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UT Level II General and Specific Exam

This test has 70 points in 70 items

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ACCP Level II Certification UT General & Specific Exam page 1

1. Ultrasonic velocity is dependent on the:

A) density and elasticity of the test material.B) specific gravity of the test material.C) energy of the ultrasonic wave.D) acoustic attenuation of the test material.

2. A straight-beam search unit 1/2-inch diameter, 2.25 MH has a half-angle beam spread of a _________in mildsteel.

A) 0.24B) 14.4C) 16.6D) 28.8

3. The length of the near-field of a 2.25 MH shear-wave search unit, 1/2-inch diameter in aluminum is:

A) 0.56 inches.B) 1.17 inches.C) 2.34 inches.D) 3.68 inches.

4. A 14-inch diameter cylinder with a 12-inch inside diameter is to be examined using circumferential scans witha 45 shear wave. What is the beam angle at the inside surface?

A) 45B) 59C) 63D) 72

5. In which zone of the sound beam does the signal amplitude from the same size reflector vary exponentiallyas the distance from the search unit varies?

A) near field zone.B) far field zone.C) Hertzian zone.D) Fresnel zone.

6. What incident angle in a plastic (Lucite) shoe will generate a 53 ( shear wave in an aluminum forging?(Aluminum: VL=2.5x105 in/s; Vs=1.2x105 in/s; Lucite: VL=1.1x105 in/s; Vs=0.43x105 in/s)

A) 8 degreesB) 17 degreesC) 47 degreesD) 61 degrees

7. In angle beam testing a 1-inch thick plate, the sound path to the bottom of the plate is 3 inches. What searchunit angle is being used?

A) 19.5 degreesB) 33.3 degreesC) 66.7 degreesD) 70.5 degrees

Copyright ASNT 2001 Examination ID: 11



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8. The attenuation of sound within a part is effected by which of the following:

A) grain size.B) grain size and part temperature.C) grain size, part temperature and inclusion content.D) grain size, part temperature, inclusion content and density.

9. The angle at which 90-degree refraction of the shear wave mode occurs is called the:

A) angle of reflection.B) first critical angle.C) second critical angle.D) third critical angle.

10. The wave length of ultrasound is a measure of:

A) the number of cycles the sound passes through per second.B) how far the sound wave travels in one complete cycle.C) the time required for one wave of the sound to pass a given point.D) the peak-to-valley height of the sound wave.

11. The resolution of an ultrasonic pulse-echo is affected by which of the following?

A) Probe dampingB) Pulse energyC) Probe diameter D) Receiver band width

12. The angular position of the reflecting surface of a discontinuity with respect to the entry surface is referred toas:

A) the angle of incidence.B) the angle of refraction.

C) the orientation of the discontinuity.D) none of the above.

13. It is usually difficult to ultrasonic test austenitic stainless steel with high sensitivity techniques because of its:

A) fine grain structure.B) coarse grain structure.C) spheroidized graphite particles.D) flake-like graphite particles.

14. The change in direction of an ultrasonic beam when it passes from one material to another material whoseelasticity and density differ from those of the first material is called:

A) refractionB) rarefactionC) angulationD) reflection




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15. The ability of an ultrasonic test system to detect given size discontinuities at given distances is referred to as:

A) the Fraunhofer response.B) sensitivity.C) resolution.D) penetration.

16. What accounts for the loss of sensitivity with distance in the far field of a transducer?

A) Fresnel effects.B) Fraunhofer effects.C) The Heisenburg Effect.D) The Critical Distance Effect.

17. If an ultrasonic wave is transmitted through an interface of two materials in which the first material has ahigher acoustic impedance value but the same velocity value as the second material, the angle of refractionwill be:

A) greater than the angle of incidence.B) less than the angle of incidence.C) the same as the angle of incidence.D) beyond the critical angle.

18. When a sound beam encounters a discontinuity, the resulting material/wave interaction produces a signalthat:

A) often provides information about the type of reflector.B) provides no information about the type of reflector.C) cannot be distinguished from geometric reflectors.D) is independent of the type of reflector.

19. When the major axis of a reflector is not oriented perpendicular to the axis of the impinging sound beam, thereflection from it may be:

A) completely absorbed by the surrounding material.B) significantly increased in amplitude.C) amplified by the factor "one plus the sine of the angle between the discontinuity and the incident beam".D) undetectable.

20. Which of the following discontinuities located 6" (15.2 cm) from the ultrasonic beam-entry surface wouldresult in the largest indication amplitude if all factors except discontinuity surface condition and orientation arethe same?

A) A smooth-surfaced discontinuity whose major face is at an angle of 75 degrees to the direction of soundbeam propagation.

B) A rough-surfaced discontinuity whose major face is at an angle of 75 degrees to the direction of soundbeam propagation.

C) A smooth-surfaced discontinuity whose major face is perpendicular to the direction of sound beampropagation.

D) A rough-surfaced discontinuity whose major face is parallel to the direction of sound beam propagation.




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21. The amount of energy reflected from a discontinuity will be dependent on:

A) the size of the discontinuity.B) the orientation of the discontinuity.C) the type of discontinuity.D) all of the above.

22. The maximum possible UT reflection will occur from a given discontinuity when the thickness of thediscontinuity is equal to:

A) one wavelength of the ultrasound.B) two wavelengths.C) one-quarter wavelength.D) one-half wavelength.

23. Ultrasonic waves can be distorted by the anisotropic, coarse-grained microstructure that may occur in metalssuch as austenitic stainless steels, titantim and Ni-Cr-Fe alloys. When testing such materials, this problemcan be reduced by:

A) increasing test frequency.

B) decreasing test frequency.C) adjusting instrument gain settings.D) using a more viscous couplant.

24. When a discontinuity is detected, signal amplitude may be improved by:

A) decreasing the intensity of the incident ultrasonic beam.B) decreasing the mismatch between the acoustic impedance of the receiving crystal and the material

being inspected.C) decreasing the effective surface area of the receiver.D) decreasing the electronic amplification of the output of the receiver crystal.

25. Detection of discontinuities is based on differences between the properties of discontinuities and the

properties of the test material. Which of the following properties is the most important for detection of discontinuities?

A) Density.B) Diffractivity.C) Velocity.D) Impedance.

26. In general, which of the following modes of propagation would have the greatest penetrating power in acoarse-grained material if the frequency of the waves is the same?

A) LongitudinalB) Shear C) Transverse

D) All of the above wave modes would have the same penetrating power.

27. Reference standards containing multiple reflectors in very close proximity to each other are designed tocheck the:

A) sensitivity of the ultrasonic system.B) resolution of the ultrasonic system.C) Y - point of the ultrasonic transducer.D) standardization of the ultrasonic system.




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28. An ultrasonic system is considered to have better resolution when the A-scan display from two adjacentindications is seen as:

A) one broad-based, high-amplitude signal.B) a broad-based signal with two distinct peaks.C) a drop in signal amplitude.

D) two distinct, separate signals on the baseline.

29. Many UT procedures allow the technician a selection of search unit frequencies. Why is this done?

A) It allows the technician some flexibility in choosing the best approach depending on product form andapplication.

B) Any frequency within the range specified will work just as well as any other and this flexibility allowstesting to go on even if a particular transducer is not available.

C) It allows flexibility in adjusting the sensitivity to suit the employer's cost considerations.D) It reduces the time needed to develop procedures and allows use of generic procedures.

30. What kind of frequency spectrum and resolution do highly damped search units exhibit in the near field?

A) A broad spectrum and good resolution.

B) A narrow spectrum and good resolution.C) A broad frequency spectrum and poor resolution.D) A narrow spectrum and poor resolution.

31. If a reflector at 12.3" (31.2 cm) sound path produces an indication at 6.6 screen divisions, what sound pathdistance would be represented by an indication at 10 screen divisions? Note: Assume a linear calibration.

A) 6.6" (16.8 cm)B) 8.1 (20.3 cm)C) 18.6" (47.3 cm)D) Cannot be determined from the given information.

32. At what screen division would an indication from a 3.5" (8.9 cm) angle-beam sound path occur if the display

was calibrated to a 20" (50.8 cm) full screen display? Note: Assume a linear calibration.

A) 3.5 divisionsB) 1.75 divisionsC) 7.0 divisionsD) cannot be determined

33. During a test using A-scan equipment, strong vertical indications appear moving at varying rates horizontallyacross the screen. It is impossible to repeat a particular screen pattern by scanning the same area. Themost probable cause of these indications is:

A) porosity in the test part.B) an irregularity shaped crack.C) a blow hole.

D) electrical interference.

34. A signal that remains at constant amplitude and baseline position throughout the length and width of the testobject is most likely which of the following?

A) an indication of equipment malfunction.B) an indication that batteries need to be charged.C) An irregular shaped longitudinal crack..D) an indication of a large, intermittent discontinuity.




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35. After calibrating for sensitivity against a reference standard with a precise 0.060 inch flat bottom hole, areflector in the test material is found at a greater metal path distance than that used for calibration. Thereflector in the test material has a signal amplitude equivalent to the 0.060-inch FBH. The area of the reflector producing this indication is most likely:

A) equal to the area of the FBH.

B) less than the area of the FBH.C) greater than the area of the FBH.D) unknown because the reflector is beyond calibration distance.

36. In the accompanying figure, indications "A" and "B" were observed during a straight beam axial scan of aforged shaft. As compared to the reflector causing indication "B", the size of the reflector causing indication"A" is:

A) smaller because it's indication is earlier in time.B) smaller because it's indication is later in time.C) larger because it's indication is earlier in time.D) larger because it's indication is later in time.

37. In order to standardize reflected signals at various depths in the test material it is necessary to use:

A) a variety of transducer angles.B) at least two transducer frequencies.C) distance-amplitude correction.D) reject control to minimize "grass".

38. During straight beam contact testing calibration, a 0.2" (5.1 mm) diameter flat-bottomed hole (FBH) appearedat 3.2 screen divisions with an amplitude of 40% full screen height (FSH). The accompanying figure showsan indication from another FBH that is probably:

A) a larger diameter than the 0.2" FBH.B) a smaller diameter than the 0.2" FBH.C) another 0.2" diameter FBH.

D) nothing. Without knowing the full screen range, this display can not be interpreted.

39. The amplifier range over which the unsaturated signal response increases in amplitude in proportion to thesurface area of the discontinuity is the:

A) horizontal range.B) vertical linearity range.C) selectivity range.D) resolution range.

40. An ultrasonic test on an aluminum casting has detected a reflector near a surface imperfection. Which of thefollowing NDT methods would be best to determine whether or not this reflector is surface connected?

A) Acoustic emission testing.

B) Liquid penetrant testing.C) Magnetic particle testing.D) Leak testing.




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41. In a basic pulse-echo ultrasonic instrument, the componet that co-ordinates the acitons and timing of other components is called a:

A) display unit or CRT.B) receiver.C) marker circuit or range marker circuit.

D) synchronizer, clock or timer.

42. A UT display where the horizontal sweep is proportional to the distance along the surface of the test object,and the vertical sweep is proportional to the depth from the test surface, as shown on a two dimensionalcross section of the test piece, is known as an:

A) A-scan.B) B-scan.C) C-scan.D) A/B-scan.

43. During angle beam testing with a properly calibrated A-scan pulse-echo instrument, the point at which asignal is positioned along the baseline of the CRT may reveal what information?

A) depth of an indication below the test surface.B) distance along the test surface ahead of the transducer to a point directly above the reflector.C) sound path distance from transducer to reflector.D) thickness of the test material.

44. The cathode rate tube screen will display a plan view of the part outline and defects when using which of thefollowing:

A) automatic read-out equipment.B) a C-scan presentation.C) a B-scan presentation.D) an A-scan presentation.

45. In immersion testing compressional waves are used to transmit sound to the test object because:

A) compressional waves travel faster and will therefore increase the distance of the interface signal fromthe main bang thus allowing more of the A-scan trace to be utilized for evaluating the object.

B) for all practical purposes, water will not sustain shear waves.C) shear waves cannot be used to test materials with this technique.D) it is not practical to generate a shear wave in water with the commonly utilized transducer for immersion

examination.

46. The through-wall position of laminations is difficult, if not impossible, to measure when which of the followingtechniques are used? This is NOT a UT question, see substitute question 49a.

A) Pulse echoB) Through transmission.

C) ContactD) Immersion




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47. ASTM area and distance-amplitude blocks consist of solid cylinders containing reflectors of various sizes andat various depths below the test surfaces. What type of reflectors are used in these blocks?

A) Side drilled holes.B) Flat bottom holesC) EDM notches

D) IGSCC reflectors

48. Horizontal nonlineartiy in an ultasonic test instrument will cause errors in which of the following:

A) Angle beam calibration (IIW Block)B) Flaw location determinationC) Flaw amplitude determinationsD) All of the above

49. Which of the following standard reference blocks can be used to determine straight-beam search unitresolution?

A) Step wedge.B) Distance-amplitude block.C) AWS DSC block.D) IIW block.

50. Which of the following is correct concerning area-amplitude reference blocks?

A) The sound path distance to the flat-bottomed holes varies.B) The length of the round-bottomed holes varies.C) The diameter of the flat-bottomed holes varies.D) The area of the notches varies because the depth of the notches varies.

51. Angle beam distance calibrations are most commonly made with which of the following reflectors:

A) side-drilled holes.

B) far-side notches.C) near-side notches.D) all the above.

52. What is the purpose of the 0.06" (1.5 mm) side drilled hole in an IIW-type reference block?

A) To determine angles of refraction between 60 and 75 degrees for contact angle beam search units.B) To set the UT system sensitivity for contact straight beam testing.C) To determine UT system sensitivity for contact angle beam testing.D) To determine angles of refraction between 75 and 80 degrees for contact angle beam search units.

53. Resonance ultrasonic thickness standards are applicable when the thickness is a multiple of the :

A) wavelength.B) half wavelength.C) quarter wavelength.D) square of the wavelength.




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54. Which if the following, examination techniques is best for detection of non-metallic inclusions from the ingotthat occur in stock?

A) Straight-beam exam from one end of the bar stock.B) Through transmission exam from both ends of the bar stock.C) Angle-beam circumferential exam in one direction.

D) Angle-beam circumferential exam in two directions.

55. Based on typical ultrasonic responses, what type of discontinuity is illustrated in the following straight beamexamination of flat plate?

A) A crack in a weld.B) A slag inclusion in a weld.C) A lamination.D) A forging lap.

56. Which of the following angle-beam scans is necessary to provide thorough examination of pipes and tubes?

A) Circumferential immersion scans, in one direction.B) Axial contact scans, in two directions.C) Circumferential and axial scans, each in two directions.D) Circumferential and axial scans, each in one direction.

57. Pipe and tube are typically tested by the shear wave technique with the beam propagated circumferentiallyand axially:

A) from the inside of the pipe or tube.B) from the first six-inches at each end of the pipe or tube.C) in two opposite directions axially and circumferentially.D) in one direction axially and one direction circumferentially.

58. Ultrasonic testing of piping and vessels which contain corrosive materials moving at high velocity may revealwhich of the following service-induced discontinuities:

A) Lack of FusionB) Erosion.C) Thermal Fatigue.D) Lack of Penetration.

59. After testing a 3" (76.2 mm) thick casting at 5 MHz, it was retested at 1 MHz. Which of the following is mostlikely the reason that this additional test was performed?

A) higher frequency would improve detectability.B) higher frequency would decrease sensitivity.C) lower frequency would improve resolution.D) lower frequency would improve penetration.

60. In an effort to penetrate to the back wall of a casting, a test operator decreases the test frequency and utilizesa larger diameter transducer. How does this affect the test system resolution?

A) It does not affect the resolution.B) It increases the resolution.C) It decreases the resolution.D) The larger diameter decreases the resolution but the frequency has no affect.




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61. A 1.5-inch thick single-vee grove weld is to be examined using a 60 search unit. What is the length of the fullship distance?

A) 1.15 inchesB) 2.59 inchesC) 3.64 inches

D) 5.19 inches

62. During angle beam contact testing of a circumferential single-vee grove pipe weld an indication from the IDappears at or near the root. The indication amplitude remains relatively constant as the search unit is movedaround the circumference. Which of the following best describes the reflector?

A) counterbore.B) undercut.C) porosity.D) tungsten inclusions.

63. A type of welding-related discontinuity that may produce multiple UT indications in close proximity to eachother is:

A) hydrogen flakes.B) unfused chaplets.C) bursts.D) porosity.

64. In testing welds, straight beam examinations are normally performed prior to angle beam examination inorder to:

A) ensure the integrity of the base material that the angle beam must pass through.B) determine the geometry of the back face of the base material.C) calibrate the system based on actual material thickness.D) detect the presence of underbead cracking.

65. During angle beam testing of a pipe-to-pipe weld that has been in service a number of years, a sharp, narrowand distinct indication is observed This is most likely from:

A) a crack.B) an inclusion.C) a lap.D) erosion

66. During an angle beam examination of a pipe weld, a signal appears on the display but does not "walk" (movehorizontally across the screen when the probe is moved perpendicular to the weld). Using a second anglebeam scan from the opposite side of the weld, the indication appears at the same location on the screen.This indication is:

A) a service-related indication.

B) a result of porosity.C) a nonrelevant indication.D) an indication resulting from a Lamb wave.




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67. A high amplitude signal response that plots near the center from the inside diameter (ID) of a single-veegrooved circumferential pipe weld would most likely be which of the following:

A) slagB) lack of penetrationC) lamellar tearing

D) porosity

68. During contact angle-beam examination of a very thick to thin tee-joint full-penetration weld, an indication isdetected in the base metal. Which one of the following best describes the reflection?

A) Lamellar tearsB) Longitudinal cracksC) PorosityD) Lack of fusion

69. The ASTM practice for ultrasonic testing of welds is limited to:

A) wrought ferrous alloys.B) contact testing.C) butt, fillet and spot welds.D) angle beam testing.

70. In testing of modern adhesively bonded joints, the most important quality to be determined is:

A) how much porosity there is in the adhesive portion of the joint.B) how much adhesive there is in the joint.C) how much adhesion there is in the joint.D) how many voids there are in the adhesively bonded joint.




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Answer Key

C:\MARK\New Exams\NewUT.xam "UT Gen & Spec" Exam ID: 11C:\MARK\New Exams\NewUT\B0000000.TKY

The answer key lists the item number, then the correct answer. For multiple-choice items, this is followed by thepoints required for mastery, and, if there is more than one correct response, a list of points for each alternative.Other item types show the answer. The Total Points is the number of possible points in the test. The Number ofpoints required for mastery is the points required to pass the exam.

Number Answer

Total points = 0Number of points required for mastery = 0




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Answer Key for UT General

Number Answer

1: A

2: B

3: B

4: B

5: B

6: C

7: D

8: D

9: C

10: B

11: A

12: C

13: B

14: A

15: B

16: B

17: C

18: A

19: D

20: C

21: D

22: C

23: B

24: B

25: D

26: A




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Answer Key for UT General

Number Answer

27: B

28: D

29: A

30: B

31: C

32: B

33: D

34: A

35: C

36: A

37: C

38: A

39: B

40: B





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Answer Key for UT Specifi

Number Answer

41: D

42: B

43: C

44: B

45: B

46: B

47: B

48: D

49: D

50: C

51: D

52: C

53: B

54: D

55: C

56: C

57: C

58: B

59: D

60: C

61: D

62: A

63: D

64: A

65: A

66: C




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Answer Key for UT Specifi

Number Answer

67: B

68: A

69: B

70: D



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