of the followingrelation is correct considering that the ccp structureis not disrupted?(1) r = 0.414R (2) r = 0.314R(3) r = 0.732R (4) r = 0.225R


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[ BIOLOGY ]91. Examine the figure given below and select the part

correctly matched with its function/structure

(B)

(A)

(D) (C)

(1) Part (A) : Ribosome-made up of 30S and 50Ssubunits

(2) Part (C) : RER - principally performs the functionof packaging materials

(3) Part (D) : Nuclear pore - passage through whichmovement of RNA takes place in onedirection only

(4) Part (B) : SER - synthesis of steroidal hormones92. In plasma membrane, quasi-fluid nature of lipid

(1) Enables flip-flop movement of proteins(2) Is essential for endocytosis only(3) Enables lateral movement of proteins(4) Enables flip-flop as well as lateral movements of

proteins93. Which of the following combination is correct?

(1) Xenobiotics – Rough endoplasmicreticulum

(2) Plasma membrane – 52% lipidof RBC

(3) Mitochondria – Protein synthesis(4) Glyoxysomes – Photorespiration

94. Which of the following statement for eukaryoticflagellum is correct?

(1) Basal body has nine pairs of doublets of radiallyarranged peripheral microtubules

(2) It emerge from a centriole like structure calledaxoneme

(3) In axoneme, central tubules are connected bybridge

(4) It has a number of microfibrils running parallel tothe long axis

95. Match the column I with column IIColumn I Column II

a. Lysosomes (i) Cell inclusionsb. Transosomes (ii) Carotenoidsc. Raphides and cystolith (iii) Triple membrane

bound organelled. Chromoplast (iv) Cathepsin(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)

96. Disc-shaped structures present on the sides ofcentromeres in the chromosomes are called(1) Satellite (2) Chromatin(3) NOR (4) Kinetochores

97. M phase starts with the nuclear div ision,corresponding to the separation of daughterchromosomes and usually ends with(1) Division of cytoplasm(2) Telophase(3) G2 phase(4) Karyokinesis

98. Stage between the meiosis-I and meiosis-II is

(1) Characterised by polymerisation of nucleotides

(2) Short lived than preparatory phase of cell cycle

(3) Called karyokinesis

(4) Characterised by DNA as well as centrioleduplication

99. If at the end of meiosis each daughter cell has fourchromosomes, how many chromosomes would adiploid cell have in G1 phase of cell cycle?

(1) 2 (2) 4

(3) 8 (4) 16

100. Primary oocyte of the human being contains

(1) As many chromosomes as sperms

(2) Haploid set of chromosomes

(3) As many chromosomes as ovum

(4) Diploid set of chromosomes

101. Which of the following stage is recognised by thedissolution of synaptonemal complex, so therecombined homologous chromosomes will startseparating?

(1) Metaphase II (2) Diakinesis

(3) Diplotene (4) Pachytene


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102. Read the following statements (a-c) carefully and findout the option (1-4) representing the correctsequence of events in amitotic division.

a. A constriction appears in the cytoplasm.

b. Nucleus of the cell elongates.

c. A constriction appears in the nucleus whichgradually deepens and divides the nucleus intotwo daughter nuclei.

(1) c a b (2) b a c

(3) b c a (4) a c b

103. Mark the correct statement (with respect to lateralmeristem)

(1) Secondary meristem producing primarypermanent tissues

(2) Intercalary meristem producing secondarypermanent tissues

(3) Cylindrical meristem producing the secondarytissues

(4) Promeristem producing secondary permanenttissues

104. Match the column I with column IIColumn I Column II

a. Xylem parenchyma (i) Absent in most of themonocots

b. Sclereids (ii) Long cylindrical tube-like structure

c. Phloem parenchyma (iii) Food and tanninsd. Vessel (iv) Fruit walls of nuts(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)

105. In monocot leaf, mesophyll tissue(1) Is differentiated into palisade and spongy

parenchyma(2) Is not differentiated into palisade and spongy

parenchyma(3) Possesses some bulliform cells(4) Is made up of parenchyma cells which lack

chloroplasts106. Which of the following occurs first during secondary

growth in dicot root?(1) Primary meristem becomes active present below

phloem(2) Cambium strips are formed secondarily from

conjunctive tissue lying just below each phloemstrand

(3) Cambium strips develop from pericycle oppositeto protoxylem

(4) A wavy ring of cambium develops107. a. Annual rings are bands of secondary phloem

and medullary rays.b. Wood of Cycas has vessels.c. Conjoint vascular bundles are found in leaves of

sunflower and maize.Which of above statement(s) is/are correct?(1) a and b are correct (2) b and c are correct(3) Only a is correct (4) Only c is correct

108. Choose the correct statement(1) Annual rings are formed by the activity of cork

cambium(2) Fibres are abundant in secondary xylem and

protophloem

(3) Primary xylem does not show distinction intoprotoxylem and metaxylem

(4) At certain regions, the cork cambium cuts offparenchymatous cells on the outer side insteadof phellem

109. Which of the following is correct statement forintercalary meristems?

(1) They lie at tip of root apex(2) They lie at base of stem always

(3) They are short lived and consumed duringprimary growth

(4) They are long lived and cause increase in length110. Girdl ing experiment cannot be performed in

sugarcane plant because

(1) Its stem is thin(2) Its vascular bundles are arranged in scattered

manner

(3) Its stem surface is coated with wax(4) Phloem is surrounded on all sides by xylem

111. Match the column I with column II

Column I Column IIa. Papain (i) Betulab. Diffuse porous wood (ii) Quercus

c. Lithocysts (iii) Carica papayad. Ring porous wood (iv) Ficus leaf

(1) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)

(3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)


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112. Match the following

Column I Column II

a. G1 phase (i) Longest phase of cell cycle

b. M phase (ii) Synthesis of histone proteins

c. S-phase (iii) Cell quiescence

d. G0 phase (iv) Nuclear division

(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)

(3) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)113. Choose the correct option for given diagram

(1) A – Meristematic tissueB – Differentiating tissue

(2) A – Shoot apical meristemB – Axillary bud

(3) C – Reproductive budB – Leaf primordia

(4) B – Differentiating vascular tissueA – Root apical meristem

114. How many from the given components are associatedwith gymnosperm and angiosperm respectively?

Tracheids, Sieve tube, Sieve cells, Companioncells, Albuminous cells

(1) 2, 6 (2) 4, 3

(3) 3, 3 (4) 6, 2

115. Choose the correct position of sclereids in thesapota, tea, pea, almond respectively.

(1) Pulp, leaves, fruit wall, seed coat

(2) Pericarp, leaves, pulp, fruit wall

(3) Pulp, leaves, seed coat, fruit wall

(4) Seed coat, leaves, pulp, pericarp

116. For the given tissue, choose correct option

a. A – Cellulose, lignin, hemicellulose thickening.

b. Occurs in layers below the epidermis indicotyledonous plants

c. Simple permanent tissue

d. May contain plastids.

e. Dead mechanical tissue.

(1) a, b and c (2) b, c and d

(3) a, d and e (4) a, c, d and e

117. In the vicinity of the guard cells few epidermal cellsare specialised in their

(1) Shape and size

(2) Shape and colour

(3) Size and thickening

(4) Colour and secretion

118. Choose odd one with respect to innermost layer ofcortex in dicot root

(1) Single layered

(2) Possesses barrel shaped cells

(3) Presence of differential thickening

(4) Presence of intercellular spaces

119. Choose correct sequence of layers/tissue from outerto towards the inner side in T.S. of dicot stem.

(1) Endodermis Pericycle Starch sheath

(2) Starch sheath Pericycle Vascular bundles

(3) Hypodermis Pericycle Starch sheath

(4) Cortex Pith Vascular bundles

120. Activity of cambium is controlled by

(1) Physiological and environmental factors

(2) Hormonal and external factors

(3) Internal and external factors

(4) More than one option is correct

121. During secondary growth in dicot root some part ofvascular cambium originates from the tissuelocated_______ the phloem and a portion ofpericycle tissue _____ the protoxylem.

(1) Above, below (2) Below, above

(3) Below, below (4) Above, above


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122. How many parts are there in bacterial flagellum andamongst these, which is the longest portionrespectively?

(1) Two, hook (2) Two, filament

(3) Three, filament (4) Three, hook

123. Gas vacuole is present in

(1) Blue green algae

(2) Purple photosynthetic bacteria

(3) Green photosynthetic bacteria

(4) More than one option is correct

124. Which of the following component of Gram negativebacteria is structurally similar to plants?

(1) Cell wall

(2) Capsule

(3) Plastids

(4) Plasma membrane

125. Protein synthesised by RER is

(1) Released in luminal compartment

(2) Modified in intercellular spaces

(3) Secreted without any modification

(4) Processed in lysosome and centrioles

126. How many of the given features are associated withmitochondria?

70S ribosome, divide by multiple fission, Outerand inner membranes have their own specificenzymes, enzymes for protein synthesis, singlecircular DNA molecule.

(1) Five (2) Three

(3) Four (4) Two

127. Choose the correct labelling for given diagram

(1) A– Central sheath

C– Intertriplet bridge

(2) B– Plasma membrane

D– Central microtubule

(3) E– Radial spoke

D– Incomplete microfilament

(4) B– Central sheath

C– Interdoublet bridge

128. ER A Lysosome

In the above given schematic representation ofendomembrane system, choose the correct functionassociated with organelle labelled as ‘A’.

(1) Post transcription RNA processing

(2) Glycosidation of protein

(3) Post translation protein modification

(4) Glycosylation of lipids

129. Which of the following feature is not associated withcentrosome?

(1) Pericentriolar material

(2) Two cylindrical structures

(3) Two centriole

(4) Lipid bilayer covering

130. One very short (p) arm and one very long (q) arm isfound in _______ chromosome.

(1) Submetacentric (2) Metacentric

(3) Acrocentric (4) Telocentric

131. Interphase nucleus possesses

(1) Condensed chromatin, nucleolus, nuclear matrix,centrioles

(2) Elaborate nucleoprotein fibres, sub-sphericalnucleoli, stroma

(3) Extended nucleoprotein fibre, nucleolus, nuclearmatrix

(4) Condensed chromatin, sub-spherical nucleoli,matrix


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132. Choose correct option for the stroma (A) andthylakoid (B)

(1) A–Light reaction

B–Dark reaction

(2) A–Carbohydrate synthesis

B–Dark reaction

(3) A–Protein synthesis

B–Light reaction

(4) A–Dark reaction

B–Protein synthesis

133. Food vacuole is formed by fusion of

(1) Phagosome + Lysosome

(2) Food vesicle + Ribosome

(3) Phagosome + Centrosome

(4) Food vesicle + Sphaerosome

134. During cell cycle the interval between mitosis andinitiation of DNA replication:

a. Is metabolically active

b. Involves cell growth

c. Involves centriole duplication

d. Involves chromosome replication

Choose the correct option

(1) a and b (2) a and c

(3) b and c (4) c and d

135. Choose incorrect option with respect to cell cycle

(1) Cell growth in terms of cytoplasmic increaseoccurs continuously

(2) DNA synthesis occurs during specific stage

(3) Events are not under genetic control

(4) Cell duplicates its genome once136. Given below is a diagrammatic representation of

transverse section of gut

A

C

DB

E

Choose the option which is correct for the layerslabelled as A, B, C, D and E

(1) A – Serosa

B – Longitudinal muscle layer

C – Circular muscle layer

D – Mucosa

E – Submucosa

(2) A – Mucosa

B – Circular muscle layer

C – Longitudinal muscle layer

D – Submucosa

E – Serosa

(3) A – Serosa

B – Circular muscle layer

C – Longitudinal muscle layer

D – Submucosa

E – Mucosa

(4) A – Serosa

B – Longitudinal muscle layer

C – Circular muscle layer

D – Submucosa

E – Mucosa

137. All of the following hormones are secreted byduodenum except

(1) Gastrin (2) Secretin

(3) GIP (4) Duocrinin

138. Find the incorrect match with respect tocomposition of digestive juices

(1) Gastric juice – Pepsin, erepsin, gastriclipase

(2) Pancreatic juice – Trypsin,carboxypeptidases,ribonuclease

(3) Succus entericus – Enterokinase, dipeptidase,sucrase

(4) Saliva – Lingual lipase, -amylase

139. Which of the following is not related to Marasmus?

(1) Subcutaneous fat is not preserved

(2) Oedema is absent

(3) Ribs become very prominent

(4) Enlarged fatty liver


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140. Find the incorrect statement with respect tosaliva/salivary glands

(1) Thiocyanate in saliva is antimicrobial

(2) Mumps is a viral infection of parotid salivaryglands

(3) Submandibular or submaxillary salivary glandssecrete maximum amount of saliva and providetheir secretion by means of Wharton’s duct

(4) Secretion of saliva is increased by sympatheticnervous system

141. Which of the following functions as true stomach inruminants?

(1) Abomasum (2) Rumen

(3) Omasum (4) Both (1) and (2)

142. Consider the following

a. Trypsin

b. Carboxypeptidase

c. Steapsin

d. Amylopsin

The enzyme/s not initially secreted as zymogenis/are

(1) a only (2) a and b

(3) c and d (4) d only

143. Select the incorrect statement with respect toEmphysema

(1) It is a chronic obstructive disease of lungs,causing irreversible, distension and loss ofelasticity of alveoli

(2) The alveolar sac remains filled with air even afterexpiration

(3) Bronchodilators, antibiotics and oxygen therapyare used to treat emphysema. It can be curedpermanently

(4) Conditions of emphysema are mainly due tocigarette smoking

144. The epithelial lining of alveoli consist of two types ofcells called as pneumocyte type - I and pneumocytetype - II. Type II pneumocytes(1) Are columnar epithelial cells

(2) Form the site of gaseous exchange betweenalveolus and blood

(3) Constitute about 95% of total number of cells(4) Secrete alveolar fluid and surfactant

145. Given below are the partial pressures (in mmHg) ofoxygen and carbondioxide at different parts involvedin diffusion in comparison to those in atmosphere.

Respiratory gas

Atmosphericair

Alveoli Body (deoxyge-nated)

Blood(Oxygenated)

Tissues

O2

CO2

159

A

B

40 C

40 D

40

40

45

Choose the correct option with respect to the valuesof partial pressures (in mmHg) marked as A, B, Cand D

A B C D(1) 0.3 104 40 52

(2) 32 116 45 45(3) 0.3 104 45 95(4) 32 116 45 95

146. Which of the following is an unpaired cartilage of thehuman larynx?(1) Cartilage of santorini

(2) Cricoid cartilage(3) Corniculate cartilage(4) Cuneiform cartilage

147. Normal expiration involves

(1) Contraction of diaphragm

(2) Contraction of abdominal muscles

(3) Relaxation of phrenic muscles

(4) Contraction of external intercostal muscles

148. Trachea divides into right and left primary bronchi atthe level of

(1) 2nd thoracic vertebrae

(2) 5th thoracic vertebrae



149. Select the incorrect statement with respect toLymph

(1) It has more amount of CO2 and wastes as thatin plasma

(2) It is a colourless fluid containing abundantlymphocytes which are responsible for immuneresponses of the body

(3) It lacks proteins and RBCs

(4) Like blood, lymph can also clot but slowly


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150. During each cardiac cycle, the SAN generatesaction potential which stimulates both atria toundergo simultaneous contraction. The atrial systoleincreases the flow of blood into the ventricle by about

(1) 60% (2) 30%

(3) 40% (4) 75%

151. ECG is a graphical representation of the electricalactivity of the heart during a cardiac cycle. Mark thecorrect statement regarding specific electricalactivity of the heart

(1) The contraction of the ventricles start shortlyafter S-wave

(2) The end of the T-wave marks the end ofventricular systole

(3) QRS complex represents the return of ventriclesfrom excited to normal state

(4) T-wave represents repolarisation of atria

152. Read the following statements having four blanks A,B, C and D.

During a cardiac cycle, each ventricle pumps out

approximately A of blood which is called as

B . The first heart sound (lubb) is associated

with the closure of C , whereas, the secondheart sound ‘dup’, is associated with closure of

D .

The correct option for blanks A, B, C and D is

A B C D

(1) 5 litres Cardiac AV valves Semilunaroutput valves

(2) 5 litres Cardiac Semilunar AV valvesoutput valves

(3) 70 ml Stroke Tricuspid Semilunarvolume and bicuspid valves

valves

(4) 70 ml Cardiac AV Semilunaroutput valves valves

153. Which of the following reaction/s is/are catalysed bybrush border enzymes?

a. Maltose Maltase Glucose + Glucose

b. Nucleosides Nucleosidases Sugar + Bases

c. Starch Amylase Disaccharides

d. Nucleic acid Nucleases NucleotidesChoose the correct option

(1) a only (2) a and b only

(3) a, b and c only (4) a, b, c and d

154. Which gastric gland cells in humans produce factoressential for absorption of B12?

(1) Peptic cells (2) Mucus neck cells

(3) Oxyntic cells (4) Chief cells

155. Blood enters into liver through two sources. Whichsource supplies nutrient rich but deoxygenated bloodfrom intestine to liver before it is delivered to thesystemic circulation?

(1) Hepatic artery (2) Hepatic vein

(3) Hepatic portal vein (4) Mesenteric artery156. If the incision is done in the small intestine in which

order would the physician encounter the layers fromoutside to inside?a. Mucosab. Submucosac. Serosad. Muscularis externae. Muscularis mucosa(1) a - e - b - d - c (2) a - b - d - e - c(3) c - d - b - e - a (4) b - a - e - d - c

157. Which duodenal glands or cell secretion neutralisegastric acid and protects the l ining of theduodenum?(1) Brunners gland (2) Parietal cells(3) Paneth cell (4) Oxyntic cells

158. When there is abnormal f requency of bowelmovement and increased l iquidity of faecaldischarge, reducing the absorption of food it is calledas(1) Diarrhoea (2) Constipation(3) Indigestion (4) Vomiting

159. Chymotrypsinogen of pancreatic juice is activated tochymotrypsin by(1) HCl (2) Enterokinase(3) Trypsin (4) Enterocrinin

160. Bohr’s effect promotes ___X___ and Haldane effect__Y___(1) X – O2 dissociation Y – CO2 dissociation(2) X – O2 association Y – CO2 dissociation(3) X – CO2 association Y – CO2 dissociation(4) X – CO2 dissociation Y – O2 dissociation


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161. Following is the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociationcurve. Mark the conditions in which that curve willshift from A to B.

Partial pressure of oxygen (mm Hg)

Per

cent

age

satu

ratio

n of

hae

mog

lobi

n

a. Increase in BPG.

b. Increase in partial pressure of carbon dioxide.

c. Low temperature.

d. Increase in pH, blood becomes more alkaline.

(1) a, b (2) b, c

(3) c, d (4) a, d

162. Exchange of O2 and CO2 at the alveoli and tissuesoccur by diffusion. Rate of diffusion is dependent on

a. The partial pressure gradients of O2 (pO2) andCO2 (pCO2).

b. Solubility of gases.

c. Thickness of the diffusion surface.

Choose the correct option

(1) a only (2) a and b

(3) b only (4) a, b and c

163. Which centre of respiration is primarily meant tolimit inspiration and can moderate the functions ofthe respiratory rhythm centre?

(1) Apneustic centre

(2) Pneumotaxic centre

(3) Dorsal respiratory group

(4) Ventral respiratory group

164. In which of the following disease, alveolar walls aredamaged alveoli remain filled with air even afterexpiration and there is no permanent cure for thedisease?

(1) Asthma (2) Emphysema

(3) Pneumonia (4) Bronchitis

165. During expiration, how many barriers CO2 cross inthe course of journey from capillaries to alveoli?

(1) One (2) Two

(3) Three (4) Six

166. Occupational lung disease is characterised by

(1) Collapsing of alveoli

(2) Proliferation of fibrous tissue in the upper part oflungs

(3) Accumulation of fluid in pleural cavity

(4) Excessive secretion of mucus in alveoli167. Which chamber of heart has thickest wall?

(1) Right atrium (2) Left atrium(3) Right ventricle (4) Left ventricle

168. If the blood flow in the wall of heart is inadequatedue to obstruction of coronary artery. In ECG the STsegment is depressed which disorder is the personis suffering from(1) Myocardial ischaemia(2) Angina pectoris(3) Heart failure(4) Myocardial infraction

169. Which of the following are thread like tendons ofpapillary muscles inserted upon the flaps of tricuspidand bicuspid valve?(1) Trabeculae carneae(2) Columnae carneae(3) Chordae tendinae(4) Moderator band

170. In a normal ECG, waves of def lection arerepresented by symbol PQRST. Which of thesewaves have tallest upward deflection?(1) P wave (2) Q wave(3) T wave (4) R wave

171. In double circulation, there is a complete separationof oxygenated and deoxygenated blood. In this casepart of blood enters to lungs for oxygenation. Bloodwill return to heart from lungs in(1) Right ventricle (2) Left ventricle(3) Right auricle (4) Left atrium

172. Which of the following statement is correct ?(1) Sinoatrial node is known as heart of heart(2) The disorder in the SA node is known as Stokes

- Adam syndrome(3) The purkinje fibres have highest resting potential(4) The fall in the blood pressure causes stroke


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173. The intrapulmonary pressure becomes negative withrespect to atmospheric pressure during(1) Normal quiet inspiration only(2) Normal quiet expiration only(3) Normal quiet inspiration and forced inspiration(4) Forced inspiration and expiration

174. If a molecule of CO2 released into the blood in yourleft toe is exhaled from your nose, it must passthrough all of the following, excepta. The pulmonary veinb. An alveolusc. The right atriumd. The right ventriclee. The trachea(1) a and d (2) c and d(3) Only a (4) Only b

175. The air from outside moves into the lungs when(1) Pulmonary volume decreases and intrapulmonary

pressure increases(2) Pulmonary volume increases and intrapulmonary

pressure decreases(3) Diaphragm becomes more arched due to

relaxation of phrenic muscles(4) Ribs and sternum move downward and inward

176. Which of the following statements is true regardingthe given figure?

(1) Diaphragm is contracted(2) Diaphragm is relaxed

(3) Volume of thorax is increased(4) Ribs and sternum are raised

177. In the following table of secretory products of thestomach, choose the incorrect option.

178. Which of the following is not a matching pair?

(1) Kupffer cells – Phagocytic cells in liver

(2) Peyer’s patches – Lymphoid tissue in ileum

(3) Haustra – Outpouchings in wall ofcolon

(4) Villi – Present in colonto maximise absorption ofwater, minerals andvitamins

179. The upper surface of the tongue has smallprojections called papillae which bear taste buds.Which of the following taste papillae are largest insize and present on the posterior side of tongue?

(1) Foliate (2) Fungiform

(3) Vallate (4) Filiform

180. Choose the set of enzymes which are functional inalkaline medium?

(1) Lipase, aminopeptidase, rennin

(2) Ptyalin, pepsin, trypsin

(3) Amylopsin, lipase, carboxypeptidase

(4) DNase, rennin, chymotrypsin

ANSWERS OF AIATS PRACTICE PAPER - 32015

CODE-A1. (1)2. (1)3. (3)4. (4)5. (3)6. (4)7. (1)8. (2)9. (4)10. (1)11. (2)12. (3)13. (2)14. (1)15. (1)16. (2)17. (2)18. (4)19. (2)20. (3)21. (2)22. (1)23. (3)24. (3)25. (1)26. (4)27. (1)28. (3)29. (3)30. (3)31. (1)32. (2)33. (1)34. (1)35. (1)36. (4)

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109. (3)110. (2)111. (4)112. (2)113. (1)114. (3)115. (3)116. (2)117. (1)118. (4)119. (2)120. (4)121. (2)122. (3)123. (4)124. (4)125. (1)126. (3)127. (4)128. (3)129. (4)130. (3)131. (3)132. (3)133. (1)134. (1)135. (3)136. (4)137. (1)138. (1)139. (4)140. (4)141. (1)142. (3)143. (3)144. (4)

145. (3)146. (2)147. (3)148. (2)149. (3)150. (2)151. (2)152. (3)153. (2)154. (3)155. (3)156. (3)157. (1)158. (1)159. (3)160. (1)161. (1)162. (4)163. (2)164. (2)165. (3)166. (2)167. (4)168. (1)169. (3)170. (4)171. (4)172. (1)173. (3)174. (3)175. (2)176. (2)177. (4)178. (4)179. (3)180. (3)

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Practice Test-03 of AIATS Medical-2015 (Code-A)