22
Paper P1 – Performance Operations Post Exam Guide March 2014 Exam The Chartered Institute of Management Accountants 2014 Page 1 General Comments Performance on this paper was reasonable particularly bearing in mind the very high pass rate achieved in November 2013. A number of candidates produced very weak papers however there were also some fairly high scoring scripts. Candidates scored well in the multiple choice questions and Question 1 as a whole was fairly well done. Question 2 was reasonably well done although candidates once again struggled with the narrative questions. Question 3 was generally badly done, with a very low average mark compared to previous sessions. This was mainly due to poor performance on the computational aspects of the question. Part (a) consisted of basic variances yet many candidates were unable to calculate these correctly. Many candidates scored well in part (b) but part (c) was very poorly answered with many of the answers being irrelevant and not answering the question that was asked. Question 4 presented some difficulties for candidates and the average mark was low compared to previous sessions. There was a lack of understanding regarding the opportunity cost of the project and candidates had obviously not read the question very carefully and failed to make basic calculations such as multiplying the weekly gross profit by 52. Despite this candidates could still achieve a reasonable mark for part (a) but part (b) was poorly answered and part (c) was split between those who could do the question and scored well and those who did not know what they were doing and scored badly. There are still a number of recurring issues as follows: Many candidates did not seem to know how to lay out answers with the result that the task for markers was very difficult. In some cases even the candidates were not able to follow their own workings and picked up the wrong figures. When the exam paper gives candidates instructions to show workings in $millions, this is for the candidates’ benefit and the instruction should be followed. In question 4, many candidates were unable to handle the large numbers and mixed $millions with $000s. The narrative questions are still causing problems for some candidates who do not address the question asked. The performance in Question 3 was exceptionally poor despite the fact that only basic variances were required. Candidates who are given exemption from the Certificate level are advised to review the Certificate syllabi and ensure that any knowledge gaps are filled.

Paper P1 – Performance Operations Post Exam Guide March ... docs/2010 syllabus docs/P1/… · Candidates scored well in the multiple choice questions and Question 1 as a ... an

Embed Size (px)

Citation preview

Paper P1 – Performance Operations Post Exam Guide March 2014 Exam

The Chartered Institute of Management Accountants 2014 Page 1

General Comments Performance on this paper was reasonable particularly bearing in mind the very high pass rate achieved in November 2013. A number of candidates produced very weak papers however there were also some fairly high scoring scripts. Candidates scored well in the multiple choice questions and Question 1 as a whole was fairly well done. Question 2 was reasonably well done although candidates once again struggled with the narrative questions. Question 3 was generally badly done, with a very low average mark compared to previous sessions. This was mainly due to poor performance on the computational aspects of the question. Part (a) consisted of basic variances yet many candidates were unable to calculate these correctly. Many candidates scored well in part (b) but part (c) was very poorly answered with many of the answers being irrelevant and not answering the question that was asked. Question 4 presented some difficulties for candidates and the average mark was low compared to previous sessions. There was a lack of understanding regarding the opportunity cost of the project and candidates had obviously not read the question very carefully and failed to make basic calculations such as multiplying the weekly gross profit by 52. Despite this candidates could still achieve a reasonable mark for part (a) but part (b) was poorly answered and part (c) was split between those who could do the question and scored well and those who did not know what they were doing and scored badly. There are still a number of recurring issues as follows:

• Many candidates did not seem to know how to lay out answers with the result that the task for markers was very difficult. In some cases even the candidates were not able to follow their own workings and picked up the wrong figures. When the exam paper gives candidates instructions to show workings in $millions, this is for the candidates’ benefit and the instruction should be followed. In question 4, many candidates were unable to handle the large numbers and mixed $millions with $000s.

• The narrative questions are still causing problems for some candidates who do not

address the question asked.

• The performance in Question 3 was exceptionally poor despite the fact that only basic variances were required. Candidates who are given exemption from the Certificate level are advised to review the Certificate syllabi and ensure that any knowledge gaps are filled.

Paper P1 – Performance Operations Post Exam Guide March 2014 Exam

The Chartered Institute of Management Accountants 2014 Page 2

SECTION A – 20 MARKS ANSWER ALL EIGHT SUB-QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION Question 1.1 1.1 AB is preparing its cash budget for the next quarter.

Which of the following items should NOT be included in the cash budget?

A Payment of tax due on last year’s profits B Gain on the disposal of a piece of machinery C Repayment of the capital amount of a loan

D Receipt of interest from short term investments

(2 marks)

The correct answer is B Question 1.2 1.2 A company has a real cost of capital of 6% per annum and inflation is 3% per annum.

The company’s money cost of capital per annum is:

A 9.00% B 2.91% C 3.00% D 9.18%

(2 marks)

The correct answer is D

Workings

(1 + r) x (1 + i) = (1 + m)

(1 + 0.06) x (1 + 0.03) = 1.0918 (1 + m) = 1.0918 m = 0.0918 m = 9.18%

Paper P1 – Performance Operations Post Exam Guide March 2014 Exam

The Chartered Institute of Management Accountants 2014 Page 3

RS has recently introduced an activity based costing system. RS manufactures two products, details of which are given below:

Product R Product S Budgeted production per annum (units)

80,000 60,000

Batch size (units) 100 50 Machine set-ups per batch

3 3

Processing time per unit (minutes)

3 5

The budgeted annual costs for two activities are as follows: Machine set-up $180,000 Processing $108,000

Question 1.3 The budgeted processing cost per unit of Product R is: A $0.20 B $0.51 C $0.60 D $0.45

(2 marks)

The correct answer is C Workings

Product R Product S Total Budgeted production per annum (units)

80,000 60,000 140,000

Number of batches 800 1,200 2,000 Number of machine set-ups

2,400 3,600 6,000

Total processing time (minutes)

240,000 300,000 540,000

Cost driver rate = $108,000 / 540,000 = $0.20 Total processing costs = $0.20 x 240,000 = $48,000 Processing costs per unit = $48,000 / 80,000 = $0.60

Paper P1 – Performance Operations Post Exam Guide March 2014 Exam

The Chartered Institute of Management Accountants 2014 Page 4

Question 1.4 The budgeted machine set-up cost per unit of Product S is: A $150 B $1.80 C $1.50 D $30

(2 marks)

The correct answer is B Workings Cost driver rate = $180,000 / 6,000 = $30 per set up Total set-up costs = $30 x 3,600 = $108,000 Set up cost per unit =$108,000 / 60,000 = $1.80

Question 1.5 An investment project requires an initial investment of $500,000 and has a residual value of $130,000 at the end of five years. The net present value of the project is $140,500 after discounting at the company’s cost of capital of 12% per annum. The profitability index of the project is:

A 0.38

B 0.54

C 0.28

D 0.26

(2 marks)

The correct answer is C

Workings The profitability index = net present value of the investment / initial investment = $140,500 / $500,000 = 0.281

Paper P1 – Performance Operations Post Exam Guide March 2014 Exam

The Chartered Institute of Management Accountants 2014 Page 5

Question 1.7 JK’s trade receivables outstanding at the end of this year are expected to be 55 days. Credit sales for this year are expected to be $862,860 spread evenly throughout the year. JK is preparing the budget for next year and estimates that credit sales will increase by 5%. The trade receivables amount, in $, outstanding at the end of next year is estimated to be the same as at the end of this year. Required:

Calculate the budgeted trade receivable days at the end of next year. Your answer should be rounded to two decimal places of a day.

(3 marks)

Workings Trade receivable at the end of this year = $862,860 x 55/365 = $130,020 Credit sales for next year = $862,860 x 1.05 = $906,003 Trade receivable days at end of next year = $130,020 / $906,003 x 365 = 52.38 days

Question 1.6 EF sells personal computers on which it gives a one year warranty. EF is estimating the cost of warranty claims for next year. If all products under warranty need minor repairs the total cost is estimated to be $2 million. If all products under warranty need major repairs it would cost $6 million. If all products under warranty need to be replaced it would cost $10 million. Based on past experience EF has estimated that 80% of products under warranty will require no repairs, 15% will require minor repairs, 3% will require major repairs and 2% will need to be replaced. Required: Calculate the expected value of the cost of warranty claims for next year.

(3 marks) Workings The expected value of cost of the warranty claims is:

$2,000,000 x 15% = $300,000 $6,000,000 x 3% = $180,000 $10,000,000 x 2% = $200,000 $680,000

Paper P1 – Performance Operations Post Exam Guide March 2014 Exam

The Chartered Institute of Management Accountants 2014 Page 6

Question 1.8 A marketing manager is deciding which of four potential selling prices to charge for a new product. The market for the product is uncertain and reaction from competitors may be strong, medium or weak. The manager has prepared a payoff table showing the forecast profit for each of the possible outcomes.

Competitor Reaction Selling price

$80 $90 $100 $110

Strong $70,000 $80,000 $70,000 $75,000

Medium $50,000 $60,000 $70,000 $80,000

Weak $90,000 $100,000 $90,000 $80,000 Required:

(i) Identify the selling price that would be chosen if the manager applies the maximin criterion to

make the decision.

(ii) Identify, using a regret matrix, the selling price that would be chosen if the manager applies the minimax regret criterion to make the decision.

(4 marks) Workings (i) The minimum profit at a selling price of $80 is $50,000 The minimum profit at a selling price of $90 is $60,000 The minimum profit at a selling price of $100 is $70,000 The minimum profit at a selling price of $110 is $75,000 Therefore if the manager wants to maximise the minimum profit a selling price of $110 would be chosen. (ii) A regret matrix can be produced as follows:

Competitor Reaction

Selling price

$80 $90 $100 $110

Strong $10,000 $0 $10,000 $5,000

Medium $30,000 $20,000 $10,000 $0

Weak $10,000 $0 $10,000 $20,000

Maximum regret $30,000 $20,000 $10,000 $20,000

Therefore if the manager wants to minimise the maximum regret a selling price of $100 would be chosen.

Paper P1 – Performance Operations Post Exam Guide March 2014 Exam

The Chartered Institute of Management Accountants 2014 Page 7

SECTION B – 30 MARKS ANSWER ALL SIX SUB-QUESTIONS. YOU SHOULD SHOW YOUR WORKINGS AS MARKS ARE AVAILABLE FOR THE METHOD YOU USE

Question 2(a) (a) “Public sector organisations are responsible for taxpayers’ money therefore they should no longer

be allowed to use incremental budgeting but should instead use a zero based budgeting system”. Required:

Explain TWO advantages and ONE disadvantage of public sector organisations using zero based budgeting.

(5 marks)

Rationale The question assesses learning outcome B3(b) apply alternative approaches to budgeting. It examines candidates’ ability to explain the advantages and disadvantages of zero based budgeting. Suggested Approach Candidates should clearly explain two advantages and one disadvantage of zero based budgeting in the scenario described. Marking Guide

Marks

• Explanation of advantages of zero based budgeting • Explanation of disadvantage of zero based budgeting

1 mark per valid point

Up to 2 marks

for each advantage /

disadvantage

Maximum marks awarded 5 marks Examiner’s comments Most candidates could explain zero based budgeting (ZBB) and incremental budgeting. The main difficulty was in explaining two distinct advantages of ZBB. Many candidates wrote about ZBB starting from scratch which prevented inefficiencies being brought forward, thus avoiding the downside of incremental budgeting. However, for the next point candidates often stated that under ZBB everything had to be justified (or they repeated starting from scratch) thus reducing wastage. With the disadvantage, only one was requested and most candidates stated that it was time consuming and expensive but did not expand the point any further or instead they then cited a second disadvantage. Common errors

• Failure to expand on the points made • Failure to give two distinct advantages

Paper P1 – Performance Operations Post Exam Guide March 2014 Exam

The Chartered Institute of Management Accountants 2014 Page 8

Question 2(b) (b) A company has to decide which of three mutually exclusive projects to invest in next year. The

directors believe that the success of the projects will vary depending on economic conditions. There is a 30% chance that conditions will be good, a 20% chance that conditions will be fair and a 50% chance that conditions will be poor. The company uses expected value to make this type of decision.

The net present value for each of the possible outcomes is as follows:

Economic Conditions Project A Project B Project C

$000 $000 $000

Good 700 800 700

Fair 400 500 600

Poor 300 400 500

A firm of economic analysts believes it can provide perfect information on economic conditions.

Required:

Calculate the maximum amount that should be paid for the information from the firm of economic analysts.

(5 marks)

Rationale The question assesses learning outcome D1(e) calculate the value of information. It examines candidates’ ability to calculate the value of perfect information where there is uncertainty regarding expected cash flows.

Suggested Approach Candidates should firstly apply the probabilities for the economic conditions to calculate the expected value of the net present value (NPV) for each of the projects without perfect information. They should then select the best outcome for each of the possible economic conditions and apply the probabilities to these to calculate the expected value with perfect information. The value of perfect information can then be calculated as the difference between the expected value with perfect information and the best of the expected values without perfect information. Marking Guide

Marks

Expected values without perfect information Expected value with perfect information Value of perfect information

1 ½ marks 2 ½ marks 1 mark

Maximum marks awarded 5 marks

Paper P1 – Performance Operations Post Exam Guide March 2014 Exam

The Chartered Institute of Management Accountants 2014 Page 9

Examiner’s comments Most candidates either achieved 1 ½ marks or 5 marks as the majority of candidates could calculate the expected values of projects A, B, and C. Unfortunately many candidates could not then calculate the expected value with perfect information. Common errors

• Calculating the expected value with perfect information using the expected values for the projects rather than the net present values under each of the economic conditions

• Summing the expected values without perfect information and using this total to calculate the value of perfect information

• Calculating the value of perfect information as the value of the project with the highest expected value less the value of the project with the lowest expected value i.e. $580k - $440k = $140k

Paper P1 – Performance Operations Post Exam Guide March 2014 Exam

The Chartered Institute of Management Accountants 2014 Page 10

Question 2(c) (c) A company is concerned about its cash flow position. It has reviewed its trade receivable days and

is considering offering an early settlement discount. The company currently receives payments from customers on average 65 days after the invoice date. The company’s current credit terms are 30 days after the invoice date. The company is considering offering a 2% early settlement discount for payment within 20 days of the invoice date.

Required:

(i) Calculate the effective annual interest rate of the early settlement discount. You should

use compound interest methodology and assume a 365 day year.

(3 marks)

(ii) State TWO other methods that could be used to reduce the trade receivable days. (2 marks)

(Total for sub-question (c) = 5 marks)

Rationale Part (i) assesses learning outcome E1(e) analyse trade debtor and creditor information. It examines candidates’ ability to calculate the effective annual interest rate of an early settlement discount. Part (ii) assesses learning outcome E1(f) analyse the impacts of alternative debtor and creditor policies. It examines candidates’ ability to identify methods that could be used to reduce a company’s trade receivable days. Suggested Approach In part (i) candidates should calculate how many days early the payment will be received. They should then divide 365 days by this to calculate the number of compounding periods. The discount rate should then be compounded by the number of periods to calculate the effective annual interest rate. In part (ii) candidates should clearly state two methods that could be used to reduce a company’s trade receivable days. Marking Guide

Marks

Part (i) Number of compounding periods 1.00/0.98 Correct application Part (ii) Examples of methods that could be used to reduce trade receivable days

1 mark 1 mark 1 mark 1 mark each method

Max 2 marks

Maximum marks awarded 5 marks

Paper P1 – Performance Operations Post Exam Guide March 2014 Exam

The Chartered Institute of Management Accountants 2014 Page 11

Examiner’s comments In part (i) some candidates were confused over how to calculate the number of compounding periods with 365/65, 365/20 and 45/365 all used. Most candidates did use 1.00/0.98 correctly but some used 1.02, without showing workings, and it was impossible to determine whether the figure had been derived correctly or was just 1 plus the 2% settlement discount. Some candidates continue to struggle to convert their answer into the correct percentage. In part (ii) most candidates were able to state two methods and achieve two marks. Those who did not generally failed to state two distinct methods i.e. send out chasing letters and phoning. Some candidates also suggested discounts for early payment however this was included in the question and ‘other’ methods were required by the question. Common errors

• Incorrect calculation of number of compounding periods • Using 1.02 rather than 1.00/0.98 • Failure to correctly calculate a percentage rate

Paper P1 – Performance Operations Post Exam Guide March 2014 Exam

The Chartered Institute of Management Accountants 2014 Page 12

Question 2(d) (d) PR is a retailer of bicycles. The most popular children’s bicycle has an annual demand of 30,000

units. Demand is predictable and spread evenly throughout the year. The bicycles are purchased by PR for $200 each. Ordering costs are $150 per order and the annual cost of holding one bicycle in inventory is $25.

Required:

(i) Calculate the economic order quantity (EOQ) for the children’s bicycle. (2 marks)

(ii) Calculate the total annual ordering and holding costs for the bicycle assuming the

company purchases the EOQ, does not hold any buffer inventory and the lead time is zero. (3 marks)

(Total for sub-question (d) = 5 marks)

Rationale The question assesses learning outcome E1(g) analyse the impacts of alternative policies for stock management. Part (i) examines candidates’ ability to calculate the economic order quantity (EOQ) for a product. Part (ii) requires candidates to calculate the total inventory holding and ordering costs if the company uses the EOQ. Suggested Approach In part (i) candidates should apply the formula for the EOQ given in the question paper to the figures given in the question in order to calculate the EOQ. In part (ii) candidates should firstly calculate the total number of orders that would be required if the EOQ was used. This can then be multiplied by the ordering costs per order to calculate the total ordering costs. In order to calculate the holding costs the EOQ should be divided by two to calculate the average inventory held. This should then be multiplied by the holding cost per unit to calculate the total holding costs. The total ordering cost and total holding costs can then be added together. Marking Guide

Marks

Part (i) EOQ Part (ii) Number of orders Ordering costs Holding costs Total costs

2 marks ½ mark ½ mark 1 mark 1 mark

Maximum marks awarded 5 marks

Paper P1 – Performance Operations Post Exam Guide March 2014 Exam

The Chartered Institute of Management Accountants 2014 Page 13

Examiner’s comments In part (i) the majority of candidates achieved two marks for calculating the EOQ correctly. Most candidates were then able to calculate the ordering cost correctly but the holding costs caused more difficulty. Common errors

• Calculating holding costs as 600 x $25 • Assuming that holding costs were zero • Using 30,000 units to calculate holding and ordering costs

Paper P1 – Performance Operations Post Exam Guide March 2014 Exam

The Chartered Institute of Management Accountants 2014 Page 14

Question 2(e)

“Environmental costing is an important part of a company’s environmental management system. Management needs to be aware of the extent of environmental costs if these are to be effectively managed”. Required: Explain THREE benefits that may arise for a company that uses an environmental costing system.

(5 marks)

Rationale The question assesses learning outcome A3(a) apply principles of environmental costing in identifying relevant internalised costs and externalised environmental impacts of the organisation’s activities. It examines candidates’ ability to explain the benefits to a company from using an environmental costing system. Suggested Approach Candidates should clearly explain three benefits that may arise for a company that uses an environmental costing system. Marking Guide

Marks

• Increased awareness of the impact of environment related activities on their financial statements

• Cost control / reduction • More accurate product costs / improved decision making • Environmental risk management

1 mark per valid point

Up to 2 marks per benefit

Maximum marks awarded 5 marks Examiner’s comments In answering this question most candidates did not emphasise the management of environmental costs. Instead they tended to discuss the benefits that would arise if a company was environmentally friendly/aware. Most of the answers given were not linked to environmental costing, which was required in the question. Common errors

• Failure to answer the specific question • Giving an answer relating to environmental management rather than to environmental costing

Paper P1 – Performance Operations Post Exam Guide March 2014 Exam

The Chartered Institute of Management Accountants 2014 Page 15

Question 2(f) (f) ST is considering investing in a bill of exchange which has a face value of $1,000 and 91 days to

maturity. The issue price of the bill is based on a discount yield of 6% per annum.

(i) Calculate the issue price of the bill assuming a 365 day year. (3 marks)

(ii) State TWO ways in which an accepted bill of exchange can be used by the holder.

(2 marks)

(Total for sub-question (f) = 5 marks)

Rationale Part (i) of the question assesses learning outcome E2(d) illustrate numerically the financial impact of short-term funding and investment methods. Part (ii) assesses learning outcome E2(b) identify alternatives for investment of short-term cash surpluses. Part (i) examines candidates’ ability to calculate the issue price of a bill of exchange. Part (ii) requires candidates to state two ways in which an accepted bill of exchange can be used by the holder. Suggested Approach In part (i) candidates should calculate the discount on the bill by multiplying the face value by the discount yield for 91 days. The discount on the bill should then be subtracted from the face value to calculate the issue price. In part (ii) candidates should clearly state two ways in which an accepted bill of exchange can be used by the holder. Marking Guide

Marks

Part (i) Discount on the bill Issue price of the bill

2 marks 1 mark 1 mark each

Part (ii) Two ways in which an accepted bill of exchange can be used

Maximum marks awarded 5 marks Examiner’s comments

Many candidates had no idea how to do part (i) of the question with many trying to work out a net present value. In part (ii) candidates often did not provide sufficient detail to obtain full credit e.g. stating only that the bill could be taken to the bank for immediate payment without mentioning that the face value would not be achieved. Common errors

• Calculating the price of the bill as $1,000 x 0.943 = $943 • Adding the discount to $1,000 rather than deducting the discount • Calculating the discount for 365 days rather than 91 days

Paper P1 – Performance Operations Post Exam Guide March 2014 Exam

The Chartered Institute of Management Accountants 2014 Page 16

Please turn over the page for Section C

Paper P1 – Performance Operations Post Exam Guide March 2014 Exam

The Chartered Institute of Management Accountants 2014 Page 17

SECTION C – 50 MARKS ANSWER BOTH THE TWO QUESTIONS

Question 3 Required: (a) Prepare a statement that reconciles the budgeted gross profit with the actual gross profit for

February. Your statement should show the variances in as much detail as possible.

(13 marks) (b) Discuss, using the variances calculated in part (a), the effect on performance of the

decisions taken by the Production Director. (6 marks)

(c) Explain why a standard costing system may not be considered appropriate in a modern

manufacturing environment. (6 marks)

(Total for Question Three = 25 marks) Rationale The question assesses a number of learning outcomes. Part (a) assesses learning outcome A1(d) apply standard costing methods, within costing systems, including the reconciliation of budgeted and actual profit margins. It examines candidates’ ability to calculate appropriate variances to enable the reconciliation of budgeted and actual profit. Part (b) assesses learning outcome A1(f) interpret material, labour, variable overhead, fixed overhead and sales variances, distinguishing between planning and operational variances. It examines candidates’ ability to discuss the reasons the variances may have arisen and the possible interrelationship between the variances. Part (c) assesses learning outcome A1(h) explain the impact of just-in-time manufacturing methods on cost accounting and the use of ‘back-flush accounting’ when work in progress stock is minimal. It examines candidates’ ability to explain the reasons why standard costing may not be considered useful in a modern manufacturing environment. Suggested Approach In part (a) candidates should firstly calculate the budgeted profit and the actual profit for the period. They should then calculate each of the variances for sales, material, labour and production overheads. They should then prepare a reconciliation statement starting with the budgeted profit and then showing each of the individual variances to reconcile the budgeted profit to actual profit. In part (b) candidates should discuss the effect that the Production Director’s decision has had on the company performance as shown by the variances. In part (c) candidates should clearly explain the reasons why standard costing may not be considered useful in a modern manufacturing environment.

Paper P1 – Performance Operations Post Exam Guide March 2014 Exam

The Chartered Institute of Management Accountants 2014 Page 18

Marking Guide

Marks

Part (a) Budgeted profit Sales variances Material variances Labour variances Variable overhead variances Fixed overhead variances Actual profit Format of reconciliation statement Part (b)

1 mark 2 marks 2 marks 2 marks 2 marks 2 marks 1 mark 1 mark Total 13 marks

Discussion of the effect on performance of the decisions taken by the production director

1 mark per valid point Max 6 marks

Part (c) Explanation of why a standard costing system may not be appropriate in a modern manufacturing environment

1 mark per valid point

Max 6 marks Maximum marks awarded 25 marks

Paper P1 – Performance Operations Post Exam Guide March 2014 Exam

The Chartered Institute of Management Accountants 2014 Page 19

Examiner’s comments

Candidate performance in part (a) was particularly disappointing with a typical candidate only calculating the correct budgeted gross profit, sales price variance, material price and usage variances and labour rate and efficiency variances. Part (b) was not attempted by a number of candidates. Many candidates did not know how to answer this type of question. Therefore rather than explaining the reasons for the variances based on the scenario provided, they instead tried to make other suggestions as to what had caused the variances or they stated that a further breakdown of the variances into planning and operational variances was required. Candidates who did better at this question logically looked at the material variances then the labour variances in turn and discussed each variance separately showing how they had been affected by the details given in the scenario. Some candidates discussed material and labour variances but did not discuss the sales price and sales volume variances even though the selling price and sales volume were specifically mentioned in the scenario. Part (c) was not particularly well done by many candidates. The main problem with candidates' answers was that they tended to state that standard costing was outdated without explaining why. Many candidates discussed activity based costing (ABC) and how using ABC would provide more accurate costing information, which did not answer the question. Common errors Part (a)

• Calculating the sales volume profit variance using the budgeted sales price of $300 instead of the budgeted gross profit of $60

• Calculating the material usage and labour efficiency variances based on the sales of 1,200 units rather than on the production of 1,400 units

• Failure to calculate the overhead variances • Calculating the total variable overhead variance of $9,000F as the expenditure variance • Calculating the total fixed overhead variance as the expenditure variance • Calculating the fixed overhead volume variance incorrectly as (6,800 - 7,000) x $3 = $600F • Failure to adjust the actual gross profit figure for the increase in inventory of $48,000 • Poor presentation of the reconciliation statement

Part (b)

• Failure to interpret the variances based on the information given in the scenario • Stating the amount of the variances without linking this to the scenario • Failure to discuss the sales variances

Part (c)

• Failure to address the question • Discussing the benefits of activity based costing

Paper P1 – Performance Operations Post Exam Guide March 2014 Exam

The Chartered Institute of Management Accountants 2014 Page 20

Question 4 Required: (a) Evaluate whether LM should go ahead with the proposal to establish an on-line shopping

service. You should use net present value as the basis of your evaluation. Your workings should be rounded to the nearest $million.

(14 marks)

(b) Explain TWO other factors that LM should consider before deciding whether to go ahead with the contract.

(4 marks)

(c) LM is concerned that replacing the delivery vehicles every five years will result in breakdowns and customer complaints. It is therefore considering whether to replace the vehicles on a one, two or three year cycle. The proposed contract with the online retailer expires after five years however at the end of this period LM will continue to operate the online business. The delivery vehicles will therefore require to be continually replaced.

Each vehicle costs $25,000. The operating costs per vehicle for each year and the resale value at the end of each year are estimated as follows:

Year 1

$ Year 2 $

Year 3 $

Operating costs 6,000 8,000 12,000 Resale value 16,000 10,000 4,000

Required:

Calculate, using the annualised equivalent method, whether the vehicles should be replaced on a one, two or three year cycle. You should assume that the initial investment is incurred at the beginning of year 1 and that all other cash flows arise at the end of the year. Ignore taxation and inflation and use a cost of capital of 12%.

(7 marks)

(Total for Question Four = 25 marks) Rationale Part (a) assesses learning outcomes C1(b) apply the principles of relevant cash flow analysis to long-run projects that continue for several years and C2(a) evaluate project proposals using the techniques of investment appraisal. It examines candidates’ ability to identify the relevant costs of a project and then apply discounted cash flow analysis to calculate the net present value of the project. Part (b) assesses learning outcome C1(g) prepare decision support information for management, integrating financial and non-financial considerations. It examines candidates’ ability to explain other factors that the company would need to consider before deciding whether to go ahead with the project. Part (c) assesses learning outcome C2(c) prioritise projects that are mutually exclusive, involve unequal lives and/or are subject to capital rationing. It examines candidates’ ability to determine the optimum replacement cycle for a company’s non-current assets.

Paper P1 – Performance Operations Post Exam Guide March 2014 Exam

The Chartered Institute of Management Accountants 2014 Page 21

Suggested Approach In part (a) candidates should firstly calculate the gross profit that would be earned in each year from the online shopping service and deduct the lost profit from existing in-store sales. They should then deduct the payments to PQ and the other operating costs and add on the lease income. The tax depreciation and tax payments should then be calculated. The total cost of the investment, the residual value should be added to the net cash flows. The net cash flows after tax should then be discounted at the discount rate of 12% to calculate the net present value (NPV) of the project. In part (b) candidates should clearly explain two other factors that the company would need to consider before deciding whether to go ahead with the project. In part (c) candidates should calculate the NPV of the cash flows under each of the three alternatives. They should then divide the NPV by the appropriate annuity factor to calculate the annualised equivalent cost. The optimum replacement cycle can then be selected as the alternative with the lowest annualised equivalent cost. Marking Guide

Marks

Part (a) Year 1-5 gross profit Lost gross profit on in-store sales Other operating costs Lease income Fees to PQ Tax depreciation Tax payments Initial investment/residual value Discount factors Present value of cash flows Net present value of cash flows Investment decision Part (b) Two other factors that the company would need to consider Part (c) Net present value after 1 year Net present value after 2 years Net present value after 3 years Annualised equivalent cost Decision

2 ½ marks 1 mark 1 mark ½ mark 1 ½ marks 2 marks 2 marks 1 mark ½ mark ½ mark ½ mark 1 mark Total 14 marks Up to 2 marks for each factor 1 mark 1 ½ marks 2 marks 1 ½ marks 1 mark Total 7 marks

Paper P1 – Performance Operations Post Exam Guide March 2014 Exam

The Chartered Institute of Management Accountants 2014 Page 22

Examiner’s comments

Part (a) of this question was reasonably well done. Most candidates are now very familiar with this type of question and make a reasonable attempt at it. However there are many mistakes that are made through either careless reading of the scenario or basic mathematical errors. Candidates seem to be better at dealing with the tax depreciation with fewer candidates treating it as a cash flow however they still struggle to calculate the balancing figure correctly. Some candidates still get confused about how to deal with depreciation. Some candidates deducted it from the fixed costs even though the question specifically stated that the costs were excluding the depreciation. Most candidates are now including a statement as to whether or not the project should go ahead. Many candidates found part (b) difficult as they needed to think of other factors, but unfortunately most candidates could only question the figures provided in part (a). Many candidates struggled with part (c) even though the net present value (NPV) calculations are straightforward, and should provide some easy marks. For some reason candidates seem to struggle to interpret the cash flows and often do not discount correctly. Common errors Part (a)

• Failure to multiply the gross profit by 52 weeks • Making decimal place value errors on the costs • Multiplying the sales revenue by 1.2 instead of by 0.2 • Deducting 20% from the sales revenue i.e. calculating the gross margin as 80% • Applying the 1% fee to PQ to the net gross profit i.e. after the forgone gross profit from in-store

sales • Including the lease income as a cost

• Calculating tax depreciation on the warehouse costs even though the question stated specifically

that these costs would not be eligible for tax depreciation Part (b)

• Failure to address the question Part (c)

• Treating the cost of the vehicle as a Year 1 cash flow rather than a Year 0 cash flow • Using the cumulative discount factors in the net present value calculation • Failure to include the previous years’ operating costs in the net present value calculations • Calculating the annualised equivalent cost by dividing by 1, 2 and 3 respectively