NEETS FLASHING.pptx

RULES:1. Silent reading only.2. No talking to anyone.3. No cellphones or any electronic gadgets

allowed inside.4. No going out of the room while the coaching is in progress.5. Eating is allowed and sharing is strongly

recommended.

Violating the rules will be a ground from your suspension in this program.

CIRCUIT PROTECTION

1-1. Circuit measurement is used for which of the following purposes?

a) To find the weight of a circuitb) To increase the power used in a circuitc) To discover the length and width of a circuitd) To determine the reason a circuit is not functioning properly

1-2. An in-circuit meter is used for which of the following purposes?

a) To reduce circuit lossesb) To monitor circuit operationc) To control power to a circuitd) To prevent circuit overload conditions

1-3. Out-of-circuit meters have which of the following advantages over in circuit meters?

a) They can be used on more than one deviceb) They are lighter weightc) They are more ruggedd) All of the above

1-4. When S1 is closed, the compass needle will align itself in which of the following manners?

a) With magnetic northb) With geographic northc) Parallel to the conductord) With the magnetic field around the wire

1-5. If the current through the conductor is decreased, what happens to the magnetic field around the conductor?

a) It reversesb) It decreasesc) It increasesd) It oscillates

1-6. When the current through the conductor decreases, the compass needle will react in which of the following manners?

a) Point more to magnetic northb) Move farther away from magnetic northc) Swing back and forth from east to westd) Vibrate rapidly back and forth around

magnetic north

1-7. The d'Arsonval meter movement is based on which of the following principles?

a) Moving vaneb) Electrostaticc) Electrodynamicd) Permanent-magnet moving-coil

1-8. Current through a meter results in the pointer. In d'Arsonval meter movement, what force produces this deflection?

a) Thermocouple actionb) Electrostatic repulsionc) Mechanical spring tensiond) The interaction of magnetic fields

1-9. The hairsprings in a d'Arsonval meter movement perform which of the following functions?

a) They keep the pointer in the position of the last indication when current is removedb) They aid the movement of the pointer when there is current through the meterc) They make electrical connections to the meter movementd) All of the above

1-10. If the frequency of the ac source is 5 Hz, how will the compass needle react when S1 is closed?

a) It will swing back and forthb) It will point directly at the wirec) It will point directly away from the wired) It will vibrate rapidly around magnetic north

1-11. If the frequency of the ac source is 200 Hz, how will the compass needle react when S1 is closed?

a) It will swing back and forthb) It will point directly at the wirec) It will point directly away from the wired) It will vibrate rapidly around magnetic north

1-12. What device allows a d'Arsonval meter movement to measure ac by converting ac to pulsating dc?*

a) A pulsatorb) A modulatorc) A rectifierd) A converter

1-13. What is meant by the term "meter damping"?

a) Moistening the felt padsb) Smoothing the oscillations of the pointerc) Preventing excessive current through the coild) Compensating for electromagnetic induced interference

1-14. Which of the following methods is used to dampen a meter?

a) Mount the meter in a mu-metal caseb) Install a fuse in one of the input leadsc) Incorporate an air tight chamber containing a vaned) Provide a fluid reservoir and sponge

arrangement next to the pads

1-15. A d'Arsonval meter movement reacts to which of the following values of voltage?

a) Peakb) Averagec) Effectived) Peak-to-peak

1-16. What value of ac is indicated by a meter scale?

a) Peakb) Averagec) Effectived) Peak-to-peak

1-17. Which of the following meter movements will measure either ac or dc without the use of a rectifier?

a) GMSb) d'Arsonvalc) Electrostaticd) Electrodynamic

1-18. What electrical property is reacted to by the electrodynamic, d'Arsonval, moving vane, and thermocouple meter movements?

a) Powerb) Currentc) Voltaged) Resistance

1-19. What electrical property is measured by an ammeter?


1-20. How are ammeters connected in an electrical circuit?

a) In series with the loadb) In parallel with the loadc) In accordance with Lenz's Lawd) In series-parallel with the load

1-21. How does an ammeter affect the circuit being measured?*

a) It acts as a resistances in series and lowers the circuit currentb) It acts as a resistance in series and raises the circuit currentc) It acts as a resistance in parallel and lowers the circuit currentd) It acts as a resistance in parallel and raises the circuit current

1-22. How is the effect that an ammeter produces in a circuit kept to a minimum?

a) By using a large resistor in series with the ammeterb) By using a large capacitor in parallel with the

ammeterc) By ensuring that the meter resistance is low

compared to circuit resistanced) By ensuring that the meter resistance is high

compared to circuit resistance

1-23. The ammeter with the greatest sensitivity has which of the following characteristics?

a) The lowest amount of current for full scale deflection indicationb) The highest amount of current for full scale deflection indicationc) A low ratio of internal resistance to full-scale

deflection indicationd) A high ratio of internal resistance to full-scale

deflection indication

1-24. Ammeters measure various ranges through the addition of which of the following components?

a) Shunt resistors in series with the meter movementb) Shunt resistors in parallel with the meter movementc) Capacitors in series with the meter movementd) Capacitors in parallel with the meter movement

1-25. What range of an ammeter should you use for an initial measurement?

a) The lowest rangeb) The highest rangec) The mid-scale ranged) nothing

1-26. What portion of the ammeter scale should be used to take a final reading?

a) The upper halfb) The lower halfc) The mid-scale portiond) Anywhere on the meter face

1-27. When, if ever, can you use a dc ammeter to measure ac values?

a) When the ac is high frequencyb) For low valuesc) Alwaysd) Never

1-28. Which of the following safety precautions should be observed prior to connecting an ammeter into a circuit?

a) Switch to the highest rangeb) Observe proper dc polarityc) Deenergize the circuitd) All of the above

1-29. What electrical property is measured by a voltmeter?


1-30. A voltmeter should be connected in an electrical circuit in what manner?

a) In series with the loadb) In parallel with the loadc) In accordance with Lenz's Lawd) In series-parallel with the load

1-31. A voltmeter has an effect on the circuit being measured; what is this effect called?

a) Loadingb) Dampingc) Rectificationd) Eddy-current drag

1-32. To keep the effect of a voltmeter on a circuit to a minimum, the internal resistance of the voltmeter must have which of the following relationships to the circuit load?

a) Equal tob) Lower thanc) Higher thand) In proportion to

1-33. Which of the following types of meters can be made from a current sensitive meter movement?

a) Ammeterb) Ohmmeterc) Voltmeterd) Each of the above

1-34. A voltmeter has a high sensitivity when it has which of the following characteristics?

a) Low deflection indicationb) High deflection indicationc) Low ratio of internal resistance to full-scale deflection indicationd) High ratio of internal resistance to full-scale deflection indication

1-35. Which of the following configurations extends the range of a voltmeter?

a) A resistor in series with the meter movementb) A resistor in parallel with the meter movementc) A capacitor in series with the meter movementd) A capacitor in parallel with the meter movement

1-36. What voltmeter range should be used for initial measurements?

a) The lowestb) The highestc) The mid-scale

1-37. The electrostatic meter movement reacts to which of the following electrical properties?


1-38. Electrostatic meter movements are used to measure which of the following current/voltage values?

a) Low voltageb) Low currentc) High voltaged) High current

1-39. Which of the following safety precautions should be observed when a voltmeter is used?

a) Deenergize the circuit before connecting the meterb) Start with the lowest range of the meterc) Connect the meter in series with the circuitd) All of the above

1-40. What electrical property is measured with an ohmmeter?


1-41. An ohmmeter is used to check for which of the following conditions?

a) Continuityb) Overheatingc) Overcurrentd) Undercurrent

1-42. How should an ohmmeter be connected in an electrical circuit?

a) In series with the loadb) In parallel with the loadc) In parallel with the sourced) In series-parallel with the load

1-43. An ohmmeter can measure different ranges because of the use of which of the following components?

a) Range coilsb) Range resistorsc) Range capacitorsd) Range potentiometers

1-44. What area of an ohmmeter scale should be used when a measurement is taken?

a) Upper halfb) Lower halfc) Mid-scale portiond) Anywhere on the meter face

1-45. Ohmmeter are classified by type. What are the two types of ohmmeters?

a) Series and shuntb) Normal and reversec) Full- and half-scale

1-46. What is the most obvious differences in the two types of ohmmeters?

a) The ranges of the metersb) The scales of the metersc) The power sources of the metersd) The size of the test leads of the meters

1-47. Which of the following safety precautions should be observed when an ohmmeter is used?

a. Always start with the highest scale of the meter

b. Deenergize the circuit before connecting the meterc. Observe proper polarityd. All of the above

1-48. Meggers (megohmmeters) are used to measure which of the following quantities?

a. Low voltageb. High voltagec. Low resistanced. High resistance

1-49. When a megger is used to check the insulation of a wire, which of the following indications should be considered normal?

a. infinityb. 0c. 500 Vd. 1000 V

1-50. Which of the following safety precautions should be observed when a megger is used?

a. Do not use a dc megger to measure circuits that are powered by acb. Always start with the highest scale selection of the meterc. Do not touch the meter leads when a measurement is being takend. All of the above

1-51. A multimeter can be used to measure which of the following electrical properties?

a. Voltageb. Currentc. Resistanced. Each of the above

1-52. The function switch on a multimeter does NOT perform which of the following functions?

a. Selection of the meter rangeb. Determination of the proper scalec. Selection of ac or dc capabilityd. Changing of the multimeter from an

ammeter to a voltmeter

1-53. One of the problems encountered in building a multimeter is that the meter movement gives different readings for the same values of ac and dc. Which of the following features of a multimeter will solve this problem?

a. A rectifierb. An ac/dc switchc. Separate scales for ac and dcd. A mirror on the face of the meter

1-54. Why is there a mirror on the face of a multimeter?

a. To illuminate the meter faceb. To aid in reducing parallax errorc. To reduce the friction between the pointer and the meter faced. To compensate for the difference in ac and dc measurements

1-55. If the mirror on the face of a multimeter is used properly, where will the image of the pointer appear?

a. Hidden behind the pointerb. Barely visible on either side of the pointerc. Clearly visible to the left of the pointerd. Clearly visible to the right of the pointer

1-56. Which of the following safety precautions does NOT apply to a multimeter?

a. Observe proper dc polarity when measuring dcb. Deenergize the circuit before connecting the meterc. Be sure the meter is switched to ac for ac measurementsd. Never apply power to the circuit when measuring voltage with the meter

1-57. If a multimeter has no OFF position, and it is returned to storage, on which of the following positions should the meter be set?

a. +dc; highest voltage rangeb. -dc; higher resistance rangec. Ac; highest voltage ranged. Ac; highest current range

1-58. When the current in a conductor is measured without the conductor being disconnected, which of the following meters could be used?

a. Multimeterb. Hook-on voltameterc. Induction wattmeterd. Transformer voltmeter

1-59. Which of the following electrical quantities is measured by a wattmeter?

a. Powerb. Energyc. Voltaged. Current

1-60. Which of the following electrical quantities is measured by a watt hour meter?

a. Powerb. Energyc. Voltaged. Current

2-1. Circuit protection devices are used for which of the following purposes?

a. To protect peopleb. To protect circuitsc. To guard against hazardous conditionsd. All of the above

2-2. Which of the following conditions does NOT require the use of a circuit protection device?

a. Direct shortb. High resistancec. Excessive currentd. Abnormal heating

2-3. When a point in a circuit, where full system voltage is present, comes in direct contact with the ground or return side of the circuit, which of the following terms applies?


2-4. When circuit current increases beyond the designed current carrying capability of the circuit, which of the following terms applies?


2-5. If the bearings of a generator were to fail, which of the following circuit conditions would probably occur?


2-6. How are circuit protection devices connected to the circuit they are protecting?

a. Alongsideb. In seriesc. In paralleld. In series-parallel

2-7. Which of the following two are circuit protection devices?

a. Electrical plugs and CO2 cartridgesb. CO2 cartridges and circuit breakersc. Fuses and circuit breakersd. Fuses and electrical plugs

2-14. Which of the following factors is NOT used to rate fuses?

a. Sizeb. Currentc. Voltaged. Time delay

2-15. A fuse current rating has which of the following definitions?

a. The maximum current that can flow through a circuit without causing the circuit to overheatb. The maximum current that will flow through a

circuit if there is a direct shortc. The maximum current that will flow through a fuse without opening the fused. The maximum current that will not "jump" an open fuse

2-16. A fuse voltage rating has which of the following definitions?

a. The maximum voltage that can exist in a circuit without causing the circuit to overheatb. The maximum voltage that can exist in a circuit if there is a direct shortc. The maximum voltage across a fuse that will not cause the fuse to opend. The maximum voltage across a fuse that will not jump the open fuse

2-20. What is the voltage rating for a fuse with the designation F03D1R00B?

a. 32 V or lessb. 125 V or lessc. 250 V or lessd. 500 V or less

2-21. What is the current rating for a fuse with the designation F03B0R50B?

a. 1/2 ampb. 1.5 ampc. 3 ampd. 50 amp

2-22. What is the time-delay rating for a fuse with the designation F03A20R0C?

a. Fastb. Delayc. Standardd. Intermediate

2-23. What is the voltage rating for a fuse with the designation F02B250V10AS?


2-24. What is the current rating for a fuse with the designation F03A125V5A?

a. 125 ampb. 5 ampc. 3 ampd. 1/8 amp

2-25. What is the time-delay rating for a fuse with the designation F04C125V2AS?

a. Fastb. Delayc. Standardd. Intermediate

2-26. What is the voltage rating for a fuse with the designation 3AG20125V?


2-27. What is the current rating for a fuse with the designation 3AG1032V?

a. 1 ampb. 2 ampc. 3 ampd. 10 amp

2-28. What is the voltage rating for a fuse with the designation AGC5125V?


2-29. What is the current rating for a fuse with the designation AGC2125V?

a. 1 ampb. 2 ampc. 3 ampd. 25 amp

2-30. What is the new military designation for a fuse with the old, military designation F03D1R50B?

a. F03A125V1.5Ab. F02B125V1.5Ac. F03A250V11/2Ad. F03B125V1.5A

2-35. Which of the following methods will provide an ABSOLUTE determination as to whether or not a fuse is open?

a. A visual inspectionb. A check of the fuse indicatorc. A voltmeter check of the fused. A thermometer check of the temperature of the fuse

2-36. A fuse is removed from a circuit, checked with an ohmmeter, and found to be shorted. What action should be taken?

a. Discard the fuseb. Check the fuse with a voltmeterc. Put the fuse back in the circuitd. Return the fuse to the supply department

2-37. Which of the following methods should be used to check a .002 ampere fuse?

a. Use a megger and place a capacitor in parallel with the fuseb. Use a megger and place a capacitor in series with the fusec. Use an ohmmeter and place a resistor in parallel with the fused. Use an ohmmeter and place a resistor in series with the fuse

2-38. What should you use to remove a fuse from a clip-type fuseholder?

a. A scribeb. A fusepullerc. A screwdriverd. A pair of pliers

2-39. Which of the following is a safety precaution to be observed when a fuse is checked?

a. Turn the power off and discharge the circuit before the fuse is removedb. When you check a fuse with an ohmmeter, be careful to avoid short circuitsc. When you use a voltmeter to check a low current fuse, be careful to avoid opening the fuse by excessive current from the voltmeterd. All of the above

2-40. (use for questions 2-40 to 2-46) You have found an open fuse in a piece of equipment and have repaired the casualty. The technical manual for the equipment specifies a fuse coded F02A125V3A. What fuse is a direct replacement?

a. F03D3R00Ab. F02A3R00Bc. AGC3125Vd. F02D3R00C

2-41. What fuse is the best substitute?

a) F03D3R00Ab) 3AG3250Vc) F02A3R00Bd) AGC5250V

2-42. What fuse is the second best in the fuseholder substitute?

a) F03D3R00Ab) F02A3R00Bc) F02D3R00Cd) AGC5250V

2-43. What fuse is unacceptable because the physical size is incorrect?

a) F03D3R00Ab) F02A3R00Bc) F02D3R00Cd) AGC5250V

2-44. What fuse is unacceptable because of the current rating?

a) 3AG3250Vb) AGC3125Vc) F02D3R00Cd) AGC5250V

2-45. What fuse is unacceptable because of the voltage rating?*

a) F03D3R00Ab) 3AG3250Vc) F02A3R00Bd) AGC3125V

2-46. What fuse is unacceptable because of the time-delay rating?

a) F03D3R00Ab) F02A3R00Bc) AGC3125Vd) F02D3R00C

2-47. Before replacing a fuse, you should check for which of the following conditions?

a. Proper fitb. Proper fusec. Both a and b aboved. Proper input voltage

2-48. Which of the following is NOT a safety precaution to be observed when a fuse is changed?

a. Be sure to "tag out" the fuseholder when you remove the fuse

b. Remove the power from a circuit before removing and replacing a fusec. Remove any corrosion from the fuseholder before replacing a fused. Be sure the fuse fits properly in the fuseholder

2-49. When you perform preventive maintenance on fuses, which of the following is NOT a condition you should check?

a. Corrosionb. Shorted fusec. Improper fitd. Improper fuse

2-50. What is the total number of main components in a circuit breaker?

a. Fiveb. Twoc. Threed. Four

2-51. Which of the following is NOT a type of trip element for a circuit breaker?

a. Thermalb. Magneticc. Mechanicald. Thermal-magnetic

2-55. A circuit breaker that will trip even if the operating mechanism is held ON is known as what type of circuit breaker?

a. Standardb. Emergencyc. Trip freed. Nontrip free

2-56. What type of circuit breaker can be overridden if the operating mechanism is held ON?

a. Standardb. Emergencyc. Trip freed. Nontrip free

2-57. Which of the following is NOT a time delay rating for a circuit breaker?

a. Longb. Shortc. Standardd. Instantaneous

2-58. Selective tripping is used to cause which of the following circuit breakers to trip when there is an overload?

a. The least expensiveb. The most accessiblec. The smallest current ratingd. The closest to the fault

2-59. Selective tripping is used to accomplish which of the following purposes?

a. To reduce wear and tear on circuit breakersb. To isolate a faulty circuit without affecting

other circuitsc. To simplify the task of resetting the circuit

breakerd. To enable the application of power to emergency circuits during an overload

2-63. The following actions must be taken prior to working on a circuit breaker. Arrange these items in the proper sequence, then select the choice below that lists the events in the proper sequence.

A. Tag the power switchB. Obtain the approval of the electrical officerC. Remove power to the circuit breakerD. Check the applicable technical manual

a. A, B, C, Db. C, B, D, Ac. D, B, C, Ad. B, A, D, C

2-64. Which of the following items is NOT checked during maintenance on a circuit breaker?

a. Input power voltageb. Operating mechanism smoothnessc. Terminal tightness and corrosiond. Contact surfaces for pitting

3-1. Circuit control devices should NOT be used for which of the following reasons?

a. To adjust the power level of a deviceb. To remove power from a malfunctioning devicec. To apply power to a device when work is completed on itd. To select the function or circuit desired within a device

3-2. Which of the following are types of circuit control devices?

a. Relaysb. Switchesc. Solenoidsd. All of the above

3-6. Which of the following is a manual switch?

a. A light switchb. A limit switchc. A thermostatd. A distributor

3-7. Which of the following is an automatic switch?

a. An ignition switch on a motor vehicleb. A switch that turns on a light in a

refrigeratorc. A channel selector on a televisiond. A dial or push button on a telephone

3-8. Control or selection of one or more circuits is a function of which of the following switches?

a. A manual switchb. An automatic switchc. A multicontact switchd. A single contact switch

3-25. A switch actuator is described by which of the following terms?

a. Momentaryb. Two-positionc. Toggled. Four-position

3-26. What is the maximum number of different single-pole, single throw switch positions possible?

a. Oneb. Twoc. Threed. Four

3-27. What is the maximum number of different single-pole, double throw switch positions possible?


3-28. Control of a circuit requiring a temporary actuation signal is provided by which of the following switches?

a. Momentaryb. Locked-inc. Locked-outd. Rotary

3-29. To guard against the accidental actuation of a circuit, which of the following types of switches are used?

a. Momentaryb. Locked-inc. Locked-outd. Rotary

3-30. To guard against the accidental turning off of a circuit, which of the following types of switches are used? a. Momentaryb. Locked-inc. Locked-outd. Rotary

3-31. What is the common name for a accurate snap-acting switch?

a. Maxiswitchb. Multiswitchc. Miniswitchd. Microswitch

3-32. Designation of switch current rating is based on which of the following current values?

a. Maximumb. Minimumc. Nominald. Average

3-33. Designation of switch voltage rating is based on which of the following voltage values?

a. Maximumb. Minimumc. Nominald. Average

3-34. Checking a switch with the circuit power NOT applied is accomplished by using which of the following meters?

a. Wattmeterb. Frequency meterc. Temperature meterd. Ohmmeter

3-35. Checking a switch with the power applied is accomplished by using which of the following meters?

a. Meggerb. Ohmmeterc. Wattmeterd. Voltmeter

3-46. When you perform preventive maintenance on a switch, which of the following items should be checked?

a. The terminals for corrosionb. The physical condition of the switchc. The switch operation for smooth and correct operationd. All of the above

3-47. A solenoid is based upon which of the following principles?

a. A bimetallic strip bends when it is heatedb. A thermocouple produces a current when

heatedc. A coil attracts a soft iron core when current flows in the coild. A soft iron core moving in a magnetic field

creates a current

3-48. A solenoid is commonly used in which of the following devices?

a. A fuel quantity indicating systemb. A shipboard lighting systemc. A sound-powered telephone systemd. A starter for a motor vehicle

3-49. If a solenoid is not operating properly, which of the following items need NOT be checked?*

a. Coilb. Armaturec. Plungerd. Energizing voltage

3-55. If a relay is hermetically sealed with an opaque cover, which of the following methods should be used to determine whether the relay is operating?

a. Shake the relay and listen for loose partsb. Place your finger on the cover and feel the relay

contact movementc. Remove the cover and visually observe the relay

contacts when the relay is activatedd. Activate the relay and observe whether a metal

object is attracted by the magnetic field

3-56. If a relay is NOT operating properly, which of the following items need NOT be checked?

a. The armature resistanceb. The terminal leadsc. The contact surfacesd. The contact spacing

3-57. What should be used to clean the contacts of a relay?

a. Sandpaperb. Emery clothc. A jeweler's filed. A burnishing tool

3-58. What should be used to adjust contact clearances on a relay?

a. A point benderb. A burnishing toolc. A pair of pliersd. A pair of hemostats

ELECTRICAL CONDUCTORS

1-40. What are the basic requirements for a splice or terminal connection?

a) To be mechanically and electrically effectiveb) To be preinsulated and nonconductivec) To have minimum cost and maximum efficiencyd) To have circuit continuity and minimum cost

1-41. The preferred method for removing insulation from most types of insulated wire is by using what tool?

a) Razor bladeb) Electrician’s pliersc) Wire stripperd) Knife

1-42. When a wire is insulated with glass braid or asbestos and requires stripping, which of the following tools should NOT be used?

a) Knifeb) Rotary wire stripperc) Hand wire stripperd) Hot-blade wire stripper

1-43. What is the preferred tool to use to strip aluminum wire?

a) Knifeb) Rotary wire stripperc) Hand wire stripperd) Hot-blade wire stripper

1-44. When a Western Union splice is used to connect two wires, why should the twisted ends of the wires be pressed down as close as possible to the straight portion of the wire?

a) To increase the strength of the spliceb) To prevent the wires from puncturing the tape

coveringc) To minimize the resistance change in the circuitd) To increase the dielectric strength of the insulation

1-45. When multiconductor cables are spliced, why are the splices staggered?

a) To prevent possible shorting between conductorsb) To increase the strength of the individual

splicesc) To decrease insulated resistanced) To reduce the overall size of the joint

1-46. When is a rattail joint normally used?

a) When a branch circuit is required and a junction box is used to join conduitb) When a Western Union splice would be too bulkyc) When asbestos or glass braid is used as

insulationd) When the branch wire will be subjected to a heavy strain

1-47. If a fluorescent light is to be attached to a branch circuit, which of the following splices should normally be used?

a) Staggered spliceb) Knotted tap jointc) Western Union spliced) Fixture joint

1-48. When is a knotted tap joint normally used?

a) When a branch circuit is joined to a continuous wire (main wire)b) When a Western Union splice would be too bulkyc) When a lighting fixture is joined to a branch circuitd) When a wire nut is used to complete the joint

1-49. Which of the following splices is NOT butted?

a) Fixture jointb) Rattail jointc) Knotted tap jointd) Western Union splice

1-50. Why is friction tape used over a splice?

a) To provide a protective covering over the rubber tape

b) To provide maximum insulation to the splicec) To prevent shock when latex rubber is usedd) To reduce the amount of rubber tape required

1-51. Why would you use a crimped terminal instead of a soldered terminal?

a) Connections can be made more rapidlyb) Less operator skill is requiredc) Connections are more uniform in constructiond) Each of the above

1-52. When noninsulated splices and terminal lugs are insulated, what types of insulation are most commonly used?

a) Rubber tape and friction tapeb) Spaghetti and heat-shrinkable tubingc) Spaghetti and friction taped) Rubber tape and heat shrinkable tubing

1-53. When heat-shrinkable tubing is used, what is the maximum temperature to which the wire should be subjected?

a) 180ºFb) 220ºFc) 300ºFd) 340ºF

1-54. When a large aluminum terminal lug or splice is installed, why is it NOT necessary to clean the aluminum wire?

a) It is done automatically by the tubingb) The wire is cleaned by the abrasive compound in the lug or splicec) Oxide film does not form on aluminumd) The insulation used provides the necessary cleaning agent

1-55. When aluminum terminals lugs or splices are installed, which of the following tools is generally recommended for use?

a) Pliersb) Power crimping toolc) Hand crimping toold) Vise grips

1-56. Why is a lockwasher NOT used with an aluminum terminal?

a) The washer will reduce conductivity at the terminalb) The washer will gouge the lug and cause deteriorationc) The washer will set up a corrosive action between dissimilar metalsd) The washer will increase resistance and heat

causing eventual failure

1-58. Which of the following is an advantage of using preinsulated splices and terminal lugs?

a) Heat shrinkable tubing is not requiredb) Spaghetti is not requiredc) They offer extra supporting strength to the wire insulationd) Each of the above

1-59. Color codes are used on preinsulated terminal lugs and splices to indicate what information?

a) The resistance, in ohms, of the lugs and splices

b) The style of crimping tool to be usedc) The type of circuit in which they are to be

usedd) The wire sizes on which they are to be used

2-1. Why must materials to be soldered be cleaned just prior to the soldering process?

a. To ensure the solder will adhere to the surfaceb. To prevent the solder from becoming brittle from impurities and eventually failingc. To prevent an uneven flow of solder to the

surfaced. Each of the above

2-2. What is meant by the term "tinning"?

a. Removing the oxide coating of the material to be solderedb. Preheating the material to be soldered to remove any impurities left from the stripped insulationc. Coating the material to be soldered with a light coat of solderd. Applying pure tin to the material to be soldered to ensure adherence of the solder

2-3. When a wire is soldered to a connector, why should the wire be stripped approximately 1/32 inch longer than the depth of the solder barrel?

a. To prevent burning the wire insulationb. To allow the wire to flex more easily at stress

pointsc. Both 1 and 2 aboved. To prevent the flux from touching the insulation

2-4. When a wire has been properly stripped and is to be soldered to a connector, what total length of the exposed wire should be tinned?

a. One-thirdb. One-halfc. Two-thirdsd. The entire exposed length

2-5. What action generally causes a fractured solder joint?

a. Movement of the soldered parts during the cooling process

b. Application of too much heat to the partsc. Introduction of impurities to the joint from

dirty solder or fluxd. Application of too much solder to the joint

2-6. What term defines the capacity of a soldering iron to generate and maintain a satisfactory soldering temperature while giving up heat to the joint being soldered?

a. Iron current flowb. Thermal inertiac. Resistance solderingd. Self-regulating heat

2-7. Why should a small wattage soldering iron NOT be used to solder large conductors?

a. The current flow is limitedb. The iron cannot reach a high enough temperaturec. The iron cannot maintain a satisfactory soldering temperature while giving up heat to the conductord. The tip of a small wattage iron is too small for large conductors

2-8. Which of the following features BEST describes a well designed soldering iron?

a. It may be used for both large and miniature soldering jobsb. It is light weight with an all-purpose tipc. It can be automatically switched from a low wattage to a high wattage outputd. has a built-in self-regulating element

2-9. What should be done with the removable tip of a soldering gun after it becomes pitted?

a. Dip it in flux and continue to use itb. Discard the tip and replace itc. Grind the tip down to the next smaller size and reuse itd. File the tip smooth and retin it

2-10. If, during the soldering process, the soldering gun switch is depressed for longer than 30 seconds, what danger exists?

a. The insulation of the wire may be burnedb. An oxide film will rapidly form on the conductorc. The flux may ignited. The finger switch may be locked in the depressed position from the heat

2-11. What condition causes the nuts or screws which hold the tip of a soldering gun to loosen?

a. The trigger is depressed for too long a periodb. The gun is pulsed too oftenc. The heating and cooling cycle loosens themd. The gun is used for soldering items beyond its capacity

2-12. Which of the following electronic components should NOT be installed or removed by the use of a soldering gun?

a. Transistorsb. Resistorsc. Capacitorsd. Each of the above

2-13. Why are resistance soldering irons safer for electrical equipment components than other soldering irons or guns?

a. The current flow is very lowb. The tips are hot only during the brief period of actual solderingc. The transformer provides a high voltage for a

measured period of timed. The tips are made from highly conductive ferrous iron which heat and cool very rapidly

2-14. For which of the following reasons is antisieze compound used with a pencil iron equipped with removable tips?

a. To allow the tip to be easily removedb. To prevent the tip form loosening during

repeated soldering operationsc. To minimize the number of times the tip must be retinnedd. Each of the above

2-15. If you do not have a suitable tip for desoldering, how can one be improvised?

a. File an available tip down to the desired sizeb. Bend a piece of wire to the desired shape and insert the ends of the wire into the barrelc. Bend a piece of copper wire to the desired shape after wrapping it around a regular tipd. File a piece of round stock, preferably steel, to the desired shape and insert it in the barrel

2-16. What are the two metals most often used to form soft solder?

a. Lead and antimonyb. Tin and leadc. Bismuth and tind. Tin and cadmium

2-17. What chemical or physical change causes a joint of soldered copper conductors to become one common metal?

a) A physical change takes place as the solder flows between the molecules of copper joining them together

when cooledb) A physical change takes place as both metals displace

one anotherc) A chemical change takes place as the copper is dissolved into the solder thereby forming an alloyed metald) A chemical change takes place when the additional materials added to the solder are heated causing a gluing effect between the solder and the copper

2-18. When you solder electrical connectors, splices, and terminal lugs, what type of solder should you use?

a. 65/35 solderb. 63/37 solderc. 60/40 solderd. 57/43 solder

2-19. Why is flux used in the soldering process?

a. It dilutes the molten solder and allows it to flow

b. It acts as a cleaning agent to remove oxidec. It acts as the bonding agent between the

solder and metald. It forms a conductive bond between the

metal and the solder

2-20. When electrical and electronic components are soldered, what type of flux must be used?

a. Hydrochloric acidb. Sal ammoniacc. Zinc chlorided. Non corrosive, nonconductive Rosin fluxes

2-21. What two properties must a solvent have?

a. Noncorrosive-nonconductiveb. Corrosive-conductivec. Noncorrosive-conductived. Corrosive-nonconductive

2-22. Why are solvents used in the soldering process?

a. To remove the flux from the metal surface being solderedb. To remove contaminants from the soldered connectionc. To dilute the flux and allow it to flow freelyd. To improve the conductivity of the flux

2-23. Why are heat shunts used in the soldering process?

a. To conduct heat from the component being soldered back to the ironb. To increase the temperature of the soldering iron or gunc. To prevent damage to adjacent heat sensitive componentsd. To decrease the temperature to the conductor being soldered

2-24. For which of the following reasons are conductors laced together?

a. To present a neat appearanceb. To help support each otherc. To aid in tracing conductorsd. Each of the above

2-25. Although it may be used, why is the use of round cord discouraged for lacing conductors?

a. It is bulkier than the flat typeb. It is more difficult to handlec. It is not fungus resistantd. It has a tendency to cut into wire insulation

2-26. If you are preparing to single lace conductors, what total length must the lacing be in relationship to the longest conductor?

a. One and one-half times the lengthb. Twice the lengthc. Two and one-half times the lengthd. Five times the length

2-27. Why is a lacing shuttle used when conductors are laced in bundles?

a. It helps prevent the conductors from twisting togetherb. It helps prevent the cord or tape from foulingc. It keeps the "lay" of the cord or taped. It ensures that hitches are evenly spaced

2-29. When coaxial cables are laced, the use of round cord is prohibited. What additional precaution must be observed?

a. Coaxial cables may not be laced with other conductorsb. Bundles containing coaxial cables must be double lacedc. Half hitches must be used in place of marling hitchesd. Coaxial cables must not be tied so tightly as to deform the dielectric

2-30. How should a single lace be started?

a. With a square knot and two marling hitchesb. With a marling hitch and a telephone hitchc. With a telephone hitch and two half hitchesd. With a square knot and two half hitches

2-31. Under which of the following conditions should a double lace be used?

a. Three coaxial cables form the bundleb. A maximum of six conductors form the bundlec. The bundle is larger than one inch in diameterd. The bundle exceeds 10 feet in length

2-32. How should a double lace be started?

a. With a square knotb. With a half hitchc. With a marling hitchd. With a telephone hitch

2-33. How should laced cable groups that run parallel to each other be bound together?

a. With marling hitchesb. With telephone hitchesc. With square knotsd. With half hitches

2-34. What tool or technique should be used to install self-clinching cable straps?

a. Military standard hand toolb. Circle snipsc. Electrician’s pliersd. Hand installation

2-35. If a bundle of conductors passes through a very high-temperature area, what restraint should be used to tie the bundle?

a. High-temperature pressure-sensitive tapeb. Flat glass fiber tapec. Self-clinching cable strapsd. Double lacing

MICROELECTRONICS

1-1. What term is used to describe electronic systems that are made up of extremelysmall parts or elements?

a. Microelectronicsb. Modular packagesc. Integrated circuitsd. Solid-state technology

1-2. During World War II, which of the following limitations were considered unacceptable for military electronicssystems?

a. Large size, heavy weight, and wide bandwidthb. Excessive power requirements, large size, and complex manning requirementsc. Large size, heavy weight, and excessive power requirementsd. Heavy weight, complex circuits and limited communications range

1-3. The development of which of the following types of components had the greatest impact on the technology of microelectronics?

a. Vacuum tubes and resistorsb. Transformers and capacitorsc. Vacuum tubes and transistorsd. Transistors and solid-state diodes

1-4. For a vacuum tube to operate properly in a variety of different circuit applications, additional components are often required to "adjust" circuit values. This is because of which of the following variations within the vacuumtube?

a. Element sizeb. Warm-up timesc. Plug-in mountingsd. Output characteristics

1-5. Point to point wiring in a vacuum tube circuit often caused which of the following unwanted conditions?

a. Heat interactionsb. Inductive interactionsc. Capacitive interactionsd. Both 2 and 3 above

1-6. Functional blocks of a system that caneasily be removed for troubleshootingand repair are called

a. setsb. chassisc. modulesd. vacuum tubes

1-7. Which of the following characteristics of a printed circuit board (pcb) is NOT an advantage over a point-to-point wired tube circuit?

a. The pcb weighs lessb. The pcb eliminates the need for point-to-point

wiringc. The pcb eliminates the need for a heavy metal chassisd. The pcb contains a limited number of components

1-8. A module in which the components aresupported by end plates is referred to as

a. a pcbb. cordwoodc. a substrated. encapsulated

1-9. A module which is difficult to repair because it is completely imbedded in solid material is one which has been

a. balancedb. envelopedc. integratedd. encapsulated

1-10. All components and interconnectionsare formed on or within a singlesubstrate in which of the followingunits?

a. Cordwoodb. Integrated circuitc. Equivalent circuitd. Printed circuit board

1-11. Monolithic integrated circuits areusually referred to as

a. hybridsb. substratesc. silicon chipsd. selenium rectifiers

1-12. In integrated circuits, a conductive or nonconductive film is used for which of the following types of components?

a. Capacitors and diodesb. Transistors and diodesc. Resistors and capacitorsd. Resistors and transistors

1-13. Which of the following types ofelectronic circuits is NOT a hybridintegrated circuit?

a. Thick film and transistorsb. Thin film and silicon chipsc. Transistors and vacuum tubesd. Silicon chips and transistors

1-14. What maximum number of logic gatesshould be expected in a large-scale integration circuit?

a. 20b. 200c. 2,000d. 20,000

1-15. Integrated circuits containing more than64,000 bits of memory are referred to as

a. hybrid integrationb. large-scale integrationc. small-scale integrationd. very large-scale integration

1-16. Which of the following pieces ofequipment is used to prepare componentlayout in complex ICs?

a. A maskb. A camerac. A computerd. A microscope

1-17. A device that allows the depositing ofmaterial in selected areas of asemiconductor substrate, but not inothers, is known as a

a. blindb. screenc. filterd. wafer mask

1-18. Which of the following types of materialis preferred for film circuit substrates?

a. Siliconb. Ceramicc. Germaniumd. Fiberglass

1-19. A typical silicon wafer has approximately (a) what diameter and (b) what thickness?

a. (a) 2 inches (b) 0.01 to 0.02 inchesb. (a) 2 inches (b) 0.21 to 0.40 inchesc. (a) 3 inches (b) 0.21 to 0.40 inchesd. (a) 3 inches (b) 0.01 to 0.20 inches

1-20. Artificially grown silicon or germaniumcrystals are used to produce substratesfor which of the following types ofintegrated circuits?

a. Hybridb. Thin-filmc. Thick-filmd. Monolithic

1-21. Elements penetrate the semiconductorsubstrate in (a) what type of IC but (b)do NOT penetrate the substrate in whattype of IC?

a. (a) Diffused (b) thin-filmb. (a) Diffused (b) epitaxialc. (a) Thick-film (b) epitaxiald. (a) Thick-film (b) thin-film

1-22. Pn junctions are protected from contamination during the fabrication process by which of the following materials?

a. Oxideb. Siliconc. Germaniumd. Photoetch

1-23. The prevention of unwanted interactionor leakage between components isaccomplished by which of the followingtechniques?

a. Isolationb. Insulationc. Integrationd. Differentiation

1-24. Vacuum evaporation and cathodesputtering are two methods used toproduce which of the following types ofcomponents?

a. Diodesb. Thin-filmc. Thick-filmd. Transistors

1-25. To deposit highly reactive materials on asubstrate, which of the followingmethods is used?

a. Photoetchingb. Photolithographyc. Cathode sputteringd. Vacuum evaporation

1-26. To produce thin film resistors, which ofthe following materials is/are used?

a. Nichromeb. Tantalumc. Titaniumd. Each of the above

1-27. Which of the following is a majoradvantage of hybrid ICs?

a. Ease of manufactureb. Ease of replacementc. Design flexibilityd. Easy availability

1-28. IC packaging is required for which ofthe following reasons?

a. To dissipate heatb. For ease of handlingc. To increase shelf lifed. To meet stowage requirements

1-31. Which of the following types of DIPsare most commonly used in the Navy'smicroelectronics systems?

a. Glassb. Metalc. Ceramicd. Plastic

1-32. In IC production, gold or aluminumbonding wires are used for which of thefollowing purposes?

a. To bond the chip to the packageb. To provide component isolationc. To connect the package to the circuit boardd. To connect the chip to the package leads

1-33. IC packages that may be easily installedby hand or machine on mounting boardsfall into which of the followingcategories?

a. TOb. DIPc. Flatpackd. Each of the above

1-34. The need for bonding wires has beeneliminated by which of the followingproduction techniques?

a. LSIb. Beam leadc. Flip chipd. Both 2 and 3 above

1-38. Letters and numbers stamped on thebody of an IC serve to provide which ofthe following types of information?

a. Useb. Serial numberc. Date of manufactured. Applicable equipment

1-39. Descriptive information about aparticular type of IC may be found inwhich of the following documents?

a. The manufacturer's data sheetb. The equipment Allowance Part List (APL)c. The National Stock Number (NSN)d. The IC identification number list

1-40. Assemblies made up EXCLUSIVELYof discrete electronic parts are classified as

a. vacuum-tube circuitsb. microcircuit modulesc. hybrid microcircuitsd. miniature electronics circuits

1-41. An assembly of microcircuits or a combination of microcircuits and discrete components is referred to as a

a. mother boardb. microprocessorc. miniature moduled. microcircuit module

1-42. A technician has isolated a problem to aplug-in module on a printed circuit board. What is this level of system packaging?

a. Level Ob. Level Ic. Level IId. Level III

1-43. A faulty transistor would be identifiedas what level of packaging?

a. Level Ob. Level Ic. Level IId. Level III

1-44. A chassis located in a radar antennapedestal would be identified as whatlevel of system packaging?

a. Level Ib. Level IIc. Level IIId. Level IV

1-45. Which of the following characteristics isNOT an advantage of multilayer printed circuit boards?

a. Allows greater wiring density on boardsb. Provides shielding for a large number of

conductorsc. Eliminates complicated wiring harnessesd. Reduces the number of components per

board

1-46. Which of the following circuit connection methods is NOT used in making interconnections on a multilayer printed circuit board interconnection?

a. Terminal lugb. Clearance holec. Layer build-upd. Plated-through hole

1-47. The most complex to produce and difficult to repair printed circuit boards are those made using which of the following methods?

a. Layer-buildupb. Clearance-holec. Step-down-holed. Plated-through-hole

1-48. Environmental performance requirements for ICs are set forth in which of the following publications?

a. 2M repair manualb. Military Standardsc. System maintenance manualsd. Manufacturer's data sheet

1-49. Ground planes and shielding are used toprevent which of the following electricalinteractions?

a. Cross talkb. External interferencec. The generation of rf within the systemd. All of the above

1-50. Training requirements for miniature and microminiature (2M) repair personnel was established by which of the following authorities?

a. Chief of Naval Education and Trainingb. Chief of Naval Technical Trainingc. Chief of Naval Operationsd. Commander, Naval Sea Systems Command

1-51. The standards of workmanship and guidelines for specific repairs to equipment are contained in which of the following Navy publications?

a. Introduction to Microelectronicsb. NAVSHIPS Technical Manualc. Electronics Installation and Maintenance Books (EIMB)d. Miniature/Microminiature (2M) Electronic Repair Program

1-52. A technician is authorized to perform 2M repairs upon satisfactory completion of which of the following types of training?

a. A 2M training classb. On-the-job trainingc. NEETS, Module 14d. Any electronics class "A" school

1-53. Repairs that are limited to discrete components and single- and double sided boards are classified as what level of repairs?

a. Intermediateb. Organizationalc. Miniature componentd. Microminiature component

1-54. To ensure that a 2M technician maintains the minimum standards of workmanship, the Navy requires that the technician meet which of the following requirements?

a. Be licensedb. Be certifiedc. Be experiencedd. Be retrained

1-55. If a technician should fail to maintain the required standards of workmanship, the technician's certification is subject to what action?

a. Cancellationb. Recertificationc. Reduction to next lower leveld. Withholding pending requalification

1-56. The most extensive shop facilities and highly skilled technicians are located at what SM & R level of maintenance?

a. Depotb. Operationalc. Intermediated. Organizational

1-57. SM & R code D maintenance facilities are usually located at which of the following activities?

a. Shipyardsb. Contractor maintenance organizationsc. Shore-based facilitiesd. All of the above

1-58. Direct support to user organizations isprovided by which of the following SM& R code maintenance levels?

a. Depotb. Operationalc. Intermediated. Organizational

1-59. Inspecting, servicing, and adjusting equipment is the function of which of the following SM & R code maintenance levels?

a. Depotb. Operationalc. Intermediated. Organizational(I-S-A-OR)

1-60. The maintenance level at which normal 2M repairs are performed is set forth in the maintenance plan and specified by the

a. NAVSEA 2M Repair Programb. Source, Maintenance, and Recoverability (SM & R) codec. Chief of Naval Operationsd. Equipment manufacturers' documentation

1-61. Boards or modules that are SM & Rcode D may be repaired at the organizational level under which of the following conditions?

a. On a routine basisb. When parts are availablec. To meet an urgent operational commitmentd. When code D repair will take six weeks or

longer

1-62. Source, Maintenance, and Recovery (SM & R) codes that list where repair parts may be obtained, who is authorized to make the repair, and the maintenance level for the item are foundin which of the following documents?

a. Allowance Equipage Lists (AEL)b. Allowance Parts Lists (APL)c. Manufacturer's Parts Listd. Navy Stock System

1-63. Test equipment that continuouslymonitors performance and automaticallyisolates faults to removable assembliesis what category of equipment?

a. On-lineb. Off-linec. General purposed. Fault isolating

1-64. A dc voltmeter that is permanently attached to a power supply for the purpose of monitoring the output is an example of what type test equipment?

a. General Purpose Electronic Test Equipment (GPETE)b. Built in Test Equipment (BITE)c. Off-line test equipmentd. Specialized test equipment

1-65. Which of the following types of testequipment is classified as off-line automatic test equipment?

a. Centralized Automatic Test System (CATS)b. Versatile Avionic Shop Test System (VAST)c. General Purpose Electronic Test Equipment

(GPETE)d. Test Evaluation and Monitoring System (TEAMS)

1-66. Fault diagnosis using GPETE shouldonly be attempted by which of the following personnel?

a. Officersb. Technician strikersc. Experienced techniciansd. Basic Electricity and Electronics school

graduates

1-67. During fault isolation procedures, a device or component should be desoldered and removed from the circuit only at which of the following times?

a. After defect verificationb. For out-of-circuit testingc. During static resistance checksd. At any time the technician desires

1-68. 2M repair stations are equipped according to the types of repairs to be accomplished. The use of microscopes and precisions drill presses would be required in which of the following types of repair?

a. Miniatureb. Microminiaturec. Both 1 and 2 aboved. Emergency

1-69. In the selection of a soldering iron tip,which of the following factors should beconsidered?

a. The complexity of the pcbb. The composition of the pcbc. The area and mass being solderedd. The type of component being Soldered

1-70. The hand piece that can be used for thegreatest variety of operations is the

a. solder extractorb. rotary-drive toolc. resistive tweezersd. lapflow and thermal scraper Handtool

1-71. Regardless of location, 2M repair stations require adequate work surface area, lighting, power, and what other minimum requirement?

a. Heat sourceb. Ventilationc. Illuminationd. Dust-free space

1-72. Solder used in electronics is an alloycomposed of which of the followingmetals?

a. Tin and zincb. Tin and leadc. Lead and zincd. Lead and copper

1-73. A roll of solder is marked 60/40. Whatdo these numbers indicate?

a. 60% tin, 40% leadb. 60% tin, 40% copperc. 60% lead, 40% tind. 60% lead, 40% copper

1-74. Which of the following alloys will meltdirectly into a liquid and have no plasticor semiliquid state?

a. Metallic alloyb. Eutectic alloyc. Zinc-lead alloyd. Copper-zinc alloy

1-75. The PREFERRED solder alloy ratio forelectronic repair is 63/37. Which of the following alloy ratios is also ACCEPTABLE for this type of repair?

a. 30/70b. 50/50c. 60/40d. 70/30

2-1. Which of the following requirements mustbe met by a 2M technician to be authorizedto perform repairs at a particular level?

a. Have knowledge of that levelb. Be certified at that levelc. Be experienced at that leveld. Be licensed at the next higher level

2-2. Protective materials applied to electronicassemblies to prevent damage caused bycorrosion, moisture, and stress are called

a. conformal coatingsb. isolation materialsc. electrical insulationd. encapsulation coatings

2-3. Before working on a pcb, the conformalcoating should be removed from what partof the board?

a. The entire boardb. The component sidec. The area of the repaird. The side opposite the component side

2-4. What are the approved methods ofconformal coating removal?

a. Peeling and abradingb. Stripping and heatingc. Mechanical and thermal onlyd. Mechanical, thermal, and chemical

2-5. Most methods of conformal coatingremoval are variations of which of thefollowing types of removal?

a. Thermalb. Chemicalc. Mechanicald. Electrical

2-6. What is the preferred method of removingepoxy conformal coatings?

a. Solventb. Ball millc. Hot-air jetd. Thermal parting tool

2-7. A conformal coating is considered to bethin if it is less than what thickness?

a. 0.025 inchesb. 0.040 inchesc. 0.050 inchesd. 0.250 inches

2-8. Of the various mechanical methods of conformal coating removal, physical contact with the work piece is NOT required using which of the following methods?

a. Cuttingb. Grindingc. Hot-air jetd. Thermal parting

2-9. Cutting and peeling is an easy method ofremoving which of the following types ofcoatings?

a. Epoxb. Varnishc. Parylened. Silicone

2-10. Thin acrylic coatings are readily removedin which of the following ways?

a. Routingb. Hot-air jetc. Cut and peeld. Mild solvents

2-11. When applying an application of conformal coating, which of the following conditions is true?

a. The board should be clean and moistb. The coating should be applied only to the component replacedc. The coating should be the same type as that

used by the manufacturerd. The coating should be applied only to the solder joints

2-12. The procedure of connecting circuitry onone side of a board with the circuitry onthe other side is known as

a. mountingb. terminationc. hole reinforcementd. interfacial connections

2-13. Reinforcement for circuit pads on bothsides of the board is provided by which ofthe following types of eyelets?

a. Flat-setb. Roll-setc. Funnel-set

2-14. The manner in which wires and leads areattached to an assembly is described bywhich of the following terms?

a. Terminationb. Solder jointsc. Lead formationd. Interfacial connections

2-15. Clinched leads, straight-through leads, andoffset pads are variations of what type oftermination?

a. Solder cupb. On-the-boardc. Above-the-boardd. Through-hole

2-16. What total number of degrees of bend are(a) fully clinched leads and (b) semiclinched leads?

a. (a) 45 (b) 90b. (a) 45 (b) 45c. (a) 90 (b) 45d. (a) 90 (b) 90

2-17. Which of the following types of terminalsare used as tie points for interconnectingwiring?

a. Pinsb. Hooksc. Solder cupsd. Turrets

2-18. During assembly, component stability isprovided by which of the following typesof lead termination?

a. Hook terminalb. Clinched leadc. Turret terminald. On-the-board (lap-flow)

2-19. Which of the following types of leadterminations is the easiest to remove andrework?

a. Offset-padb. Semiclinchedc. Fully clinchedd. Straight-through

2-20. Turret, fork, and hook terminals areexamples of what type of termination?

a. Off-setb. On-the-boardc. Above-the-boardd. Through-the-board

2-21. When a lead is soldered to a pad withoutpassing it through the board, what type oftermination has been made?

a. Lap-flowb. Off-set padc. Clinched leadd. Straight-through lead

2-22. Most damage to printed circuit boardsoccurs at which of the following times?

a. During trouble shootingb. During component removalc. During component replacementd. During normal system operations

2-23. Of the solder removal methods listedbelow, which one is most versatile andreliable?

a. Wickingb. Heat and shakec. Motorized solder extractord. Manually controlled vacuum plunge

2-24. When removing solder with a solder wick,where should the wick be placed inrelation to the solder joint and the iron?

a. Below both the joint and the ironb. Between the joint and the ironc. Above the joint and the iron

2-25. The motorized solder extractor may be operated in three different modes. Which of the following is NOT one of those modes?

a. Hot-air jetb. One-shot vacuumc. Heat and vacuumd. Heat and pressure

2-26. Stirring the lead during desolderingprevents which of the following unwantedresults?

a. Sweat jointsb. Overheatingc. Cold solder jointsd. Pad delamination

2-27. Of the following solder removal methods,which one is acceptable for removingsolder?

a. Hot-air jetb. Heat and pullc. Heat and shaked. Heat and squeeze

2-29. A 2M technician is repairing a board thatis manufactured with semiclinched leads.What type of termination should thetechnician use in replacing components?

a. Lap flowb. Clinched leadc. Semiclinched leadd. Straight-through-lead

2-31. What type of heat source is a solderingiron?

a. Radiantb. Resistivec. Conductived. Convective

2-32. The shape and size of the soldering iron tipto be used is determined by which of thefollowing factors?

a. The type of flux to be usedb. The type of work to be donec. The type of solder to be usedd. The voltage source for the iron

2-33. A thermal shunt is attached to the leads ofa transistor prior to applying solder to thejoint. This shunt serves what purpose?

a. Prevents short circuitsb. Retains heat at the jointc. Conducts heat away from the componentd. Physically supports the lead during Soldering

2-34. What is the appearance of a good solderjoint?

a. Dull grayb. Crystallinec. Bright and shinyd. Shiny with small pits

2-35. What is the most efficient solderingtemperature?

a. 360 F°b. 440 F°c. 550 F°d. 800 F°

2-37. Plug-in DIPs are mounted by using whichof the following aids/parts?

a. Insulatorsb. Special toolsc. Clinched leadsd. Mounting sockets

2-38. Plug-in DIPs are susceptible to looseningbecause of which of the following causes?

a. Heatb. Stressc. Warpaged. Vibration

2-39. Component leads may be clipped to aid intheir removal under which of the following conditions?

a. When the component is conformally coatedb. When the component is known to be defectivec. When board damage may result from normal removal methodsd. Both 2 and 3 above

2-40. Visual inspection of a completed repair isconducted to evaluate which of the following aspects of the repair?

a. Workmanship qualityb. Component placementc. In-circuit quality testd. Conformal coating integrity

2-41. When speaking of TO mounting techniques, the term "plug-in“refers to the same technique as is used with DIPs.

a. Trueb. False

2-42. In addition to heat dissipation and physical support, which of the following needs might justify the use of a spacer with a TO mount?

a. Vibration eliminationb. Proper lead formationc. Proper lead terminationd. Short-circuit protection

2-43. For the removal of imbedded TOs inwhich all the leads are free, which of thefollowing methods is recommended?

a. Push out gentlyb. Pull out with pliersc. Pull out with fingersd. Tap out with soft mallet

2-44. What is the most critical step in replacingan imbedded TO?

a. Seating the leadsb. Forming the leadsc. Soldering the leadsd. Seating the body of the TO

2-45. When a TO or a DIP is replaced on a printed circuit board, what type of termination is normally used?

a. Lap flowb. On-the-boardc. Above-the-boardd. Through-the-board

2-46. What type of termination is used in thereplacement of a flat pack?

a. Lap flowb. Solder cupc. Solder plugd. Full fillet

2-47. Heating the leads and lifting them free with tweezers is the preferred method of removing which of the following components?

a. TOsb. DIPsc. Flat packsd. Transistors

2-48. Which of the examples shows the correctlead formation for a flat pack?2-49. Use of a skipping pattern when solderingmultilead components prevents

a. cold solder jointsb. excessive heat buildupc. the component from movingd. the need to visually inspect the piece

2-50. Cards and boards may be damaged underwhich of the following conditions?

a. When unauthorized repairs areb. attempted by untrained personnela. When technicians use improper toolsb. When improperly storedc. Each of the above

2-51. DS3 Spark is preparing to repair a cracked conductor on a card. For this type of damage, which of the following repair methods is preferred?

a. Solder bridgeb. Clinched staplec. Install an eyelet at the crack and solder in placed. Lap-flow soldered wire across the break

2-52. To ensure a good mechanical bond between the board and replacement pad and to provide good electrical contact for components, which of the following procedures is used?

a. Epoxying the pad to the runb. Electroplating the repair areac. Installing an eyelet in the padd. Lap-flow soldering the repair area

2-53. Breaks, holes, and cracks in pcbs arerepaired by using a mixture of

a. fiberglass and rosinb. epoxy and powdered carbonc. conformal coating and RTVd. epoxy and powdered fiberglass

2-54. What is the first step in the repair ofburned or scorched boards?

a. Filling the burned area with epoxy and fiberglass

b. Removing all discolored materialc. Removing all delaminated conductorsd. Cleaning all surfaces with solvent

2-55. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the repair of repairable delaminated conductors?

a. All delaminations are removedb. Repairable delaminations are not removedc. All delaminations are epoxied to the boardd. All delaminations are replaced with insulated wire

2-56. Damage to some electronic componentscan occur at what minimum electrostaticpotential?

a. 14 voltsb. 35 voltsc. 350 voltsd. 3,500 volts

2-57. Electrostatic discharge (ESD) has thegreatest effect on which of the followingdevices?

a. Silicon diodesb. Selenium rectifiersc. Germanium transistorsd. Metal-oxide transistor

2-59. Electrostatic charges may develop as highas which of the following voltages?

a. 3,000 voltsb. 15,000 voltsc. 20,000 voltsd. 35,000 volts

2-60. To prevent an electrostatic charge built up on the body of the technician from damaging ESDS devices, the technician should take which of the followingprecautions?

a. Be groundedb. Wear glovesc. Ground the deviced. Handle the device with insulated tools

2-61. The best source of information concerning the application, handling, and storage of any aerosol dispensers may be found in/on which of the following sources?

a. NAVSEA 2M manualb. NEETS, Module 14, Topic 3c. On the aerosol dispenserd. Applicable military standards

MOTORS

1-1. In generators, what principle is used toconvert mechanical motion to electricalenergy?a) Atomic reactionb) Electrical attractionc) Magnetic repulsiond) Magnetic induction

1-2. When you use the left-hand rule forgenerators, what is indicated by themiddle finger?a) Direction of fluxb) Direction of motionc) Direction of current flowd) Direction of the magnetic field

1-3. The output voltage of an elementarygenerator is coupled from the armature tothe brushes by what devices?

a) Slip ringsb) Interpolesc) Terminalsd) Pigtails

1-4. An elementary generator consists of a single coil rotating in a magnetic field. Why is NO voltage induced in the coil as it passes through the neutral plane?

a) Flux lines are too denseb) Flux lines are not being cutc) Flux lines are not presentd) Flux lines are being cut in the wrong direction

1-5. What components cause(s) a generator toproduce a dc voltage instead of an ac voltage at its output?

a) The brushesb) The armaturec) The slip ringsd) The commutator

1-6. When two adjacent segments of the commutator on a single-loop dc generator come in contact with the brushat the same time, which of the following conditions will occur?

a) The output voltage will be zerob) The output voltage will be maximum negativec) The output voltage will be maximum positive

1-7. In an elementary, single-coil, dc generator with one pair of poles, what isthe maximum number of pulsations produced in one revolution?a) Oneb) Twoc) Threed) Four

1-8. If an elementary dc generator has a two coilarmature and four field poles, what is the total number of segments required in the commutator?

a) 8b) 2c) 16d) 4

1-9. How can you vary the strength of themagnetic field in a dc generator?

a) By varying the armature currentb) By varying the speed of armature rotationc) By varying the voltage applied to the

electromagnetic field coilsd) By varying the polarity of the field Poles

1-10. Under which of the following conditionsdoes sparking occur between the brushesand the commutator?

a) When operating under normal conditionsb) When there is improper commutationc) When there is an excessive load currentd) When commutation is in the neutral Plane

1-11. Distortion of the main field by interaction with the armature field defines what term?

a) Commutationb) Mutual reactionc) Armature reactiond) Mutual induction

1-12. Distortion of the main field by interaction with the armature field can be compensated for by the use of

a) slip ringsb) interpolesc) a commutatord) special brushes

1-13. Motor reaction in a dc generator is a physical force caused by the magnetic interaction between the armature and the field. What effect, if any, does this force have on the operation of the generator?

a) It tends to oppose the rotation of the armatureb) It tends to aid the rotation of the armaturec) It causes the generator to vibrated) None

1-14. In dc generators, copper losses are caused by which of the following factors?

a) Reluctance in the field polesb) Resistance in the armature windingc) Reactance in the armature and field

windingsd) All of the above

1-15. Eddy currents in armature cores are keptlow by which of the following actions?

a) Using powdered iron as a core materialb) Limiting armature currentc) Insulating the cored) Laminating the iron in the core

1-16. What makes the drum-type armature more efficient than the Gramme-ring armature?

a) The drum-type armature has more windings than the Gramme-ring armatureb) The drum-type armature can be rotated faster than the Gramme-ring armaturec) The drum-type armature coils are fully exposed to the magnetic field, while the Gramme-ring armature coils are only partially exposed to the magnetic fieldd) The drum-type armature has a laminated core, while the Gramme-ring armature has a solid core

1-17. What type of dc generator applicationbest utilizes the features of the lap woundarmature?

a) High-voltageb) High-currentc) High-speedd) Variable-speed

1-18. Which of the following is NOT a majorclassification of dc generators?

a) Compound-woundb) Series-woundc) Shunt-woundd) Lap-wound

1-19. What characteristic of series-woundgenerators makes them unsuitable formost applications?

a) They require external field excitationb) The output voltage varies as the speed variesc) They are not capable of supplying heavy loadsd) The output voltage varies as the load current

varies

1-20. As the load current of a dc generator varies from no-load to full-load, the variation in output voltage is expressed as a percent of the full-load voltage. What term applies to this expression?

a) Gainb) Voltage controlc) Voltage regulationd) Load limit

1-21. When two or more generators are used tosupply a common load, what term is applied to this method of operation?

a) Seriesb) Compoundc) Split-loadd) Parallel

1-22. What special-purpose dc generator isused as a high-gain power amplifier?

a) Lap-woundb) Shunt-woundc) Amplidyned) Compound-connected

1-23. The gain of an amplifying device can bedetermined by which of the followingformulas?

a) GAIN = INPUT + OUTPUTb) GAIN = INPUT x OUTPUTc) GAIN = OUTPUT -INPUTd) GAIN = OUTPUT + INPUT

1-24. The maximum gain possible from anamplidyne is approximately

a) 100b) 5,000c) 10,000d) 50,000

1-25. What determines the direction of rotationof a dc motor?

a) The type of armatureb) The method of excitationc) The number of armature coilsd) The polarity of armature current and

direction of magnetic flux

1-26. When you use the right-hand rule formotors, what quantity is indicated by theextended forefinger?

a) Direction of flux north to southb) Direction of flux south to northc) Direction of currentd) Direction of motion

1-27. Which, if any, of the following situationsis a major electrical difference between adc motor and a dc generator?

a) The armatures are differentb) The shunt connections are differentc) The dc generator requires a commutator,

the dc motor does notd) None of the above

1-28. In a dc motor, what causes counter emf?

a) Improper commutationb) Armature reactionc) Generator actiond) Excessive speed

1-29. In a dc motor, how, if at all, does counteremf affect speed?

a) It causes the speed to increaseb) It causes the speed to decreasec) It causes rapid fluctuations of the speedd) It does not affect speed

1-30. What is the load on a dc motor?

a) The field currentb) The armature currentc) The mechanical device the motor movesd) The total current drawn from the Source

1-31. When a series dc motor is operated without a load, which of the following conditions occurs?

a) The armature draws excessive currentb) The voltage requirement increasesc) The armature will not turnd) The armature speeds out of control

1-32. A dc series motor is best suited for whichof the following applications?

a) Steady load, low torqueb) Variable load, low torquec) Steady load, high torqued) Variable load, high torque

1-33. What is the main advantage of a shuntmotor over a series motor?

a) A shunt motor develops higher torque at lower speeds than a series motorb) A shunt motor can be operated at higher speeds

than a series motorc) A shunt motor draws less current from the source

than a series motord) A shunt motor maintains a more constant speed under varying load conditions than a series motor

1-34. How can the direction of rotation bechanged in a dc motor?

a) Only by reversing the field connectionsb) Only by reversing the armature connectionsc) By reversing both the armature connections and the field connectionsd) By reversing either the armature connections or the field connections

1-35. When the voltage applied to the armatureof a dc shunt motor is decreased, whathappens to the motor speed?

a) It becomes uncontrollableb) It decreasesc) It increasesd) The motor stops

1-36. In a dc motor, the neutral plane shifts inwhat direction as the result of armaturereaction?*

a) Clockwiseb) Counterclockwisec) In the direction of rotationd) Opposite the direction of rotation

1-37. The current in the inter poles of a dcmotor is the same as the

a) armature currentb) field currentc) total load currentd) eddy current

1-38. In a dc motor, what is the purpose of theresistor placed in series with thearmature?

a) To counteract armature reactionb) To limit armature currentc) To increase field strengthd) To prevent over speeding

1-39. Magnetic induction in an alternator is aresult of relative motion between whattwo elements?

a) The rotor and the armatureb) The armature and the fieldc) The field and the statord) The rotor and the field

1-40. Voltage is induced in what part of analternator?

a) The commutatorb) The brushesc) The armatured) The field

1-41. What are the two basic types ofalternators?

a) Multiphase and polyphaseb) Alternating current and direct currentc) Rotating field and rotating armatured) Series-wound and shunt-wound

1-42. Which of the following alternator typesis most widely used?

a) Shunt-woundb) Rotating-armaturec) Series-woundd) Rotating-field

1-43. The purpose of the exciter in analternator is to

a) provide dc field excitationb) compensate for armature lossesc) compensate for counter emfd) counteract armature reaction

1-44. An alternator using a gas turbine as aprime mover should have what type of rotor?

a) Turbine-drivenb) Salient-polec) Armatured) Geared

1-45. In alternators with low-speed primemovers, only what type of rotor may beused?

a) Gearedb) Armaturec) Salient-poled) Turbine-driven

1-46. Alternators are rated using which of thefollowing terms?

a) Voltsb) Wattsc) Amperesd) Volt-amperes

1-47. What does the term single-phase meanrelative to single-phase alternators?

a) All output voltages are in phase with each otherb) The voltage and current are in phasec) The phase angle is constantd) Only one voltage is produced

1-48. In a single-phase alternator with multiplearmature windings, how must the windings be connected?

a) Seriesb) Parallelc) Wyed) Delta

1-49. What is the phase relationship betweenvoltages A and B?

a) In phaseb) 45ºout of phasec) 90ºout of phased) 180ºout of phase

1-50. A two-phase, three-wire alternator haswhat maximum number of outputvoltages available?a) Oneb) Twoc) Threed) Four

1-51. What is the relative amplitude of thevoltage at output C as compared to A andB?a) C is .707 times A or Bb) C is equal to the difference between and Bc) C is 1.414 times A or Bd) C is twice the sum of A and B

1-52. What determines the phase relationshipbetween the individual output voltages ina multiphase alternator?a) The speed of rotationb) The number of field polesc) The method of connecting the terminalsd) The placement of the armature coils

1-53. What is the phase relationship betweenthe output voltages of a three-phasealternator?

a) In phaseb) 60ºout of phasec) 90ºout of phased) 120ºout of phase

1-54. The ac power aboard ship is usuallydistributed as what voltage?

a) 115-volt, three-phaseb) 115-volt, single-phasec) 230-volt, single-phased) 450-volt, three-phase

1-55. The output frequency of an alternator isdetermined by what two factors?

a) The number of poles and the number of phasesb) The number of poles and the speed of rotationc) The speed of rotation and the volt ampere ratingd) The number of phases and the volt ampere rating

1-56. A four-pole, single-phase alternatorrotating at 18M rpm will produce whatoutput frequency?

a) 60 Hzb) 400 Hzc) 1800 Hzd) 3600 Hz

1-57. Which of the following is the correctformula for determining the percent ofregulation of an alternator?a) 1.b) 2.c) 3.d) 4.

1-58. In most alternators, the output voltage iscontrolled by adjusting thea) rotor speedb) field voltagec) armature resistanced) electric load

1-59. When alternators are to be operated inparallel, which of the followingalternator characteristics must beconsidered?a) Voltageb) Frequencyc) Phase relationshipd) All the above

1-60. Which of the following motors is/aretypes of ac motor?

a) Seriesb) Synchronousc) Inductiond) All of the above

1-61. Which of the following types of motorsis widely used to power smallappliances?

a) Universalb) Synchronousc) Polyphased) Compound

1-62. A universal motor is a special type of

a) synchronous motorb) series motorc) parallel motord) polyphase motor

1-63. The number of pole pairs required to establish a rotating magnetic field in a multiphase motor stator is determined by which of the following factors?

a) The magnitude of the voltageb) The magnitude of the currentc) The number of phasesd) The size of the motor

1-64. In a two-phase motor stator, what is theangular displacement between the fieldpoles?

a) 0ºb) 90ºc) 180ºd) 360º

1-65. Adjacent phase windings of a 3-phase motor stator are what total number of degrees apart?

a) 0ºb) 90ºc) 120ºd) 360º

1-66. Which of the following types of motorshas a constant speed from no load to fullload?

a) Seriesb) Synchronousc) Inductiond) Universal

1-67. What type of ac motor is the simplest andleast expensive to manufacture?

a) Inductionb) Seriesc) Synchronousd) Two-phase

1-68. What term applies to the differencebetween the speed of the rotating statorfield and the rotor speed?

a) Slipb) Synchronousc) Rotor errord) Torque

1-69. The speed of the rotor of an inductionmotor depends upon which of thefollowing factors?

a) The method of connecting the loadb) The dc voltage applied to the rotorc) The torque requirements of the loadd) The current in the rotor

1-70. What type of ac motor is most widelyused?

a) Seriesb) Universalc) Synchronousd) Single-phase induction

1-71. What type of ac motor uses a combination of inductance and capacitance to apply out-of-phasecurrents to the start windings?

a) Three-phaseb) Seriesc) Synchronousd) Split-phase induction

1-72. Why are shaded-pole motors built only insmall sizes?

a) They have weak starting torqueb) They are expensive in large sizesc) They are unidirectionald) They require large starting current

SYNCHRO GYRO

1-1. Which of the following terms accurately describes a synchro?

a) Position-sensingb) Electromechanicalc) Rotaryd) Each of the above

1-2. What are the two general classifications of synchro systems?

a) Torque and loadb) Torque and controlc) Load and controld) Load and lock

1-3. What is the difference in application between the two classifications of synchros?

a) Light versus heavy loadb) Mechanical versus electrical Outputc) Circular versus straight-line motiond) High-frequency versus low-frequency operation

1-4. Which of the following types of synchro devices provides a mechanical output?

a) A control transformerb) A torque receiverc) A torque transmitterd) A control transmitter

1-5. A 115-volt, 400-Hz torque transmitter with a diameter of 2.36 inches will have what military standard designation code?

a) 115 V-23CT6b) 115 V-24TT4c) 23TD4d) 24TX4

1-6. A 3.5-inch diameter differential receiver will have what Navy prestandard designation code?

a) 35CRb) 35TDRc) 5Dd) 5DG

1-7. What does the arrow on a synchro schematic symbol indicate?

a) The direction of current flowb) The direction of rotor movementc) The angular position of the statord) The angular position of the rotor

1-8. What are the two major components of a synchro?

a) The rotor and the statorb) The housing and the statorc) The rotor and the shaftd) The housing and the shaft

1-9. What type of rotor can be composed of a single winding or three Y-connected windings?

a) Salient-poleb) Drum or woundc) Fixedd) "H"

1-10. How does the stator of a TX receive voltage?

a. By a physical connection with the rotorb. By a magnetic coupling with another statorc. By a magnetic coupling with the rotord. By a physical connection with a source

1-11. What part of a synchro provides a point for external connections?

a. The terminal boardb. The slip ringc. The statord. The brush

1-12. Which of the following terms is defined as the amount of load a machine can turn?

a. Radian forceb. Load factorc. Torqued. Tension

1-13. Which of the following units should be used in measuring the amount of turning force of a synchro?

a. Ouncesb. Poundsc. Foot-poundsd. Ounce-inches

1-14. An overloaded synchro will probably exhibit which of the following conditions?

a. Overspeedb. Oscillationc. Excessive temperatured. Noisy operation

1-15. A synchro receiver has which of the following characteristics that is NOT found in an ordinary transformer?

a. A primary that can rotate in relation to the secondaryb. A primary magnetically coupled to the secondaryc. A step-up turns ratiod. An air core

1-16. When a synchro transmitter is in the zero-degree position, the rotor is aligned in what manner?

a. With winding S1b. With winding S2c. With winding S3d. Between winding S1 and S2

1-17. Maximum voltage is induced in a stator winding of a synchro transmitter when the rotor and the stator winding have what angle between them?

a. 0 degreesb. 30 degreesc. 60 degreesd. 90 degrees

1-18. Which of the following factors does NOT affect the amplitude of the voltage induced in a stator winding of a synchro transmitter?

a. The angular displacement between the rotor and statorb. The amplitude of the primary voltagec. The speed of data transmissiond. The turns ratio of the synchro

1-19. Damping is necessary for which of the following synchro devices?

a. Receiverb. Transmitterc. Control transformerd. Differential transmitter

1-20. The primary purpose of damping is to reduce which of the following conditions in a synchro device?

a. Readings 180º out of phaseb. Overheatingc. Oscillatingd. Each of the above

1-21. What is the minimum number of synchro devices needed for a simple synchro transmission system?


1-22. In a simple synchro system, what leads are connected to the source voltage?

a. R1 and R2b. S1 and S2c. S2 and S3d. R1 and S1

1-23. When a synchro transmitter, and receiver are in correspondence, what is the relative value of the (a) current through the stators and (b) receiver torque?

a. (a) Maximum (b) maximumb. (a) Maximum (b) minimumc. (a) Minimum (b) minimumd. (a) Minimum (b) maximum

1-24. What term applies to the angle through which a synchro transmitter rotor is rotated mechanically?

a. Lagb. Leadc. Gaind. Signal

1-25. If a synchro receiver is required to rotate in a direction opposite to the rotation of the transmitter rotor, what leads should be reversed?

a. R1 and R2b. S1 and S2c. S2 and S3d. S1 and S3

1-26. If a synchro receiver and transmitter are always 180 degrees out of phase with each other, what leads are reversed?

a. R1 and R2b. S1 and S2c. S2 and S3d. S1 and S3

1-27. What type of synchro can accept two signals simultaneously and add or subtract?

a. Transmissionb. Differentialc. Automaticd. Shiftless

1-28. What are the two types of synchro devices that will accept two inputs?

a. TR and TXb. TR and TDXc. TDR and TXd. TDR and TDX

1-29. What types of synchro devices have (a) one electrical and one mechanical input and an electrical output; and (b) two electrical inputs and a mechanical outputs?

a. (a) TR (b) TXb. (a) TX (b) TRc. (a) TDX (b) TDRd. (a) TDR (b) TDX

1-30. What determines whether a differential synchro device adds or subtracts its inputs?

a. The way it is connected in the systemb. The direction of rotor movementc. The number of stator windingsd. The supply voltage polarity

1-31. In a TDX system, for the TR rotor to follow the TX rotor exactly, in what position must the TDX rotor be kept?

a. 0 degree positionb. 60 degree positionc. 120 degree positiond. 240 degree position

1-32. What is the angular position of a TRrotor when it is pointing to the S3 winding?

a. 0 degreesb. 60 degreesc. 120 degreesd. 240 degrees

1-33. If a TDX system with standard synchro connections has the TX rotor at the 60- degree position and the TDX rotor at the 270-degree position, what is the position of the TR rotor?

a. 110 degreesb. 150 degreesc. dd. 250 degrees

1-34. For a TDX system to add its inputs ratherthan subtract them, what leads must be reversed between (a) the TX and TDX, and (b) the TR and TDX?

a. (a) S1 and S2 (b) R1 and R3b. (a) S1 and S3 (b) R1 and R3c. (a) S2 and S3 (b) R1 and R2d. (a) S1 and S3 (b) R1 and R2

1-35. For a TDR system to add its inputs ratherthan subtract them, what leads must be reversed at the TDR?

a. S1 and S3b. S1 and S2c. R1 and R3d. R1 and R2

1-36. If a TDR system is connected for addition and the TX rotor connected to the TDR rotor turns counterclockwise, in what direction will the TDR rotor field rotate?

a. In a direction determined by the other TX statorb. In a direction determined by the other TX rotorc. Counterclockwised. Clockwise

1-37. Which of the following types of synchrosis used in a system requiring large amounts of power and high accuracy?

a. Torqueb. Controlc. Differentiald. Each of the above

1-38. What are the three types of controlsynchros?

a. TX, TR, CTb. TX, CDX, CRc. CX, CT, CRd. CX, CT, CDX

1-39. The CX and CDX differ from the TX andTDX because the CX and CDX have which of the following characteristics?

a. Lower impedance windingsb. Higher impedance windingsc. Larger physical sized. Smaller physical size

1-40. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the rotor of a control transformer (CT) rotor?

a. It is connected to a high-impedance loadb. It must be turned by an external forcec. It is connected to an ac sourced. It has a drum- or wound-type rotor

1-41. When a control transformer is at electrical zero, the rotor is perpendicular to what winding?

a. S1b. S2c. S3d. R2

1-42. If a control transformer is held at electrical zero and the control transmitter is turned 90 degrees counterclockwise, what is (a) the amplitude of the induced voltage in the rotor of the control transformer, and (b) the phase relationship of this voltage and the excitation voltage to the control transmitter?

a. (a) Maximum (b) out-of-phaseb. (a) Maximum (b) in phasec. (a) Minimum (b) out-of-phased. (a) Minimum (b) in phase

1-43. Which of the following terms applies to the output of a control transformer?

a. Mechanical movementb. Deflection anglec. Output voltaged. Error signal

1-44. If the output of a control transformer iszero, what is the relationship of the rotorsof the control transformer and the controltransmitters?

a. In correlationb. Out of correlationc. In correspondenced. Out of correspondence

1-45. Synchro capacitors are used to providewhich of the following characteristics ina synchro system?

a. Improved accuracyb. Reduced oscillationsc. Wider frequency responsed. Higher load-carrying capacity

1-46. Which of the following synchro devicesuses a synchro capacitor?

a. TXb. RXc. TDRd. CDX

1-47. What type of current is eliminated bysynchro capacitors?

a. Lossb. Rotorc. Statord. Magnetizing Stator

1-48. In what configuration are synchrocapacitors connected in a synchrocircuit?

a. Wye, across the rotor windingsb. Delta, across the rotor windingsc. Wye, across the stator windingsd. Delta, across the stator windings

1-49. To maintain system accuracy, where aresynchro capacitors physically placed in asynchro circuit?

a. Close to the TX or RXb. Close to the TDX, CDX, or CTc. Midway between the TX and CTd. Far away from the TDR, CDX, or CT

1-50. Synchro systems that transmit data at twodifferent speeds are referred to by whichof the following terms?

a. Dual-speedb. Two-speedc. Twin-speedd. Each of the above

1-51. Multispeed synchro systems have whichof the following advantages over singlespeedsynchro systems?

a. Easier to troubleshoot and alignb. Fewer moving partsc. Greater accuracyd. All of the above

1-52. What does the gear ratio between the twotransmitters in a dual-speed synchrosystem determine?

a. The direction of transmitter-rotationb. The direction of receiver rotationc. The speeds of transmissiond. The relative direction of rotation

1-53. Which of the following synchro systems,if any, should be used to transmit verylarge quantities?

a. Single-speedb. Two-speedc. Tri-speedd. None of the above

1-54. Which of the following is a disadvantageof a double receiver as compared to twosingle receivers?

a. The entire unit must be replaced if one portion failsb. It takes up much more spacec. It is much more costlyd. It is much heavier

1-55. The voltage used to prevent falsesynchronizations is known by what term?

a. Error voltageb. Signal voltagec. Source voltaged. Stickoff voltage

1-56. What is the reference point for thealignment of all synchro units?

a. Mechanical zerob. Electrical zeroc. Mechanical nulld. Electrical null

1-57. What is the most accurate method ofaligning a synchro?

a. The dc voltmeter methodb. The ac voltmeter methodc. The synchro-tester methodd. The electric-lock method

1-58. During synchro alignment, what is thepurpose of the coarse setting?

a. To ensure a setting of zero degrees rather than 180 degrees

b. To prevent the voltmeter from being overloadedc. To keep the synchro device from overheatingd. To correct the fine setting

1-59. If a synchro receiver is properly zeroed,when do the stator windings haveelectrical zero voltages?

a. When the rotor is movingb. When the rotor is stoppedc. When the rotor is at 270 degreesd. When the rotor is at its reference position

1-60. When a 115-volt synchro transmitter isset on its coarse-zero position, approximately what voltage should be read on a voltmeter?

a. 15 voltsb. 26 voltsc. 37 voltsd. 193 volts

1-61. When a 115-volt source is used during the alignment of a differential synchro, what is the maximum time the circuit can be energized without causing damage to the synchro?

a. 1 minuteb. 2 minutesc. 15 minutesd. 30 minutes

1-62. After a control transformer has beenzeroed and clamped down, what is thefinal step in the zeroing procedure?

a. Replace the fusesb. Turn it to 270 degreesc. Recheck the zero voltage readingd. Disconnect all wires to the control transformer

1-63. The output voltage of a control transformer on electrical zero is which of the following relative values?

a. Equal to the supply voltageb. Half the supply voltagec. Maximumd. Minimum

1-64. When a tri-speed synchro system is beingzeroed, which synchro should be zeroedfirst?

a. Coarseb. Mediumc. Largestd. Fine

1-65. What method of zeroing a synchro is thefastest but NOT the most accurate?

a. The dc voltmeter methodb. The ac voltmeter methodc. The synchro-tester methodd. The electrical-lock method

1-66. The electrical-lock method of zeroing asynchro requires accessible leads andwhich of the following conditions?

a. A rotor free to turnb. A stator free to turnc. A supply voltage to the statorsd. A zero-volt potential between S1 and

1-67. A synchro is zeroed by the use of a synchro tester. After it is zeroed, the S1 and S3 leads are shorted together, and the synchro tester dial moves. What does this indicate?

a. The synchro is zeroed correctlyb. The synchro is not zeroed correctlyc. The supply voltage is too lowd. The supply voltage is too high

1-68. If you find that a synchro has badbearings, which of the following actionsshould you take?

a. Replace the bearingb. Lubricate the synchroc. Replace the synchrod. Continue to use it

1-69. Which of the following troubles iscommon in newly installed synchrosystems?

a. Dirty brushesb. Improper wiringc. Worn slip ringsd. Shorted synchro windings

1-70. What type of indicating device is usuallyinstalled in the stator circuit of a torquesynchro system?

a. A voltmeter indicatorb. An ohmmeter indicatorc. An overload indicatord. A blown-fuse indicator

1-71. A synchro system with four receivers is malfunctioning. All of the receivers have incorrect readings. Which of the following is/are the most likely cause(s) of the trouble?

a. Damper failureb. The transmitterc. One of the receiversd. All of the receivers

1-72. An ac voltmeter is connected between windings S1 and S3 of a synchro transmitter. Which of the following rotor positions should give a zero voltage reading?

a. 180ºb. 240ºc. 300ºd. 330º

1-73. When a synchro tester is used in place ofa synchro transmitter, which of the following precautions will help to keep the tester from being overloaded?

a. Use a 26-volt supply onlyb. Use a 115-volt supply onlyc. Use only one syncho receiverd. Use at least three synchro receivers

2-1. A servo is normally designed to move (a)what type of load to (b) what type ofpositions?

a. (a) Small (b) Exactb. (a) Small (b) Approximatec. (a) Large (b) Exactd. (a) Large (b) Approximate

2-2. Servo systems can be found in which ofthe following forms?

a. Pneumaticb. Hydraulicc. Electromechanicald. Each of the above

2-3. Which of the following systems arecontrol systems?

a. Open-loopb. Closed-loopc. Both 1 and 2 aboved. Inductive-loop

2-4. A servo system is defined as which of thefollowing types of control systems?

a. Open-loopb. Closed-loopc. Both 1 and 2 aboved. Inductive-loop

2-5. Which of the following is a basic difference between an open-loop control system and a closed-loop control system?

a. Number of loopsb. Size of the loadc. Speed of movementd. System of feedback

2-9. In a dc position servo system, what characteristic of the error signal determines the direction in which the load is driven?

a. Amplitudeb. Frequencyc. Polarityd. Phase

2-10. The sum point in a position servo systemcombines what two signals to produce anerror signal?

a. Response and outputb. Feedback and Outputc. Feedback and inputd. Output and input

2-11. A position servo system exhibits a seriesof overtravels. This condition is knownby which of the following terms?

a. Huntingb. Overdampingc. Undershootingd. All of the above

2-12. A velocity servo has which of the following characteristics?

a. Senses position of the load; no error signal at correspondenceb. Senses position of the load; error signal present at correspondencec. Senses speed of the load; no error signal at correspondenced. Senses speed of the load; error signal present at correspondence

2-13. What device is usually used to providefeedback in a velocity servo loop?

a. Potentiometerb. Tachometerc. CTd. CX

2-14. For a servo system to operate smoothly and efficiently, it must have balance between which of the following factors?

a. Acceleration and speedb. Inertia and oscillationc. Amplification and dampingd. Overshooting and feedback signal

2-15. When friction-clutch damping is used ina servo system, the first overshoot of theload may be characterized as

a. smallb. largec. reversedd. eliminated

2-16. Error-rate damping is considered to be better than friction or friction-clutch damping because of which of the following characteristics of the error-rate damping system?

a. A large error signal of short duration will not be dampedb. A small error signal of short duration will not be dampedc. A large change in the error signal causes maximum dampingd. A small change in the error signal causes maximum damping

2-17. Under what condition would a servo system that is properly designed and operating correctly have an oscillating load?

a. The input signal is large in amplitudeb. The input signal oscillatesc. Error-rate damping is usedd. Friction damping is used

2-18. A servo system is found to be "noisy." If the bandwidth of the servo amplifier were adjusted to reject the unwanted noise signals, which of the following characteristics of the servo system wouldbe affected?

a. Amplifier gainb. Power requirementsc. Correspondence positiond. Error-detection capability

2-19. Which of the following devices can beused as a position sensor in a servosystem?

a. A summing networkb. An E-transformerc. A potentiometerd. A CT

2-20. Which of the following devices aremagnetic error detectors?

a. CXsb. E-transformersc. Summing networksd. All of the above

2-21. A dc rate generator is used in which ofthe following loops of a velocity servosystem?

a. Prime moverb. Feedbackc. Controld. Error

2-22. What is the function of a modulator in aservo system?

a. To change the frequency of an ac error signalb. To impress an ac error signal on an ac carrierc. To convert a dc error signal to an ac error signald. To convert an ac error signal to a dc error signal

2-23. In a servo system that uses a modulator, what characteristic of the modulator output determines the direction of load movement?

a. Amplitudeb. Frequencyc. Polarityd. Phase

2-24. What phase relationships between theinput and reference signals are sensed bya servo demodulator?

a. 0º and 180ºb. 45º and 225ºc. 90º and 270ºd. 135º and 315º

2-25. In a properly operating servo system,what is the phase relationship betweenthe reference voltages to the errordetector and the demodulator?

a. In phase onlyb. 180º out of phase onlyc. Out of phase; somewhere between 0º and 180ºd. In phase or 180º out of phase, depending on the demodulator input

2-26. Which of the following should be acharacteristic of a servo amplifier?

a. Narrow frequency bandb. High output impedancec. 180º phase shiftd. Low noise level

2-27. An ac servo motor would probably be used instead of a dc servo motor in which of the following situations?

a. To move heavy loads at a constant speedb. To move heavy loads at variable speedsc. To move light loads at a constant speedd. To move light loads at variable speeds

2-28. Which of the following circuits that is required in a multispeed servo system is NOT required in a single-speed servo system?

a. Position sensorb. Error detectorc. Feedback loopd. Synchronizer

2-29. In a two-speed servo system such as thatdescribed in the text, which of thefollowing components controls themovement of the load at 2º but doesNOT control the movement of the load at10º?

a. Fine CTb. Coarse CTc. Synchronizerd. Servoamplifier

2-30. In which of the following situationsshould a magnetic amplifier be usedinstead of a conventional amplifier?

a. When a small load is to be driven at high speeds

b. If great accuracy is required in positioning the loadc. If a dual-speed servo system is requiredd. When a heavy load is to be moved

2-31. Most servo systems used in the Navy areof which of the following types?

a. Open-loopb. Multi-loopc. Single-loopd. Summing-loop

2-32. Which of the following objects has gyroscopic properties?

a. A spinning topb. A wheel on a moving bicyclec. The moving blade assembly of an electric fand. Each of the above

2-33. Which of the following axes, if any, isthe gyro spin axis?

a. X-Xb. Y-Yc. Z-Zd. None of the above

2-34. The ability of a gyro to maintain a fixedposition in space is referred to by whatterm?

a. Precessionb. Rigidityc. Apparent rotationd. Gimbal-stability

2-35. A gyro will resist all forces that attemptto change its

a. locationb. spin axis directionc. speed of rotationd. center of gravity

2-36. What action takes place when an outside force attempts to tilt the spin axis of a gyro?

a. The gyro precesses in the direction of the applied force

b. The gyro precesses in a direction opposite to the applied force

c. The gyro precesses in a direction at a right angle to the applied force

d. The gyro remains fixed in its original positionT

2-37. For a gyro to be universally mounted, it MUST have a total of how many gimbals, if any?

a. Oneb. Twoc. Threed. None

2-38. Of the following factors, which one doesNOT affect rigidity?

a. Rotor speedb. Rotor shapec. Rotor weightd. Rotor position

2-39. The forces that act through the center ofgravity of a gyro and do NOT cause precession are referred to by what term?

a. Forces of translationb. Forces of inductionc. Forces of isolationd. Forces of erection

2-40. Which of the following factors determine(s) the amount of precession that will result from a given applied force?

a. Rotor speedb. Rotor weightc. Rotor shaped. All of the above

2-41. Which of the following factors determine(s) the direction a gyro will precess in response to a particular force?

a. Speed of the rotor's spinb. Shape of the rotorc. Direction of the rotor's spind. All of the above

2-42. If all of the rotors are rotated at the samespeed, which one will have the greatest rigidity?

a. Ab. Bc. Cd. D

2-43. According to the right-hand rule for gyroprecession, what does the thumb indicate?

a. Spin vector and axisb. Torque vector and axisc. Precession vector and axisd. Axis of rotor rotation only

2-44. Which of the following is a universallymounted gyro?

a. A one-degree-of-freedom gyrob. A two-degrees-of-freedom gyroc. A restrained gyrod. A rate gyro

2-45. A free gyro at the Equator appears to tilt.What is the approximate total number ofdegrees it will tilt in 4 hours?

a. 60ºb. 90ºc. 120ºd. 180º

2-46. Which of the following factors is NOT acause of mechanical drift?

a. Unbalanceb. Frictionc. Apparent precessiond. Gimbal inertia

2-47. Which of the following is a purpose of agyro-erection system?

a. To precess the gyro to its operating positionb. To prevent a gyro from precessing once the rotor is up to speedc. To establish a vertical position to which the gyro position may be comparedd. Each of the above

2-48. Which of the following is an advantagethat the mercury ballistic erection systemhas over the mercury erection system?

a. Greater sensitivityb. Faster response timec. Spin axis aligns in any desired positiond. Spin axis aligns north-south

2-49. What is the principal purpose of rate gyros?

a. To serve as gyroscopesb. To serve as reference elementsc. To measure accelerationd. To measure angular rates

2-50. In what maximum number of directionsis a rate gyro free to precess?


2-51. The amount of precession of a rate gyrois proportional to what input factor?

a. Rate of gyro case rotationb. Amount of gyro case rotationc. Rate of linear displacementd. Amount of total movement

2-52. The operation of an accelerometer isbased on what physical property?

a. Heatb. Inertiac. Gravityd. Precession

2-53. Accelerometers find their greatest use inwhat type of system?

a. Navigationb. Communicationc. Weapons controld. Direction-indicating

2-54. Pulse-counting accelerometers aredesigned for use only with what type ofequipment?

a. Radar sensorsb. Electronic compassesc. Analog indicatorsd. Digital computers

2-55. Which of the following is NOT adifference between IC synchros andstandard synchros?

a. Amount of torque availableb. Construction of the statorc. Construction of the rotord. Principle of operation

2-56. If an IC receiver were used, whatwinding of the receiver would beconnected to winding R1 of the ICtransmitter?

a. R1b. R3c. S1d. S1

2-57. If a standard synchro receiver were used,what winding of the receiver would beconnected to winding R3 of the ICtransmitter?

a. R1b. R3c. S1d. S3

2-58. Angular data is to be transmitted and dcis the only power available. Which ofthe following systems should be used?

a. Resolver systemb. IC synchro systemc. Step-transmission systemd. Servo system using a CT and a dc servo motor

2-59. A step-transmission system is to be builtin which the steps are to be smaller thanthe steps in the system shown on page 4-3 of the text. What must be done to thesystem shown in the text to accomplishthis change?

a. Increase the number of coilsb. Decrease the number of coilsc. Increase the supply voltaged. Decrease the supply voltage

2-60. Which of the following is an advantagethat a step-transmission system has overa standard synchro system?

a. Smaller changes in data can be transmittedb. Transmitted data is "smoother"c. Synchronizing is not neededd. Cost is considerably less

2-61. A resolver performs which of thefollowing mathematical functions?

a. Differentiationb. Trigonometricc. Integrationd. Algebraic

2-62. Resolvers are used aboard a ship to keepa gun mount steady regardless of thepitch and roll of the ship. Whatcharacteristic of the resolver makes itespecially useful for this application?

a. Provides instant solutions with constantly changing inputsb. Provides higher power gain for greater accuracyc. Uses error-rate damping for smoother solutionsd. Uses ac for greater efficiency

2-63. The (a) rotor and (b) stator of a resolverare best described by which of the following?

a. (a) A single coil (b) Three coils, wye-connectedb. (a) Two coils in parallel (b) Two coils in seriesc. (a) Two coils in series (b) Two coils in paralleld. (a) Two coils at right angles (b) Two coils at right angles

TEST METHODS

1-1. What is the purpose of the Navy's Metrology Calibration Program?

a. To provide the fleet with new types of test equipment

b. To provide quality control for your test equipment

c. To improve the efficiency of sophisticated electronic systems

d. To establish test equipment pools from which technicians can borrow

1-2. At each higher echelon METCAL calibration laboratory, the accuracy of the test equipment increases by a factor of

a) 10b) 2c) 100d) 4

1-3. Most equipment technical manuals contain voltage charts. For which of the following purposes are they used?

a) To list the equipment's power suppliesb) To list the input power requirements of the equipmentc) To provide handy reference guides for calculating voltage drops across fixed impedancesd) To list correct voltages at major test points

1-4. Which, if any, of the following statements correctly describes the effect input impedance of test equipment can have on readings taken?

a) The greater the input impedance of your test equipment, the less accurate the readingsb) The lower the input impedance of your test equipment, the more accurate the readingsc) A piece of test equipment with an infinite input impedance will absorb no energy and readings will be more accurated) None of the above

1-5. A piece of test equipment with a low input impedance can cause readings taken to be inaccurate. To eliminate this problem, the input impedance of your test equipment should exceed the impedance of the circuit under test by what minimum ratio?

a) 1 to 1b) 2 to 1c) 10 to 1d) 100 to 1

1-6. Compared to using just one of the lower impedance meters, what is the advantage of using two meters connected in series?

a) Input impedance increases and voltage-measuring accuracy increasesb) Frequency response of the test setup doublesc) Accuracy of current measurements decreasesd) Input impedance decreases and voltage measuring accuracy increases

1-7. On an analog multimeter, where on the scale are the most accurate readings taken?

a) At the highest end of the scaleb) At the lowest end of the scalec) Midscaled) It makes no difference if the meter is properly calibrated

1-8. What can you do to reduce the problem of meter-reading errors caused by parallax?

a) Close one eye when reading the meterb) Use short meter leadsc) Use a meter that has a mirror built into the scaled) View the meter face from either the left or right side, but not directly in front

1-9. For what primary reason are oscilloscopes used in circuit testing?

a) They provide a visual presentation of the signal under testb) They present a low input impedance to the circuit under testc) They provide numerical readouts of signals under testd) They measure voltages more accurately than other pieces of test equipment

1-11. Digital multimeters effectively eliminate which of the following disadvantages of analog meters?

a) Parallaxb) Low impedancec) Poor accuracyd) All of the above

1-12. Which of the following pieces of test equipment is most accurate for measuring dc voltages?

a) Vtvmb) Oscilloscopec) Digital voltmeterd) Differential voltmeter

1-13. If you exceed the frequency limitations of your voltmeter, which of the following results is likely?

a) The meter will be destroyedb) The circuit under test will be damagedc) The measurement will be inaccurated) The meter will indicate average voltage

1-14. When performing measurements with an oscilloscope, you should ensure that the trace extends across what minimum portion of the vertical viewing area?

a) 15%b) 25%c) 45%d) 60%

1-15. When using an oscilloscope to measure a high voltage, you should use which of the following procedures?

a. Use the logic probe instead of the normal probeb. Use the high voltage probe instead of the normal probec. Use two oscilloscopes connected in seriesd. Place a 10-ohm shunt across the vertical input of the oscilloscope

1-16. Oscilloscopes are normally calibrated to display which of the following types of voltages?

a. Peakb. Averagec. Peak-to-peakd. Both 2 and 3 above

1-17. When using an oscilloscope to observe a sine wave, what, if anything, must you do to determine the rms voltage?

a. Divide the observed peak-to-peak voltage by 3.65b. Multiply the observed peak-to-peak voltage by 2; then divide by 1.414c. Divide the observed peak-to-peak voltage by 2; then multiply by 0.707d. Nothing

1-18. The frequency-measuring capabilities of a digital multimeter can be extended by using which of the following devices?

a. An rf probeb. A frequency doublerc. A high-voltage probed. A frequency divider network

1-19. When performing ac voltage measurements, you should use which of the following pieces of equipment to obtain the most accurate reading?

a. A differential voltmeterb. An oscilloscopec. A Simpson 260d. A wattmeter

1-20. For which of the following purposes would you connect two ammeters in parallel?

a. To perform voltage measurementsb. To increase frequency-measuring

capabilitiesc. To decrease input impedanced. To increase input impedance

1-21. When taking measurements with two ammeters connected in parallel, how do you determine the resulting readings?

a. The current equals the sum of both meter readingsb. The current equals the difference of the two meter readingsc. The current equals the product of the two readings divided by their sumd. Read either meter directly; the same current flows through both meters

1-22. Current tracers indicate the presence of a current in which of the following ways? a. By the lighting of an indicator lampb. By a clicking noisec. Both 1 and 2 aboved. By the movement of a meter

1-23. Which of the following is an advantage of using a current probe? a. It is the most accurate method of measuring currentb. It senses current by induction without being connected directly into the circuitc. It is battery operatedd. It is capable of measuring current at frequencies above 40 GHz

1-24. When troubleshooting a specific piece of equipment, you can find an accurate listing of resistance readings for specific test points in which of the following documents?

a. In equipment PMS cardsb. In test equipment manualsc. In equipment technical manualsd. In Naval Ships Technical Manuals

1-25. An ohmmeter that is used for field work should meet which of the following criteria?

a. It should be extremely accurateb. It should be portablec. It should be simple to operated. Both 2 and 3 above

1-26. When you use an analog multimeter to measure resistance, which of the following actions should you take first?

a. Make sure the meter is zeroedb. Set the meter for dc voltagec. Set the meter for ac voltaged. Make sure the meter leads do not exceed 36 inches

1-27. Digital multimeters are used to test semiconductors for which of the following reasons?

a) They produce voltage sufficient to gate all Zener diodesb) Their LED displays are easier to read than analog displaysc) They typically limit the current flow through the semiconductor to less than 1 milliampd) They produce in excess of the 500 milliamps

normally required to gate a PN junction

1-28. Compensation for the resistance in test leads of digital multimeters used to perform resistance measurements is accomplished by which, if any, of the following methods?

a. Short the leads, note the lead resistance displayed, and add this value to subsequent resistance measurementsb. Short the leads, note the lead resistance displayed, and subtract the value from subsequent resistance measurementsc. Add 10% to the readingd. None of the above

1-29. Which of the following is a typical use for a megger?

a. Testing MOSFETsb. Testing filter capacitorsc. Testing thermistor mountsd. Testing an ac power cord for insulation breakdown

1-30. When large capacitors are stored as spare parts, why should their terminals be shorted with a piece of wire?

a. It prevents dielectric leakageb. It prevents deterioration of the platesc. It prevents the capacitors from becoming charged when in close proximity to an rf fieldd. It prevents electrolytic capacitors from changing value during periods of storage

1-31. Capacitance meters can be grouped into which of the following basic categories?

a. Wheatstone type and Kelvin Varley typeb. Bridge-type and reactance-typec. Depletion-type and enhancement typed. Resistive-type and reactive-type

1-32. Which of the following statements correctly describes the accuracy and use of a reactance-type capacitance meter?

a. It gives approximate values and is usually portableb. It gives approximate values and is used in calibration laboratories onlyc. It is very accurate and is usually portabled. It is very accurate and is used to measure capacitors that have a high power factor

1-33. Which of the following types of inductor core materials produces the greatest inductance?

a. Micab. Magnetic metalc. Polyparoloxylened. Nonmagnetic metal

1-34. As frequency increases, the inherent resistance of the inductor causes which of the following types of losses to become more critical?

a. Hysteresisb. Skin effectc. Eddy currentsd. Standing waves

1-35. Most capacitance test sets are capable of testing capacitors and what other type of component?

a. TRIACSb. Inductorsc. Resistorsd. Barretters

1-36. When using reactance-type test equipment to measure inductance, what relationship exists between the inductor and the voltage drop across the reactance of the inductor?

a. The voltage drop is directly proportional to the value of inductanceb. The voltage drop is inversely proportional to the value of inductancec. The voltage drop is proportional to the dielectric constant (K) of the inductord. The voltage drop is inversely proportional to the frequency of the applied voltage

1-37. Aboard ship you should be able to troubleshoot equipment failures to the component level for which of the following reasons?

a. Ships must be self-sustaining units when deployedb. Storage space on board ships limits the number of bulky items or electronic modules that can be storedc. Individual components may be easier to obtain than modules or larger equipment piecesd. All of the above

1-38. What is the most common cause of electron tube failures?

a. Vibration damageb. Open filamentsc. Shorted elementsd. Power supply voltage surges

1-39. The simplest way to test a tube is by which of the following methods?

a. Using a tube testerb. Measuring tube element voltagesc. Feeling for signs of overheatingd. Substituting tubes

1-40. Test conditions for the electron tube tester described in the text are set by which of the following methods?

a. By a technician setting switchesb. By using a magnetic tape programc. By using a prepunched card programd. By inserting the tube into the appropriate socket

1-41. The electron tube tester can be used to test common low-power tubes for which of the following conditions?

a. Gasb. Qualityc. Leakaged. Each of the above

1-42. Pushbuttons on the electron tube tester are used to test for which of the following conditions?

a. Emissionb. Transconductancec. Other quality testsd. Each of the above

1-43. Which of the following tests is automatically performed when the electron tube tester card switch is first actuated?

a. Gasb. Shortsc. Opensd. Quality

1-44. Which of the following methods is normally used to test high-power amplifier tubes?

a. Using tube testersb. Performing interelectrode resistance checksc. Making gain measurements with an oscilloscoped. Observing built-in meters that measure grid

and plate current and power output

1-45. Which, if any, of the following problems occur when klystrons are left in storage or not used for more than 6 months?

a. They become gassyb. The elements become tarnished and ruin the tubec. All external metallic parts become tarnished and must be cleaned prior to used. None

1-46. Which of the following actions should you take to restore operation if the klystron is gassy?

a. Replace the klystron with a new oneb. Return it to the nearest depot for intermediate maintenancec. Evacuate the gas by igniting the tube’s getterd. Operate it at reduced beam voltage for approximately 8 hours

1-47. Traveling-wave tubes (twt) should be replaced if they deviate from design specifications by what minimum percentage? a. 1%b. 10%c. 25%d. 33%

1-48. If a twt used as an oscillator fails, which of the following indications should you observe?

a. The twt will become noisyb. Equipment line fuses will blowc. The twt will have reduced output powerd. The twt will fail to break into oscillation when all other conditions are normal

1-49. Which of the following is an appropriate reason to use transistors instead of electron tubes?

a. Transistors are more rugged than electron tubesb. Transistors are not as heat sensitive as electron tubesc. Transistors are not as sensitive as electron tubes to voltage overloadsd. Transistors are capable of handling greater amounts of power than electron tubes

1-50. When using an ohmmeter to test a transistor’s base-to-emitter or base-to-collector junction, what minimum back-to-forward resistance ratio should you expect to read?

a. 5 to 1b. 10 to 1c. 50 to 1d. 100 to 1

1-51. When taking forward and reverse resistance readings between a transistor’s emitter and collector, what type of reading should you get?

a. Both the forward and reverse readings should be nearly the same

b. A short in both the forward and reverse directionsc. Less than 15 ohms when measuring in the forward direction and infinite in the reverse directiond. Less than 15 ohms in the reverse direction and infinite in the forward direction

1-52. When using an ohmmeter to test transistors, you should avoid using R1 range for which of the following reasons?

a. The R1 range is not as accurate as the other rangesb. Most ohmmeters do not produce sufficient voltage on

the R1 range to properly bias a transistor junctionc. Some ohmmeters produce in excess of 100 milliamps

of current on the R1 range and could possibly damage the transistord. The R1 scale is not capable of measuring the high resistances that are typical of a PN junction when forward biased

1-53. When using a soldering iron to replace transistors, you must be sure there is no current leakage between the power source and the tip of the iron. Which of the following actions should you take if current leakage is detected?

a. Reduce the wattage of the heating elementb. Use an isolation transformer to power the soldering ironc. Use a soldering gun instead of a soldering irond. Isolate the soldering iron from ground by disconnecting the soldering iron safety ground wire

1-54. Which of the following is a description of ESDS devices?

a. Components that are sensitive to electrostatic dischargeb. Components that are sensitive to the electromagnetic pulse produced by a nuclear detonationc. State-of-the-art devices used to detect electronic

emissionsd. Devices designed to withstand any type of electromagnetic or electrostatic interference

1-55. MOS and CMOS devices without input diode protection circuitry belong in which, if any, of the following ESDS device categories?

a. Sensitive devicesb. Very sensitive devicesc. Moderately sensitive devicesd. None of the above

1-56. Wearing a grounded wrist strap when repairing electronic circuit boards serves which of the following purposes?

a. It identifies you as being 2M qualifiedb. It protects ESDS devices from damagec. It protects the technician from electrical

shockd. It protects you from rf burns when working near radar antennas

1-57. What, if any, precaution should you take before you open a package that contains an ESDS device?

a. Rub the package against a dissimilar materialb. Discharge any static electricity by connecting a grounded lead to the packagec. Measure the static charge on the package with an oscilloscope to ensure that it is within toleranced. None

2-1. Which of the following servicing techniques applies to semiconductors?

a. Substituting a semiconductor with a known good semiconductor is a simple way to test themb. Voltage and resistance measurements are taken

prior to substituting semiconductorsc. Substituting semiconductors is cumbersome if

more than one is bad or if they are soldered into the circuit

d. All of the above

2-2. What minimum ratio of back-to-forward resistance should you expect when testing a diode?

a) 1 to 1b) 10 to 1c) 50 to 1d) 100 to 1

2-3. Which of the following characteristics of a diode cannot be determined by using a multimeter?

a. How the diode reacts to various voltagesb. How the diode reacts to various frequenciesc. Both 1 and 2 aboved. How the diode reacts to forward and reverse dc biasing

2-4. How are SCRs normally used in the Navy?

a. As rectifiersb. As power control devicesc. As voltage regulatorsd. As switching diodes in digital applications

2-5. To forward bias an SCR, which elements should you short together?

a. The gate and anodeb. The cathode and anodec. The cathode and gated. All three elements

2-6. What, if anything, will be the result of removing the short after it has been made?

a. Current flow from the cathode to the anode will stopb. Current flow from the anode to the cathode will stopc. Current can flow in either direction between the anode and cathoded. Nothing

2-7. With a momentary short connected between the gate and anode 2, the TRIAC will be forward biased and allow current to flow between what elements?

a. From the gate to anode 1b. From the gate to anode 2c. From anode 1 to anode 2 onlyd. In either direction between the two anodes

2-8. What readings should you expect to find when you measure the resistance between bases 1 and 2 of a UJT?

a. A short regardless of the polarity of the meter leadsb. A high resistance value regardless of the polarity of

the meter leadsc. Approximately 15 ohms between base 1 and base

2 with the negative meter lead connected to base 1

d. Approximately 15 ohms between the two bases with the negative meter lead connected to base 2

2-9. For which, if any, of the following reasons do JFETs have circuit applications similar to those of vacuum tubes?

a. JFETs have a high input impedance and are voltage- responsiveb. JFETs have a low input impedance and a frequency response comparable to that of vacuum tubesc. JFETs have a high input impedance and are current- responsived. None of the above

2-10. With the negative lead of an ohmmeter attached to the gate and the positive lead attached to the source, which of the JFETs in figure 2D would be good if the meter shows infinity?

a. P-channelb. N-channelc. Both 1 and 2 aboved. Neither 1 or 2

2-11. When measuring resistance between the drain and source of a depletion/enhancement type of MOSFET, what readings should you expect?

a. 15 ohms in one direction and infinity in the other direction

b. The same value of resistance in both directionsc. A short in one direction and infinity in the otherd. Infinite reading regardless of meter lead polarities

2-12. When measuring resistance between the gate, source, and drain of a depletion/enhancement type of MOSFET with the negative lead attached to the gate, what readings should you expect?

a. Both readings should be infinityb. Both readings should be between 15 ohms and 100 ohmsc. Both readings should be approximately 1,000 ohmsd. Both readings should be less than 10 ohms

2-13. When unsoldering a MOSFET from a printed circuit board, you should avoid using a vacuum plunger solder sucker for which of the following reasons?

a. Solder suckers can generate high electrostatic charges that can damage MOSFETsb. Solder suckers create a vacuum that can physically damage MOSFETsc. Solder suckers are not authorized for any type of

equipment repaird. Solder suckers require the use of a high wattage soldering iron that may damage MOSFETs

2-14. When comparing resistance readings of an enhancement type of MOSFET to those of a depletion/enhancement type of MOSFET, which, if any, of the following differences should you notice?

a. The resistance between the substrate and the gate of the enhancement type should be less than 15 ohms

b. The measurement between the drain and source of the enhancement type should read infinite regardless of

meter lead polarityc. The resistances between the gate and the drain and between the gate and the source of the enhancement type should be noticeably higherd. None of the above

2-15. Which of the following is/are (an) advantage(s) of integrated circuits when compared to circuits made up of separate components and interconnections?

a. Lower power consumptionb. Smaller size of the equipmentc. Lower equipment costd. All of the above

2-16. Which of the following is a characteristic of linear ICs?

a. They do not require regulated power suppliesb. They are typically sensitive to their supply voltagesc. They are never classed as electrostatic discharge sensitive devicesd. They are comparable in size to their equivalent transistor circuits

2-17. For which of the following reasons would you classify an IC as a "black box" device?

a. Because ICs are always black in colorb. Because all you can check are the inputs and outputs, not the internal operation of ICsc. Because printed circuit boards that contain ICs cannot be repairedd. Because ICs are designed to be repairable

components

2-18. Test equipment used to detect the logic state of a digital IC should have which of the following characteristics?

a. A capability of measuring rms voltagesb. A frequency response in excess of 40 GHzc. A high input impedanced. A low input impedance

2-19. Which of the following statements describes) the use of logic clips?

a. Logic clips are designed to monitor the input and output of an IC simultaneouslyb. Logic clips can only be used to test an IC that is out of the circuitc. Logic clips can only be used with flat pack ICsd. All of the above

2-20. For which of the following purposes are logic comparators used?

a. To test linear ICsb. To compare different types of ICsc. To inject pulse trains into digital ICsd. For in-circuit testing of digital ICs by comparing them with reference ICs

2-21. Which of the following is an advantage of using a logic probe instead of an oscilloscope to test a digital IC?

a. Logic probes are usually larger than an oscilloscope but much lighterb. Logic probes have a low input impedancec. Logic probes are battery powered and do not react to line voltage variationsd. Logic probes are capable of detecting short-duration pulses that most oscilloscopes cannot display

2-22. For which of the following purposes are logic pulsers used?

a. To detect the logic state of digital ICsb. To detect the logic state of linear ICsc. To inject a pulse or pulse train into a logic circuitd. To inject a 1-kHz sine wave into a circuit for signal tracing

2-23. Which of the following is a typical application for a logic analyzer?

a. To program EPROMsb. To test individual logic ICsc. To analyze the spectral purity at the output of a logic ICd. To perform timing analysis by monitoring and comparing more than one timing signal simultaneously

2-24. Which of the following instruments is used to test the specific gravity of a lead acid battery's electrolyte?

a. Hydrometerb. Hygrometerc. Electrometerd. Gravitometer

2-25. Smoking is prohibited in the vicinity of lead-acid storage batteries for which of the following reasons?

a. Cigarette smoke neutralizes the electrolyteb. Lead-acid batteries produce explosive hydrogen when they are being chargedc. Fumes produced by a lead-acid battery mixed with cigarette smoke produce a toxic by-productd. All of the above

2-26. When testing dry cell batteries, which of the following procedures should you follow?

a. The battery should be tested under load conditions

b. The battery should not be tested under load conditionsc. The battery should be tested at various temperaturesd. Both 2 and 3 above

2-27. Which of the following dry cell batteries is rechargeable?

a. NICADb. Alkalinec. Carbon-zincd. Mercury cells

2-28. Which of the following is the correct maximum charge rate for a NICAD battery rated at 300 milliampere hours?

a. 300 milliamperes for 15 hoursb. 60 milliamperes for 15 hoursc. 30 milliamperes for 15 hoursd. 600 milliamperes for 15 hours

2-29. Which of the following is a characteristic of fixed rf attenuators?

a. They are used to match impedancesb. They are designed to handle small amounts of rf powerc. They are usually built into the equipment in which they are usedd. They are capable of handling several kilowatts of power

2-30. Which of the following is an easy method of performing an operational test on a decade resistor?

a. Use an swr meterb. Use the resistance substitution methodc. Read the resistance with an ohmmeterd. Apply an rf voltage across the decade, measuring the voltage drop and computing the resistance

2-31. Which of the following is/are the disadvantages of glass-core, fiber-optic cables?

a. They are smaller in diameter than plastic-core fibersb. They are extremely susceptible to mechanical damagec. They exhibit signal losses as high as 25 dB/kmd. Both 2 and 3 above

2-32. Which of the following types of test equipment should you use to measure the losses in a fiber optic cable if only one end of the cable is accessible?

a. An optical ohmmeterb. A Wheatstone bridgec. An optical power meterd. An optical time-domain reflectometer

2-33. When using the AN/USM-465 portable service processor, which of the following procedures is possible?

a. Identifying faulty components on digital printed circuit boardsb. Troubleshooting its own printed circuit boardsc. When using the guided probe, it will tell you if

you have placed the probe on the wrong test pointd. All of the above

2-34. Which of the following measurements add resistance and inductive and capacitive reactance?

a. Qb. Resonancec. Impedanced. Figure of merit

2-35. Bridge circuits are used in the measurement of impedance for which of the following reasons?

a. Bridges are one of the most accurate devices for measuring impedanceb. Bridges are only slightly less accurate than vtvm's when measuring impedancec. Bridges are useful in measuring frequencyd. Both 2 and 3 above

2-36. Bridge circuits typically contain which of the following sections?

a. A measuring circuit and comparing circuitb. A detector circuitc. A power circuitd. All of the above

2-37. When approximate values for resistance, capacitance, or inductance to be measured by a bridge are unknown, which, if any, of the following actions should you take?

a. Connect two bridges in parallel to make the measurementb. Assign a temporary value to the component and set up the bridge accordinglyc. Place an adjustable shunt across the meter terminalsd. None of the above

2-38. The most serious errors affecting the accuracy of bridge measurements can be attributed to which of the following problems?

a. The capacitive and inductive characteristics of the connecting leadsb. The resistance of the test leadsc. D'Arsonval meter movements used as detectorsd. Improper selection of meter shunts

2-39. Which of the following considerations should be given when applying external excitation to a bridge circuit?

a. The voltage applied should equal the maximum voltage rating of the component under testb. The higher the voltage, the more accurate the measurementc. Apply only enough voltage to obtain a reliable indicator deflectiond. External excitation should be limited to 115 v 60 Hz

2-40. It is difficult to measure resistances less than 1 ohm with a bridge because of which of the following factors?

a. Contact resistance is present between the resistor being measured and the binding posts of the

bridgeb. Excessive supply voltage is required to excite the

galvanometerc. The frequency of the excitation source creates excessive skin currents in the resistor under testd. The excitation voltage causes low value resistors to

heat excessively

2-41. What type of bridge is recommended for measuring resistances less than 1 ohm?

a. Wheatstone bridgeb. Schering bridgec. Maxwell bridged. Kelvin bridge

2-42. When using resistance-ratio bridges to measure capacitance, inductance, or resistance, you should compare the unknown component with which of the following components?

a. A capacitorb. An inductorc. A resistord. A similar standard

2-43. A Hay bridge measures unknown inductances by comparing them with which, if any, of the following components?

a. A standard inductorb. A standard resistorc. A standard capacitord. None of the above

2-44. What is the advantage of using a Maxwell bridge over a Hay bridge?

a. The Maxwell bridge can measure greater range of inductancesb. The Maxwell bridge can measure much smaller resistancesc. The Maxwell bridge can provide a greater accuracy over a smaller ranged. The Maxwell bridge can measure inductances having a high Q

2-45. Which of the following pieces of test equipment measure(s) the magnitude and phase angle of an unknown impedance?

a. The vector bridgeb. The impedance-angle meterc. Both 1 and 2 aboved. The Hay bridge

2-46. Maximum transfer of rf energy between transmitter/receiver and antenna will occur under which of the following circumstances?

a. When the transmitter or receiver is properly matched to the antennab. When the receiver is tuned one sideband above the transmitterc. When the transmitter is tuned one sideband above the receiverd. Both 2 and 3 above

2-47. Rf impedance bridge measurements require the use of which of the following pieces of equipment?

a. An ac power source, a detector, and a Wheatstone bridgeb. An rf signal generator, an oscilloscope, and a power supplyc. An rf signal generator, an rf bridge, and a detectord. A Schering bridge, a detector, and an rf power supply

2-48. What unit of measure is used to express the power level of a complex voice signal?

a. Vub. dBc. dBmd. Watt

2-49. The function of a dB meter is described in which of the following descriptions?

a. A current-measuring deviceb. A user-calibrated constant current devicec. An electronic voltmeter calibrated in terms of dBd. A frequency selective voltmeter calibrated in terms of true power

2-50. Electrodynamic wattmeters are used to measure which of the following types of power?

a. Ac powerb. Dc powerc. Both 1 and 2 aboved. Shf power in the 2-32 GHz frequency range

2-51. An electrodynamic wattmeter can be converted into an instrument for measuring reactive power by which of the following methods?

a. Installing a capacitor in series with the inputb. Shunting the meter movement with a 0.1 ufd

capacitorc. Replacing the resistor which is normally in series

with the voltage coil with a large inductanced. Shunting the input terminals with an LC network

adjusted to the resonant frequency of the signal being measured

2-52. What precaution(s), if any, must be taken when checking components with the Huntron Tracker 2000?

a. Voltages must not exceed 5 V dcb. Voltages must not exceed 5 V acc. Device to be tested must have all power

turned off and capacitors dischargedd. None of the above

2-53. When you are testing components by comparison, what is the most common mode used on the Huntron Tracker?

a. Automaticb. Pulse generatorc. Single sweepd. Alternate

2-54. Why is it necessary to electrically isolate a component while testing individual components with the Huntron Tracker 2000?

a. A resistor in series may give you an inaccurate signatureb. A diode in series may give you an inaccurate

signaturec. A resistor in parallel may give you an inaccurate signatured. All of the above

3-1. The AN/URM-120 in-line wattmeter is capable of measuring which of the following values?

a. Rf levels up to 500 watts between 30 MHz and 1,000 MHzb. Rf levels up to 1 kW between 2 MHz and 30 MHzc. Both 1 and 2 aboved. Af levels up to 500 watts between 1 kHz and

15 kHz

3-2. When rf power is applied to a bolometer, the heat generated by the semiconductor bead results in which of the following characteristic changes?

a. A capacitive changeb. An inductive changec. A resistive changed. A frequency change

3-3. The Hewlett-Packard 431 C power meteris capable of measuring power withinwhich of the following frequency rangesin a coaxial system?

a. 1 MHz to 9 MHzb. 10 MHz to 18 GHzc. 41 GHz to 100 GHzd. 101 GHz to 1,000 GHz

3-4. Calorimeters measure power by converting the input electromagnetic energy into which of the following forms?

a. Heatb. Dc powerc. Pulsed rf energyd. Electrodynamic energy

3-5. Which of the following relationships exist(s) between the temperature increase of the calorimetric body of a static calorimeter and the applied power?

a. The temperature increase is proportional to the frequency of the applied power

b. The temperature increase is inversely proportional to the amount of applied powerc. The temperature increase is directly proportional

to the time of the applied powerd. Both 2 and 3 above

3-6. Which of the following statements describe(s) the method of using a twin calorimeter?

a. Rf power is applied to one calorimetric body and the other body acts as a temperature referenceb. The steady-state temperature difference between the two calorimetric bodies is used as a measure of rf powerc. Both 1 and 2 aboved. Power is applied to both calorimetric bodies through a directional coupler

3-7. Flow calorimeters are classified by the type of measurement performed, the type of heating used, and what other characteristic?

a. Number of calorimetric bodiesb. Type of circulation method usedc. Type of rf loads that they employd. Number of calorimetric fluids used

3-8. When performing measurements above 1 GHz in a flow calorimeter, which of the following dielectrics do you normally use?

a) Waterb) Oilc) MEKd) H2SO4

3-9. Which of the following government agencies is/are responsible for maintaining our primary?

a. U. S. National Bureau of Standardsb. U. S. Naval Observatoryc. Department of Weights and Measuresd. All of the above

3-10. When using a stroboscope to measure an unknown frequency, which, if any, of the following steps should you take?

a. Start the measurement at the lowest frequency that the stroboscope can deliver and increase the flashing rate until a single image is obtainedb. Start the measurement at the highest frequency that the stroboscope can deliver and reduce the flashing rate until a single stationary image is obtainedc. Start the measurement at the midscale range of the stroboscope and adjust the flashing rate, in either direction, until a harmonic of the primary frequency is obtainedd. None of the above

3-11. If you anticipate using a stroboscope over an extended period of time, which of the following actions can you take to extend flasher-tube life?

a. Operate the stroboscope at a submultiple of the fundamental synchronous speed

b. Lower the plate voltage of the flasher tubec. Lower the filament voltage of the flasher tubed. Operate the stroboscope at a multiple of the

fundamental synchronous speed

3-12. Vibrating reed meters and moving disk meters are primarily used to measure which of the following values?

a. The frequency of 60-Hz ac powerb. The rotational speed of synchronous motorsc. Frequencies between 1 kHz and 10 MHzd. The frequencies of multiplexed signals

3-13. When using an oscilloscope to measure frequencies, which of the following formulas should you use?a) 1.b) 2.c) 3.d) 4.

3-14. Most oscilloscopes are limited in their frequency-measuring capability to which of the following upper frequency limits?

a. 50 kHzb. 100 kHzc. 500 kHzd. 100 MHz

3-15. Which of the following indications should you observe when a frequency meter is adjusted to the resonant frequency of the signal under test?

a. An audible beat-frequency signalb. A pronounced dip in output at resonancec. A pronounced increase in output powerd. A bright glow of the frequency meter glow lamp

3-16. What is the purpose of the time interval measurement of a frequency counter?

a. It indicates the wave periodb. It indicates the time between two eventsc. It indicates the time between two

functions of an eventd. Both 2 and 3 above

3-17. What are the three basic categories of wavemeters?

a. Resonant, active, and passiveb. Absorption, active, and passivec. Reaction, resonant, and absorptiond. Absorption, reaction, and transmission

3-18. In becoming a qualified technician, which of the following goals should you seek to achieve?

a. To be able to repair a specific piece of equipmentb. To be able to isolate faults in an entire systemc. To demonstrate a basic knowledge of system

interconnectionsd. To demonstrate minimum maintenance ability

on a piece of equipment

3-19. When attempting to correct a technical problem, which of the following procedures should you follow?

a. Use short cutsb. Do random testingc. Use a logical approachd. Do a self-test of the equipment

3-20. Efficient operation of equipment is assured by which of the following actions?

a. Using tricks of the tradeb. Making quick repairs when problems occurc. Observing system quality figures during

preventive maintenanced. Monitoring all system test points continuously

3-21. The standing-wave ratio (swr) in a transmission line is figured by using which of the following ratios?

a. Maximum voltage to maximum currentb. Maximum voltage to minimum voltagec. Maximum current to maximum voltaged. Minimum voltage to minimum current

3-22. Swr measurements are taken for which of the following purposes?

a. To determine the output frequency of the system under test

b. To determine the matching quality of the transmission line termination

c. To determine the coupling quality of the transmission line

d. To determine system output power

3-23. Couplers containing slots are used with rf probes to provide access to which of the following components?

a. Wavemetersb. Unidirectional couplersc. Open transmission linesd. Waveguides

3-24. The wavelength of a standing wave is measured on a short-circuited, terminated line using a magnetic or electric probe in which of the following ways?

a. By multiplying the average current by the peak currentb. By dividing the average voltage by the peak voltagec. By measuring the distance between a maximum voltage point and a maximum current pointd. By measuring the distance between alternate maximum or minimum current points along the line

3-25. A neon lamp moved parallel to a twowire parallel transmission line will glow at its brightest at which of the following points?

a. Maximum current pointsb. Maximum voltage pointsc. Maximum voltage and current pointsd. Maximum and minimum current points

3-26. A milliammeter moved parallel to a two wire transmission line will show its highest indication at which of the following points?

a. Maximum voltage pointsb. Maximum current pointsc. Maximum current and voltage pointsd. Maximum and minimum voltage points

3-27. Which of the following devices may be used to measure swr without measuring the standing wave?

a. Bridgeb. Rf probec. Neon lampsd. Milliammeter

3-28. When using an RC bridge to measure SWR, which of the following factor(s) must you consider as the applied frequency increases?

a. Skin effectb. Stray inductancec. Stray capacitanced. All of the above

3-29. Before a newly constructed bridge can be calibrated, adjustments must be made for which of the following reasons?

a. To determine the frequency range of the bridge

b. To keep stray effects at a minimumc. To adjust the rf voltage amplituded. To determine the characteristic impedance of the circuit

3-30. Which of the following formulas apply(ies) when measuring SWR with a bridge?

1.2.3. Both 1 and 2 above--use the one thatyields an SWR ratio greater than 1 to 14.

3-31. The ideal impedance match between transmitter and load is

a. 1 to 1b. 2 to 1c. 3 to 1d. 4 to 1

3-32. When comparing vswr and iswr, which, if any, of the following is the correct ratio?

a. Vswr will exceed iswr by a minimum of 100%b. Vswr will exceed iswr by a minimum of 50%c. Vswr and iswr ratios will be equald. None of the above

3-33. Electrical losses caused by transmission line deterioration are best measured using which of the following pieces of equipment? a. A signal generator and a power meterb. A signal generator and a frequency counter c. An swr meter and an oscilloscoped. A frequency counter and a power meter

3-34. If a 9.5 GHz, 20 watt signal is inserted into a transmission line, approximately what signal should be measured at the other end of the transmission line?

a. 5 GHz, 10 wattsb. 5 GHz, 20 wattsc. 0 GHz, 10 wattsd. 0 GHz, 20 watts

3-35. To accurately determine transmission line losses, you should perform insertion losses at which of the following frequencies?

a. Midrange of the transmission line’s frequency spectrumb. At the upper and lower entrances of the transmission line’s frequency spectrumc. Across the entire frequency spectrum of the transmission lined. Midrange of the transmission line’s frequency spectrum, plus and minus 10 kHz

3-36. Which of the following transmission line specifications is/are considered important?

a. Frequencyb. Characteristic impedancec. Power-handling capabilitiesd. All of the above

3-37. Mixing two or more frequencies across a nonlinear device produces which of the following signals?

a. Crosstalkb. Intermodulation distortionc. Single sideband (ssb) transmissiond. Undesirable carrier frequency deviation

3-38. Which of the following statements describes cross modulation?

a. 1. Degenerative feedback that causes a circuit to oscillate

b. 2. Overmodulation that produces an echoc. 3. The signal from one channel that

modulates the signal on an adjacent channeld. 4. Oscillation that is caused by system

misalignment

3-39. Distortion caused by excessive regenerative feedback is called

a. echob. crosstalkc. detected distortiond. parasitic generation

3-40. When using a two-tone test to detect intermodulation distortion, what is the ideal indication you should see on a spectrum analyzer?

a. An exact reproduction of the input frequenciesb. The sum and difference of the input frequenciesc. A single frequency with the amplitude equal to the sum of the input frequenciesd. The beat frequency of the two inputs

3-41. Which of the following actions minimizes the effects of intermodulation distortion?

a. Using proper antenna spacingb. Shielding components and circuitryc. Using parasitic suppression circuitsd. All of the above

3-42. At what point does an amplitudemodulated signal begin to produce distortion?

a. Below 50% modulationb. At 65% modulationc. At 95% modulationd. Above 100% modulation

3-43. To obtain 100% amplitude modulation of an rf carrier with a sine wave, the modulating power must equal what minimum percent of the rf carrier power?

a. 10%b. 15%c. 25%d. 50%

3-44. The damping of a meter movement that is being used to measure modulation has which of the following disadvantages?

a. The frequency response of the meter is reducedb. The accuracy of the meter movement is reducedc. An average reading does not disclose transient

overmodulationd. The amount of current required to drive the meter is reduced

3-45. Which of the following modulation patterns can be observed on an oscilloscope?

a. Wave-envelope and trapezoidalb. Lissajous and wave-envelopec. Time division and frequency divisiond. Lissajous and trapezoidal

3-46. The frequency response of most oscilloscopes limits the capability of measuring percentage of modulation to which of the following frequency bands?

a. Lf and hfb. Slf and shfc. Uhfd. Vhf

3-47. When using the two-tone test (trapezoidal method) to check a transmitter, you should see what pattern on the oscilloscope?

a. A series of fully modulated sine wavesb. A 100% amplitude-modulated signalc. Two pulses of equal amplitude and durationd. Two opposing triangles that are mirror images of each other

3-48. Frequency deviation of an fm signal is usually expressed in which of the following units of measurements?

a. Kilohertzb. dBc. dBmd. Volts

3-49. What limits an fm transmitter’s maximum frequency deviation?

a. The width of the band assigned for station operationb. The maximum power output rating of the

transmitterc. The distortion that occurs at 100% modulationd. The transmitting antenna height

3-50. Spectrum analysis is a graphic plot of

a. amplitude versus timeb. time versus frequencyc. amplitude versus frequencyd. amplitude versus power

3-51. Time-domain plots are used by technicians to graphically view which of the following waveform parameters?

a. Amplitude versus timeb. Frequency versus timec. Frequency versus distanced. Amplitude versus power

3-52. Frequency-domain plots are used by technicians to graphically view which of the following waveform parameters?

a. Amplitude versus timeb. Amplitude versus frequencyc. Frequency versus distanced. Amplitude versus power

3-53. Which of the following pieces of test equipment should you use to determine what signals make up a complex signal?

a. Oscilloscopeb. Sweep oscillatorc. Spectrum analyzerd. Time-domain reflectometer

3-54. At 100% amplitude modulation, the total power in the sidebands equals what percentage of the carrier power?

a. 6%b. 50%c. 66%d. 100%

3-55. When viewing a 100% amplitude modulated signal with a spectrum analyzer, what type of display should you observe?

a. A center frequency and both the upper and lower sidebands 6 dB down from the center frequency

b. A center frequency and both the upper and lower sidebands of equal amplitude

c. A center frequency that is -6 dB down from both the upper and lower sidebandsd. A suppressed carrier with both the upper and lower sidebands of equal amplitude

3-56. Which of the following is/are an advantage of ssb transmission?

a. The voice quality of ssb transmissions is superior to both AM and fm transmissionsb. Ssb transmissions are not susceptible to interference caused by sun spots and atmosphericsc. Ssb requires one-sixth of the output power and less than half the bandwidth required by AM to transmit the same amount of intelligence powerd. All of the above

3-57. In fm, the AMOUNT of frequency deviation (shift) is proportional to

a. the frequency of the carrierb. the amplitude of the modulating signalc. the frequency of the modulating signald. the plate current of the transmitter’s linear amplifier

3-58. In fm, the RATE of frequency deviation (shift) is proportional to

a. the impedance of the antennab. the power output of the transmitterc. the amplitude of the modulating signald. the frequency of the modulating signal

3-59. When analyzing the composition of a rectangular wave with a spectrum analyzer, which of the following types of displays will you see?

a. A fundamental frequency and its odd harmonics onlyb. A fundamental frequency and its even harmonics onlyc. A fundamental frequency and its combined even and odd harmonicsd. An infinite number of fundamental frequencies

3-60. The ability of a spectrum analyzer to resolve signals refers to its ability to

a. distinguish one signal from other signalsb. shape signals through the use of filtersc. determine a receiver’s minimum

discernible signald. measure the frequency of a signal

3-61. The ability of a spectrum analyzer to resolve signals is limited by which of the following factors?

a. The amplitude of the signal under testb. The narrowest bandwith of the spectrum analyzerc. The upper frequency limits of the spectrum analyzerd. The lower frequency limits of the spectrum analyzer

3-62. Which of the following characteristics of a transmission line fault can be observed using time-domain reflectometry?

a. Nature of the faultb. Distance to the faultc. Both 1 and 2 aboved. Figure of merit of the fault

3-63. What is the primary application of swept frequency testing?

a. To determine the broadband frequency response of a deviceb. To determine the characteristics of a device at a specific frequencyc. To determine the impedance of a transmission lined. To determine the swr of a transmission line

3-64. You should perform an initial power check on a transmitting antenna before sweeping the antenna for which of the following reasons?

a. To prevent damage to the test equipmentb. To ensure the transmitter is deenergizedc. To ensure the transmitter is energizedd. To ensure the transmitter is keyed

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