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Paper I General Knowledge & Teaching Aptitude
1. Which Constitutional amendment inserted Right to Education in the category of fundamental rights? A) 86th Amendment B) 93rd Amendment C) 73rd Amendment D) 81st Amendment
2. India is a republic. This means A) India is a democratic state B) India is a parliamentary democracy C) Head of the State is elected D) India is s sovereign state
3. Which of the following body is not a research promotion agency in India? A) Indian Council for Social Science Research B) Council of Scientific and Industrial Research C) Indian Council of Educational Research D) Indian Council of Historical Research
4. How many non-permanent members are there in the Security Council? A) A.5 B) 10 C) 12 D) 15
5. Who among the Travancore Rajas built the palace Kuthira Malika? A) Moolam Thirunal B) Swathi Thirunal C) Chithira Thirunal D) Marthanda Varma
6. Gandhiji’s Salt Satyagraha was symbolically enacted in Kerala at Payyannur. Who was the leader? A) S. Krishna Swamy Iyer B) K. P. Kesava Menon C) K. Kelappan D) K. Damodaran
7. Who is popularly known as Kerala Lincoln? A) C. Kesavan B) Ayyankali C) Dr. Palpu D) Pandit K. P. Karuppan
8. Which of the following is NOT a main committee of UN? A) Economic and Financial Committee B) Social, Humanitarian and Cultural Committee C) Peace Committee D) Legal Committee
9. Where is the United Nations University located? A) New York B) Tokyo C) London D) Vienna
10. Which of the following is the southernmost tip of India? A) Lakshadweep B) Great Nicobar Island C) Andaman Island D) Kanyakumari
11. Who designated Akkamma Cherian as the Jhansi Rani of Kerala? A) Subhash Chandra Bose B) Kumaran Asan C) Mahatma Gandhi D) K. Kelappan
12. Thiranottam is the autobiography of: A) Kalamandalam Gopi B) Kalamandalam Krishnan Nair C) Kalamandalam Hyderali D) Kalamandalam Ramankutty Nair
13. Dry ice on heating produces: A) Liquid CO2 B) Gas CO2 C) Liquid water D. Water vapour
14. At higher altitudes the boiling point of liquids: A) Increases B) Decreases C) Remains the same D) Increases, then decreases
15. The distance between two stations is 240 km. A train takes 6 hours to cover this distance. Approximate speed of the train is: A) 40 meter/second B) 4 meter/second C) 22 meter/second D) 11 meter/second
16. Who is the author of the epic The Iliad? A) Boccaccio B) Chaucer C) Milton D. Homer
In the following sentences, choose the word or phrase nearest in meaning to the underlined word or phrase (Questions from 17 to 21)
17. Work hard or you will come to grief. A) you will meet with disaster B) you will feel happy C) you will mourn D) you will be punished
18. The court order was a shot in the arm for the government. A) blow B) defeat C) shock D) encouragement
19. The images produced before the court corroborated the prosecution claim. A) disapproved B) confirmed C) negated D) ridiculed
20. The new law impinges on the freedom of expression A) collide with B) uphold C) retrieves D) offers
21. To be above board means A) To have a good height B) To be honest in any deal C) To have no debts D) To try to be beautiful
Fill in the blanks (Questions 22—26)
22. I opened the door, went ____ the room and sat down. A) in B) to C) into D) until.
23. The space ship landed —— the moon. A) on B) in C) into D) at
24. The French ...... reputed to have a very good sense of humour. A) is B) was C) are D) will be
25. The patient had died when the doctor —— A) comes B) had come C) came D) has come
26. It’s a nice day, _____ A) aren’t they? B) isn’t it? C) aren’t it? D) none of the above.
27. Numismatics is the study of ——— A) coins B) flags C) numbers D) epigraphs
28. There are three heaps of rice in a godown. Heaps are named as P, Q, R. If P and Q are put together, it is 2 times that of R. If P and R are put together, it is less than 2 times Q. Which of the following is true? A) P is bigger than Q and R B) Q is bigger than P and R C) R is bigger than P and Q D) P = Q = R
29. The next number in the sequence 3, 8, 15, 24, …. is A) 33 B) 35 D) 37 C. 39
30. If 350 added to a number is 250 less than 2000, then how much is to be added to the number to get 2000. A) 300 B) 400 C) 500 D) 600
31. There are three boxes of coloured balls, each containing 20 balls. If Box I and Box II together contain 15 red balls and Box I and Box III together contain 25 red balls, then which of the following statements is a consequence A) Total number of red balls is 40. B) Box I contains at least 5 red balls. C) Box II contains more than 10 red balls. D) Box III contains exactly 10 red balls.
32. Which of the following films won the Kerala State Film Award for 2014? A) Kunhiramayanam B) Ottal C) Bangalore Days D) Iyobinte Pusthakam
33. The primary reason of Fukushima nuclear disaster is: A) Land slide B) Flood C) Earthquake D) None of the above
34. Who is/are the founder (s) of WhatsApp? A) Mark Zuckerberg B) Andrew McCollum C) Jan Koum and Brian Acton D) Larry Page and Sergy Brin
35. The total sets of green house gas emissions caused by an organisation, event, product or individual is generally referred as : A) Carbon trade B) Carbon dating C) Carbon footprint D) Carbon credit
36. In which year did the Supreme Court recognise the transgender as the third gender? A) 2013 B) 2014 C) 2015 D) 2012
37. India’s first mission to moon “Chandrayaan - 1” was launched from: A) Wheeler Island B) Balasore C) Sriharikota D. Nouadhibou
38. x, y, z are three numbers described as follows: x = half of 0.1, y = five times 0.01, z =ten times 0.005 Which of the following is true? A) x = y but y z B) x = z but z y. C) y = z but z x D) x = y = z.
39. Arrange the following numbers in ascending order
713,
611,
59,
37
A) 37,
713,
611,
59
B) 611,
59,
713,
37
C) 713,
611,
59,
37
D) 37,
59,
611,
713
40. Which among the following is a metallic ion seen in the centre of Chlorophyll molecule? A) Calcium B) Magnesium C) Zinc D) Lead
41. The following is a data related to marks obtained by the students in a class for Mathematics. Marks No. of Students Score 10 2 Score 20 8 Score 30 26 Score 40 32| Score 50 35 What is the number of students whose score is more than 20 and less than or equal to 40 A) 22 B) 24 C) 25 D) 32
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Statement (S) and the other labelled as Reason (R): Choose the correct answer from the codes.(Questions 41-44)
42. Statement (S): As per the Human Development Report published by UNDP Sri Lanka is placed at 73rd and India at 135th rank. Reason (R): The educational levels of the people in Sri Lanka, their health status and per capita income are higher than that of India. A) Both (S) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (S). B) Both (S) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (S). C) (S) is true, but (R) is false. D) (S) is false, but (R) is true.
43. Statement (S): India is federal with unitary bias. Reason (R): Parliament has more subjects to legislate compared to the state legislatures. A) Both (S) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (S). B) Both (S) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (S). C) (S) is true, but (R) is false. D) (S) is false, but (R) is true.
44. The Malayali Memorial was: Statement (S) : Submitted to the Travancore Maharaja in 1891. Reason (R): The Ezhavas demanded rights and privileges enjoyed by other upper castes. A) S is true but R is false B) S is false but R is true C) Both S and R are true D) Both S and R are false
45. Statement(S): World Teachers’ Day is celebrated on 5th October. Reason (R): It commemorates Dr. S. Radhakrishnan’s birthday. A) Both (S) and (R) are correct B) (S) is correct but (R) is wrong C) (S) is wrong but (R) is correct D) Both (S) and (R) are wrong
46. Which of the following statements is not true with respect to Indian Institute of Science Education and Research (IISER)? A) IISER is for education and research in basic sciences. B) Trivandrum, Bhopal, Calcutta, Pune and Mohali were the first places where IISER was set up. C) IISER Tirupati became operational in 2015. D) The idea of IISER was mooted by Sir C.V. Raman
47. Vikas introducing a girl to a friend, said, “She is the wife of the grandson of my mother.” How is Vikas related to the girl? A) Mother B) Husband C) Grandfather D) Father -in -law
48. In a certain code HIMACHAL is coded as JKOCEJCN. How is ORISSA coded? A) QTKUVC B) QTKUUC C) QTKUUB D) QTKUPC
49. Find the number of triangles in the given figure. A.8 B.10 C.12 D.14
A) 8 B) 10 C) 12 D) 14
50. Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below: List I List II Articles Fundamental rights 1. Article 14 P. Right to Education 2. Article 21A Q. Right to Equality 3. Article 19 R. Right to life 4. Article 21 S. Right to Freedoms T. Right to Property A) 1-P 2- Q 3-R 4-S B) 1-Q 2-R 3-S 4-P C) 1-R 2-P 3-Q 4-S D) 1-S 2-Q 3-P 4-R
51. List I List II UN Agency Headquarters 1. FAO P. Geneva 2. ILO Q. Vienna 3. IMO R. Paris 4. UNESCO S. Rome T. Montreal U. London A) 1-S, 2-P, 3- U, 4-R B) 1-P, 2-S, 3- U, 4-R C) 1-S, 2-P, 3- R, 4-U D) 1-S, 2-P, 3- U, 4-T
52. List I List II 1.Yachana Yatra P. Mannath Padmanabhan 2.Savarna Jatha Q. A. K. Gopalan 3.Pattini Jatha R. V.T. Bhattathiripad 4.Ezhava Memorial S. Barrister G.P. Pillai A) 1-P 2- Q 3-R 4-S B) 1-Q 2-R 3-S 4-P C) 1-R 2-P 3-Q 4-S D) 1-S 2-Q 3-P 4-R
53. The English East India Company founded their trading posts at different locations of India. Match them with the year of establishment. List I List II 1. Surat P. 1668 2. Madras Q. 1690 3. Bombay R. 1612 4. Calcutta S. 1639 A) 1-P 2- Q 3- R 4- S B) 1-S 2- R 3-Q 4-P C) 1-Q 2- R 3- S 4- P D) 1-R 2-S 3-P 4-Q
54. List I List II 1. Cell Nucleus P. Watson and Crick 2. DNA double helix Q. Karl Benda 3. Chromosomes R. Robert Brown 4. Mitochondria S. Karl Wilhelm A) 1-R 2-P 3-Q 4-S B) 1-S 2-P 3-Q 4-R C) 1-R 2-P 3-S 4-Q D) 1-Q 2-P 3-S 4-R
55. List I List II 1.Oceansat 2 P . Remote Sensing 2.Cartosat 1 Q. Meteorology 3.Kalpana 1 R. Ocean Studies 4.Resourcesat S. Earth observation A) 1-P, 2-Q, S-3, 4-R B) 1-R, 2-S, 3-Q, 4-P C) 1-R, 2-S, 3-Q, 4-P D) 1-Q, 2-S, 3-P, 4-R
56. List I List II Authors Books 1. P. H. Newby P. Something to Answer For 2. V. S. Naipaul Q. The Blind Assassin 3. Graham Swift R. Life of Pi. 4. Margaret Atwood S. In a Free State 5. Yann Martel T. Last Orders A) 1-P, 2- S, 3-T, 4-Q, 5-R B) 1-R, 2-S, 3-Q, 4-P,5-T C) 1-R, 2-S, 3-Q, 4-P, 5-T D) 1-Q, 2-S, 3-P, 4-R,5-T
57. Nature of the image formed by a convex mirror is : 1. Real 2. Inverted 3. Virtual 4. Erect Which of the following is correct? A) 1 and 2 B) 3 and 4 C) 1 and 4 D) 2 and 4
58. Which of the following are noble gases? 1. Hydrogen 2. Helium 3. Argon 4. Nitrogen A) 1 and 2 B) 1 and 3 C) 2 and 3 D) 1 and 4
59. Which among the following statement(s) is/ are correct? 1. All the UN member states are presently WTO members 2. Aim of WTO is to liberalise international trade. 3. WTO discourages export subsidies 4. The WTO replaced the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) A) 1 & 4 B) 2, 3 & 4 C) 1&2 D) 2 only
60. Which of the following countries are members of G4 nations? 1. India 2. Brazil 3. Japan 4. China
A) 1 & 4 only B) 1, 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 only D) All of them
61. Which one is not found in Jain epistemology of five stage hierarchy of knowledge? A) Kaivalya B) Avadhi C) Shruti D) Dhyana
62. Who among the following thinkers said “Education is the laboratory in which philosophical distinctions become concrete and are tested”? A) Max Weber B) John Dewey C) Mahatma Gandhi D) Sri Aurobindo
63. Match the following List I List II (Theory) (Exponent) P. Dielectic Materialism 1) Paulo Freire Q. Pedagogy of pressed 2) Ivan J llich R. Negative Education 3) John Dewey S. De Schooling Scoeity 4) Jean Jaquous Rousseau 5) Karl Max A) 1 3 4 5 B) 4 2 3 1 C) 2 5 3 4 D) 5 1 4 2
64. Read each of the following two sentences- Statement (S) and reasoning (R) and indicate your answer using codes given below: Assertion (A): Vedanta is self knowledge (Atma vidya) Reason (R): Individual acquires self knowledge by practice A) Both Statements (A and R) are false B) Statements A is not true C) Statements R is not true D) Statement (A and R) are true
65. Arrange in order of purusharthas A) Dharma, Artha, Kama, Moksha B) Artha, Kama, Dharma, Moksha C) Kama, Artha, Moksha, Dharma D) Dharma, Kama, Artha, Moksha
66. Read each of the following and choose the correct answer Statement (S): Two year revised B.Ed curriculum will rectify the deficiencies in the present teaching- learning experience of students in the school system Reason (R): conduct problems and substance abuse are prevalent among the school children. (A) Both (S) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of (S) (B) (S) and (R) are correct But (R) is not the correct explanation of (S) (C) (S) is true but (R) is false (D) ( R ) is true but (S) is false
67. Read the following statement about socialization and choose correct answer from the options (A) to (D) socialization is the process by which an individual learns or acquire the skills, values, abilities, etc., and being part of the society. The agencies of socialization are: 1. School, 2. Home, 3. Police, 4. Toys. A) All are true B) Only 4 is true C) Only 1, 2, and 3 are true D) only 1 and 2 are true
68. The process where the culture that is currently established teaches an individual, the accepted norms and values of the culture or societ,y where the individual lives is called _____. A) enculturation B) Socialization C) politicization D) all the above
69. National Council for Educational Research and Training was established on _____. A) 27 July, 1961 B) 1 September, 1961 C) 8 August, 1961 D) 1 November,1961
70. Match the following pillars of education with its meaning List I List II P. Learning to know 1. Teach human diversity Q. Learning to do 2. Fulfil one’s personality R. Learning to live together 3. Develop one’s memory and concentration S. Learning to be 4. Equip one to do the type of work needed in the future 5. Empower women and weaker sections A) P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-1 B) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 C) P-1, Q-5, R-3, S-4 D) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
71. Read each of the following two sentences- Statement (S) and reasoning (R) and indicate your answer using codes given below: Statement (S): Group counseling of adolescents has many advantages over individual counselling. Reason (R): Adolescents are more concerned about confidentiality. A) Both (S) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (S). B) (S) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (S). C) (S) is true, but (R) is false. D) (R) is true, but (S) is false.
72. Arrange the following human needs in accordance with Maslow’s hierarchy in the ascending order– 1. Esteem needs 2. Love-belongingness 3. Physiological needs 4. Safety needs 5. Self-actualization
A) 3-2-1-4-5 B) 3-2-4-1-5 C) 3-4-1-2-5 D) 3-4-2-1-5
73. Which among the following is NOT included in the list of multiple intelligences proposed by Howard Gardner? A) Musical intelligence B) Mechanical intelligence C) Spatial intelligence D) Naturalistic intelligence
74. The sentence “Colorless green ideas sleep furiously” has incorrect …… A) Phonemes B) Syntax C) Semantics D) None of the above
75. Read the following statements about adolescents and choose the correct answer from the options (A) to (D). 1. Adolescents have less amount of creativity when compared to adults. 2. Adolescents have difficulty assessing risk. 3. Adolescents have higher difficulty in managing their emotions when compared to adults. 4. Adolescents seek approval more from peer group than from parents. A) Only 4 is true. B) All statements are true. C) 2, 3, 4 are true; but 1is false. D) 1, 3, and 4 are true; but 2 is false.
76. The first National Policy on Education (NPE) was promulgated by the Government of India in the year ____. A) 1948 B) 1958 C) 1968 D) 1978
77. The National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) P. was founded as an autonomous organization Q. was founded in 1961 R. advises the union government on formulating and implementing education policies S. advises the state governments on formulating and implementing education policies A) P and Q are correct B) Q and R are correct C) P, R and S are correct D) P, Q, R and S are correct
78. Read the following sentences and answer the question Statement (S): India is developing fast. Reason (R): Indian education system contributes to its development. A) Only S is correct B) Only R is correct C) Both S and R are correct D) Both S and R are wrong
79. Arrange the following education institutions of in the order of their year of establishment in the ascending order: 1. University of Calicut -2. Central University of Kerala – 3.Mahatma Gandhi University – 4. University of Kerala A) 4-1-2-1 B) 4-3-2-1 C) 4-3-1-2 D) 4-1-3-2
80. Match List I with II List I List II (Year) P. University of Madras 1. 1835 Q. Maculay’s Minutes 2. 1854 R. Travancore Textbook Committee 3. 1857 S. Charles Woods Despatch 4. 1867 A) 4-3-2-1 B) 3-4-1-2 C) 3-1-4-2 D) 4-2-3-1
81. Choose from the following the means or basis of professional development A) Professional beliefs B) Self confidence C) Introspection D) Alll of these
82. Which among the following statements DO NOT relate to the Teachers’ professionalism a) Commitments to religion and caste b) Commitments to the colleagues c) Commitments to the political parties d) Commitments to profession and students A) a &c B) b&c C) a&d D) b&d
83. Teachers’ professionalism means A) The extent to which a teacher subscribes to a professional code B) A teacher has to teach for the sake of getting salaries C) A teacher must have completed pre-service training before appointment D) Teacher wants to look after her own family only
84. Read the following statements and answer the question (A) Teaching is a profession. (R) All teachers have command over subject. A) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct B) Both (A) & (R) are correct C) Both (A) & (R) are incorrect D) (R) is correct but (A)is not correct
85. You are attending in a PTA meeting where there is lots of criticism by parents about the functioning of the school. How would you handle the situation? A) Adopt a neutral attitude to the proceeding B) Justify the lapses in one or two words in answer to criticisms C) Be a silent spectator D) Give adequate importance to criticism and give them an assurance that the issues/points raised will be corrected.
86. Which among the following are core teaching skills a. Skill of probing questions b. Skill of reinforcement c. Skill of explaining d. Skill of prompting e. Skill of explaining links A) a, b, & d B) a, b , c. C) c , d , e D) b , c , d
87. A teaching model involves …… fundamental elements A) 2 B) 4 C) 3 D) 5
88. Match the items in List I with that in List II List I P) Ausubel 1. Cognitive growth Q) Piaget 2. Group investigation R) Bruner 3. Advance organizer S) Taba 4. Discovery learning 5. Inductive thinking A) 3 – 1 – 4 – 5 B) 5 – 4 – 3 – 2 C) 1 – 2 – 3 – 4 D) 5 – 1 – 3 – 4
89. Classify the following teaching and learning aids, Projected aids and non-projected aids 1)OHP 2)slide projector 3)bar graph 4)diagrams 5)chart 6)LCD projector A) Projected aids – 2, 4, 6 Non projected aids – 1, 3, 5 B) Projected aids – 1, 2, 6 Non projected aids – 3, 4, 5 C) Projected aids – 1, 2, 3 Non projected aids – 4, 5, 6 D) Projected aids – 1, 5, 6 Non projected aids – 2, 3, 4
90. Arrange the following methods on the basis of increasing effectiveness 1) Inductive method, 2) Discussion Method 3) Lecture method 4) Textbook method A) 4-1-2-1 B) 4-3-2-1 C) 4-3-1-2 D) 4-1-3-2
91. Read each of the following two sentences- Statement (S) and reasoning (R) and indicate your answer using codes given below: Statement (S): Learning refers to the modification of behavior as a result of experience. Reason (R): Experience is always achieved through observation. A) Both (S) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (S). B) (S) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (S). C) (S) is true, but (R) is false. D) (R) is true, but (S) is false.
92. Match List-I that contains types of learning with List-II that contains applications of learning theories. Indicate your answer with the help of given codes– List I List II P Operant conditioning 1 Encouraging the student to make intuitive guesses Q Learning through reception 2 Mastery learning R Learning through discovery 3 Learning from a model S Observational learning 4 Expository teaching 5 Scaffolding A) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-5 B) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3 C) P-1, Q-3, R-5, S-2 D) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-5
93. Read the following statements and choose the correct answer from the options (A) to (D). 1. Field dependent people tend to work well in groups. 2. Field independent people are more likely to monitor their own information processing. A) Both 1 and 2 are true. B) 1 is true; but 2 is false. C) 1 is false; but 2 is true. D) Both 1and 2 are false.
94. Sociometry is a method devised by …… A) Bloom B) Bandura C) Maslow D) Moreno
95. Dysgraphia is the learning disability in the area of ……… A) Reading B) Writing C) Talkling D) Calculations
96. Match the following items in List Iwith the items in List II List I List II 1) Measure what is intended P) Reliability 2) Consistent results R) Objectivity 3) Level of difficulty of learners S) Specificity 4) Selection type item T) Validity U) Achievement test V) Diagnostic test A) V-A-S-Q B) T-P-V-R C) P-Q-R-V D) T-S-V-R
97. Arrange the following measures for continuous assessment in the increase in degree of complexity : Assignment – Seminar – Project – Unit test – Collection A) Assignment – Project – Unit test – Collection – Seminar B) Assignment – Collection – Unit test – Seminar – Project C) Assignment – Seminar – Collection – Project – unit test D) Assignment – Collection – seminar – Unit Test - Project
98. Read the following sentences and answer the question Statement (A) All multiple choice items are not belong to selection type Reason (R) Completion type items are supply type A) Only R is correct B) Only A is correct C) Both A and R are correct D) Both A and R are wrong
99. Which of the following is the most appropriate statement about direct grading A) Grades are given to each item on the basis of value points B) No item wise grades are assigned C) Marks are converted to grade D) Grade are summed up to get cumulative grade
100. Diagnostic test is a measure to ascertain A) Level of competence of teacher B) Level of difficulty of subject C) Level of difficulty of learner D) Difficulty of the topic
101. Who has developed FIACS A) Flanders B) Passy C) I K Davis D) Arnold
102. Which of the following is correct order for the components in communication A) Sender, message, channel , receiver B) Sender, channel message receiver C) Sender , message , receiver, channel D) Sender, receiver , message ,channel
103. Which of the following is NOT a personal barrier in communication A) Individual differences B) Limited perception C) Mental faculties D) Lack of facilities
104. Read the following and answer accordingly Assertion: (A) communication is a two way process Reason: (R) effective classroom communication involves interaction and feedback A) (A)is true but (R) is false B) Both (A) and (R) is false C) Both (A) and (R) is true D) (A )is false but (R) is true
105. Which of the following is not associated with communication A) Sender B) Receiver C) Caller D) Message
106. Reusable optical storage will typically have the acronym ______ A) CD B) DVD C) ROM D) RW
107. Consider the following statements: 1. PARAM-8000 is India’s first supercomputer. 2. PARAM-8000 was built by Tata Institute of Fundamental Research (TIFR) Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both 1 and 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2
108. Among the following which are the e-content portals of Government of India? 1. NPTEL 2. ASPIRE 3. GIAN 4. VIRTUAL LABS A) Only 1 and 4 B) Only 3 and 4 C) Only 1, 3 and 4 D) All of the above
109. Which of the following places the common data elements in order from smallest to largest? A) Character, file, record, field, database B) Character, record, field, file, database C) Character, field, record, file, database D) Character, file, field, record, database
110. Match items in List I with List II List I List II P. Konqueror 1. Antivirus Q. Thunderbird 2. Wireless Technology R. WiMax 3. E-mail client S. K7 4. Virus 5. Browser A) P-5, Q-4, R-1, S-2 B) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4 C) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3 D) P-5, Q-3, R-2, S-1
111. One-tailed test of significance is used for ______. 1. testing the substantive hypothesis 2. testing the null hypothesis 3. testing the directional hypothesis 4. testing non directional hypothesis A) 1 and 2 are correct B) Only 2 is correct C) Only 3 is correct D) All four are incorrect
112. Which research paradigm is NOT much concerned about generalizing its findings? A) quantitative research B) qualitative research C) mixed research D) none of the above
113. 3. The following are the steps of scientific research. Choose the correct order from A to D. 1. Research design, 2. Problem statement, 3. Hypothesis, 4.Data collection, 5. Data analysis and interpretation A) 2-3-1-4-5 B) 1-4-2-3-5 C) 3-1-2-4-5 D) 4-1-3-2-5
114. 4. Which one of the following is primarily aimed at theory building? A) Survey research B) Fundamental research C) Action research D) Applied research
115. Out of the following research problems, identify which is (are) applicable for action research. 1. Language communication difficulty in some students who are academically bright 2. Impact of Tzunami on students from the coastal area 3. Regular absenteeism of a student in a particular class 4. Effect of environmental pollution on students A) 1 and 3 B) only 1 C) 2 and 4 D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
116. Planning Commission is located at A) National Level B) State level C) District Level D) International level
117. The administrative head of the department of General Education Kerala A) Minister of Education B) Director of Public Instruction C) Director of Higher secondary Education D) Director of General Education
118. School parliament aims to provide P) Political experience to students Q) Experience in the process of election R) Experience in democratic administration S) Representatives to student council A) P& S are correct B) P&Q are correct C) R & S are correct D) Q & R are correct
119. Read the following sentences and answer the question The ascending order of the implementation of the following programmes: 1-RUSA , 2-DPEP, 3-RMSA , 4- SSA A) 1 – 2 – 3 – 4 B) 4 – 3 – 2 – 1 C) 2 – 4 – 3 – 1 D) 4 – 2 – 3 – 1
120. Match the items in A with those in B List I List II P) Free and Compulsory Education 1) E-governance Q) Millennium Development Goals 2) NCTE R) National Curriculum Framework 3) RMSA S) Digital Document File system 4) UN 5) NCERT 6) RTE A) 6 – 4 – 5 – 1 B) 6 – 1 – 5 – 4 C) 6 – 2 – 1 – 3 D) 6 – 3 – 4 – 5