Plan Form 31b

PLAN Form 31B

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PLAN® 4/01/i

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NOTE: This booklet is covered by Federal copyright laws that prohibit the reproduction of the test questions without the express, written permission of ACT, Inc.

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This booklet contains tests in English, Mathematics, Reading, and Science. These tests measure skills and abilities highly related to high school course work and the ACTS. CALCULATORS MAY BE USED ON THE MATHEMATICS TEST ONLY.

The questions in each test are numbered, and the suggested answers for each question are lettered. On the answer folder, the rows of ovals are numbered to match the questions, and the ovals in each row are lettered to correspond to the suggested answers.

For each question, first decide which answer is best. Next, locate on the answer folder the row of ovals numbered the same as the question. Then, locate the oval in that row lettered the same as your answer. Finally, fill in the oval completely. Use a soft lead pencil and make your marks heavy and black. DO NOT USE INK OR A MECHANICAL PENCIL.

Mark only one answer to each question. If you change your mind about an answer, erase your first mark thoroughly before marking your new answer. For each question, make certain that you mark in the row of ovals with the same number as the question.

Only responses marked on your answer folder will be scored. Your score on each test will be based only on the number of questions you answer correctly during the time allowed for that test. You will NOT be penalized for guessing. IT IS TO YOUR ADVANTAGE TO ANSWER EVERY QUESTION EVEN IF YOU MUST GUESS.

You may work on each test ONLY when your room supervisor tells you to do so. If you finish a test before time is called for that test, you should use the time remaining to reconsider questions you are uncertain about in that test. You may NOT look back to a test on which time has already been called, and you may NOT go ahead to another test. To do so will disqualify you from the examination.

Lay your pencil down immediately when time is called at the end of each test. You may NOT for any reason fill in or alter ovals for a test after time is called for that test. To do so will disqualify you from the examination.

Do not fold or tear the pages of your test booklet.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.

„vi

1 ENGLISH TEST

30 Minutes-50 Questions

DIRECTIONS: In the four passages that follow, certain words and phrases are underlined and numbered. In the right-hand column, you will find alternatives for the underlined part. In most cases, you are to choose the one that best expresses the idea, makes the statement appropriate for standard written English, or is worded most consistently with the style and tone of the passage as a whole. If you think the original version is best, choose "NO CHANGE." In some cases, you will find in the right-hand column a question about the underlined part. You are to choose the best answer to the question.

You will also find questions about a section of the pas-sage, or about the passage as a whole. These questions do not refer to an underlined portion of the passage, but rather are identified by a number or numbers in a box.

For each question, choose the alternative you consider best and fill in the corresponding oval on your answer folder. Read each passage through once before you begin to answer the questions that accompany it. For many of the questions, you must read several sentences beyond the question to determine the answer. Be sure that you have read far enough ahead each time you choose an alternative.

PASSAGE I

The Shop of the Masterji

When my family and I return to India

to go back there and visit our relatives, my mother

and her sister always try to spend an afternoon at

the shop of their favorite tailor. I can remember

spending countless hours at the tailor's shop located

in the neighborhood bazaar. The shop stands between a 2

stationery store and a shoemaker's shop near the center 2

of the bazaar. 2

Our most recent visit was a typical one. We met

with the masterji, or master tailor. As my mother explained 3

that we were looking for, I inspected some purple muslin 4

lying on the counter. Anticipating my request, he

immediately unfolded a few yards of the cloth. My mother

reached over my shoulder, fingered the material, and asked

to see another pattern. The masterji said that the fabric

1. A. NO CHANGE B. by going back there and visiting C. and go back to visit D. to visit

2. Given that all the choices are true, which one provides the most specific description of the shop itself? F. NO CHANGE G. When I walk through the doors of the shop, I am

enveloped by a variety of familiar sights and smells.

H. Bolts of brightly colored cottons, linens, silks, and rayons line the walls of the small shop.

J. The shop occupies a central location in the bazaar, a type of market consisting of rows of small shops or stalls.

3. A. NO CHANGE B. tailor, as C. tailor as D. tailor and as

4. F. NO CHANGE G. what H. which J. it

PLAN-31B

2

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

5. A. NO CHANGE B. patterns in minutes C. patterns, in minutes; D. patterns; in minutes,

6. Which choice is both specific and consistent with the style of the essay?

came in twenty different patterns, in minutes, his assistant 5

had pulled down a number equaling one-half of them. 6

F. NO CHANGE G. 50 percent of those patterns. H. half of them. J. some.

[1] As was customary, the tailor offered us a cup 7

of tea or a cold juice drink. [2] We sat down on a raised

platform; among the growing collection of bolts and 8

swatches of material, and the masterji sent his assistant

out to fetch the necessary refreshments. [3] I felt somewhat

overwhelmed by the array of patterns. [4] I looked and

looked and ended up with nothing at all. [5] This hampered

my ability to make any kind of a decision.

I watched my mother smooth out carefully a piece of 10

silk brocade she was thinking about buying. My aunt held

it up to her face, and together they looked in the mirror.

They tried a different piece of material and then another.

After looking at one piece, my mother shook her head, but

my aunt was insisted. Their tea cooled, a skin of milk 11

forming on its surface. They talked easily about the past

and about the future, two sisters' undistracted by the daily 12

chores and duties of their lives.

7. A. NO CHANGE B. the usual common practice, C. usually customary, D. customary as usual,

8. F. NO CHANGE G. platform. Among H. platform: among J. platform among

9. For the sake of the logic and coherence of this para-graph, Sentence 4 should be placed: A. where it is now. B. before Sentence 1. C. after Sentence 1. D. after Sentence 5.

10. The best placement for the underlined portion would be: F. where it is now. G. after the word mother. H. after the word smooth. J. after the word piece.

11. A. NO CHANGE B. insisted. C. had been insisted. D. was insistence.

12. F. NO CHANGE G. sister's undistracted H. sisters undistracted J. sisters undistracted,

PLAN-318 3 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

1 PASSAGE II

The following paragraphs may or may not be in the most logical order. Each paragraph is num-bered in brackets, and question 25 will ask you to choose the sequence of paragraphs that makes the essay most logical.

Charles Richard Drew: Medical Hero

[1]

In 1940, Europe was at war. German

bombs pounded British cities night and day.

Although doctors and nurses struggled to save lives, 13

many of the injured died. Hospitals desperately needed a

massive prescription of stored blood for transfusions. 14

[2]

Urgently needed cargo, the Blood Transfusion 15

Association in New York collected blood locally and 16

sent it overseas to Britain. Unfortunately, many of the

first initial shipments of blood arrived unfit for use; no one 17

had ever tried such a large-scale system of blood banking

before. The Blood for Britain program needed a strong

leader to establish the standards for the shipping and

storage of blood.

[3]

That leadership was provided by Dr. Charles Richard

Drew, an African American surgeon at Howard University

Medical School and a highly regarded expert upon blood 18

collection and preservation. He was recommended to lead

the overseas blood drive by his friend and former

13. Which of the following alternatives to the underlined portion would NOT be acceptable? A. Even though doctors and nurses struggled to save

lives, B. Doctors and nurses struggled to save lives, but C. Doctors and nurses struggled to save lives, so D. Doctors and nurses struggled to save lives;

however,

14. F. NO CHANGE G. large bunch H. sizable portion J. large supply

15. A. NO CHANGE B. Shipped immediately, C. Gathered by volunteers, D. Eager to help,

16. F. NO CHANGE G. New York, collected H. New York; collected J. New York. Collected

17. A. NO CHANGE B. initial C. very first initial D. first beginning

18. F. NO CHANGE G. by H. on J. for

PLAN-31B 4


instructor Dr. John Beattie, head of England's Royal Air

Force Transfusion Service. Although the principles of

human blood types and blood compatibility had been 19

identified forty years earlier, it was Drew who first

demonstrated that plasma (the fluid component of blood)

could be used in some circumstances as a substitute for

whole blood. This discovery was important, because blood

plasma is easier to ship and store than whole blood.

[4]

With Dr. Drew at its head, the 20

Blood for Britain program is a success. 21

Refrigerated trucks known as bloodmobiles 22

were used by the program to transport blood 22

and plasma. After doctors in Britain were able

to organize their own blood bank, the American

Red Cross, asked Drew, to direct a national blood 23

bank program in the United States. E

19. A. NO CHANGE B. was C. have been D. has been

20. F. NO CHANGE G. it's H. their J. they're

21. A. NO CHANGE B. has been a C. experiences D. was a

22. Given that all of the choices are true, which one would most clearly indicate one of Dr. Drew's contributions to the program? F. NO CHANGE G. Known as bloodmobiles, refrigerated trucks were

used H. At his suggestion, refrigerated trucks known as

bloodmobiles were used J. The program was the first to use refrigerated

trucks called bloodmobiles

23. A. NO CHANGE B. Cross asked Drew C. Cross, asked Drew D. Cross asked Drew,

24. Given that all of the following are true, which one, if added here, would most vividly describe the impact of Dr. Drew's work for the American Red Cross? F. Unlike Great Britain's blood collection program,

the American Red Cross's system employed full-time staff members rather than volunteers.

G. The blood bank system developed by Dr. Drew changed many things in the field of medicine.

H. By implementing his revolutionary ideas relating to blood and blood plasma, Dr. Drew saved lives not only in wartime abroad but in peacetime at home.

J. After three months of successfully operating the new blood bank system, Dr. Drew resigned as the plasma project's director to become chair of surgery at Howard University.

5 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. PLAN-31B

Question 25 asks about the preceding passage as a whole.

25. Which of the following sequences of paragraphs makes the essay most logical? A. NO CHANGE B. 1, 2, 4, 3 C. 1, 4, 2, 3 D. 4, 3, 1, 2

1

PASSAGE III

Volunteering Does Pay

Volunteering is one way for todays' teenagers to 26

achieve personal growth. As they plan for their adult lives. 27

The experience of helping others start teenagers on a 28

rewarding life path.

26. F. NO CHANGE G. today's teenager's H. todays teenagers J. today's teenagers

27. A. NO CHANGE B. growth; as C. growth as D. growth? As

28. F. NO CHANGE G. starts H. are starting J. were starting

Teenagers had sorted out personal strengths and 29. A. NO CHANGE B. were sorting C. can sort D. sorted

29

weaknesses, determine job preferences, and hone

marketable skills while volunteering. Young men and

women interested in health science, for example, might

volunteer at veterinary clinics, hospitals, or nursing homes.

Those intrigued with issues discussed in social studies

classes might be welcomed as volunteers at political

parties' headquarters or at the county courthouse. Sports 30

enthusiasts could work with younger players on athletic

teams or help organize activities at local recreation centers.

In addition to solidifying career interests,

volunteering allows teenagers an opportunity to develop

relationships with adults who share their interests. Adults

with experience in a particular field can offer

PLAN-31B

30. F. NO CHANGE G. headquarters or, H. headquarters, or, J. headquarters;

6 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

encouragement and suggestions for a focus of study.

Established professionals may help students to be excepted 32

into an apprenticeship, locate the most appropriate work-

study program, or obtain a college scholarship.

Whether the world of work or more

schooling is the teenager's goal. Having a 33

résumé that notes volunteer experience is highly 34

beneficial. Furthermore, a personal recommendation

can provide a definite advantage over a mere list of 35

courses, taken and grade-point information. 36

Instead, personal growth comes from using one's 37

talents for the welfare of others, such as by helping a new

immigrant learn English, working to keep the environment

clean, or joining a work crew to help older people care for

31. At this point, the writer is considering adding the fol-lowing true statement:

Statistics show that 54 percent of students who performed volunteer service in high school were still doing some volunteering two years later.

Should this addition be made here? A. Yes, because it indicates the ongoing importance

of volunteering. B. Yes, because it proves that high school students

should volunteer. C. No, because it restates information already given

earlier in the essay. D. No, because it distracts readers from the focus of

the paragraph.

32. F. NO CHANGE G. to be accepted H. are excepting J. are accepting

33. A. NO CHANGE B. goal of having C. goal, having D. goal; having

34. Which of the following alternatives to the underlined portion would NOT be acceptable? F. says G. lists H. describes J. mentions

35. A. NO CHANGE B. can provided C. could provided D. providing

36. F. NO CHANGE G. courses taken H. courses taken, J. courses, taken,

37. A. NO CHANGE B. Because personal C. Therefore, personal D. Personal

PLAN-31B 7 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

their homes. The sole benefit teenagers get from 38

volunteering is knowing that they have helped someone 38

less fortunate than themselves. 38

38. Which choice most effectively concludes the para-graph and ties it closely to the main theme of the essay? F. NO CHANGE G. Since they are not paid, volunteers have more free-

dom to do what they want in a given position. H. Teenagers volunteer for all sorts of reasons, but

partly because they can often set their own hours and not punch a time clock.

J. Whatever their reasons for volunteering, teenage volunteers may not receive a paycheck, but they are truly rewarded.

PASSAGE IV

Lure of the Wild Horses

Here at the Black Hills Wild Horse Sanctuary in

South Dakota, where some three hundred wild horses roam 39

over eleven thousand acres of mixed-grass prairie, rocky

bluffs, and dark green ponderosa pines. It's the lure of

these untamed wild horses that has brought me to this 40

place.

[1] The person who established this

sanctuary—retired rodeo hand and longtime cowboy 41

Dayton Hyde—agrees to take me out to find some horses. 41

[2] We head out after lunchtime. [3] The truck climbs to

the top of a hill and stops at the edge of a wide field.

[4] His old pickup truck bounces along, negotiating

steep trails, crossing broad valleys, and twice fording

the Cheyenne River. az

There they are—horses! They lift their heads

from the grass to watch cautiously as we climb out

of the pickup. Clustered in twos and threes, they

stand with bodies touching, necks intertwined,

39. A. NO CHANGE B. Dakota. Some C. Dakota, some D. Dakota. Where some

40. F. NO CHANGE G. untrained, H. untamed, untrained, J. DELETE the underlined portion.

41. If the writer were to delete the underlined portion, the sentence would primarily lose: A. details that contribute to the characterization of a

person in the essay. B. historical background information about the Black

Hills in South Dakota. C. an explanation of the narrator's motivation for vis-

iting the sanctuary. D. the fact that the narrator found a guide who was

available to give a tour.

42. For the sake of the logic and coherence of this para-graph, Sentence 3 should be placed: F. where it is now. G. before Sentence 1. H. after Sentence 1. J. after Sentence 4.

PLAN-31B 8


1 heads draped across broad backs.

We move closer, and—as if at a signal—the horses

scatter snorting loudly, a small band whirls and takes off 44

from the main herd, breaking into a spirited run down a

long ridge. Heads toss, manes fly, and hooves kicked up 45

43. At this point, the writer is considering adding the fol-lowing true statement:

At first glance they appear calm, but their slim legs and taut skin twitch with tension.

Should the writer make this addition here? A. Yes, because it informs the reader about the differ-

ences between domesticated and wild horses. B. Yes, because it prepares the reader for the events

described in the next paragraph. C. No, because it is not related to the paragraph's

focus on describing the horses. D. No, because it is not consistent with the narrator's

interest in the horses.

44. F. NO CHANGE G. scatter, snorting H. scatter. Snorting J. scatter and snorting

45. A. NO CHANGE B. kicking C. kick D. will kick

a dust cloud, that shimmers golden in the sun. 46

46. F. G. H. J.

NO CHANGE cloud, that shimmers, golden cloud that shimmers golden cloud, that shimmers golden,

47 It's beauty ranges from grand, barren cliffs to as

47. Which of the following true statements, if added here, would most effectively introduce the essay's shift in focus to the landscape and the daydream it inspires? A. B. C. D.

48. F. G. H. J.

A cool breeze rustles through the grass and trees. This land stirs the imagination. The truck is still parked at the edge of the field. The remaining horses graze.

NO CHANGE Its Its' It is

dainty wildflowers. Almost hidden in the tall grass. I 49

suddenly want to stay. I picture myself driving the truck on

these rough trails, searching for horses and bringing it hay so

when winter comes. Slowly, I would gain their trust. They

would allow me to approach and run my hands along their

silky necks, nuzzling my face into theirs.

"It's getting late," Dayton says. Although I'm

reluctant to leave, I nod and climb into the truck. While

Dayton navigates our return trip, I'm already planning my

49. A. NO CHANGE B. wildflowers almost hidden. In C. wildflowers almost hidden in D. wildflowers, almost hidden. In

50. F. NO CHANGE G. those H. these J. them

next visit to the sanctuary. END OF TEST 1

STOP! DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.

9 PLAN-31B

2 MATHEMATICS TEST


DIRECTIONS: Solve each problem, choose the correct answer, and then fill in the corresponding oval on your answer folder.

Do not linger over problems that take too much time. Solve as many as you can; then return to the others in the time you have left for this test.

You are permitted to use a calculator on this test. You may use your calculator for any problems you choose,

but some of the problems may best be done without using a calculator.

Note: Unless otherwise stated, all of the following should be assumed.

1. Illustrative figures are NOT necessarily drawn to scale. 2. Geometric figures lie in a plane. 3. The word line indicates a straight line. 4. The word average indicates arithmetic mean.

DO YOUR FIGURING HERE. 1. The graph below shows the amount, in inches, of rain that fell in Hendersonville during each of the calendar years from 2000 through 2006.

Rainfall in Hendersonville

20

c-.) 10 —

2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 year

According to the graph, in which of the following years was the rainfall amount less than that of the preceding year? A. 2001 B. 2002 C. 2003 D. 2004 E. 2005

2. What value of x makes 4x + 11 = —13 true? F. —14.25 G. —6 H. —0.5 J. 0.5 K. 6

PLAN-31B

10


2 3. A list of spelling words was arranged in 3 columns,

each with the same number of words. On Tuesday night, Chad learned all of the words in the first column. On Wednesday night, he learned all of the words in the second column plus 2 words in the third column. That left him with 10 words to learn Thursday night for the spelling test on Friday. How many words were on the list? A. 24 B. 27 C. 30 D. 33 E. 36

4. The ACE Rent-A-Car Company charges $25 per day to rent a car in addition to $0.35 per mile. Let the distance driven be x miles and let the total cost of renting the car for 1 day be y dollars. Which of the following is an equation for a 1-day car rental? F. y = 0.35x + 25 G. y=25x+ 0.35 H. y = 25x + 0.35x J. y = 25x + 35 K. y = 35x + 25

5. The coordinates of the endpoints of a certain segment on the real number line below are —4 and 16. What is the coordinate of the midpoint of this segment?

±-•1 ri I I I I I i0 —4 0 4 8 12 16

A. 6 B. 7 C. 8 D. 10 E. 12

6. The school library received a shipment of 10 boxes of books. Each box contained 60 books, except for 1 box, which contained 44 books. How many books did the library receive in this shipment? F. 584 G. 600 H. 610 J. 644 K. 704

PLAN-31B

DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.


2 DO YOUR FIGURING HERE. 7. How many vertex points does a cube have?

A. 6 B. 8 C. 12 D. 16 E. 18

8. The operation A @ B is defined as A + 2B. What is the value of 12 @ 4 ? F. 20 G. 28 H. 32 J. 36 K. 96

9. Alma is cutting a rectangular piece of wood at a 65° angle, as shown in the figure below. What is the measure of the adjacent angle?

65/

A. 25° B. 65° C. 115° D. 120° E. 130°

10. Point D is at 2 on the real number line. Point E is 7 units from D. What are all the possible positions of E on the number line? F. —5 only G. 4.5 only H. 9 and —9 J. 9 and —5 K. 9 and 5

11. Which of the following integers—after you divide it by 19, multiply that result by 7, and add 5 to that result—gives a final result that is an integer? A. 54 B. 102 C. 128 D. 138 E. 152

PLAN-31B 12


2 DO YOUR FIGURING HERE. 12. Let x be an unknown real number. Which of the

following puts x, x — 1, and x + 1 in order from least to greatest? F. x<x— 1 <x+ 1 G. x < x + 1 < x — 1 H. x-1<x<x+ 1 J. x+ 1 <x<x— 1 K. Cannot be determined from the given information

13. One long, rectangular banquet table is to be made by placing square tables side by side. Each side of a square table seats 1 person, so a single square table will seat 4 people, 2 square tables placed side by side will seat 6 people, and 3 square tables placed side by side will seat 8 people. A minimum of how many square tables placed side by side will seat 36 people? A. 6 B. 9 C. 17 D. 18 E. 34

14. A child's square play mat has a perimeter of 32 feet. What is the area, in square feet, of the play mat? F. 8 G. 16 H. 23 J. 32 K. 64

15. 17x2 + 7x2 + 15x + 6x + 27 is equivalent to:

A. 72x6 B. 24x2 + 48x C. 24x4 + 48x2 D. 24x2 + 21x + 27 E. 24x4 + 21x2 + 27


2 DO YOUR FIGURING HERE. 16. The regular 8-sided polygon in Figure 1 has

20 diagonals and AB is 1 of the diagonals. The regular 6-sided polygon in Figure 2 has how many diagonals?

A

Figure 1 Figure 2

F. 9 G. 12 H. 15 J. 18 K. 30

17. What value of b will make the point (3,-1) lie on the line y = bx — 7 in the standard (x.y) coordinate plane?

A. —10

B. 8 3

C. 2

8 3

E. 10

18. The first 3 elements of a pattern are shown below. Each new element in the pattern has 1 more row and 1 more column than the element before it. Continuing this pattern, the 10th element would consist of how many stars?

** *** *** * *** **** F. 38 G. 54 H. 90 J. 100 K. 110

PLAN-31B

14


D.

2 DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.

Use the following information to answer questions 19-21.

The Reed family, consisting of 2 adults and 3 children, has rented a boat for 8 hours with the restriction that the driver of the boat must be an adult. The lake in which the Reeds are boating is a circle with a diameter of 500 yards. The boat uses gas at an average rate of 2 gallons per hour when pulling water-skiers and 1 gallon per hour when traveling to and from the dock. Gas for the boat costs $2.25 per gallon.

19. How much is spent on gas per hour when the boat is pulling water-skiers? A. $ 2.22 B. $ 4.50 C. $ 7.11 D. $18.00 E. $36.00

20. During the day, the Reeds parked the boat for 1 hour and 40 minutes to have lunch. Traveling in the boat to and from the dock took the Reeds a total of 20 minutes. The rest of the rental period, 6 hours, they used the boat to pull water-skiers. To the nearest tenth, how many gallons of gasoline were used during the rental period? F. 6.0 G. 6.3 H. 8.0 J. 12.0 K. 12.3

21. Two people can water-ski at one time. Following the age restriction for the driver, how many different pairs of people from the Reed family can water-ski? A. 5 B. 9 C. 10 D. 18 E. 24


2 DO YOUR FIGURING HERE. 22. A circle graph of 3 sectors—red, white, and blue—is

shown below. The area of the blue sector is 25% of the area of the circle. The ratio of the area of the red sector to the area of the white sector is 3:2. What is the measure of the central angle of the red sector?

E 81° G. 108° H. 135° J. 155° K. 162°

23. 15(1 – 7)+ 91 =?

A. –39 B. –21 C. 21 D. 39 E. 49

24. What is the x-value of the ordered pair that satisfies the system of equations below?

F.

G.

H.

J.

K.

y= x + 4 y = 3x – 2

2 2 3

2

3

7

PLAN-31B

16


2 DO YOUR FIGURING HERE. 25. The line with equation 7x — y = 4 is graphed in the

standard (x,y) coordinate plane. For all values of x, what is the y-coordinate of a point in terms of the point's x-coordinate? A. 7x+ 4 B. 7x — 4 C. 4x — 7 D. —7x + 4 E. —7x — 4

26. The sum of the interior angle measures of a pentagon is the same for all pentagons. For pentagon ABCDE below, what is the measure of LE ?

E 60° G. 65° H. 70° J.

75° K. 80°

27. The dimensions of the quadrilateral shown below are in centimeters. What is the perimeter, in centimeters, of this quadrilateral?

A. 12 B. 18 C. 19 D. 21 E. 22

PLAN-31 B 17 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

2 DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.

Use the following information to answer questions 28-30.

The chart below shows the average monthly high temperatures (AMHT) in degrees Fahrenheit for Madison, Wisconsin.

Average Monthly High Temperatures for Madison, WI

90 — 80 7— 79.2 0 70.0 60.8 „ 60

g 50 57 6 e 40— 41.5 & 30

20 — 25 9 303 2 10- 0 1 I I I 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

• N..• -4 •

month

83.3

81.0

72.1

43.9

30.7

28. The median of the AMHT is found by averaging the AMHT for which 2 months? F. January and December G. April and May H. April and October J. June and July K. June and August

29. The greatest increase in AMHT from one month to the next is the change from: A. January to February. B. February to March. C. March to April. D. April to May. E. May to June.

30. The formula C = 9 F — 32) can be used to convert the temperature measured in degrees Fahrenheit, F, to the

temperature measured in degrees Celsius, C. Which of

the following is closest to Madison's AMHT for

September, in degrees Celsius?

F. 8.1 G. 22.3 H. 40.1 J. 57.8 K. 72.1

PLAN-31 B

18


2 31. Which of the following expressions represents the DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.

greatest value?

A. 4 + 4(44 ) B. 42 C. 45 + 4 D. 4(44) E. 42(43) — 4

32. Penny is making a model of the Parthenon in Athens, Greece, for a class project. When viewed from the front as shown in the figure below, Penny's model has 8 columns holding up a triangular piece that has a base of 30 cm and a height of 4.6 cm. Penny is going to paint the front side of the triangular piece. What is the area, to the nearest 0.1 square centimeter, of the front side of this triangular piece?

4.6 cm

30 cm

F. 19.6 G. 21.2 H. 34.6 J. 69.0 K. 138.0

33. A farmer keeps 2 goats in a 50-foot-by-25-foot rectangular field. Each goat is on a chain that is anchored to a stake in the ground, and each goat can reach 10 feet in all directions from its stake. The 2 stakes are positioned so that each is at least 10 feet from every edge of the field and at least 20 feet from the other stake. Which of the following is closest to the area, in square feet, of the portion of the field that these goats CANNOT reach? A. 620 B. 935 C. 1,125 D. 1,185 E. 1,230


2 DO YOUR FIGURING HERE. 34. The number 8,120 can be written in scientific notation

as 8.12 x 103. In a certain sequence, the first term is 8,120 x 10, the second term is 8,120 x 10 2 , and the third term is 8,120 x 10 3 . Which of the following represents these three terms in scientific notation?

F. 8.12 x 102 , 8.12 x 10 1 , 8.12 x 10° G. 8.12 x 104, 8.12 x 105 , 8.12 x 106 H. 8.12 x 1003 , 8.12 x 1,0003 , 8.12 x 10,0003 J. 80.12 x 103 , 800.12 x 103 , 8,000.12 x 10 3 K. 8.12 x 103 , .812 x 103 , .0812 x 103

35. In the diagram below, BE is parallel to CD, BE is perpendicular to AC, B is on AC, and E is on AD. What is the measure of LA ?

A

A. 5° B. 10° C. 18° D. 25° E. 50°

36. In the standard (x,y) coordinate plane below, 1 coordinate unit represents 1 mile. The coordinates of 2 airports are given. Diego is flying from one airport to the other. Which of the following is closest to the distance, in miles, between the 2 airports?

y

(22,34)

(4,9)

> x 0

F. 7 G. 13 H. 17 J. 31 K. 43

PLAN-31B

20


2 DO YOUR FIGURING HERE. 37. In the figure below, R, S, T, and U are the vertices of a

rectangle in the standard (x,y) coordinate plane. What is the area, in square coordinate units, of pentagon RSTUV ?

A. 27.5 B. 31 C. 55 D. 67.5 E. 80

38. Congruent isosceles triangles AABC and AADC are shown below with AB a AC a . AD. The measure of LABC is x°. What is the measure of LBAD ?

A

B

F. (360 — 4x)° G. (360 — 2x)° H. (360 — x)° J. (180 — 2x)° K. (180 — x)°


2 39. The shaded region shown below in the standard (x,y)

coordinate plane is the set of points that are inside a circle centered at the origin with radius 4 coordinate units. Which of the following is an inequality for this shaded region?

y

DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.

A. X2 + y2 < 16 B. X

2 + y2 16 C. x2 + y2 > 16 D. X

2 + y2 < 4 E. X

2 + y2 4

0

N

40. For all real numbers a and b that satisfy a — b > 0, which of the following expressions equals I b — al ?

F. V G. 2a H. b — a

J. a + b

K. a — b

END OF TEST 2


DO NOT RETURN TO THE PREVIOUS TEST.

PLAN-31B 22

3 READING TEST


DIRECTIONS: There are three passages in this test. Each passage is followed by several questions. After reading a passage, choose the best answer to each question and fill in the corresponding oval on your answer folder. You may refer to the passages as often as necessary.

Passage I

PROSE FICTION: This passage is adapted from the novel Black Girl in Paris by Shay Youngblood (©2000 by Shay Youngblood).

Authors James Baldwin, Langston Hughes, Richard Wright, Gabriel Garcia Marquez and Milan Kundera all had lived in Paris as if it had been part of their training for greatness. When artists and writers

5 spoke of Paris in their memoirs and letters home it was with reverence. Those who have been and those who still dream mention the quality of the light, the joie de vivre (enjoyment of life), the pleasures of the senses, a kind of freedom to be anonymous and also new. I

10 wanted that kind of life even though I was a woman and did not yet think of myself as a writer. I was a mapmaker.

I remember the long, narrow room, the low slanted ceiling, the bare whitewashed walls, the spotted, musty

15 brown carpet. I am there again. It's as if I have some-body else's eyes. The Paris through the round window at the foot of my bed looks as if it were painted leaf by leaf and stone by stone with tiny brushstrokes.

Before I left home I cut my hair close to my scalp 20 so I could be a free woman with free thoughts, open to

all possibilities. I was making a map of the world. In ancient times maps were made to help people find food, water, and the way back home. I needed a map to help me find love and language, and since one didn't exist,

25 I'd have to invent one, following the trails and signs left by other travelers. I didn't know what I wanted to be, but I knew I wanted to be the kind of woman who was bold, took chances, and had adventures. I wanted to travel around the world. It was my little-girl dream.

30 For once I slept without dreaming. I woke up when the plane touched down on the runway. As we taxied along the runway I pulled my small French-English dic-tionary out of my bag to look up in the phrase section how to take a cab. Across the aisle from me was a

35 young woman who had slept through most of the flight. She wore jeans and a black sweater and held a Museum of Modern Art gift bag in one hand. I assumed she was American.

"It's my first time in Paris. What's the best way to 40 get to the city? Is there a bus?"

"We can share a taxi if you like. Where are you going?" Her French accent was a surprise.

"I don't know. I was going to ask the driver for a hotel. I don't have much money."

45 She looked at me as if I was crazy.

"You don't know anyone?"

I shook my head.

"It will be very difficult to find something not expensive." She said that the students would be arriving

50 for classes that week.

"Many of the hotels not too dear will be . . . complet. You understand?"

I quickly flipped through my dictionary and learned that the hotels would be full, no vacancies.

55 "My name is . . . Je m'appelle Eden."

"Delphine. Come," she commanded. We got up and joined the line of passengers exiting the plane. Charles de Gaulle airport was a maze of lines, people talking fast, signs I couldn't understand, and every-

60 where, guards. Then I began to be a little afraid of what I had done. I didn't know anyone, my French was prac-tically nonexistent, and I had only enough money to last a few weeks until I found a job. But there was no going back. I took a deep breath and followed Delphine

65 to baggage claim.

1. Based on the passage, the narrator would most likely rate her skill in speaking French when she first arrived in Paris as: A. excellent; she's easily able to express her thoughts

and feelings to Delphine in French. B. good; she's able to share most of her thoughts and

feelings with Delphine in French. C. adequate; with some help from a dictionary, she's

able to speak to Delphine in French most of the time.

D. poor; even with the help of a dictionary, she's barely able to speak to Delphine in French.


3 2. In the context of the passage, the main purpose of lines

1-9 is to describe: F. some novels that use Paris as a setting. G. a typical day in Paris for a tourist. H. what intimidated the narrator about Paris. J. what drew the narrator to Paris.

3. The "other travelers" mentioned in line 26 are most likely: A. typical tourists in Paris. B. the narrator and Delphine. C. the narrator's role models. D. people on the plane with the narrator and

Delphine.

4. Which of the following best captures the idea behind the narrator's statement that Delphine's "French accent was a surprise" (line 42)? F. From the way Delphine spoke and acted, the narra-

tor had assumed that Delphine was from Europe but not from France.

G. From Delphine's clothing and bag, the narrator had assumed that Delphine was an American visi-tor to Paris.

H. Because Delphine seemed to know Paris so well, the narrator had assumed that Delphine had lived in the city for a long time.

J. Because Delphine had been silent during most of the flight, the narrator had assumed that Delphine wouldn't speak to her.

5. The situation the narrator describes in the last para-graph leaves her feeling: A. confused, anxious, and determined. B. annoyed, tired, and bitter. C. surprised, amused, and curious. D. amazed, talkative, and optimistic.

6. The narrator's statement "I am there again" (line 15) most nearly means that she: F. has recently returned to Paris to visit Delphine and

other friends. G. has recently returned to Paris to inspect the room

she'd lived in years before. H. is reliving the experience of being in Paris. J. is reliving the experience of flying to Paris.

7. According to the passage, one reason Delphine thinks it will be difficult for the narrator to find a suitable hotel in Paris is that: A. the narrator's standards for hotels are much too

high. B. returning students will have filled up many of the

affordable hotels. C. the narrator doesn't have enough money for even a

low-quality hotel. D. even the expensive hotels will be full this time of

year.

8. In the passage, Eden is the name of: F. the narrator. G. a neighborhood in Paris. H. one of Delphine's longtime friends. J. a hotel in Paris.


3 Passage II

SOCIAL SCIENCE: This passage is adapted from the article "Where the Wild Things Are" by Barbara Ehrenreich (©2000 by Worth Media L.L.C.).

Sports fans don't usually attract much attention, but in a trend almost unnoticed by sports commentators and sociologists, fans have been expressing themselves in more colorful ways. Soccer fans worldwide were

5 generally the trendsetters, having been the first to paint their faces and decorate themselves head to toe in masks, ribbons, scarves, and massive headgear. Most spectacularly, they engage in synchronized displays during the game.

10 In the last two decades, the trend toward participation has spread to American sports events, especially football, baseball, and basketball. What motivates fans to become part of the show?

One possibility is that fans are rebelling against 15 their appointed role as spectators in sports that were

once much more participatory. Medieval European football pitted whole villages against each other and involved "everyone . . . male and female, adult and child, rich and poor, laity and clergy," as sports histo-

20 rian Allen Guttmann has written. He has speculated that today, "as sports become more commercialized and bureaucratized, fans may feel the need to say 'We're part of this, too."

But the specific forms of display undertaken by 25 modern fans recall a tradition more ancient than sports:

the organized festivities, both secular and religious, of preindustrial societies throughout the world. Almost universally, these have involved masking, costuming, dancing, and feasting, all of which are in abundance at

30 today's sports stadiums. Face painting is a form of masking; synchronized motions like the Wave a kind of dance. When commentators complain that today's demonstrative fans are turning the game into a "carni-val," they only betray their ignorance of history: Carni-

35 val was in fact the traditional setting for medieval sports such as wrestling, bull running, and archery.

Only remnants of the European festive tradition survived into the modern era. Beginning in the 16th century, authorities moved to suppress popular festivi-

40 ties on the grounds that they were disorderly, indecent, un-Christian, and, especially as the Industrial Revolu- tion gained ground, an extravagant waste of time. Feast days were cancelled and raucous celebrations were transformed into prayer vigils. Sports fell under attack.

45 The result today is a culture fairly desolate of joyous communal ritual. Sports enjoyed a revival in the late 19th century, but only because they were seen as a fine source of nationalistic values; later they were encouraged largely as a tame form of "entertainment."

50 In today's multi-billion-dollar sports industry, it no longer takes a village to score a touchdown.

Hence, perhaps, the attempts by fans to transform sports events into an occasion for communal festivity—where else, in a culture of cubicles and malls, can you

55 lose yourself so completely in a transient community of like-minded others?

Unfortunately, English lacks a word, or even a graceful phrase, for the desire for ebullient self-expression and excited merger with the crowd. What

60 today's demonstrative fans are telling us is that it cannot be suppressed forever.

9. Details in the passage most strongly suggest that the author considers the actions of today's sports fans: A. inconsequential. B. disagreeable. C. understandable. D. generous.

10. Which of the following questions is NOT directly answered by the passage? F. Why have sociologists paid little attention to fan

behavior at today's sporting events? G. How do some fans express themselves at current

sporting events? H. What are some sports that were typically sched-

uled during Carnival? J. Why have authorities in the past felt the need to

suppress participation in sporting events?

11. Which of the following activities mentioned in the pas-sage best illustrates the type of "participation" referred to in line 11? A. Playing a game of football B. Doing the Wave during a game C. Writing professional sports commentary D. Watching a game on television

12. According to the passage, in contrast to the profes-sional sporting events of today, the football game played in medieval Europe: F. included a wider variety of people. G. resulted in more injuries. H. lacked a set of rules. J. rarely occurred during holiday festivities.


13. If the fifth paragraph (lines 37-44) were deleted, the passage would primarily lose information about: A. authorities expelling some fans from European

sporting events in the 16th century. B. fans preferring to attend prayer vigils instead of

sporting events. C. European sporting traditions continuing in today's

stadiums. D. authorities preventing people from engaging in

popular celebrations.

14. The idea presented in the seventh paragraph (lines 52-56) can best be described as: F. a fact confirmed by the passage's quotation from

Guttmann. G. a fact validated by the passage's claim that billions

of dollars are spent in the sports industry. H. an opinion held by the sports commentators

referred to in the passage. J. a theory presented by the author to explain sports

fans' behavior.

15. In the passage, the author criticizes commentators who complain about some sports fans because she believes these commentators: A. spend too much time talking about fan behavior. B. need to focus more on the game being played and

less on the athletes. C. don't understand the history of sporting events. D. don't realize the athletes need fans' enthusiasm to

win the game.

16. As it is used in line 33, the word demonstrative most nearly means: F. rowdy and flamboyant. G. instructive and knowledgeable. H. affectionate and warmhearted. J. honest and brutal.

PLAN-31 B


3 Passage III

HUMANITIES: This passage is adapted from the article "The Secret of the Stradivarius Sound" by Dana Wall (©2002 by Newsweek, Inc.).

A Stradivarius violin is a highly prized violin made by Antonio Stradivari, who in the mid-1600s established a stringed-instrument shop in Cremona, Italy. His interpretation of design for the violin has served as a model for violinmakers for centuries.

When I was a boy, my father told me he could do anything he wanted to do. I believed him. Dad said he wanted to become the first photographer in Sioux City, Iowa, to develop color prints. He did, and his prints

5 were displayed for weeks at the local camera store.

When I was 13, I said I wanted an "Olson-60" gasoline engine for my balsa-wood model airplanes. Dad said he could build it for me. He borrowed my friend's motor, took measurements, made wooden parts,

10 cast them in aluminum and turned the pieces on his lathe until they fit. He purchased only a spark plug, the gas tank and a rubber fuel line.

When I was 16, Dad looked closely at the violin I played and announced that he wanted to make one. He

15 read about violinmaking, then became a violinmaker at the age of 43. He bought the tools and materials from a local stringed-instrument repairperson, leased a small storefront and set Mom up as the shopkeeper, while he worked until 3 p.m. at the local telephone company.

20 From 3:15 p.m. until he decided to quit for the day, Dad was at his shop. He retired from the phone company 17 years later and continued to make violins, violas and at least one cello. He sold and rented his instruments to students and repaired stringed instru-

25 ments for area musicians.

Dad often speculated about the superiority of Stradivarius violins. He'd occasionally read a magazine or newspaper article in which an expert claimed it was the unique varnish that gave those instruments their

30 beautiful sound. Dad argued that chemists could analyze and duplicate the varnish, if that were the answer. Other experts said it was the craftsmanship, but Dad said if that were the case, modern technology would allow us to fashion exact duplicates of Stradivari's

35 works.

One of Dad's friends once asked him which kinds of woods were used in making a fiddle. When Dad explained that the top of a violin was made of spruce, his friend said he had an old chunk of spruce he might

40 be interested in.

The friend explained that this was not just any piece of wood. He had found it when he was fighting below an ancient monastery at Monte Cassino in Italy during World War II. As he scrambled through the

45 ruins, he picked up a section of timber less than two feet long to keep as a souvenir. When he returned

home, he put the wood on a storage shelf in his base-ment, where it had stayed for the last 20 years. Dad's eyes widened when he heard the story.

50 The violin with the Monte Cassino spruce top was Dad's masterpiece. He had discovered on his own what many experts now agree is the secret of the Stradivarius sound: it was the wood itself that resonated so beauti-fully. The abbey at Monte Cassino was first built in

55 529; the last reconstruction had been done in 1349. Dad reasoned old Stradivari had access to spruce that had cured for centuries, perhaps ancient timbers from a ruined medieval castle or cathedral.

Leo Kucinski, the venerable conductor of the 60 Sioux City Symphony Orchestra, was one of Dad's

many musician friends. The maestro stopped at the violin shop almost weekly to talk and to play the Monte Cassino violin. So did others. But Dad would never sell it.

17. The author does NOT suggest which of the following as a trait he admires in his father? A. His talent as a violin player B. His love of a challenge C. His skill in designing violins D. His capacity to reason and analyze

18. It is clear from the passage that Dad has created all of the following items EXCEPT: F. several color photographic prints. G. a gasoline engine for a model airplane. H. several stringed instruments. J. the wooden body of a model airplane.

19. According to the passage, which of the following events occurred first in Dad's life? A. He hears a friend's story about a piece of Monte

Cassino spruce. B. He announces that he would like to make a violin. C. He retires from his job at the local telephone

company. D. He repairs stringed instruments for area musicians.

20. The main purpose of the first three paragraphs (lines 1-19) is to allow the author to describe several instances in which his father was able to: F. persuade the author to explore a new hobby. G. educate himself to prepare for a new responsibility

at his job. H. accomplish exactly what he wanted to do. J. convince skeptical neighbors, friends, and cowork-

ers that he was a skilled craftsman.


3 21. The passage most strongly suggests that Stradivari

constructed the top of his violins using wood: A. from the ruins of the abbey at Monte Cassino. B. that was similar to the timber Dad's friend found

at Monte Cassino. C. that varied dramatically and seemingly randomly

in type, age, and origin. D. from ruined castles and cathedrals that had been

first constructed around 1300.

22. It is clear from the passage that for at least a short time as a teenager. the author: F. played the violin. G. practiced making violins. H. repaired stringed instruments with his father. J. researched the secret of the Stradivarius sound.

23. The passage implies that Dad ran his shop with the help of: A. Mom only. B. Mom and the author. C. one of his musician friends and the author. D. no one; he ran the shop by himself.

24. According to the passage, in his shop Dad made: F. more cellos than violas. G. many violas but only a few special violins. H. about the same number of violins, violas, and

cellos. J. many more violins and violas than cellos.

25. The last paragraph suggests all of the following about Dad's Monte Cassino violin EXCEPT that: A. the story of the violin was well known by musi-

cians in Sioux City. B. Dad welcomed the company of a musician who

stopped at his shop to play the violin. C. Dad invited musicians from the orchestra to

borrow the violin for special performances. D. at least one person had offered to buy it.

END OF TEST 3


DO NOT RETURN TO A PREVIOUS TEST.

PLAN-31B 29

4 SCIENCE TEST


DIRECTIONS: There are five passages in this test. Each passage is followed by several questions. After reading a passage, choose the best answer to each question and fill in the corresponding oval on your answer folder. You may refer to the passages as often as necessary.

You are NOT permitted to use a calculator on this test.

Passage I

Three common coat colors in domestic cats—black, orange, and tortoiseshell (a mixture of black patches of fur and orange patches of fur)—are affected by Gene B. Gene B has 2 alleles. Allele B results in orange fur, and Allele b results in black fur. A researcher observed that coat color is not inherited in the pattern that would be expected if Gene B were located on an autosomal chromo-some (any chromosome other than X or Y). To determine how coat color is inherited in cats, the researcher con-ducted 2 crosses.

Cross 1

An orange male cat and a black female cat were mated multiple times to produce 29 offspring. Table 1 shows the phenotype and gender of the resulting offspring.

Table 1

Coat color Male Female phenotype offspring offspring

Orange 0 0 Black 14 0 Tortoiseshell 0 15

Cross 2

A tortoiseshell female offspring from Cross 1 and a black male cat were mated multiple times to produce 60 offspring. Table 2 shows the number of male and female offspring with each coat color, and the percent of offspring with each coat color.

Table 2

Coat color phenotype

Male offspring

Female offspring

Percent of offspring

Orange Black Tortoiseshell

12 18 0

0 15 15

20 55 25

The researcher concluded that Gene B is located on the X chromosome (it is sex-linked) and determined the genotype(s) responsible for each coat color (see Table 3).

Table 3

Coat color Genotype(s)

Orange Black Tortoiseshell

XBXB or X B Y XbXb or XbY XBXb

Note: X indicates the X chromosome and Y indicates the Y chromosome.

1. Suppose a breeder wanted to produce only black cats. Based on Table 3, which of the crosses listed below would produce only black cats?

I. XbY x XBXB II. XbY x XbXb

III. XBY x XBXb

A. I only B. II only C. I and II only D. I and III only

2. Based on Table 1, the percent of offspring produced in Cross 1 that were black was closest to which of the following? F. 0% G. 15% H. 50% J. 100%


A. 20 16 12

8 4 0

orange black tortoiseshell

coat color

C. 20 16

.2 12 8 4 0

D. 20 16

.2 12 8 4 0


coat color


coat color


coat color

4 3. Which of the following graphs best represents the

results of Cross 2 ?

Key ❑ male offspring ■ female offspring

4. Based on Tables 2 and 3, what percent of offspring from Cross 2 had the genotype X BY ?

F. 20% G. 25% H. 55% J. 100%

5. The designs of Cross 1 and Cross 2 differed in which of the following ways? A. The parents were mated multiple times in Cross 1,

but not in Cross 2. B. The parents were mated multiple times in Cross 2,

but not in Cross 1. C. One of the parents had the tortoiseshell phenotype

in Cross 1, but not in Cross 2. D. One of the parents had the tortoiseshell phenotype

in Cross 2, but not in Cross 1.

6. Female cats can have which of the 3 common coat colors listed in Table 3 ? F. Orange only G. Tortoiseshell only H. Orange or black only J. Orange, black, or tortoiseshell

7. Suppose a third cross had been conducted in which one parent had the genotype X BY and the other parent had the genotype XBXB . Based on Table 3, which of the following statements about the coat color(s) of the off-spring would most likely have been true?

A. All of the offspring would have had orange coats. B. All of the offspring would have had black coats. C. All of the offspring would have had tortoiseshell

coats. D. Some of the offspring would have had orange

coats and some of the offspring would have had black coats.

PLAN-31 B


28 26 24 22

20 E 18

16 14

cu 12 Cl g 10 cl 8

6 4 2 0

4 Passage II

Poecilia reticulata (a type of fish of the genus Poecilia) have been bred in captivity for many years. As a result, many strains exist. A researcher performed an experiment to investigate 2 strains (Strains A and B) of Poecilia reticulata.

Experiment For each strain, 200 newborn fish were evenly divided

into 20 groups. Each group was raised in a different fish tank in 2.5 L of 23°C water. The 10 fish in each tank were raised under otherwise identical conditions from birth (Day 0) until they were 180 days old (Day 180). All the fish were alive at the end of the experiment. On Day 0, it was not possible to determine which fish were females and which were males. By Day 30, however, this distinction could be made and the researcher determined that for Strain A, there were 100 females and 100 males. For Strain B, there were 96 females and 104 males.

Every 30 days, the length of each fish was measured to the nearest millimeter (mm). For each strain, the mea-surements from the females were averaged together and the measurements from the males were averaged together. Figure 1 shows the average length at each age. For Day 0, the results for the females and males of Strain A were aver-aged together, and the results for the females and males of Strain B were averaged together.

Key

Strain A female —s— Strain B female —A— Strain A male —a— Strain B male

Figure 2 shows the percent of females at each length on Day 180 by strain.

Key

El Strain A Females—Day 180 I Strain B

28 26 24 22 20 18 16

8 14 a 12

10 8 6 4 2 0

15 17 19 21 23 25 27 29 31 33 35 length (mm)

Figure 2

Figures adapted from Masamichi Nakajima and Nobuhiko Taniguchi, "Genetic Control of Growth in the Guppy (Poecilia reticulata)." ©2002 by Elsevier Science B. V.

0 30 60 90 120 150 180 Day

Figure 1

8. Prior to the experiment, the researcher proposed that on Day 180, the Strain A fish would be larger than the Strain B fish. This proposal is an example of which of the following? F. A hypothesis G. A treatment H. A variable J. A control

9. Which of the following best represents the experimen-tal question investigated in the experiment? A. How did water temperature affect growth? B. Was body size related to food intake? C. At what age were the females able to reproduce? D. Did the 2 strains have different growth rates?

10. Based on Figure 2, which of the following measure-ments was recorded for at least one of the Strain A females on Day 180 ? F. 15 mm G. 21 mm H. 27 mm J. 33 mm

PLAN-31B

32


4 11. The average length of which 2 groups remained con-

stant from Day 150 to Day 180 ? A. Strain A females and Strain B females B. Strain A females and Strain B males C. Strain A males and Strain B females D. Strain A males and Strain B males

12. On Day 180, was the average length for all of the female fish greater than the average length for all of the male fish? F. Yes; the female average was about 7.5 mm greater

than the male average. G. Yes; the female average was about 9.5 mm greater

than the male average. H. No; the female average was about 7.5 mm less

than the male average. J. No; the female average was about 9.5 mm less

than the male average.

13. Based on the design of the experiment, the researcher most likely tried to keep which of the following the same across all of the fish tanks? A. The strain of the fish added on Day 0 B. The amount of food added during the experiment C. The average length of the fish throughout the

experiment D. The average mass of the fish throughout the

experiment

14. According to Figure 2, on Day 180, as the length of the female Strain B fish increased from 20 mm to 25 mm by 1 mm increments, the percent of female Strain B fish: F. increased only. G. decreased only. H. increased, then decreased. J. decreased, then increased.


Passage III

Atoms of a chemical element that undergo beta decay (a type of radioactive decay) become atoms of a different chemical element.

Table 1 gives the chemical symbols for 3 isotopes (forms) of the chemical elements boron, oxygen, and fluo-rine that undergo a particular type of beta decay, the name and the chemical symbol for the beta decay product of each isotope, and the type of information contained in each chemical symbol.

Figure 1 shows how, in separate samples of the oxygen and fluorine isotopes, the percentages of the iso-topes change over time. Figure 2 shows how, for the same samples, the percentages of their beta decay products change over time.

Table 1

Chemical element

Chemical symbol for an isotope

that undergoes a particular type of

beta decay

Beta decay

product

Chemical symbol of beta decay

product

Boron

Oxygen

Fluorine

B* 5

15,-, 8`-'

17 9 F

beryllium

nitrogen

oxygen

Be4D „.

15 N 17

80

*The symbol 85B shows that every atom of boron con-tains 5 protons, and that in every atom of this particular isotope of boron, the total number of protons and neu-trons equals 8. Therefore, every atom of this isotope of boron contains 3 neutrons. Every atom of another iso-tope of boron, 115B, contains 6 neutrons.

perc

enta

ge

of

radi

oact

ive

elem

ent

Key

15 0 8

17 F

0 40 80 120 160 200 240 280 320 360 400 440 480 520 560

time (sec)

Figure 1

PLAN-31B

34 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. i

16. Based on Table 1, an atom of 10 contains how many protons? F. 7 G. 8 H. 15 J. 23

F.

G.

0 40 80 120 160 200 240 280 320 360 400 440 480 520 560

time (sec)

Figure 2

Key

15xT 7

17,-1

perc

enta

ge

of

dec

ay p

rodu

ct

15. According to Figure 2, at 280 sec, the percentage of IN in the sample is closest to which of the following?

A. 20% B. 40% C. 60% D. 80%

18. A sample is initially composed of an isotope of Ele-ment X. As the isotope of Element X undergoes beta decay, Element Y is produced. Once produced, Ele-ment Y does not disappear. Based on Figures 1 and 2, which of the following graphs best represents how the percentages of the isotopes of Elements X and Y in the sample will change over time?

17. Half-life is the time it takes for 50% of the atoms in a sample of a radioactive isotope to decay. According to Figure 1, the half-life of 10 is closest to which of the following? A. 0.5 sec B. 1.0 sec C. 120 sec D. 280 sec

19. Each time an atom undergoes the particular type of beta decay that is undergone by the isotopes listed in Table 1, the number of protons in the atom will: A. increase by 1. B. decrease by 1. C. decrease by 2. D. remain the same.

PLAN-31B


4 Passage IV

A teacher made a salt solution by adding 1 mole of NaCl to 1 kg of H2O. A sugar solution was made by adding 1 mole of sucrose to 1 kg of H 2O. A mole consists of 6 x 1023 formula units or molecules of any compound. Thus, the number of NaC1 units in 1 mole equals the number of sucrose molecules in 1 mole.

The teacher asked 4 students to predict whether the BP (boiling point at 1 atmosphere of pressure) of pure H 2O will differ from the BPs of the salt and sugar solutions, and if so, how.

Student 1 All 3 liquids will have the same BP. The BP of H 2O is

not affected by the presence of dissolved substances.

Student 2 Pure H2O will have the highest BP. A liquid boils

when enough heat is added to make the molecules of the liquid break free of each other. When a substance is dis-solved in H2O, the dissolved particles end up between some of the H2O molecules. Since fewer H 2O molecules are in contact with each other, less heat is needed to cause boiling. Thus, the salt and sugar solutions will have a lower BP than will pure H 2O. The salt and sugar solutions will have the same BP because they have the same concen-tration of dissolved particles.

Student 3 Pure H2O will have the lowest BP. Dissolving a sub-

stance in H2O increases viscosity. More heat must be added to dislodge H2O molecules from the more viscous solution, so the BP is higher than that of pure H 2O. Although the sugar and salt solutions have the same dissolved particle concentration, the sugar solution is more viscous. Thus, the sugar solution will have the highest BP.

Student 4 Pure H2O will have the lowest BP. The salt and sugar

solutions will have higher BPs that are determined only by the concentration of dissolved particles. Even though 1 mole of each substance was added to the same mass of H2O, the salt solution contains twice as many dissolved particles. In H2O, each NaC1 dissolves into 1 Nal- particle and 1 Cl- particle, while sucrose molecules remain intact. Thus, the salt solution will have the highest BP. Dissolving substances in liquids increases the viscosity and the BP, but the properties are not related. The sugar solution is more viscous than the salt solution, yet will have a lower BP.

20. Which of the students predict(s) that the sugar solution will have a higher BP than the salt solution? F. Student 2 only G. Student 3 only H. Students 1 and 4 only J. Students 2 and 3 only

21. Which of the students would agree that adding salt to a sample of H 2O will increase its BP ? A. Student 1 only B. Students 2 and 3 only C. Students 3 and 4 only D. Students 1, 2, 3, and 4


4 22. Which

the with

F. G. H. J.

of the following sets of values for the BPs of salt and sugar solutions would be most consistent Student 2's explanation?

Salt solution Sugar solution

24. A chemist claimed that adding more sugar to the sugar solution will decrease its BP. This claim is most consis-tent with the explanation provided by which student? F. Student 1 G. Student 2 H. Student 3 J. Student 4

25. Students 3 and 4 would agree with which of the fol-lowing statements comparing the effect of dissolving 1 mole of NaC1 in 1 kg of H 2O to the effect of dissolv-ing 1 mole of sucrose in 1 kg of H2O ?

99°C 99°C

101°C 102°C

98°C 99°C

101°C 101°C

23. Student 4 would most likely predict that which of the following liquids would have the highest BP ? A. Pure H2O B. 2 moles of sucrose dissolved in 1 kg of H2O C. 4 moles of sucrose dissolved in 1 kg of H 2O D. 3 moles of NaCl dissolved in 1 kg of H 2O

A.

B.

C.

D.

Dissolving the NaCl will increase the viscosity by a lesser amount than will dissolving the sucrose. Dissolving the NaCl will increase the viscosity by a greater amount than will dissolving the sucrose. Dissolving the NaC1 will increase the viscosity by the same amount as will dissolving the sucrose, Neither dissolving the NaC1 nor dissolving the sucrose will cause the viscosity to change.


Passage V

Acid rain (pH < 5.0) affects the pH of many Upper Midwest and Northeast U.S. lakes. Factories and cars emit SO 2 gas, which enters the atmosphere and reacts with oxygen to form SO 3 . The SO 3 then reacts with water droplets to form sulfuric acid (H 2SO4). The H2SO4 mixes with more water in the atmosphere, forming acid rain droplets. Figure 1 shows the yearly total SO 2 emissions in the Midwest from 1978 to 1996. Figures 2 and 3 show the average S042- concentration and pH of Upper Midwest lakes and of Northeast lakes, respectively, from 1982 to 2002.

0

11.0

0 .o9.0 -

7.0 - o

x

5.0 1978 1981 1984 1987 1990 1993 1996

year

Figure 1

Figure 1 adapted from "Progress Report on the EPA Acid Rain Pro-gram." ©1999 by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency.

100

°-tel" 90 ot es CI) 'tni

80 ao '0-3 70 a) u 3 60 u 3

o 50

40

Upper Midwest lakes -

7.0

6.5

6.0

5.5

5.0 1982 1984 1986 1988 1990 1992 1994 1996 1998 2000 2002

year

Figure 2

4.0 N 160

0 o ' 140 ci) „, ' L-1 E r120

16 8 'a 100 o 80

6.5

6.0

5.5

5.0

4.5 1982 1984 1986 1988 1990 1992 1994 1996 1998 2000 2002

year

Figure 3

Figures 2 and 3 adapted from "Response of Surface Water Chemistry to the Clean Air Act Amendments of 1990." ©2003 by the U.S. Environ-mental Protection Agency.

PLAN-31 B 38 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

4 26. Based on Figure 3, the average 50 42- concentration of

Northeast lakes in 2003 was most likely closest to which of the following? F. 601.1eq/L G. 85 Req/L H. 110 lieq/L J. 1351.teq/L

27. Suppose the data in Figures 2 and 3 were for a particu-lar Upper Midwest lake and a particular Northeast lake, respectively. Smallmouth bass, which survive only in water having a pH 5.0 or higher, would have survived in which lake(s), if either, in 1996 ? A. The Upper Midwest lake only B. The Northeast lake only C. Both lakes D. Neither lake

28. According to Figure 2, as the average S0 42- concentra-tion decreased, the average pH of water in Upper Mid-west lakes: F. increased only. G. decreased only. H. decreased, then increased. J. remained constant.

29. Is the statement "A reduction in the yearly total SO 2 emissions in the Midwest between 1982 and 1996 resulted in an increase in the average S0 42- concentra-tion of Upper Midwest lakes" consistent with Figures 1 and 2? A. Yes, because while yearly total SO 2 emissions

decreased, the average S0 42- concentration of Upper Midwest lakes increased.

B. Yes, because while yearly total SO 2 emissions decreased, the average S0 42- concentration of Upper Midwest lakes decreased.

C. No, because while yearly total SO 2 emissions decreased, the average S0 42- concentration of Upper Midwest lakes increased.

D. No, because while yearly total SO 2 emissions decreased, the average S0 42- concentration of Upper Midwest lakes decreased.

30. Suppose a 10 mL sample of lake water that has a pH equal to the average pH of Northeast lakes in 1990 were collected. The sample would most likely be made more acidic by the addition of 100 mL of lake water that has a pH equal to the average pH of Northeast lakes in which of the following years? F. 1986 G. 1994 H. 1998 J. 2002

END OF TEST 4

STOP! DO NOT RETURN TO ANY OTHER TEST.

PLAN-31 B 39

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Plan Form 31b