PMP® Mock Examination - Set Xtalkfinanceonline.com/wp-content/uploads/2012/03/Question-Set-No... · Which of the following represents the BEST way to organize project activities

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PMP® Mock Examination- Set X Version 1.0

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Question 1

Which of the following theories are illustrated by the principle: “Employees who believe that their

efforts will lead to effective performance and who anticipate important rewards for their

accomplishments become productive stay productive.”

A) The X-Y theory.

B) Maslow’s theory.

C) The expectancy theory.

D) Ouchi's Theory Z

E)Herzberg’s theory.

Question 2

Which of the following represents the reason why post-contract evaluations are important?

A) The contract fee is contractor performance related.

B) It establishes a historical base for contractor selection.

C) It acts as a point of reference for making legal procurements.

D) Most contracts make them a necessity.

E) They are legally required in many jurisdictions

Question 3

Project Procurement Management includes all of the following EXCEPT:

A) Administer procurements.

B) Plan Procurements

C) Stakeholder analysis

D) Close Procurements

Question 4

Which of the following represents the BEST way to organize project activities for scheduling?

A) By the critical path.

B) By the task start date.

C) By the date of commencement of project.

D) By work breakdown structure.

Question 5

The authority to accept or reject a requested change in a large and complex project, should rest

with _____?

A) The sponsor.

B) The president.

C) The change control board.

D) The client.

E) The project manager

Question 6

What are procurement documentation, change requests, and project management plan

updates?

A) Tools of administer procurements.

B) Functions of administer procurements.

C) Outputs of administer procurements.


D) Results of administer procurements.

E) Inputs of administer procurements.

Question 7

Which of the following statements describes quality control?

A) Monitoring specific project results to determine if they comply with relevant quality

standards.

B) Evaluating over ll project performance on a regular basis.

C) Taking action to increase the effectiveness and efficiency of they project.

D) Identifying which quality standards are standards are relevant to the project.

Question 8

During the execution of a pipeline project, the pipeline subcontractor proposes an upgrade

of certain material without a change in the schedule or cost. After the change is approved,

where would this change BEST be documented?

A) Project charter

B) Execution phase

C) Procurement Management plan

D) Work breakdown structure

E) Plan quality assurances

Question 9

During a weekly meeting, the engineering department states that they are bringing new

computer-aided design (CAD) system online. They do not anticipate any problems; however, if

problem occur they will work overtime to stay on schedule. As a project manager operating in a

matrix organization, it is important that you.

A) Assess the cost implication of this activity in the implementation phase.

B) Request that the IT department’s commitment be in writing.

C) Assess the risk of this activity and develop a response strategy.

D) Note this information in the minutes of the conference report meeting.

E) Request that the IT department delay implementation of the CRM application system until your

project is completed

Question 10

The project plan has been developed. A project end date has been established. The customer

later requests additional work to be included in the project, but will not renegotiate the end date.

Cost is not a factor. The project team should immediately.

A) Invoke the change control process.

B) Initiate contingency plans.

C) Modify the original project scope to include the additional work.

D) Commit to original project scope and open a new project to handle additional work.

E) Request project team to work overtime to meet end date


Question 11

An individual’s willingness to take a risk can be determined by:

A) Decision tree modeling.

B) Monte Carlo method,

C) Sensitivity analysis.

D) Utility theory.

E) Maslow’s hierarchy of needs.

Question 12

To determine the staffing requirements of the project, the project manager FIRST needs a(n);

A) Resource breakdown schedule.

B) Responsibility assignment matrix.

C) Work breakdown structure.

D) Organization chart

Question 13

As the project manager, which of the following techniques would you employ to control the project

Schedule?

A) Pareto diagram.

B) Statistical sampling.

C) Performance measurement.

D) Parametric modeling.

E) All of the above.

Question 14

The communications management plan is primarily dependent on the:

A) Length of the project.

B) Physical location of team members.

C) Specific needs of the project.

D) Project deliverables.

E) Distance between project teams.

Question 15

Technical staffs tend to be particularly responsive to:

A) Referent power.

B) Formal power.

C) Functional power.

D) Expert power.

E) Ad hoc power

Question: 16

The determination of conformance with scope requirements is called ____?

A) Plan quality.

B) Perform Quality Control.

C) Project Quality Management.

D) Perform Quality Assurances.


Question: 17

The person responsible for obtaining funding for a new project’s conceptual study is the:

A) Project manager.

B) President.

C) Chief financial officer.

D) Project sponsor.

E) The client.

Question: 18

The adjustment of task schedules in order to deploy human resource more effectively is called

resource:

A) Fast tracking.

B) Loading.

C) Crashing.

D) Leveling.

E) Smoothing.

Question: 19

Which of the following conflict resolution approaches is likely to lead to the MOST lasting

solutions?

A) Negotiating

B) Smoothing

C) Problem-solving

D) Compromising

E) Communicating

Question: 20

A primary function of the change control board is to:

A) Review the impact of change request.

B) Issue change requests.

C) Represent top management interests.

D) Identify new areas of project work.

E) Assign new team members to increase output.

Question 21

A project’s scope statement is developed during scope:

A) The initiation phase.

B) The implementation phase.

C) The planning phase.

D) The verification phase.

E) The definition phase

Question 22

To verify that the scope of the project is being met, it is necessary to:

A) Omit problems from the conference report.

B) Ensure that changes to the project character are reflected in the definition.

C) Verify the project schedule is on track.


D) Define causes and symptoms of identified problems

E) Conduct periodic inspections, reviews, and walk-through

Question 23

Random variance in a process, as measured by the standard deviation can be directly reduced

by:

A) Studying scatter diagrams.

B) Increasing the number of quality inspectors.

C) Improving the overall system of production.

D) Identifying patterns of variance.

E) Prohibiting any overtime work

Question 24

The process to change a contract clause is __________ the project change control system. A) Integrated within. B) Unrelated to. C) The same as. D) An input to. E) None of the above Question 25

When working in an environment that uses learning curves, the most effective plan for creating the perception

that pay is related to performance is to provide the team members with an individual salary plus bonus based

upon:-

A. Group or team productivity

B. Cost effectiveness

C. Individual productivity

D. Rating system developed by the project manager

E. All of the above

Question 26

Which of the following will you as the project manager need to determine the impact of a

requested scope change by a customer? (Choose all that apply.)

A) Performance reports.

B) A Work breakdown structure

C) A change request

D) A scope management plan

E) A Monte Carlo simulation

Question 27

Of the following estimates, which MOST accurately reflects the actual cost of the project?

A) Top-down

B) Bottom-up

C) Budget

D) Appropriations

Question 28

The cost-effective rule for shortening a project is to crash the:-


A) Critical tasks

B) Non-critical tasks

C) Tasks with lowest cost

D) Tasks with highest cost

Question 29

A response to a risk event that was not defined in advance of is occurrence is called a:

A) Risk mitigation response.

B) Workaround response.

C) Corrective action response.

D) Contingency response.

E) Incidence response

Question 30

A scope change requested by a client after acceptance of the design has potential impact on

several components of the project.

A) Convince the client to consider the request only upon completion of the original project.

B) Make the change if it is critical, regardless of its cost and impact, and inform the change

control board.

C) Convince the client to postpone the change.

D) Estimate the impact to the cost and schedule and seek the approval before proceeding.

E) Perform a detailed analysis of the impact on the cost and schedule, and call a project team

Meeting

Question 31

The critical path needs to be reduced by 25%. All of the following actions are relevant to

accomplishing this objective EXCEPT:

A) Adding resources.

B) Eliminating float.

C) Crashing time schedule.

D) Paralleling activities.

E) All of the above

Question 32

What type of organizational structure usually experiences the MOST team anxiety at project

Close-out?

A) Weak matrix

B) Projectized

C) Strong matrix

D) Functional

E) Balanced matrix.

Question 33

Bar charts generally illustrate:

A) Progress of status.

B) The critical path.

C) Budget relation ships.

D) Logical relationships


Question 34

The development of a cohesive project team occurs:

A) Throughout the project.

B) During planning.

C) During initiation.

D) At the kick-off meeting.

E) During conflict resolution.

Question 35

Which of the following techniques is used to control the project schedule?

A) Pareto diagram

B) Performance measurement

C) Parametric modeling

D) Statistical sampling

Question 36

Communication between the project manager and the project team members should take place:

A) Via daily status report.

B) Through approved documented forms.

C) By written and oral communication.

D) Through the formal chain of command.

E) None of the above

Question 37

What happens if the level of conformance directly increases as a consequence of new

processes?

A) Required monitoring cost should be more predictable.

B) Required monitoring cost should stay the same.

C) Required monitoring cost should decrease.

D) Required monitoring cost should increase

Question 38

An individual who is working on the satisfaction of physiological needs has essentially satisfied which needs?

A) Safety

B) None of the options

C) Esteem

D) Self-actualization

Question 39

What should you as the project manager do in the event of reduced funding on your project?

A) Perform detailed financial analysis and renegotiate for adequate funding.

B) Inform the customer that the project will be delayed an adjust resources accordingly.

C) Only do as much work as the new budget permits and document actions taken.

D) Inform the customer of impacts and negotiate a change in scope.

E) Abandon the project until funds are made available


Question 40

Which of the following scheduling techniques incorporates a form of risk assessment?

A) Arrow Diagramming Method (ADM)

B) Program evaluation and Review Technique (PERT)

C) Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)

D) Critical Path Method (CPM)

E) All of the above

Question 41

Which of the following represents an example of developing alternative activity sequences?

A) Rolling wave.

B) Risk aversion.

C) Rework.

D) Contingency planning.

E) All of the above

Question 42

How many ADDITIONAL lines of communication will be created when the number of team

members involved during the project increases from five to ten?

A) 10

B) 35

C) 45

D) 55

E) 50

Question 43

Which of the following is NOT necessary when developing a detailed project cost estimate?

(Choose all that apply.)

A) Management plan

B) Resource requirements

C) Cost plan

D) Project charter

E) All of the above

Answer – A,C, D

Question 44

Which of the following statements describes the result of resource leveling?

A) Push out the end date of the project.

B) Increase total costs for the project.

C) Require more resources.

D) Require fewer resources.

E) All of the above

Question 45

Project management is the preferred management approach EXCEPT for:


A) Product manufacturing environment.

B) Cross functional tasks.

C) Unique operations.

D) Time-constrained deliverables.

Question 46

Which of the following is the distinguishing characteristic between the network diagram and the

Gantt chart?

A) dependencies

B) Few resources

C) Critical dates

D) Key milestones

Question 47

Which of the following is included in estimate activity durations?

A) Information from previous experience

B) Project team knowledge

C) Time studies

D) Commercial duration databases

E) All of the above

Answer – A, B, D

Question 48

Which of the following statements BEST describes what project progress reports are?

A) It is used to predict future status and progress.

B) The project sponsor makes the most use of it.

C) It is an important communications element.

D) It is needed on a weekly basis

Question 49

Consider the following situation: The customer was given a monthly report that indicates zero

Schedule variance. One of the teams members are aware of at least one milestone that has

not been achieved. This missed milestone will result in an overall delay in the project.

Which of the following items were not reported on adequately?

A) Communication plan variance

B) Resource management plan

C) Critical path status

D) Risk analysis

E) All of the above

Question 50

There are two major types of reserves used on projects. The _____ is for (usually major) scope changes

that were not considered as part of the original plan, whereas the _____ is to compensate for minor changes

in estimating, escalation factors.

A. Management reserve, unplanned allowance fund.

B. Management reserve, contingency.


C. Unplanned allowance fund, budgetary reserve.

D. Contingency reserve, management reserve.

E. Unplanned reserve, planned reserve.

Question 51

To determine what causes the majority of quality problems in a process, a very useful tool is the:

A. cause and effect diagrams.

B. Flow chart.

C. Control chart.

D. Pareto chart.

E. Trend chart.

Question 52

Which technique would you be using if you analyze which sequence of activities has the

least amount of flexibility when you need to predict project duration?

A) Critical path

B) Dependency diagramming

C) PERT

D) Gantt chart

E) Monte Carlo method

Question 53

A forward and backward pass indicted total float is equal to – 20 days. This indicated that:

A) The critical path must be evaluated to determine actual slack time.

B) The project is estimated to be-20 days ahead of schedule.

C) Two branches converge on a node.

D) Duration compression may be required to meet the original project scope.

E) None of the above

Question 54

Comparing actual to baseline schedules, examining the statement of work, understanding cost

overruns, all occur during a:

A) Project audit.

B) Contract negotiation.

C) Stakeholder meeting.

D) Resource leveling activity.

Question 55

Expectancy theory as applied to project management implies that:

A. Team members will work hardest for those project goals that also bring satisfaction to personal goals

B. The more rewards that the project manager provides, the better the performance of the team

C. The team will work the hardest on those goals that are clearly explained by the project manager

D. Employees will work hardest for those project goals which are accompanied by high levels of authority for the

individual team members

E. None of the above

Question 56

Non-verbal communication includes:

A. Body movement

B. All of the options

C. Facial expressions

D. The way we move our hands

Question 57


Which of the following describes Fast Tracking?

A) Developing workarounds for previous problems.

B) An increase in project risk.

C) Getting people to work longer with overtime.

D) Meeting schedule objectives by adding resources.

E) Circumventing loopholes.

Question 58

Which of the following are the outputs of the Plan procurements process?

A) Procurement decisions, selected sellers

B) Change requests, source selection criteria, procurement decisions

C) closed procurements, make – or –buy decisions

D) Change requests, source selection criteria, procurement documentation

Question 59

Cost control includes all of the following EXCEPT:

A) Informing stakeholders of changes.

B) Recording appropriate changes to the cost baseline.

C) Monitoring cost performance.

D) Preparing cost estimates

Question 60

Which of the following is illustrated by a resource histogram?

A) Expected requirements for critical path activities.

B) Expected resource usage by time period.

C) Resource assignments by work package

D) Resource assignments by activities

Question 61

All of the following are indirect costs EXCEPT:

A) Payroll tax cost.

B) Subcontract costs.

C) Insurance costs.

D) Accounting support costs

Question 62

Which of the following requires an expenditure of the resources when working within an

arrow diagramming method?

A) Histograms

B) Milestone events

C) Path activities

D) Accounting support costs.

E) Pareto diagram

Question 63

The Person primarily responsible for the quality of deliverables is the.

A) The quality control inspector.

B) The quality controller.

C) The design engineer.

D) The project manager.

Question 64


Which of the following are indicative of duration estimates?

A) How many work periods an activity is expected to last.

B) How many hours a resource will work on an activity.

C) When an activity is likely to finish.

D) When an activity is likely to start.

Question 65

Which of the following should be done by the project manager upon completion of the project?

A) Planning a turnover meeting.

B) Obtaining a sign-off from the customer.

C) Team celebration.

D) Project evaluation.

E) Performance evaluation of team members

Question 66

Which of the following represents the pinnacle of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?

A) Survival.

B) Safety.

C) Physiological satisfaction.

D) Self-actualization

Question 67

Which of the following can be used to measure overall project performance?

A) Gantt chart.

B) Work breakdown structure.

C) PERT chart.

D) Earned value chart.

E) A flow chart.

Question 68

The formal invitation to submit a price for specified goods/services is usually referred to as:

A. request for quotation

B. request for proposal

C. tender invitation

D. bid invitation

E. A and B only

Question 69

Which of the following statements BEST describes an Estimate At Completion (EAC)?

A) It is a periodic evaluation of total value of work performed to date.

B) It is a periodic evaluation of total cost of the unfinished work.

C) It is periodic evaluations of total resources projected at project complain.

D) It is a periodic evaluation of total forecasted project cost

Question 70

Which of the following utility functions reflects risk-aversion:

A. uniform

B. decreasing

C. increasing

D. exponential

E. B and D only

Question 71


On a fixed price/lump sum contract, the change control procedure in place requires written

authorization for all changes. Once of the project team members verbally instructed a

supplier to perform work outside of its contracted scope of work. The change resulted in a

200% budget overrun. The project manger want to address with a project team member

the apparent disregard for following directions. What conflict resolution style should be

used?

A) Compromising

B) Forcing

C) Smoothing

D) Problem-solving

E) Withdrawal

Question 72

Which of the following are the essentials regarding a project close-out? (Choose all that

apply.)

A) Documenting formal acceptance of the product.

B) Documenting the final risk assessment.

C) Documenting the final project scope.

D) Documenting the lessons learned.

E) All of the above

Answer – A, C, D

Question 73

When selecting a project manager for a large project in a technical industry, the MOST important

selection criterion is:

A) Communication and integration skills.

B) Specific technical specialization.

C) Financial management experience.

D) Industry and business experience.

E) Expertise and qualifications in relevant industrial field

Question 74

Which of the following is useful in risk identification because it permits a systemic evaluation of

the work?

A) Work breakdown structure.

B) Design specification

C) Project slow chart

D) Project chart

E) Conference chart

Question 75

Which of the following outputs is a result of project plan execution?

A) Change requests.

B) Responsibility assignment matrix

C) Work breakdown structure


D) Project character

Question 76

A deficiency in characteristics that render the quality of the material/service unacceptable is usually referred

to as:

A. defective

B. defect

C. non-conformance

D. poor workmanship

E. lack of fitness for use

Question 77

Which of the following is required for scope change control?

A) Risk mitigation

B) Charter update

C) Verify scope

D) Cost-benefit analysis

Question 78

A line manager possesses information which the project team needs, but withholds the information. The

results in a(n):

A. Blindspot

B. Facade

C. region of influence

D. Communication power base


Question 79

Statistical cost estimating techniques (based upon history), are called _____ estimates and are a

_____ approach.

A. Definitive, bottom up

B. Parametric, top down

C. Parametric, bottom up.

D. Analogy, top down

E. Analogy, bottom up

Question 80

To determine the impact of a change that has occurred, which of the following should be taken?

A) Re-evaluate the work breakdown structure.

B) Assess the communication policy

C) Review the earned value

D) Performance measurement

Question 81

The responsibility assignment matrix is a project management tool used to:

A) Ensure team members understand their specific roles.

B) Develop the work breakdown structure based on available resources.

C) Establish project members availability to work on the project.


D) Depict the project’s organizational structure

Question 82

Which quality management tool would be used to determine potential causes of a production problem?

A. control chart.

B. scatter diagram.

C. Ishikawa diagram

D. histogram.

E. run chart.

Question 83

The Administer procurement activities are performed at:

A) Customer acceptance

B) Completion of execution

C) Product completion

D) Completion of each of the planning, execution and monitoring project phase.

Question 84

Which of the following options would you take to determine what impact a change had?

A) Re-evaluating the work breakdown structure.

B) Performance measurement.

C) Assessing the communication policy.

D) Reviewing the earned value

Question 85

The most important reason for stakeholder analysis in preparing a communication management

is to:

A) develop the stateholder contact database

B) publish a contact list of all team members for the stakeholders.

C) determine the stakeholder’s needs.

D) ensure timely distribution of meeting minutes of stakeholders

Question 86

The primary reason for creating communication structure is to:

A) define organizational relationship

B) define communication methods

C) establish frequency of communications

D) Identify all stakeholders

Question 87

An appropriate sequence for risk management activities includes:

A) Planning, Identification, quantification, response development and control.

B) Identification, planning, control and assessment.

C) Factor identification mitigation management and response.

D) Quantification avoidance acceptance and mitigation

Question 88


Critical project design information is diliverd to the project via electronic mail this couses the

sponsor to complain about receiving inadequate product design documentation the cause of this

problem is poor?

A) reporting structure

B) communication plan

C) change control process.

D) graphic software

Question 89

Affinity diagrams are used to:

A. categorize large amounts of data.

B. determine root cause.

C. show the relationship among variables.

D. determine if a process is in control.

Answer - A

Question 90

The most precise or accurate estimate for determining project costs is the _____ estimate.

A. Definitive.

B. Analogy

C. Budget

D. Modified standards.

E. Rule of thumb.

Answer - A

Question 91

A _____ estimate prepared from layouts, sketches and flowsheets, should be accurate within (-10, +25%).

A. Parametric

B. Definitive.

C. Budget

D. Bottom up.

E. Top down.

Answer - C

Question 92

A primary objective of project initiation is to:

A) create definition mission statement

B) define activities and milestone for the schedule.

C) commit the organization to begin the next phase.

D) develop the scope statement

Question 93

The BEST way to ensure that applicable standards and regulations are met is to:

A) conduct performance SWOT analysis

B) create decision models.

C) develop a quality management plan.

D) develop a risk management plan


Question 94

Assigning resources in an attempt to find the shortest project schedule consistent with fixed resource limits

is called resource _____.

A. Leveling

B. Partitioning

C. Allocation

D. Quantification

Question 95

A make-or –buy analysis is performed as part of :

A) Conduct Procurements

B) Plan Procurements

C) Competitive bidding

D) Administer Procurements

Question 96

The most difficult decision for the executive sponsors to make at the end-of-phase review meeting is:

A. Canceling the project.

B. Authorizing scope changes for the next phase.

C. Authorizing budget increases for the next phase based upon scope changes.

D. Budget allocations for the next phase

Question 97

Which of the following is used to define the activities to be performed by a contractor?

A) pert chart

B) work breakdown structure

C) statement of work

D) responsibility matrix

Question 98

What are the most impotant factors in developing a stakeholder’s communication plan?

A) team development and technical direction

B) work breakdown structure and project schedule

C) contract management and vendor selection process

D) project sponsors and their needs

Question 99

Poor communication and unresolved conflicts are indicative of:

A) A complex project.

B) A crashed schedule.

C) An ineffective project team

D) Undefined team roles.

Question 100

Pareto analysis cause and effect and flow charts are all tools used in quality:

A) control

B) benchmark


C) planning

D) verification

Question 101

You received an invoice form your contractor in fixed price contract with a payment schedule tied

to the completion of milestones. What is the most important thing to review:-

A) activities in progress

B) number of hours expended

C) work completed

D) schedule compliance

Question 102

The term that best describes the 'right' to manipulate or change others is called?

A. Authority

B. Power

C. Leadership

D. Coerciveness

E. Project charter

Question 103

One of the project implementation phases has reached closure. the project sponsor requests

additional features in the end product. Which project management tool should be used to

evaluate this request?

A) scope performance measurement

B) Plan scope analysis

C) redefined project scope model

D) Control scope

Question 104

Which of the following is most likely to require a change in the project schedule?

A) renegotiation of union contract

B) equipment replacement

C) cost over runs

D) loss of personnel.

Question 105

From the contractors point of view a change management program should:

A) be implemented at the beginning of the project to avoid performing additional services

without compensation

B) Have an onsite representative to monitor changes and ensure full representation and

Protection

C) significantly improve customer satisfaction

D) ensure that the owner promptly compernsates the contractor for changed work

Question 106

Which of the following is associated with a buyer's request for material to meet a particular need:

A. material warranty

B. material guarantees


C. implied warranty of fitness for a particular purpose

D. None of the above

Question 107

"A Project Manager is at the project kick-off meeting. He confidently states the vision and mission for

the project. This PM is exhibiting the following leadership style:

A) Hierarchical

B) Authoritarian

C) Charismatic

D) Associative

Question 108

You are in charge of developing a new product for a bank. Your quality metrics are based on the 80th

percentile of each of the last three products developed. This is an example of:

A) Statistical sampling

B) Metrics

C) Benchmarking

D) Operational definitions

Question 109

Scoring models, comparative approaches and benefit contribution are all part of:

A) Constrained optimization models for selecting a project

B) Benefit measurement models for selecting a project

C) Quality measurement techniques

D) Distribute information tools

Question 110

During the schedule development process the Project Manager may have to go through several iterations

of the schedule before establishing the schedule baseline. All of the following are tools and techniques that

may be used during this process:

A) Critical Path Method, GERT, Resource Requirements

B) Resource Leveling Heuristics, Mathematical Analysis, Calendars

C) Duration compression, Resource Leveling Heuristics, PERT

D) PERT, PERT, Leads and Lags

Question 111

Which of the following models of conflict resolution allows a cooling off period, but seldom resolves the issue

in the long term?

A) Problem solving

B) Withdrawal

C) Forcing

D) Smoothing


Question 112

Project scope is:

A) The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions.

B) The features and functions that are to be included in a product or service.

C) A narrative description of work to be performed under contract.

D) a and b

E) all of the above

Question 113

The unique identifiers assigned to each item of a WBS are often known collectively as:

A) The work package codes

B) The project identifiers

C) The code of accounts

D) The element accounts

Question 114

What is the difference between verify scope and perform quality control?

A) There is no difference.

B) Verify Scope is primarily concerned with the correctness of work results while perform quality control is

primarily concerned with the acceptance of work results.

C) Verify scope is concerned with ensuring that changes are beneficial while perform quality control is concerned

that the overall work results are correct.

D) Verify scope is primarily concerned with the acceptance of work results while perform quality control is

primarily concerned with the correctness of work results.

Question 115

Which of the following is NOT an example of a type of schedule report?

A) Gantt chart

B) Milestone chart

C) fishbone diagram

D) network diagram

Question 116

What is the primary purpose of a milestone chart?

A) To show task dependencies.

B) To show resource constraints.

C) To show significant events in the project such as completion of key deliverables.

D) To highlight the critical path.

E) All of the above

Question 117

When should the project manager be assigned?

A) As early in the project as feasible.

B) Preferably before much project planning has been done.


C) At least prior to the start of project plan execution.

D) All of the above.

Question 118

During what Time Management Process are the specific activities that must be performed to produce the

deliverables in the WBS identified and documented?

A) Sequence Activities

B) Define Activities

C) Develop Schedule

D) Estimate Activity Durations

Question 119

A period of time in work weeks which includes non-working days is called:

A) Elapsed Time

B) Duration

C) Effort

D) Earned Time

Question 120

The amount of time that an activity can be delayed from its early start without delaying the project end

date is called:

A) Negative Float

B) Free Float

C) Total Float

D) Float

E) c and d

Question 121

What are you likely to see as a project progresses in a schedule with must fix dates and little or no slack?

A) Lots of free float

B) Idle resources

C) Negative float

D) Positive float

Question 122

Given the following estimates: Optimistic 3 days, Pessimistic 9 days, and most likely 6 days, what is the PERT

weighted average?

A) 6

B) 4

C) 6.3

D) 6.1

Question 123

What is the standard deviation for the estimates in the above problem?


A) 0.6

B) 2

C) 1.5

D) 0.5

E) 1

Question 124

In crashing the schedule, you would focus on:

A) Accelerating as many tasks as possible

B) Accelerating just the non-critical tasks

C) Accelerating the performance of tasks on the critical path

D) None of the above

Question 125

To calculate the late start and late finish dates for a set of tasks, you must do:

A) An analysis of the critical path

B) A forwards pass

C) A backwards pass

D) a and c

E) all of the above

Question 126

An activity that consumes no time or resources and shows only that a dependency exists between two

activities is called:

A) A milestone

B) A hammock

C) A dummy activity

D) a and c

E) all of the above

Question 127

What is critical path?

A) The shortest path through the network, which represents the longest amount of time in which a project

can be completed.

B) The path with zero float.

C) The longest path through the network, which represents the shortest amount of time in which a project

can be completed.

D) The path with the most activities with the longest durations.

E) b and c

Question 128

A network diagram that uses nodes to represent activities and arrows to show the activity dependencies and allows

no loops is called:

A) AOA

B) AON


C) ADM

D) GERT

Question 129

Life cycle costing:

A) Includes acquisition, operating, and disposal costs when evaluating various alternatives.

B) Includes only the cost of the development or acquisition of a product or service.

C) Does not take into consideration the effect of project decisions on the cost of using the resulting product.

D) B and C

Question 130

Parametric cost estimating involves:

A) Calculating individual cost estimates for each work package.

B) Using rates and factors based on historical experience to estimate costs.

C) Using the actual cost of a similar project to estimate total project costs.

D) A and B

E) B and C

Question 131

The process of evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis to provide confidence that the project

will satisfy the relevant quality standards is called:

A) Perform Quality Assurance

B) Perform Quality Control

C) Plan quality

D) Quality Review

Question 132

The process of monitoring specific project results to determine if they comply with relevant quality standards

is called:

A) Perform Quality Assurance

B) Perform Quality Control

C) Plan quality

D) Quality Review

Question 133

A histogram ordered by frequency of occurrence that shows how many results were generated by each

identified cause is:

A) Statistical Histogram

B) Juran Histogram

C) Fishbone Diagram

D) Pareto Diagram

Question 134

The practice of ceasing mass inspections and ending awards based on price is credited to:


A) Edward Deming

B) Philip Crosby

C) Juran

D) Pareto

Question 135

An advertiser who uses a movie or sports star to endorse a product is trying to use power.

A. Referent

B. Legitimate

C. Reward

D. Influential

Question 136

Back charges refers to:

A. transferring charges from sub-contractors to the owner

B. adjusting payments to reflect late invoices consequence

C. Both A & B

D. gaining restitution from the owner for non payment

E. the cost of corrective action taken by the owner and charged to the contractor for non-conformance

Question 137

80% of the problems are found in 20% of the work is a concept of:

A) Edward Deming

B) Philip Crosby

C) Juran

D) Pareto

Question 138

A structured tool, usually industry or activity specific, used to verify that a set of required steps has been

performed is called:

A) Quality Policy

B) Check list

C) Trend analysis

D) Pareto diagram

Question 139

A tool that analyzes the inputs to a process to identify the causes of errors is called:

A) Cause and effect diagram

B) Scatter diagram

C) Ishikawa diagram

D) Pareto diagram

E) a and c


Question 140

The concept of zero inventory is called:

A) Six sigma

B) Continuous improvement

C) Just in Time

D) Zero defects

Question 140

The project manager's leadership style should be matched to the corresponding developmental level of the

project team and should move through successive steps in the following order:

A) Disciplinary, autocratic, participative

B) Staff planning, team training, performance monitoring

C) Team building, team development, responsibility assignment

D) Directing, coaching, supporting, delegating

Question 141

Forcing, as a means to manage conflict:

A) Exerts one's view at the potential expense of another party.

B) Emphasizes areas of agreement while avoiding points of disagreement.

C) Establishes a lose-lose situation.

D) a and c

Question 142

When should the project expeditor form of organization be used?

A) When the project is extremely important to the organization.

B) When a project's cost and importance are relatively low.

C) When the project manager has a lot of responsibility and accountability.

D) When the organization's primary source of revenue is derived from projects.

Question 143

The belief that management's high levels of trust, confidence and commitment to workers leads to high levels

of motivation and productivity on the part of workers is a part of which motivation theory?

A) Theory Y

B) Theory Z

C) Theory X

D) Contingency Theory

Question 144

Which of the following is part of the expectency theory of motivation?

A) Clear, specific, and challenging goals generally motivate team members.

B) Project managers should ensure that tasks assigned to project participants match their skills and

C) the organizational climate is conducive to helping them meet their needs and acheiving a sense

D) of competence.

E) People tend to be highly productive and motivated if they believe their efforts will lead to successful results and

that success will lead to personal rewards.

F) b and c


G) All of the above are part of the expectency theory of motivation

Question 145

Which of the following statements concerning compromise as a conflict resolution is false?

A) Neither party wins but both parties get some degree of satisfaction.

B) Important aspects of the project may be hindered in order to acheive personal objectives.

C) Compromise is generally considered a lose-lose situation.

D) A Definitive resolution is seldom acheived.

Question 146

Using the PMBOK definition of contingency reserve, which of the following statements about contingency

reserves is false?

A) A contingency reserve is a separately planned quantity used to allow for future situations which may be planned

for only in part.

B) Contingency reserves may be set aside for known unknowns.

C) Contingency reserves may be set aside for unknown unknowns.

D) Contingency reserves are normally included in the project's cost and schedule baselines.

Question 147

The normal risk of doing business that carries opportunities for both gain and loss is called:

A) favorable risk

B) opportunity risk

C) pure risk

D) business risk

Question 148

A risk response which involves eliminating a threat is called:

A) Mitigation

B) Deflection

C) Avoidance

D) Transfer

E) b and d

Question 149

Company expenses such as auditing costs, supervision, office supplies, building rent and maintenance are elements

of the:

A. Overhead rates

B. Capital budgeting process

C. Contracts and administration costing system

D. Fringe benefits packages

Question 150

Which of the following statements is false?

A) Uncertainty and risk are greatest at the start of the project and lowest at the end.

B) The amount at stake is lowest at the end of the project and greatest at the start.


C) Expected monetary value can be expressed as the product of the risk event probability and the

D) Risk event value.

E) Opportunities are positive outcomes of risk.

Question 151

A contingency plan is executed when:

A) A risk is identified.

B) An identified risk occurs.

C) When a workaround is needed.

D) All of the above

E) b and c

Question 152

Management reserves are used to handle which type of risk?

A) Unknown unknowns

B) Known unknowns

C) business risks

D) pure risks

Question 153

Which of the following techniques accounts for path convergence and generally estimates project durations

more accurately?

A) CPM

B) PERT

C) Schedule simulation

D) Path convergence method

Question 154

Most schedule simulations are based on some form of which of the following?

A) Delphi

B) PERT

C) CPM

D) Monte Carlo Analysis

Question 155

When should a risk be avoided?

A) When the risk event has a low probability of occurrence and low impact.

B) When the risk event is unacceptable -- generally one with a very high probability of occurrence and high impact.

C) When it can be transferred by purchasing insurance.

D) A risk event can never be avoided.

Question 156

If a project has an 80% chance of having the scope defined by a certain date and a 70% chance of obtaining

approval for the scope by a certain date, what is the probability of both events occurring?


A) 75%

B) 65%

C) 50%

D) 56%

E) 66%

Question 157

The independence of two events in which the occurrence of one is not related to the occurrence of the other

is called:

A) event phenomenon

B) independent probability

C) statistical independence

D) statistical probability

Question 158

The one document that should always be used to help identify risk is the:

A) Plan risk management

B) WBS

C) Scope Statement

D) Project Charter

E) Contigency Plan

Question 159

Risks are accepted when:-

A) You develop a contingency plan to execute should the risk event occur.

B) You accept the consequences of the risk.

C) You transfer the risk to another party.

D) You reduce the probability of the risk event occurring

E) a and b

Question 160

A unilateral contract under which the seller is paid a preset amount per unit of service is called:

A) A cost reimbursable contract

B) A lump sum contract

C) A unit price contract

D) A fixed price contract

E) b or d

Question 161

Which of the following is a method for quantifying qualitative data in order to minimize the effect of personal

prejudice on source selection?

A) Weighting system

B) Screening system

C) Selecting system


D) none of the above

E) all of the above

Question 162

Under what circumstances is it better for a contractor to subcontract?

A) The subcontractor possesses special technical and engineering skills that the contractor does not have.

B) The work to be subcontracted represents almost all of the overall work effort.

C) The subcontractor can perform the work at a lower cost than the contractor.

D) all the above

E) a and c

Question 163

Which of the following are characteristics of a purchase order?

A) A bilateral contract used for low dollar items

B) A unilateral contract used when routine, standard cost items are required.

C) A bilateral contract used for high dollar, standard items

D) a and c

Question 164

In which stage of the negotiation meeting are points of concession identified?

A) probing

B) closure

C) agreement

D) scratch bargaining

Question 165

Which type of warranty is enacted if a service or product does not meet the level of quality specified in the

contract?

A) Implied warranty of merchantability

B) Implied warranty of specified quality

C) Express warranty

D) none of the above

Question 166

It is argumentative whether project managers actually control costs. Which of the following is the most common

element over which the project manager may have some degree of control?

A. Direct labor dollars

B. All of the options

C. Overhead rates.

D. Procurement costs.


F. Direct labor hours.


Question 167

The quality team for the project consists of several groups. Which of the following project participants plays

the most important role in the quality function?

A) Customer

B) Project Manager

C) Project Team

D) Vendors and suppliers

Question 168

In order to anticipate your management's approval of the amount of risk you plan to take on with your chosen

project approach, you would use

A) Probability analysis

B) The Delphi method

C) The Monte Carlo method

D) The utility theory

Question 169

A scope management plan describes:

A) An assessment of the stability of the stakeholder environment

B) A highly detailed approach to managing the work breakdown structure scope

C) How the project scope will be managed and how scope changes will be integrated into the project

D) The stakeholder's expectation on how changes will be identified and by what priority they will be

addressed

Question 170

The logical relationship that communicates a delay between the start/finish of one activity and the start/finish

of another activity is referred to as:

A. Slack

B. Free float.

C. Restricted float.

D. Lag

Question 171

You are the controller on your project. Your project manager has requested that you provide him with a

forecast of project costs for the next 12 months. He needs this information to determine if the budget should

be increased or decreased on this major construction project. In addition to the usual information sources,

which of the following should you also consider?

A) Cost estimates from similar projects

B) The WBS

C) Long-range weather forecasts

D) Existing change requests

Question 172

Over the life cycle of the project, the quality of information:


A) Is dependent on the source and the disciplines used to ensure the information is kept up-to-date.

B) Should remain constant if good communication plan is applied throughout the project.

C) Increases from concept, to development, to implementation, to termination.

D) Increases from concept to development to implementation, and then decreases during and after

termination.

Question 173

Monte Carlo simulation:

A. Was originally developed by Dr. Carlo

B. Is a European technique for assessing project risks

C. A, B and C only

D. is a technique to stimulate create risk event resolution

E. assumes the future risk events will occur at random according to predetermined probability distributions

Question 174

A program is:

A) A number of subprojects divided into manageable components enabling a project team to ensure the completion

of a desired outcome.

B) A group of projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits not available from managing them

individually.

C) A project plan developed by key management for a desired outcome.

D) A regular, ongoing operation, which involves many projects.

Question 175

Which of the following is not an external-unpredictable risk?

A) changes in government regulations

B) natural hazards

C) unexpected environmental side effects

D) inflation

Question 176

The delphi Method is best suited for:

A) Decision-making

B) Control costs

C) Overhead rate estimating

D) Team discussions

Question 177

The sum of the products and services to be provided as a project is called:

A) scope

B) deliverables

C) project charter

D) data items


Question 178

Maslow ranked Human needs from the highest to lowest

A) self actualization; self promotion; social; security and physiological needs

B) self esteem; self actualization; social; security and physiological

C) self actualization; self esteem; social; security and physiological

D) self fullfilment; self esteem; social; security and physiological

Question 179

Your project is in the final test stage, the user acceptance test. It meets all the prouduct specs and is under

planned costs. In term of schedule, this project is ahead. Your customer meet you and requested that he will

not accept the product unless you make several changes. What you should do is:

A) get the list of the changes and estimate all of them. If the total cost is still within the baseline, you just do it

B) estimate the costs and send this to your customer requesting contract modification

C) ask the customer to file a Change request

D) sit with the customer to review the product specs and tell him/her that you have completed the project.

Question 180

Which of the following statements concerning contract type is correct?

A) A fixed price contract contains the most risk for the buyer.

B) Cost reimbursable contracts offer sellers the highest profit potential.

C) Lump sum contracts offer sellers the greatest profit potential.

D) Unit price contracts are illegal in many jurisdictions.

Question 181

Herzberg identified factors, which, if present, will lead to increased motivation. A typical factor would be:

A) Good supervision

B) Job security

C) Regular promotions

D) Good salary

E) A dental plan

Question 182

Your customer ask for a small change in the project, which was not budgetted in the project. It is a small

effort as compared to the total project and you need the goodwill for a multimillion dollar on the pipeline.

You will:-

A) refuse to do the work

B) agree to do the work at no charge

C) do the work and bill him later

D) assess the cost and schedule impact and tell them you will decide later

Question 183

You are responsible for ensuring that your seller's performance meets contractual requirements. To effectively

administer procurements, you should-

A) Hold a bidders conference

B) Establish the appropriate contract type


C) Implement the contract change control system

D) Develop a statement of work

Question 184

The purpose of the review of deliverables and project performance at the conclusion of a project phase is to-

A) Determine how many resources are required to complete the project

B) according to the project baseline

C) Adjust the schedule and cost baselines based on past performance

D) Obtain customer acceptance of project deliverables

E) Determine whether the project should continue to the next phase

Question 185

A contractor is working on a fixed price contract that calls for a single, lump sum payment upon satisfactory

completion of the contract. About halfway through the contract, the contractor project manager informs their

contract administrator that financial problems are making it difficult for them to pay their employees and

subcontractors. The contractor asks for a partial payment for work accomplished. Which of the following

actions by the buyer is most likely to cause problems for the project?

A) Starting partial payments for work accomplished.

B) Making no payments because it would violate the conditions of the contract.

C) Paying for work accomplished to date.

D) Negotiating a change to the payment conditions in the contract.

Question 186

Examples of team building activities include:

A) Establishing ground rules for dealing with conflict.

B) Regular progress reviews.

C) Periodic social events for team members.

D) All of the above

Question 187

Characteristics of a code of accounts are

A) It uniquely identified each element of the work breakdown structure

B) It includes work packages

C) It is a numbering system

D) All of the above

Question 188

___________ is/are an uncertain event that or condition that, if it occurs, has appositive or

negative effect on a project.

A) Assumption analysis

B) Delphi technique

C) Risk

D) Triggers


Question 189

Establishing minimum requirements of performance for evaluation criteria is also know as a

A) Weighting system

B) Screening system

C) Estimating system

D) Change control criteria

Question 190

Which of the following processes allow an unsuccessful bidder to seek remedy for contract award to another bidder.

A. bid review

B. bid protest

C. award Protest

D. award review

E. any of the above processes can be used

Question 191

The SPI, which is used to estimate project completion date, is calculated by?

A) EV/PV

B) EV/AC

C) ACWS/PV

D) PV/EV

Question 192

Effective communication is critical for project success. Scope changes, constraints, assumptions, integration and

interface requirements, overlapping roles and responsibilities, and many other factors all pose communications

challenges. Communication barriers lead to -

A) Reduced productivity

B) Increased hostility

C) Low morale

D) Increased conflict

Question 193

In what way does free float (FF) differ from total float (TF)?

A) Free float is commonly referred to as "slack time," whereas total float is commonly referred to as "float time."

B) Free float only affects the early start of any immediately following activities.

C) There is no difference; the two terms are functionally equivalent.

D) An activity's free float is calculated by subtracting its total float from the critical path's total

float.

Question 194

Contracts may be called -

A) An agreement, a subcontract, a purchase request, memorandum of understanding

B) An agreement, a subcontract, a purchase order, understanding of purchasing request


C) An agreement, a request, a purchase order, memorandum of understanding

D) An agreement, a subcontract, a purchase order, memorandum of understanding

Question 195

Before reporting a perceived violation of an established rule or policy the project manager

should:

A) Determine the risks associated with the violation

B) Ignore the violation until it actually affects the project results

C) Convene a committee to review the violation and determine the appropriate response

D) Ensure there is a reasonably clear and factual basis for reporting the violation

Question 196

The project charter should be issued by:-

A) The project manager

B) Client requesting services

C) Manager external to project

D) Manager internal to the project

Question 197

Name the ethical code you'll be required to adhere to as a PMP

A) Project Management Policy of Ethics

B) Project Management Professional Standards

C) Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct

D) Project Management Code of Professional Ethics & Standards

Question 198

All of the following are true of Pareto diagrams except:-

A) Pareto like Scatter diagrams use two variables

B) Pareto diagrams are histograms

C) Pareto diagrams rank order

D) It is sometimes referred to as the 80/20 rule

Question 199

The most common communication problem during negotiations is that:-

A) One side may try to confuse the other side

B) One side may be too busy thinking about what to say next to hear what is being said

C) Each side may misinterpret what the other side has said

D) Each side may give upon the other side


Question 200

In which of the following types of contracts is it most important for the contractor to maintain control of cost,

schedule and scope changes.

A. firm fixed price

B. cost plus incentive fee

C. cost plus fixed fee

D. unit price

E. B and D only

Documents

PMP® Mock Examination - Set Xtalkfinanceonline.com/wp-content/uploads/2012/03/Question-Set-No... · Which of the following represents the BEST way to organize project activities