POLITY TEST

POLITY TEST

1 | P a g e F o r m o r e i n f o : w w w . i n s i g h t s s b . i n

F o r M o r e d e t a i l s P l e a s e v i s i t w w w . i n s i g h t s s b . i n

Q1. Parliamentary Government” is also known as

(A) Cabinet Government

(B) Responsible Government

(C) Westminster forms of government

(D) All of the above

Q2. Who participates in the Presidential election?

(A) Elected members of both Houses of Parliament

(B) Elected and nominated members of the State Legislative Assembly

(C) Members of all Union Territories

(D) All of the above

Q3. Which of the following statements is wrong?

(A) Elected and nominated members of the State Legislative Assembly participate in the

presidential election.

(B) The Union Executive includes the President, Vice President, Prime Minister, Attorney

General of India

(C) Impeachment may be initiated against the President for 'breach of constitution'

(D) Article 56 envisages the tenure of the President

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POLITY TEST



Q4. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) Members of Lok Sabha are directly elected by the eligible voters

(b) Money Bills can only be introduced in Lok Sabha

(c) The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha

(d) President nominates four members of Anglo-Indian Community to Lok Sabha

Q5. Which of the following statements is not correct about the Rajya Sabha?

(a) Rajya Sabha is a permanent body

(b) It was duly constituted for the first time on April 3, 1952

(c) Twelve of Rajya Sabha members are nominated by the President

(d) One-third of its members retire every year

Q6. What is the maximum gap / interval between two sessions of parliament?

(a) 30 days

(b) 50 days

(c) 6 months

(d) 12 months



POLITY TEST



Q7. Which Article is related to the Money Bill and where it can be introduced?

A. Article 110, Rajya Sabha

B. Article 110, Lok Sabha

C. Article 121, Rajya Sabha

D. Article 121, Lok Sabha

Q8. Who decides whether a bill is a Money Bill or not?

A. President

B. Prime Minister

C. Speaker of the Lok Sabha

D. Finance Minister

Q9. Consider the following statements.

1) The Election of Vice-President does not include the members of the State Legislative

Assemblies.

2) The Vice-President should be qualified for election as a member of the Rajya Sabha.

3) The nomination of a candidate for election to the office of Vice-President must be

subscribed by at least 20 electors as proposers and 20 electors as seconders.

Which of the statement given above is / are correct.

a) 1 only

b) 1, 2 only

c) 1, 3 only

d) 1, 2 & 3



POLITY TEST



Q10. Which of the following is not matched correctly?

(A) Article 64: Vice President will be the Ex-Officio Chairman of the State Councils

(B) Article 65: Vice Presidential election

(C) Article 69: swearing by the Vice President

(D) Article 61: Vice President's tenure

Q11. When vice president acts as the president , which among the following is/ are

true?

(a) He/ She remains the chairman of the Rajya Sabha and performs the duties of the

chairman of Rajya Sabha

(b) He/ She ceases to be the chairman of Rajya Sabha

(c) Lok Sabha Speaker performs the duty of the chairman of the Rajya Sabha

(d) None of the above

Q12. Consider the following statements in context of the exemptions given under ADL:

1. Disqualification on ground of defection does not apply in case of merger of political parties

in some conditions.

2. A party may merged with another or the two may form a new party, if 2/3rd of the members

of the legislature party decide to merge with another party.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only 1



POLITY TEST



(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q13. Consider the following statements:

The Chairman/Speaker has been given the final authority to decide questions of

disqualification of a member of a House under the provisions of the Tenth schedule to the

constitution.

The Anti defection law does not apply on an independent member who joins a political party

after his/her election.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q14. The total number of ministers including the prime ministers shall not exceed-

(a) 20% members of the Lok sabha

(b) 10% members of the Lok sabha

(c) 25% members of the Lok sabha

(d) 15% members of the Lok sabha



POLITY TEST



Q15. Which of the following is / are parts of Union Executive?

1. Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister

2. President of India

3. Central Secretariat

4. Vice President

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 1 & 2

(c) Only 1, 2 & 3

(d) 1, 2, 3 & 4

Q16. First Indian Prime Minister to resign from Office?

(a) Atal Bihari Vajpayee

(b) Morarji Desai

(c) H.D.Deve Gowda

(d) P.V.Narasimha Rao

Q17. A minister in Union Government is individually responsible to ___?

(a) Council of Ministers

(b) Prime Minister



POLITY TEST



(c) President

(d) Parliament

Q18. The council of ministers shall be collectively responsible to the house of people”.

Which article states this?

(a) 75(2)

(b) 75(1)

(c) 75(4)

(d) 75(3)

Q19. Consider the following statements. Which of them is/are false?

1) The central Council of Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the President

2) The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to Rajya Sabha

3) The salaries of ministers are determined by the Parliament

4) If the Prime Minister resigns, the entire Council of Ministers is also dissolved

a) Only 2

b) Only 2 and 4

c) Only 1, 2 and 3

d) All are true

Q20. Consider the following statements. Which of them is/are false?

1) The courts cannot inquire into the nature of advice rendered to the President by the

ministers

2) A person who is NOT a member of either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha can also be



POLITY TEST



appointed as a minister

3) The President administers the oaths to the ministers

4) The President can remove a minister without the advice of the Prime Minister

a) Only 1 and 3

b) Only 2

c) Only 3

d) Only 4

Q21. Which of the following statement is false about the Chief Minister?

(A). There is no special provision for appointment and election of Chief Minister in the

constitution

(B). Article 154 states that the Governor will appoint the Chief Minister

(C). The Governor is free to appoint any person as Chief Minister

(D). There is no such system in the Constitution that the Chief Minister should prove a

majority before his appointment

Q22. Which of the following is/are true?

1) CM is the chairman of the state planning commission.

2) CM is the principal channel of communication between the Governor and the council

of Ministers.

3) He advises the governor with regard to the appointment of chairman of UPSC.

a. 2, 3

b. 1, 3

c. 1, 2

d. All of the above



POLITY TEST



Q23. Which of the following is/are true?

1) Article 167 deals with conduct of business of the Government of State.

2) Article 168 deals with duties of Chief Minister.

a. Only 1

b. Only 2

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Q24. There is a constitutional requirement to have a Minister in-charge of Tribal Welfare

for the States of:

(a) Assam, Nagaland and Manipur

(b) Himachal Pradesh, Haryana and Rajasthan

(c) Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand

(d) Manipur, Tripura and Meghalaya

Q25. The salaries and allowances of the Council of Ministers of the State Government

are paid from the:

(a) Reserve Bank of India

(b) Treasury of the State Government

(c) Contingency Fund of the State

(d) Consolidated Fund of the state



POLITY TEST



Q26. The accountability or responsibility of the Chief Minister and Cabinet to the State

Legislative Assembly is

(a) Intermittent

(b) Indirect

(c) At the time of elections

(d) Direct, continuous and collective

Q27. On which date, National Panchayati Raj Day is observed?

(a) January 28

(b) February 26

(c) March 11

(d) April 24

Q28. Which among the following committee was appointed by Government of India in

1977 to recommend for improving efficiency of Panchayati Raj institution?

(a) Ashok Mehta Committee

(b) Sarkaria Commission

(c) Tarkunde Committee

(d) Balwant rai committee



POLITY TEST



Q29. Which among the following is an apex body under Panchayati Raj?

(a) Zila Parishad

(b) Panchayat Samiti

(c) Mandal Parishad

(d) Gramsabha

Q30. The part IX of the constitution which deals with Panchayats is not applicable to

which of the following states?

(a) Nagaland , Meghalaya & Mizoram

(b) Nagaland , Meghalaya, Mizoram & Tribal Areas of Assam

(c) Nagaland , Meghalaya , Mizoram , Tribal Areas of Assam and Tripura

(d) Nagaland , Meghalaya , Mizoram , Tribal Areas of Assam , Tripura & Hill areas of Manipur

Q31. Which is/are true regarding PESA Act, 1996?

1) It aims to safeguard and preserve the customs of tribals.

2) It aims to make Gram Sabha nucleus of all activities.

3) It is applicable to nine states with scheduled areas.

4) Only 2 states have enacted legislation compliant with PESA provisions.

a. 1 and 2

b. 1, 2 and 4

c. 2, 3 and 4

d. All of the above



POLITY TEST



Q32. Which of the following are urban local government bodies?

1) Pollution Control Boards.

2) Township.

3) Port Trust.

4) Town Area Committee.

5) Urban Development Authorities.

a. 1, 2, 4 and 5

b. 2, 3 and 4

c. 2 and 3 only

d. All of the above

Q33. Provisions with respect to tribunals were added by which Amendment Act?

a. 44th

b. 24th

c. 42nd

d. 25th

Q34. Consider the following statements about Jnanpith award:

1. It was instituted in 1953.

2. Any Indian citizen who writes in any of the official languages of India is eligible for

the honour.

Which of the given above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2



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(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q35. RAISE Summit 2020 is being conducted by the:

(a) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)

(b) NITI Aayog

(c) Observer Research Foundation (ORF)

(d) Both (a) and (b)

Q36. Consider the following countries:

Brazil

South Africa

Germany

India

Australia

Japan

Which of the above are members of G4 grouping?

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5

(c) 2, 3, 4 and 6

(d) 1, 3, 4 and 6



POLITY TEST



Q37. The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution of India lists a/an/the:

(a) Tribal area

(b) Powers between center and states

(c) Union and States

(d) Official languages

Q38. Passage Exercise (PASSEX), is a military exercise between India and:

(a) France

(b) Japan

(c) Australia

(d) Russia

Q39. Dibru-Saikhowa National Park is located in:

(a) Arunachal Pradesh

(b) Assam

(c) Meghalaya

(d) Nagaland



POLITY TEST



Q40. The Constituent assembly of India adopted Hindi as the official language of

the country on September 14, 1949 under which one of the following article of the

Constitution of India?

(a) Article 351

(b) Article 350A

(c) Article 350B

(d) Article 343

Q41. Which of the following pairs is/are matched correct?

Advanced fighter aircraft Manufacturer

F-35 Lightning II Lockheed Martin

Tejas Mk2 DRDO

Dassault Rafale Airbus

F-15 Eagle Boeing

Select the correct answer using the code below:

(a) 2 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 4

(d) All of the above



POLITY TEST



Q42. Which of the following countries not share border with Thailand?

(a) Vietnam

(b) Malaysia

(c) Cambodia

(d) Laos

Q43. Which article of Indian constitution envisages that there shall be an Attorney

General of India?

(A) Article 78

(B) Article 76

(C) Article 67

(D) Article 113

Q44. A bill cannot become an act of parliament, unless and until_____?

It is passed by Lok Sabha

It is passed by Rajya Sabha

It gets assent from President

It is passed by Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha



POLITY TEST



Q45. What is the maximum life of an ordinance promulgated by President of India?

6 months

7.5 months

8 months

10 months

Q46. Which among the following Veto powers is NOT granted to the President?

a) Absolute Veto

b) Pocket Veto

c) Qualified Veto

d) Suspensive Veto

Q47. Who addresses the Parliament after the commencement of the first session after

each general election?

a) Prime Minister

b) Chief Justice of India

c) President

d) Vice-president

Q48. On whose behalf are the International treaties conducted?

a) President

b) Foreign Affairs Minister

c) Defense Minister

d) Prime Minister



POLITY TEST



Q49. By which amendment bill is President's assent to constitutional amendments bill

made obligatory?

a) 29th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1971

b) 27th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1971

c) 28th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1971

d) 24th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1971

Q50. A Writ issued to secure the release of a person found to be detained illegally is

(a) Mandamus

(b) Habeas Corpus

(c) Certiorari

(d) Prohibition



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POLITY TEST