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POSTAL TEST - 3 PART : A - GENERAL KNOWLEDGE 1. The three-tier Panchayat Raj system in India was proposed by the - (1)Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (2) Ashok Mehta Committee (3) Royal Commission (4) None of the above 2. Under which Article of the Constitution is the President’s Rule introduced in a State due to the failure of the constitutional machinery ? (1) 352 (2) 356 (3) 360 (4) 350 3. Who said that “Oh! Disrespectable democracy ! I love you!” ? (1) G.B. Shaw (2) Carpenter (3) Lord Bryce (4) Appa Dorai 4. The adoption of High Yielding Variety Programme in Indian Agriculture started in - (1) 1968 (2)1967 (3) 1966 (4) 1965 5. ‘Brown Revolution' is (1) growth of fodder industry (2) growth of sea products (3) growth of milk and milk products (4) growth of food processing and soft drinks industries in India 6. Mechanization of Indian agriculture on a considerable scale is not possible due to - (1) small holdings (2) lack of tractors (3) poverty of the peasants (4) indifference of the people 7. Which one of the following was the first English ship that came to India ? (1) Elizabeth (2) Bengal (3) Red Dragon (4) Mayflower 8. Which one of the following was the last Buddhist text produced in India ? (1) Divya Vand ana (2) Dohakosa (3) Vajrachedika (4) Vamsathapakasini 9. Who translated Ramayana into Persian ? (1) Abul Fazl (2) Badauni (3) Abdul Latif (4) Isar Das 10. The approximate circumference of the Earth is (1) 13,000 km (2) 20,000 km (3) 25,000 km (4) 30,000 km 11. ‘Cod’ is a variety of (1) Goat (2) Fish (3) Crop (4) Coral 12. One can distinguish a telescope from a, microscope by observing (1) length (2) colour (3) size of the lens (4) length and size of the lens 13. The sound produced by a bat is - (1) audible (2) subsonic (3) infrasonic (4) ultrasonic 14. A large number of identical plants can be obtained in a short span of time through - (1) large number of seeds of a single plant (2) stem cuttings (3) tissue culture technique (4) hydroponics method 15. Leukaemia or blood cancer is characterised by abnormal in crease of the - (1) Red blood cells (2) White blood cells (3) Blood platelets (4) Blood plasma 16. Birds which swim in water have - (1) webbed feet (2) broad wings (3) long beaks (4) toes with claws 17. A new technology which provides the ability to create an artificial world and have people interact with it is called: (1) Televirtuality (2) Virtual reality (3) Alternate reality (4) 3-D reality 18. X-rays were discovered by - (1) Faraday (2) Roentgen (3) H. Davy (4) Lavoisier 19. Uranium eventually decays into a stable isotope of - (1) Radium (2) Thorium (3) Lead (4) Polonium www.eenadupratibha.net

POSTAL TEST - 3 PART : A - GENERAL KNOWLEDGE · POSTAL TEST - 3 PART : A - GENERAL KNOWLEDGE 1. The three-tier Panchayat Raj system in India was proposed by the - (1)Balwant Rai Mehta

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Page 1: POSTAL TEST - 3 PART : A - GENERAL KNOWLEDGE · POSTAL TEST - 3 PART : A - GENERAL KNOWLEDGE 1. The three-tier Panchayat Raj system in India was proposed by the - (1)Balwant Rai Mehta

POSTAL TEST - 3

PART : A - GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

1. The three-tier Panchayat Raj system in India was proposed by the -(1)Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (2) Ashok Mehta Committee(3) Royal Commission (4) None of the above

2. Under which Article of the Constitution is the President’s Rule introduced in a Statedue to the failure of the constitutional machinery ?(1) 352 (2) 356 (3) 360 (4) 350

3. Who said that “Oh! Disrespectable democracy ! I love you!” ?(1) G.B. Shaw (2) Carpenter (3) Lord Bryce (4) Appa Dorai

4. The adoption of High Yielding Variety Programme in Indian Agriculture started in -(1) 1968 (2)1967 (3) 1966 (4) 1965

5. ‘Brown Revolution' is(1) growth of fodder industry (2) growth of sea products(3) growth of milk and milk products(4) growth of food processing and soft drinks industries in India

6. Mechanization of Indian agriculture on a considerable scale is not possible due to -(1) small holdings (2) lack of tractors(3) poverty of the peasants (4) indifference of the people

7. Which one of the following was the first English ship that came to India ?(1) Elizabeth (2) Bengal (3) Red Dragon (4) Mayflower

8. Which one of the following was the last Buddhist text produced in India ?(1) Divya Vand ana (2) Dohakosa (3) Vajrachedika (4) Vamsathapakasini

9. Who translated Ramayana into Persian ?(1) Abul Fazl (2) Badauni (3) Abdul Latif (4) Isar Das

10. The approximate circumference of the Earth is(1) 13,000 km (2) 20,000 km (3) 25,000 km (4) 30,000 km

11. ‘Cod’ is a variety of(1) Goat (2) Fish (3) Crop (4) Coral

12. One can distinguish a telescope from a, microscope by observing(1) length (2) colour (3) size of the lens (4) length and size of the lens

13. The sound produced by a bat is -(1) audible (2) subsonic (3) infrasonic (4) ultrasonic

14. A large number of identical plants can be obtained in a short span of time through -(1) large number of seeds of a single plant (2) stem cuttings(3) tissue culture technique (4) hydroponics method

15. Leukaemia or blood cancer is characterised by abnormal in crease of the -(1) Red blood cells (2) White blood cells(3) Blood platelets (4) Blood plasma

16. Birds which swim in water have -(1) webbed feet (2) broad wings (3) long beaks (4) toes with claws

17. A new technology which provides the ability to create an artificial world and havepeople interact with it is called:(1) Televirtuality (2) Virtual reality (3) Alternate reality (4) 3-D reality

18. X-rays were discovered by -(1) Faraday (2) Roentgen (3) H. Davy (4) Lavoisier

19. Uranium eventually decays into a stable isotope of -(1) Radium (2) Thorium (3) Lead (4) Polonium

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MTS Model Paper - 3
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20. Which of the following contains high content of lead?(1) Coal (2) Cooking gas (3) High octane fuel (4) Low octane fuel

21. National Environmental Engineering Research Institute is located at -(1) Pune (2) Delhi (3) Nagpur (4) Chennai

22. When was the Economic Survey of India 2013-14 presented by the Union FinanceMinister Arun Jaitley in Lok Sabha?(1) 6th July, 2014 (2) 9th July, 2014(3) 30th June, 2014 (4) 3rd July, 2014

23. Which player ranked number one overall on the castrol performance index at theconclusion of the 2014 FIFA World Cup 2014?(1) Karim Benzema (2) Ron Vlaar(3) Tonikroos (4) Mesutozil (5) None

24. Indian Infoline Asset Management Company has appointed ____ as its Chief ExecutiveOfficer in April 2014.(1) Prashasta Seth (2) Rakesh Sethi (3) Uday Sareen(4)Manoj Vaish (5) None

25. The currency of Brazil is ?(1) Dollar (2) Real (3) Krone (4) Euro (5) None

PART-B : NUMERICAL

26. If (2000)10 = 1.024 x 10k, then the value of k is y(1)33 (2)30 (3)34 (4)31

27. In a parallelogram ABCD, the bisectors of A and B meet at O. Then AOB isequal to:(1)85° (2) 90° (3)110° (4) None of these

28. The smallest among 6 3 412, 4, 5, 3 is

(1) 6 12 (2) 3 4 (3) 3 [4) 4 529. By selling 60 articles a vendor gains the selling price of 15 articles. Find his gain

percentage:

(1) 25 (2) 1333 (3)20 (4)

4287

30. On a certain sum of money lent out at 16% p.a. the difference between the compoundinterest for 1 year, payable half yearly, and the simple interest for 1 year is Rs.56. Thesum is(1) Rs.1080 (2) Rs.7805 (3) Rs.8750 (4) Rs.5780

31. A person bought 50 pens for Rs.50 each. He sold 40 of them at a loss of 5%. He wantsto gain 10% on the whole. Then his gain percent on the remaining pens should be(1) 15 (2) 40 (3) 50 (4) 70

32. If x: y - 3 : 4, then 4x + 5y : 5x - 2y =(1)7:32 (2)32:7 (3) 4 : 3 (4) 5 : 2

33. On a certain sum, the simple interest at the end of 164 years becomes

38 of the sum.

The rate of interest is(1) 5% (2) 6% (3) 7% (4) 8%

34. ABC is inscribed in a circle P, Q and R are angles inscribed in the arcs cut offby sides BC, AC and AB respectively. Then P + Q + R is equal to :

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PART - B : MATHS
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(1) 180° (2) 360° (3)240° (4) None of these35. Mean of 10 numbers is 30. Later on it was observed that numbers 15, 23 are wrongly

taken as 51, 32. The correct mean is(1) 25.5 (2) 32 (3) 30 (4) 34.5

36. A and B together can do 1119 of a work. In the same time B and C together can do

1419

of the same work. The ratio of work done by A, B and C is(1) 3 : 4 : 5 (2) 4 : 5 : 7 (3) 5 : 6 : 8 (4) 5 : 7 : 8

37. The speed of the current is 5 km/hour. A motorboat goes 10 km upstream and backagain to the starting point in 50 minutes. The speed, in km/ hour, of the motorboat instill water is(1) 20 (2) 26 (3)25 (4)28

38. Pipes P and Q can fill a tank in 10 and 12 hours respectively and C can empty it in 6hours. If all the three are opened at 7 a.m., at what time will one-fourth of the tank befilled ?(1) 10 a.m. (2) 10 p.m. (3) 11 p.m. (4) 11 a.m.

39. The radius of the incircle of a triangle is 2 cm. If the area of the triangle is 6 cm2, thenits perimeter is(1) 2 cm (2) 3 cm (3) 6 cm (4) 9 cm

40. Each interior angle of a regular polygon is 18° more than eight times an exteriorangle. The number of sides of the polygon is(1) 10 (2) 15 (3) 20 (4) 25

41. The minimum value of 2 sin2 + 3 cos2 is(1)0 (2)3 (3)2 (4)1

42. If x2 = y + z, y2 = z + x, z2 = x + y, then the value of 1 1 1

1 1 1x y z

is

(1) -1 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 4

43. If 1 3xx

, then the value of 18 12 6 1x x x x is

(1) 0 (2)1 (3)2 (4)344. Two medians AD and BE of ABC intersect at G at right angles. If AD = 9 cm and BE

= 6 cm, then the length of BD, in cm is(1) 10 (2) 6 (3)5 (4)3

45. The value of tan 4°.tan 43°.tan 47°.tan 86° is(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 4Directions (46 -50) : The histogram shows the marks obtained by 45 students of aclass. Look at the histogram and answer the questions.

0

2

4

6

8

10

12

10 20 30 40 50 60Marks

Num

ber o

f Stu

dent

s

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46. How ftiany students have obtained marks 50 and above ?(1)9 (2)10 (3)11 (4)16

47. If the pass mark be 30, what is the number of failures ?(1)2 (3)6 (2)18 (4)20

48. If the pass mark be 30, what is the percentage of successful students ?(1) 75% (2)60% (3) 50% (4) 40%

49. How many students, have ob tained marks less than 10 ?(1)2 (2) 10 (3) 1 (4) 4

50. How many students have ob- . tained 30 or more marks but less than 40 ?(1)3 (2)4 (3)5 (4)6

PART-C : ENGLISH51. How many adverbs have been used in the following sentences ? Sita sings well. She

speaks very fluently.(1)5 (2)3 (3)4 (4) None of these

52. Identify adverb among the bold words:(1) A lonely boy (2) Friendly neighbours(3) An early riser (4) To rise early

53. Identify plural word among the following alternatives:(1) Syllabus (2) Curriculum (3) Agenda (4) Radius

54. In the following question, four options have been given. Identify the option which hascorrect usage of preposition:(1) I prefer milk than tea (2) He needs a pen to write with(3) He is ill from fever (4) He ordered for two cups of tea

55. Fill in the gap with suitable preposition: Sita is indifferent _____ her health.(1) To (2)Of (3) From (4) By

56. Manish said that he was busy then.The correct direct, speech of the above reported speech is:(1) Manish said, “I am busy now”(2) Manish said, “He is busy then”(3) Manish said, “He were busy now”(4) Manish said, “He was busy then”

57. Correct reported speech of the following direct speech is: He said to me, “where areyou going?”(1) He asked me where I was going.(2) He told me where I was going.(3) He said to me where I am going.(4) He asked me where 1 am going.

58. Identify the complex sentence among the followings:(1) The mother tiger saw her cubs.(2) The mother tiger saw her Cubs and she became happy(3) When the mother tiger saw her cubs, she became happy(4) Both (2) & (3) above

59. Choose the correct combination of two simple sentences given below into a complexsentence by using a noun clause :Everybody voted him. They believed him to be an honest man.(1) Everybody voted him because they believed him to be an honest man.(2) Everybody voted him believing that he is an honest man.(3) Everybody voted him as he is seeming to be an honest man

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(4) Everybody votes him believing to be an honest man.60. Identify the passive voice among the following sentences :

(1) They do not speak English.(2) My uncle looks after me(3) You have never been cheated by me.(4) Ram did not speak the truth.

61. Identify the correct tense which has been used in this sentence. By the end of thisyear he will have saved a lot of money.(1) Future continuous tense(2) Future perfect tense(3) Future perfect continuous tense(4) Simple future tense

62. Tea is too hot to drink.The correct transformation of above sentence is:(1) Tea is so hot that one can not drink it.(2) Tea is very hot and can not be drunk.(3) Tea is so hot when you drink it.(4) Tea is very hot if you drink it.

63. Fill in the blank using correct article.Kalidas is _______ Shakespeare of India.(1)A (2) An (3) The (4) Any one of the above can be usedDirections (64-66) : In each of the following questions a word in CAPITALS is followedby four choices. Select from the choices that word whose meaning is opposite of theword in capitals.

64. ETERNAL(1) Momentary (2) Everlasting (3) Continual (4) Endless

65. BARBARIAN(1) Heroic (2) Civilised (3) Nationalist (4) Foreigner

66. ADULTERATED(1) Immature (2) Solid (3) Virtuous (4) PureDirections (67 - 69): In each of the following questions a word in CAPITALS is followedby four choices. Select the word that has the same meaning as the word in capitals.

67. ENOUGH(1) Adequate (2) Inadequate (3) Complete (4) Balance

68. DEDICATED(1) Devoted (2) Loyal (3) Sincere (4) Submissive

69. REPERCUSSION(1) Resistance (2) Reaction (3) Opposite (4) ShockDirections (70-71): In the following questions select the appropriate word that bestrepresents the given set of words.

70. The writing that cannot be read(1) Nonlegible (2) Unlegible (3) Illegal (4) Illegible

71. A person whose thoughts are turned inwards(1) Extrovert (2) Invertebrate (3) Intelligent (4) IntrovertDirections (72-74): Find out the correctly spelt word.

72. (1) Annivarsary (2) Anniversary (3) Anneversary (4) Annivarsery73. (1) Maintenance (2) Maintinance (3) Maintenence (4) Mantenance74. (1)Guardion (2) Guardian (3) Guardien (4) Guardain75. Superlative of Good and opposite of worst is:

(1)Best (2) Better (3) Bad (4) Worse

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POSTEL TEST - 3

1 1 2 2 3 1 4 3 5 4 6 1 7 38 4 9 2 10 4 11 2 12 4 13 4 14 315 2 16 1 17 2 18 2 19 3 20 3 21 322 2 23 3 24 1 25 2 26 1 27 2 28 429 2 30 3 31 4 32 2 33 2 34 2 35 136 3 37 3 38 2 39 3 40 3 41 2 42 243 1 44 3 45 3 46 4 47 3 48 2 49 150 1 51 2 52 4 53 3 54 2 55 1 56 157 1 58 3 59 1 60 3 61 2 62 1 63 364 1 65 2 66 4 67 1 68 1 69 2 70 471 4 72 2 73 1 74 2 75 1

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KEY
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Part - C (II)

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ÅEo v°æ¨¡o-© π◊ ´÷®Ω’\©’ Ææ´÷†ç. ´÷®Ω’\©’ 25 × 1 = 25

76.. Ŷµº’u-ü¿ßª’ éπN-û√y-EéÀ ´‚© N®√ô’d–

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3) éπ%≠æg-¨»ÆœY 4) N¨¡yØ√ü∑¿ Ææûªu-Ø√-®√-ߪ’ù

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3) ®√N-¨»ÆœY 4) •’*a-¶«•’

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1) ¶®· Hµ ’†o 2) ü¿’´‹yJ ®√N’-È®úÕf

3) í∫’±Äç ñ«≠æfl¢√ 4) éπôd-´’ç* ®√´’-Lç-í¬-È®úÕf

79.. ¶µº®Ω-ü∆yï ®Ω*ç-*† Ææ’v°æÆœü¿l¥ ví∫çü∑¿ç

1) @´† í∫´’†ç 2) @´† ߪ÷†ç

3) @´† ؈éπ 4) @´† Ææ´’®Ωç

80.. '≤ƒéÀ~— ¢√u≤ƒ© Ææ%≠œd-éπ®Ωh á´®Ω’?

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3) í∫’®Ω-ñ«úø ŧƒp-®√´¤ 4) éπçü¿’-èπÿJ OÍ®-¨¡-Lçí∫ç °æçûª’©’

81.. 'ûÁ©’í∫’ ´©x-¶µº’çúø ûÁ©’-íÌ-éπçúø— – ÅE î√ô’-èπ◊†o ®√ï-éπN á´®Ω’?

1) ®Ω°∂æ·-Ø√ü∑¿ Ø√ߪ’-èπ◊úø’ 2) Nï-ߪ’-®√-°∂æ’´ Ø√ߪ’-èπ◊úø’

3) Xéπ%-≠æg-üË-´-®√-ߪ’©’ 4) ®√ï-®√-ï-†-Í®ç-vü¿’úø’

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1) ®√©÷-®Ω-°æp©÷ 2) @´† ؈éπ

3) ņ’-¶µ«-¢√©÷ ñ«c°æ-鬩’ 4) ؈’ Ø√ @N-ûª-îª-Jvûª

83.. ûÌL ûÁ©’í∫’ Ø√ôéπç–

1) †®Ω-é¬Ææ’®Ω ¢√ußÁ÷-í∫´· 2) ´’çï-K-´’-üµ¿’-éπ-K-ߪ’´·

3) Nvéπ-¢Á÷-®Ωy-Q-ߪ’´· 4) ´®Ω-N-véπߪ’ç

84.. '†’´¤y áéπ\-ü¿-©--èπ◊†o È®j©’ á°æ¤púø÷ äéπ @N-ûª-é¬©ç ™‰ô’— ņo éπN á´®Ω’?

1) XX 2) ç

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3) N¨¡y-Ø√ü∑¿ Ææûªu-Ø√-®√-ߪ’ù 4) Ç®Ω’vü¿

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1) °æ¤ôd-°æJh Ø√®√-ߪ’-ù«-î√-®Ω’u©’ 2) ü∆¨¡-®ΩC∑ éπ%≠æg-´÷-î√-®Ω’u©’

3) ü∆¨¡-®ΩC∑ ®Ωçí¬-î√-®Ω’u©’ 4) ¢√†-´÷-´’™„j ´®Ω-ü∆-î√-®Ω’u©’

II. éÀçC °æü∆-© π◊ Å®√n©’ ®√ߪ’çúÕ.

86.. Ææ綵«®Ωç = .....

1) Ææç£æ…®Ωç 2) Ææ´÷-î√®Ωç 3) ´Ææ’h-ñ«©ç 4) Ææ´’-ߪ’-§ƒ-©†

87.. >T = .....

1) é¬çA 2) °æô’ûªyç 3) í∫>-G> 4) Aéπ- ’éπ

88.. áéÀ-O’úø’ = .....

1) í∫%£æ«ç 2) °æéÀ~ 3) í∫÷úø’ 4) ®√V

89.. éπ´’®∏Ωç = .....

1) û√¶‰©’ 2) ûÓúË©’ 3) †éπ\ 4) >çéπ

90.. £æ›ûª-¶µº’èπ◊\ = .....

1) ¢√ߪ·´¤ 2) ÅTo 3) ï©ç 4) Ç鬨¡ç

III. éÀçC ¢√uéπ-®Ωù 鬮√u-© π◊ Ææçüµ¿’©’ ûÁ©-°æçúÕ.

91.. ï´ + Ç©’ = ï -®√©’

1) í∫Ææ-ü¿- -¢√-üË ¡ ÆæçCµ 2) v§ƒû√C ÆæçCµ

3) ®Ω’í¬-í∫´’ ÆæçCµ 4) Ææ®Ω-∞«-üË ¡ ÆæçCµ

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3) Ææ -®Ωg-D®Ω` ÆæçCµ 4) 﨡h y ÆæçCµ

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3) ô’í¬-í∫ ’ ÆæçCµ 4) ߪ’ú≈-í∫ ’ ÆæçCµ

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96.. Ééπ\úø F∞¡Ÿx éπöÀd-ü¿’-†’o-û√®Ω’ 鬕öÀd ÉC–

1) Íéü∆®Ωç 2) §Ò©ç 3) Íé~vûªç 4) èπ◊™«uç-ûª®Ω Ææn©ç

97.. DE™ ÅFo N¨Ï-≠æçí¬ Ææçîª-J-≤ƒh®· ÅØË ´¤uûªpAh Å®Ωnç ÉîËa °æü¿ç

1) ≤˘üµ¿ç 2) üµ¿®ΩùÀ 3) N£æ…-ߪ’Ææç 4) û√´’Æœ

98.. äúø’f†’ ä®Ω-ߪ·-†C ÅØË ´¤uûªpAh Å®√nEo ÉîËa °æü¿ç

1) à®Ω’ 2) †C 3) ûª®Ωç-TùÀ 4) èπÿ©ç-éπ≠æ

99.. 'Ææ’ê-´·—†’ éπL-Tç-îË-¢√úø’ –

1) ¨¡ç¶µº’úø’ 2) N≠æflg´¤ 3) v•£æ«t 4) Ø√®Ω-ü¿’úø’

100.. ÅØ√o-ü¿’-©†’ üÌçí∫-Lç--†C =

1) ë‰îª-®Ω’©’ 2) ´’ߪ‚®Ωç 3) ´‚≠œéπç 4) éπ´’®∏Ωç

Ææ´÷-üµ∆-Ø√©’76–2; 77–1; 78–2; 79–4; 80–1; 81–3; 82–3; 83–2; 84–4; 85–1; 86–3, 87–1; 88–4; 89–1;

90–2; 91–3; 92–1; 93–2; 94–4; 95–3; 96–1; 97–3; 98–4; 99–1; 100–3.

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