NEET-II BOOSTER COURSE - ALLEN Career … · Two conducting spheres of radii R 1 ... Two small spheres each having the charge +Q are suspended by insulating threads of length L from

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Test Type : PART TEST # 01 Test Pattern : NEET

TEST DATE : 27 - 05 - 2016

Paper Code : 1001CM370715001

Hin

di

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL - 2016

NEET-II BOOSTER COURSE

Pre-Medical : NEET-II B0OSTER COURSE/27-05-2016

H-1/351001CM370715001

BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING

HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS

1. Electric field at the centre 'O' of a semicircle of

radius 'a' having linear charge density is given

as

aO

(1) 2

0

a(2)

0 a

(3) 02 a

(4)

0 a

2. A charge q is placed at corner of a closed cube

the flux related with any face of cube.

(1) Must be 0

q

8 (2) May be 0

q

(3) Must be zero (4) May be zero

3. An electron travels a distance of 0.10 m in an

electric field of intensity 3200 V/m, enters

perpendicular to the field with a velocity 4 107m/s,

what is its deviation in its path :

(1) 1.76 mm. (2) 17.6 mm.

(3) 176 mm. (4) 0.176 mm.

4. A point charge 'q' is placed at centre of hollow

cylinder as shown in figure if this charge is moved

towards face 'A' then electric flux related with face

'B' will

B A

q

(1) increase (2) decrease

(3) will remain same (4) become zero

5. The electric potential at a point (x, y, z) is givenby:

V = –x2y – xz3 + 4

The electric field E at that point is :-

(1) E = i (2xy – z3) + j xy2 + k 3z2x

(2) E = i (2xy + z3) + j x2 + k 3xz2

(3) E = i 2xy + j (x2 + y2) + k (3xz – y2)

(4) E = i z3 + j xyz + k z2

1. a O

aO

(1) 0

2a

(2)

0 a

(3) 02 a

(4)

0 a

2. q

(1) 0

q

8 (2) 0

q

(3) (4)

3. 4x107 / 3200

0.10

(1) 1.76 (2) 17.6

(3) 176 (4) 0.176

4.

'A'

'B'

B A

q

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

5. (x, y, z) : V = –x2y – xz3 + 4

E :-

(1) E = i (2xy – z3) + j xy2 + k 3z2x

(2) E = i (2xy + z3) + j x2 + k 3xz2

(3) E = i 2xy + j (x2 + y2) + k (3xz – y2)

(4) E = i z3 + j xyz + k z2

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1001CM370715001

6. Four point charges –Q, –q, 2q and 2Q are placed,

one at each corner of the square. The relation

between Q and q for which the potential at the

centre of the square is zero is :

(1) Q = q (2) Q = 1q

(3) Q = –q (4) Q = 1q

7. In vector diagram shown in figure where ( R

) is

the resultant of vectors ( A

) and ( B

).

A

RB

If R = B

2, then value of angle is :

(1) 30o (2) 45o (3) 60o (4) 75o

8. The electric field at a distance 3R2

from the centre

of a charged conducting spherical shell of radius

R is E. The electric field at a distance R2

from

the centre of the sphere is :-

(1) E (2) E2

(3) E3

(4) Zero

9. The magnitudes of vectors A

, B

and C

are

respectively 12, 5 and 13 units and A B C

,

then the angle between A

and B

is :

(1) 0 (2) /3 (3) /2 (4) /4

10. Electric dipole is placed infront of a fixed point

charge 'Q' then :-

(1) Force must be zero

(2) Torque must be non zero

(3) Force must be non zero

(4) Both may be non zero

11. Two conducting spheres of radii R1 and R

2 are

charged with charges Q1 and Q

2 respectively. On

bringing them in contact there is :

(1) No change in the energy of the system(2) An increase in the energy of the system if

Q1R

2 Q

2R

1

(3) Always a decrease in energy of the system

(4) A decrease in energy of the system ifQ

1R

2 Q

2R

1

6. –Q, –q, 2q 2Q

Q q

:

(1) Q = q (2) Q = 1q

(3) Q = –q (4) Q = 1q

7. ( A

) ( B

) ( R

)

BR

2 ()

A

RB

(1) 30o (2) 45o (3) 60o (4) 75o

8. R

3R2

E

R2

:-

(1) E (2) E2

(3) E3

(4)

9. A , B

C 12, 5 13

A B C

A

B

(1) 0 (2) /3 (3) /2 (4) /4

10. 'Q' (1) (2) (3) (4)

11. R1 R

2 Q

1 Q

2

(1)

(2) Q1R

2 Q

2R

1

(3)

(4) Q1R

2 Q

2R

1


H-3/351001CM370715001

12. A slab of copper of thickness d2

is introduced

between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor

where d is the seperation between its two plates.

If the capacitance of the capacitor without copper

slab is C and with copper slab is C' then C 'C

is:-

(1) 2 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 1

2

13. Five capacitors, each of capacitance value C are

connected as shown in the figure. The ratio of

capacitance between P and R, and the capacitance

between P and Q is –

(1) 3 : 1 (2) 5 : 2 (3) 2 : 3 (4) 1 : 1

14. Two identical metal sphere carry charges of + q

and – 2q respectively. When the sphere are

separated by a large distance r, the force between

them is F. Now the spheres are allowed to touch

and then moved back to same separation. Find the

new force of repulsion between them.

(1) F/4 (2) F/8

(3) F/2 (4) None of these

15. An infinite, uniformly charged sheet with surface

charge denisty cuts through a spherical

Gaussian surface of radius R at a distance x from

its center, as shown in the figure. The electric flux

through the Gaussian surface is :

x

R

(1) 2

0

R

(2)

2 2

0

2 R x

(3) 2

0

R x

(4)

2 2

0

R x

12.d2

d

C

C' C'C

:-

(1) 2 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 1

2

13. C P R P Q

(1) 3 : 1 (2) 5 : 2 (3) 2 : 3 (4) 1 : 1

14. + q – 2q

r

F

(1) F/4 (2) F/8

(3) F/2 (4)

15.

R

x

x

R

(1) 2

0

R

(2)

2 2

0

2 R x

(3) 2

0

R x

(4)

2 2

0

R x

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1001CM370715001

16. An electron of kinetic energy K is projected

between two charged plates at an angle 60º, as

shown in figure. If electrons doesn't reach to the

upper plate just before striking then the magnitude

of electric field will be more than:-

+ + + + + + + + + + +

– – – – – – – – – – –

60º

KE

d

(1) K

ed(2)

2K

ed

(3) K

2ed(4)

K

4ed

17. An electric dipole is placed the centre of a sphere

mark the correct answer :-

(a) Flux of electric field passing through sphere

is zero

(b) Electric field at each point of sphere is zero

(c) Electric potential at each point of sphere is

zero

(d) Electric potential at concentric circle is zero

(1) (a, d) (2) (a, b)

(3) (b, c) (4) (a, c)

18. A solid conducting sphere having a charge Q is

surrounded by an uncharged concentric

conducting hollow spherical shell. Let the

potential difference between the surface of the

solid sphere and that of the outer surface of the

hollow shell be V. If the shell is now given a

charge of –3Q, the new potential difference

between the same two surfaces is :

(1) V (2) 2V (3) 4V (4) –2V

19. Two small spheres each having the charge +Q

are suspended by insulating threads of length L

from a hook. This arrangement is taken in space

where there is no gravitational effect, then the

angle between the two suspensions and the

tension in each will be :-

(1)

2

20

1 Q180 ,

4 (2L) (2)

2

20

1 Q90 ,

4 L

(3)

2

20

1 Q180 ,

4 2L (4)

2

20

1 Q180 ,

4 L

16. K =60º

+ + + + + + + + + + +

– – – – – – – – – – –

60º

KE

d

(1) K

ed(2)

2K

ed

(3) K

2ed(4)

K

4ed

17.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) (1) (a, d) (2) (a, b)

(3) (b, c) (4) (a, c)

18. Q

V –3Q

(1) V (2) 2V (3) 4V (4) –2V

19. +Q

L

:-

(1)

2

20

1 Q180 ,

4 (2L) (2)

2

20

1 Q90 ,

4 L

(3)

2

20

1 Q180 ,

4 2L (4)

2

20

1 Q180 ,

4 L


H-5/351001CM370715001

20. A metal sphere A of radius r1 charged to a

potential 1 is enveloped by a thin walled

conducting spherical shell B of radius r2. Then

2 of the sphere A after it is connected by a thin

conducting wire to the shell B will be:

A

r1

B

(1) 1

1

2

r

r (2)

21

1

r

r

(3)2

1

1

r1

r

(4) 1 2

1

1 2

r r

r r

21. A point charge q of mass m is located at the centre

of a ring having radius R and charge Q. When it

is displaced slightly, the point charge accelerates

along the x–axis to infinity, the ultimate speed of

the point charge (Consider no loss in radiation):-

(1) 2kQqmR

(2) kQqmR

(3) kQqmR2

(4) zero

22. Two thin conducting shells of radii R and 3R are

shown in the figure. The outer shell carries a

charge +Q and the inner shell is neutral. The

switch S is closed then.

RS

3R

(1) Charge attained by inner sphere is –Q/2




23. A body starts from rest is moving under a constant

acceleration up to 20 sec. If it moves S1 distance in

first 10 sec., and S2 distance in next 10 sec. then S

2

will be equal to :

(1) S1

(2) 2S1

(3) 3S1

(4) 4S1

20. A r1 1

B r2 A

2 B

:-

A

r1

B

(1) 1

1

2

r

r (2)

21

1

r

r

(3)2

1

1

r1

r

(4) 1 2

1

1 2

r r

r r

21. q m R

Q

x–

(1) 2kQqmR

(2) kQqmR

(3) kQq2mR

(4)

22. R3R +QSS

RS

3R

(1) –Q/2

(2) –Q/4

(3) –Q/5

(4) –Q/3

23. 20 10 S

1 10 S

2 S

2

:(1) S

1(2) 2S

1(3) 3S

1(4) 4S

1

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1001CM370715001

24. A ( 1 kg) B ( 3 kg) 16 m 25 m :-

(1) 5

4(2)

12

5

(3) 5

12(4)

4

5

25. x = (t + 5)–1 x t :-

(1) ()2/3 (2) ()3/2

(3) ()2 (4) ()–2

26. 2nv(x) x

n x x

(1) –2n2x–4n–1

(2) –22x–2n+1

(3) –2n2e–4n+1

(4) –2n2x–2n–1

27. ˆ ˆv ai bj

(1) a = 2b (2) b = a

(3) b = 2a (4) b = 4a

28. A ˆ ˆ(3i 4 j) m/s

B

y

Bx

A

(1) ˆ ˆ3i 4 j

(2) ˆ ˆ3i 4 j

(3) ˆ ˆ3i 4 j

(4) ˆ ˆ3i 4 j

24. Two bodies, A (of mass 1 kg) and B (of mass 3

kg), are dropped from heights of 16 m and 25 m

respectively. The ratio of the time taken by them

to reach the ground is :-

(1) 5

4(2)

12

5

(3) 5

12(4)

4

5

25. A particle moves a distance x in time t according

to equation x = (t + 5)–1. The acceleration of

particle is proportional to :-

(1) (velocity)2/3 (2) (velocity)3/2

(3) (distance)2 (4) (distance)–2

26. A particle of unit mass undergoes one-

dimensional motion such that its velocity varies

according to v(x) = x–2n where and n are

constants and x is the position of the particle. The

acceleration of the particle as a function of x, is

given by :

(1) –2n2x–4n–1 (2) –22x–2n+1

(3) –2n2e–4n+1 (4) –2n2x–2n–1

27. A projectile is thrown with an initial velocity of

ˆ ˆv ai bj

. If range of the projectile is double

the maximum height attained by it then :-

(1) a = 2b (2) b = a

(3) b = 2a (4) b = 4a

28. The velocity of a projectile at the initial point A

is ˆ ˆ(3i 4 j) m/s . It's velocity (in m/s) at point B

is :-

y

Bx

A

(1) ˆ ˆ3i 4 j

(2) ˆ ˆ3i 4 j

(3) ˆ ˆ3i 4 j

(4) ˆ ˆ3i 4 j


H-7/351001CM370715001

29. The graph of equation y = 2x – 4x2 is–

(1)

y

x

(2)

y

x

(3)

y

x

(4)

y

x

30. If the dimensions of a physical quantity are given

by MaLbTc, then the physical quantity will be :

(1) Force if a = 0, b = –1, c = – 2

(2) Pressure if a = 1, b = – 1, c = – 2

(3) Velocity if a = 1, b = 0, c = – 1

(4) Acceleration if a = 1, b = 1, c = – 2

31. The position vector of a particle R

as a function of

time is given by : ˆ ˆR 4sin 2 t i 4cos 2 t j

Where R is in meters, t is in seconds and i and

j denote unit vectors along x and y-directions,

respectively. Which one of the following

statements is wrong for the motion of particle?

(1) Path of the particle is a circle of radius 4 meter

(2) Acceleration vectors is along R

(3) Magnitude of acceleration vector is 2v

R where

v is the velocity of particle.(4) Magnitude of the velocity of particle is 8

meter/second.

29. y = 2x – 4x2 –

(1)

y

x

(2)

y

x

(3)

y

x

(4)

y

x

30. MaLbTc :

(1) a = 0, b = – 1 c = – 2 (2) a = 1, b = – 1 c = – 2 (3) = 1, b = 0 c = – 1 (4) a = 1, b = 1 c = – 2

31. R

ˆ ˆR 4sin 2 t i 4cos 2 t j

R t i j , x

y-

(1) 4

(2) R

(3) 2v

R v

(4) 8

H-8/35


1001CM370715001

32. A tube of length L is filled completely with an

incompressible liquid of mass M and closed at

both the ends. The tube is then rotated in a

horizontal plane about one of its ends with a

uniform angular velocity . The force exerted by

the liquid at the other ends is :-

(1) ML2

2(2)

ML 2

2

(3) M L 2 (4) ML 2 2

2

33. Two boys are standing at the ends A and B of a

ground where AB=a. The boy at B starts running

in a direction perpendicular to AB with velocity 1.

The boy at A starts running simultaneously with

velocity v and catches the other boy in a time t, where

t is –

(1) a

v v212 (2)

av v

2

212( )

(3) a

v v( ) 1(4)

av v( ) 1

34. A ball is thrown vertically upward. It has a speed

of 10m/sec when it has reached one half of its

maximum height. How high does the ball rise ?

(Take g = 10 m/s2) .

(1) 5m (2) 15m

(3) 10 m (4) 20 m

35. The velocity v of a particle at time t is given by

v = at + b

t c, where a, b and c are constants. The

dimensions of a, b and c are respectively :-

(1) LT–2, L and T

(2) L2, T and LT2

(3) LT2, LT and L

(4) L, LT and T2

36. A particle has initial velocity

2i 3 j and

acceleration

0.3i 0.2 j . The magnitude of

velocity after 10 seconds will be :

(1) 5 units (2) 9 units

(3) 9 2 units (4) 5 2 units

32. L M :-

(1) ML2

2(2)

ML 2

2

(3) M L 2 (4) ML 2 2

2

33. A B

AB = a B v1 AB

A

v

t t –

(1) a

v v212 (2)

av v

2

212( )

(3) a

v v( ) 1(4)

av v( ) 1

34. 10 / (g = 10 m/s2)(1) 5m (2) 15m

(3) 10 m (4) 20 m

35. t v v = at + b

t c a, b c a, b c

(1) LT–2, L T

(2) L2, T LT2

(3) LT2, LT L

(4) L, LT T2

36.

2i 3 j

0.3i 0.2 j 10

:-

(1) 5 (2) 9

(3) 9 2 (4) 5 2


H-9/351001CM370715001

37. The velocity-time graph of a car moving along a

straight road is shown in figure. The average

velocity of the car in first 25 seconds is

20

Velocity(m/s)

Time(s)10 20 250

(1) 20 m/s (2) 14 m/s

(3) 10 m/s (4) 17.5 m/s

38. A ball is thrown from the ground to clear a wall

3 m high at a distance of 6 m and falls 18 m away

from the wall, the angle of projection of ball is :-

(1) tan–1 32

(2) tan–1 23

(3) tan–1 12

(4) tan–1 34

39. Two particles are projected from the two towers

simultaneously, as shown in the figure.

m

m

What should be the value of ‘d’ for their collision?

(1) 10 m (2) 20 m

(3) 30 m (4) 40 m

40. A car starts from rest with a consant tangential

acceleration a0 in a circular path of radius r. At

time t0, the car skids, find the value of coefficient

of friction.

(1)

2 40 0 0

2

a a t1

g r (2)

0a

g

(3)

2 40 0

2

a a t1

g r

(4) None of these

37.

25 s

20

Velocity(m/s)

Time(s)10 20 250

(1) 20 m/s (2) 14 m/s

(3) 10 m/s (4) 17.5 m/s

38. 6 m3m

18m

(1) tan–1 32

(2) tan–1 23

(3) tan–1 12

(4) tan–1 34

39.

m

m

‘d’

(1) 10 m (2) 20 m

(3) 30 m (4) 40 m

40.

a0 r

t0

(1)

2 40 0 0

2

a a t1

g r (2)

0a

g

(3)

2 40 0

2

a a t1

g r

(4)

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1001CM370715001

41. In a vernier callipers, N divisions of vernier scale

coincide with (N – 1) divisions of main scale (in

which 1 division represents 1mm). The least count

of the instrument in cm should be

(1) N (2) N – 1 (3) 1

10N (4)

1N 1

42. The external and internal radius of a hollow

cylinder are measured to be (4.23 ± 0.01) cm and

(3.89 ± 0.01)cm. The thickness of the wall of the

cylinder is :-

(1) (0.34 0.02) cm

(2) (0.17 0.02) cm

(3) (0.17 0.01) cm

(4) (0.34 0.01) cm

43. Graph between the square of the velocity (v) of

a particle and the distance (s) moved is shown

in figure. The acceleration of the particle in

kilometers per hour square is :

4600

900

v2

(km/hr)2

s(km) 0.6

(1) 2250 (2) 3084

(3) – 2250 (4) – 3084

44. A force F t i tj 6 42 acts on a particle of mass

3 kg. What will be velocity of the particle at t = 3

second if at t = 0, the particle was at rest :-

(1) ˆ ˆ18i 6 j (2) ˆ ˆ18i 12 j

(3) ˆ ˆ12i 6 j (4) None of these

45. Let 21

ˆ ˆr (t) 3ti 4t j

and 22

ˆ ˆr (t) 4t i 3tj

represent the positions of particles 1 and 2,

respectively as functions of time t; 1r (t)

and 2r (t)

are in metres and t is in seconds. The relative speed

of the two particles at the instant t =1 s, will be

(1) 1 m/s (2) 3 2 m/s

(3) 5 2 m/s (4) 7 2 m/s

41. N

(N – 1)( 1 = 1mm)

(1) N (2) N – 1 (3) 1

10N (4)

1N 1

42.

(4.23 0.01) cm (3.89 0.01)cm

(1) (0.34 0.02) cm

(2) (0.17 0.02) cm

(3) (0.17 0.01) cm

(4) (0.34 0.01) cm

43. (s)

2

4600

900

v2

(km/hr)2

s(km) 0.6

(1) 2250 (2) 3084

(3) – 2250 (4) – 3084

44. F t i tj 6 42 , 3

t = 3 t = 0

(1) ˆ ˆ18i 6 j (2) ˆ ˆ18i 12 j

(3) ˆ ˆ12i 6 j (4)

45. 1 2 21

ˆ ˆr (t) 3ti 4t j

22

ˆ ˆr (t) 4t i 3tj

t

1r (t)

2r (t)

t t =1 s

:-

(1) 1 m/s (2) 3 2 m/s

(3) 5 2 m/s (4) 7 2 m/s

H-11/351001CM370715001


46. The sum of numbers of proton, neutron and

electron present in 3g of C12 is :-

(1) 18 moles (2) 9 moles

(3) 4.5 moles (4) 3 moles

47. Total atoms present in 23.4 g of Aluminium

carbonate are given :- (Atomic mass Al = 27,

C = 12, O = 18)

(1) 1.47 NA (2) 1.4 NA

(3) 1.34 NA

(4) 1.23 NA

48. At STP 4 L of gas has the weight 6.07 g then the

molar mass of gas will be :-

(1) 17 (2) 68 (3) 50 (4) 34

49. How many moles of Ca3(PO4)2 will contain

0.8 mole atom of oxygen :-

(1) 1 mol (2) 8 mol

(3) 0.1 mol (4) 0.05 mol

50. Which of the following is incorrect statement:-

(1) Number of units in one mole substance is

same as Avogadro's number.

(2) Number of atoms in 1 gm-atom of each

element is same

(3) At STP volume of one mole amount of each

substance is 22.4 L

(4) The weight of NA molecules of urea is equal

to its gram molecular weight

51. The equivalent weight of phosphoric acid (Molar

mass = 98) in the reaction

2NaOH + H3PO4 Na2HPO4 + 2H2O is :-

(1) 196 (2) 98 (3) 49 (4) 32.66

52. What will be the volume of O2 at STP for

complete combustion of 7.8 g acetylene :-

(1) 11.2 L (2) 5.6 L

(3) 22.4 L (4) 16.8 L

53. 10 ml gaseous hydrocarbon on complete

combustion gives 40 ml CO2 and 30 ml of water

vapours then what will be empirical formula of

hydrocarbon ?

(1) C4H8 (2) C2H4

(3) C2H3 (4) C5H12

54. 2C(graphite) + O2(g) 2CO(g); The total number of

moles of gaseous mixture obtained by reaction of

30g graphite and 96 g oxygen by following above

reaction will be :-

(1) 1.25 (2) 2.5

(3) 4.25 (4) 1.75

46. 3 C12 :-(1) 18 moles (2) 9 moles

(3) 4.5 moles (4) 3 moles

47. 23.4 :- (Atomic mass Al = 27, C = 12, O = 18)

(1) 1.47 NA (2) 1.4 NA

(3) 1.34 NA

(4) 1.23 NA

48. STP 4 6.07 :-(1) 17 (2) 68 (3) 50 (4) 34

49. Ca3(PO4)2 0.8 ?

(1) 1 mol (2) 8 mol

(3) 0.1 mol (4) 0.05 mol

50. :-(1)

(2) 1

(3) STP 22.4

(4) NA

51. 2NaOH + H3PO

4 Na

2HPO

4 + 2H

2O

(= 98) :-(1) 196 (2) 98 (3) 49 (4) 32.66

52. 7.8 O2

STP :-(1) 11.2 L (2) 5.6 L

(3) 22.4 L (4) 16.8 L

53. 10 ml 40 ml

CO2 30 ml

?

(1) C4H

8(2) C

2H

4

(3) C2H3 (4) C5H12

54. 2C() + O2(g) 2CO(g); 30

96

:-

(1) 1.25 (2) 2.5

(3) 4.25 (4) 1.75

H-12/35 1001CM370715001


55. What will be resultant normality of solution.

Obtained by mixing 100ml M

10Ba(OH)

2 &

100mlN

10 H

2SO

4 :-

(1) N

20(2)

N

10

(3) N

15(4)

N

50

56. Out of the following transitions in hydrogen atom,

the one which gives an absorption line of lowest

frequency is :-

(1) n = 1 to n = 2 (2) n = 3 to n = 8

(3) n = 2 to n = 1 (4) n = 8 to n = 3

57. The wave length of the third line of the Balmer

series for a hydrogen atoms is :-

(1)100

R21

(2) 21

R100

(3) 100

21R(4)

21

100R

58. The second I.E. of helium will be

(1) –54.4 eV (2) 54.4 eV

(3) –22.4 eV (4) 22.4 eV

59. Potential energy of electron present in He+ is :-

(1)2

0

e

2 r(2)

2

0

3e

4 r

(3)

2

0

2e

4 r

(4)

2

20

e

4 r

60. Which is not in accordance to aufbau principle?

(1)

2s

(2)

2s 2p

(3) 2s 2p

(4)

2s 2p

61. What is the maximum number of electrons in of

subshil of an atom that can have the quantum

number n = 4, = 2 ?

(1) 4 (2) 15 (3) 10 (4) 1

55.

100ml M

10Ba(OH)2 100ml

N

10 H2SO4

?

(1) N

20(2)

N

10

(3) N

15(4)

N

50

56. H-

:-

(1) n = 1 to n = 2 (2) n = 3 to n = 8

(3) n = 2 to n = 1 (4) n = 8 to n = 3

57.

(1)100

R21

(2) 21

R100

(3) 100

21R(4)

21

100R

58. He (1) –54.4 eV (2) 54.4 eV

(3) –22.4 eV (4) 22.4 eV

59. He+ :-

(1)2

0

e

2 r(2)

2

0

3e

4 r

(3)

2

0

2e

4 r

(4)

2

20

e

4 r

60. ?

(1)

2s

(2)

2s 2p

(3) 2s 2p

(4)

2s 2p

61. n = 4, = 2

(1) 4 (2) 15 (3) 10 (4) 1

H-13/351001CM370715001


62. The number of radial nodes of 3s and 2p orbitals

are respectively :-

(1) 2, 0 (2) 0, 2

(3) 1, 2 (4) 2, 1

63. How fast is an electron moving if it has a

wavelength equal to the distance travels in one

second :-

(1) h

m(2)

m

h

(3) h

P(4)

h

K E2 . .b g64. The uncertainties in the velocity of two particles

A and B are 0.05 and 0.02 ms–1 respectively. The

mass of B is five times of mass of A. What is the

ratio of uncertainties A

B

x

x

in their position :-

(1) 2 (2) 0.25

(3) 4 (4) 1

65. How many d-electrons in Cu+ (At No. = 29) can

have spin quantum number 1

s2

?

(1) 14 (2) 7

(3) 5 (4) 9

66. Choose the correct statement :-

(1) temperature, enthalpy and entropy are state

functions

(2) for reversible and irreversible both isothermal

expansion of an ideal gas, change in internal

energy and enthalpy is zero

(3) for a reaction in which ng = 0, entropy change

is not always zero

(4) All of these

67. In which one of the following expression Q is

represented as the heat of combustion?

(1) 2(g) 2(g) 2 ( )2H O 2H O Q

(2) (s) 2(g) (g)

1C O CO Q

2

(3) 4(g) 2(g) 2(g) 2 ( )CH 2O CO 2H O Q

(4) 6 6( ) 2(g) 2(g) 2 ( )2C H 15O 12CO 6H O Q

62. 3s 2p

(1) 2, 0 (2) 0, 2

(3) 1, 2 (4) 2, 1

63.

(1) h

m(2)

m

h

(3) h

P(4)

h

K E2 . .b g64. A B 0.05

0.02 ms–1 B A 5

A

B

x

x

:-

(1) 2 (2) 0.25

(3) 4 (4) 1

65. Cu+ ( = 29)

1s

2

d-

(1) 14 (2) 7

(3) 5 (4) 9

66. :-

(1)

(2)

(3) ng = 0

(4) 67. Q

(1) 2(g) 2(g) 2 ( )2H O 2H O Q

(2) (s) 2(g) (g)

1C O CO Q

2

(3) 4(g) 2(g) 2(g) 2 ( )CH 2O CO 2H O Q

(4) 6 6( ) 2(g) 2(g) 2 ( )2C H 15O 12CO 6H O Q

H-14/35 1001CM370715001


68. Which one of the following represents heat of

formation of CO2?

(1) 3(s) (g) 2(g) 2 ( ) 2(g)CaCO 2HCl CaCl H O CO ,

H = –a kcal

(2) (g) 2(g) 2(g)

1CO O CO

2 , H = –b kcal

(3) 2( g) 2(g)graphiteC O CO H = –c kcal

(4) 3(s) 2 3(s) 2 ( ) 2(g)2NaHCO Na CO H O CO ,

H = +d kcal

69. For which of the following elements, the standard

enthalpy of formation is not zero ?

(1) C (diamond)

(2) C (Graphite)

(3) Liquid mercury

(4) Rhombic sulphur

70. The enthalpies of formation of elements in their

standard states are taken as zero. The enthalpy of

formation of a compound–

(1) is always negative

(2) is always positive

(3) may be positive or negative

(4) is never negative

71. Given the following thermochemical reactions:

2 2XO (s) + CO(g) XO(s) + CO (g); H = –20.0 kJ

3 4 2X O (s) CO(g) 3XO(s) CO (g); H 6.0 kJ

2 3 3 4 23X O (s) CO(g) 2X O (s) CO (g);

H 12.0 kJ

Find H in kJ for the reaction:

2 2 3 22XO (s) CO(g) X O (s) CO (g)

(1) –40.0 (2) –28.0 (3) –26.0 (4) –18.0

72. Heat of combustion of benzene at 100°C and

constant pressure is H and its internal energy is

U, if B.P. of benzene is 78°C. Then what will

be value of (H – U) ?

(1) RT (2) RT

2

(3) 3RT

2 (4)

3RT

2

68. CO2

?

(1) 3(s) (g) 2(g) 2 ( ) 2(g)CaCO 2HCl CaCl H O CO ,

H = –a kcal

(2) (g) 2(g) 2(g)

1CO O CO

2 , H = –b kcal

(3) 2(g) 2(g)C O CO H = –c kcal

(4) 3(s) 2 3(s) 2 ( ) 2(g)2NaHCO Na CO H O CO ,

H = +d kcal

69. ?

(1) C ()

(2) C ()

(3)

(4) 70.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

71. :

2 2XO (s) + CO(g) XO(s) + CO (g); H = –20.0 kJ

3 4 2X O (s) CO(g) 3XO(s) CO (g); H 6.0 kJ

2 3 3 4 23X O (s) CO(g) 2X O (s) CO (g);

H 12.0 kJ

H (kJ )

2 2 3 22XO (s) CO(g) X O (s) CO (g)

(1) –40.0 (2) –28.0 (3) –26.0 (4) –18.0

72. 100°C H

U 78°C

(H – U) ?

(1) RT (2) RT

2

(3) 3RT

2 (4)

3RT

2

H-15/351001CM370715001


73. The standard enthalpy of formation of atomic

oxygen is :

(1) Negative, since all spontaneous reactions are

exothermic

(2) Zero, since oxgyen is an element

(3) Positive, since breaking bonds is always

endothermic

(4) Negative, zero or positive depending on the

tempearture

74. If a system absorbs 80.0 J of heat from the

surroundings and simultaneously increases its

volume by 1.20 L against a constant pressure of

1.00 atm, what is the internal energy change, in

joules, for the system?

(1) –75 (2) –41.6

(3) 0 (4) +85

75. For the gas phase reaction,

5 3 2PCl (g) PCl (g) Cl (g)

Which of the following conditions is correct ?

(1) H > 0 and S < 0 (2) H = 0 and S < 0

(3) H > 0 and S > 0 (4) H < 0 and S < 0

76. When one mole of Fe2O3(s) is formed by

combustion of iron in oxygen H = –824.2 kJ.

How much heat (kJ) will be realeased if 0.20 g

of iron are converted to Fe2O3 ?

(1) 1.5 (2) 160

(3) 3.0 (4) 16

77. Process from I to IV are characterized by sign of

H and S.

Process H S

I + +

II + –

III – –

IV – +

Which processes are definitely spontaneous, and

which are possibly spontaneous (depending on

magnitudes) at constant P and T ?

(1) definitely I and II; possibly IV

(2) definitely IV; possibly I and III

(3) definitely III; possibly II and IV

(4) definitely IV; possibly II and III

73. (1)

(2) (3)

(4)

74. 80.0 J 1.00 atm 1.20 L

(1) –75 (2) –41.6

(3) 0 (4) +85

75. ,

5 3 2PCl (g) PCl (g) Cl (g)

(1) H > 0 S < 0 (2) H = 0 S < 0

(3) H > 0 S > 0 (4) H < 0 S < 0

76. Fe2O

3(s), Fe

H = –824.2 kJ

0.20 g Fe Fe2O3

kJ

(1) 1.5 (2) 160

(3) 3.0 (4) 16

77. I IV H S Process H S

I + +

II + –

III – –

IV – +

(1) I II; IV(2) IV; I III(3) III; II IV(4) IV; II III

H-16/35 1001CM370715001


78. The enthalpy of combustion of methane, graphite

and dihydrogen at 298 K are, –890.3 kJ mol–1,

–393.5 kJ mol–1 and –285.8 kJ mol–1 respectively.

Enthalpy of formation of CH4 (g) will be

(1) –74.8 kJ mol–1 (2) –52.28 kJ mol–1

(3) +74.8 kJ mol–1 (4) +52.26 kJ mol–1

79. For a reaction

2(g) 2(g) 3(g)N 3H 2NH , H 90 kJ

what will be heat of formation of NH3 ?

(1) 90 kJ (2) –45kJ

(3) 49 kJ (4) –180 kJ

80. Calculate the change in entropy for the

vapourisation of ethanol given that ethanol has

Hvap = +45.59 kJ/mol and a boiling point of 79º C.

(1) 130.0 J/K mol (2) 577 J/K mol

(3) 0.058 J/K mol (4) –577 J/K mol

81. Calcuate the standard entropy change for the following

reaction 2 2F (g) H (g) 2HF(g) given that

Sº[H2(g)] = 130.68 J/K. mol, Sº[F2(g)] = 202.78

J/K. mol. and Sº[HF(g)] = 173.78 J/K. mol.

(1) –159.68 J/K (2) 14.1 J/K

(3) 159.68 J/K (4) –116.58 J/K

82. Which of the following acid will release

maximum amount of heat when completly

neutralized by strong base NaOH ?

(1) 1 M HCl (2) 1 M HNO3

(3) 1 M HClO4 (4) 1 M H2SO4

83. Which of the following is incorrect representation

of set of quantum numbers ?

(1) n = 4, = 2, m = 0 Ms = 1

2

(2) n = 3, = 1, m = –1 Ms = 1

2

(3) n = 5, = 2, m = 0 Ms = 1

2

(4) n = 5, = 3, m = 4 Ms = 0

84. From the following given information, calculate

Gº for the reaction below at 25ºC.

2 2NiO(s) 2HCl(g) NiCl (s) H O(g)

Hº = – 122.8 kJ and Sº = – 125.4 J / K

(1) –85.4 kJ (2) –160.2 kJ

(3) –119.7 kJ (4) 126.7 kJ

78. , H2 298 K

–890.3 kJ mol–1, –393.5 kJ mol–1 –285.8 kJ mol–1 CH4 (g) (1) –74.8 kJ mol–1 (2) –52.28 kJ mol–1

(3) +74.8 kJ mol–1 (4) +52.26 kJ mol–1

79. 2(g) 2(g) 3(g)N 3H 2NH , H 90 kJ

NH3 ?

(1) 90 kJ (2) –45kJ

(3) 49 kJ (4) –180 kJ

80. H

vap = +45.59 kJ/mol

79º C (1) 130.0 J/K mol (2) 577 J/K mol

(3) 0.058 J/K mol (4) –577 J/K mol

81. 2 2F (g) H (g) 2HF(g) Sº[H

2(g)] = 130.68 J/K. mol, Sº[F

2(g)] = 202.78

J/K. mol. and Sº[HF(g)] = 173.78 J/K. mol.(1) –159.68 J/K (2) 14.1 J/K

(3) 159.68 J/K (4) –116.58 J/K

82. NaOH ?

(1) 1 M HCl (2) 1 M HNO3

(3) 1 M HClO4

(4) 1 M H2SO

4

83. ?

(1) n = 4, = 2, m = 0 Ms = 1

2

(2) n = 3, = 1, m = –1 Ms = 1

2

(3) n = 5, = 2, m = 0 Ms = 1

2

(4) n = 5, = 3, m = 4 Ms = 0

84. Gº 25ºC

2 2NiO(s) 2HCl(g) NiCl (s) H O(g)

Hº = – 122.8 kJ Sº = – 125.4 J / K

(1) –85.4 kJ (2) –160.2 kJ

(3) –119.7 kJ (4) 126.7 kJ

H-17/351001CM370715001


85. In which of the following reaction do you expect

to have a decrease in entropy ?

(1) I2(s) I

2(g)

(2) 2IF(s) I2(g) + F2(g)

(3) Mn(s) + O2 (g) MnO

2(s)

(4) Hg(l) + S(s) HgS(s)

86. 1500 ml flask contains 400 mg O2 and 60 mg H2.

The total pressure in the flask at 100ºC :-

(1) 1.2 atm (2) 0.87 atm

(3) 5.2 atm (4) 1.87 atm

87. 20 dm3 of SO2 diffuse through a porous partition

in 60 sec. The volume of O2 diffuse in same

condition in 30 sec will be :-

(1) 10 dm3 (2) 12 dm3

(3) 14 dm3 (4) 16 dm3

88. Densities of two gases are in the ratio 1 : 2 and

their temperatures are in the ratio 2 : 1, then the

ratio of their respective molar mass at certain

pressure is :-

(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2

(3) 2 : 1 (4) 4 : 1

89. The vander wall's equation for 0.5 mol gas is

(1) 2

a v b 2RTP

4V 2 2

(2) 2

aP (2V b) RT

4V

(3) 2

aP (2V 4b) RT

4V

(4) 2

a 2RTP

4V 2(V b)

90. At high pressure vander wall's equation becomes

(1) PV = RT

(2) PV = RT + a

V

(3) PV = RT – a

V

(4) PV = RT + Pb

85.

(1) I2(s) I

2(g)

(2) 2IF(s) I2(g) + F2(g)

(3) Mn(s) + O2 (g) MnO

2(s)

(4) Hg(l) + S(s) HgS(s)

86. 1500 ml 400 mg O2 60 mg H2

100ºC :-

(1) 1.2 atm (2) 0.87 atm

(3) 5.2 atm (4) 1.87 atm

87. 60 sec 20 dm3 SO2 30 sec O2

:-

(1) 10 dm3 (2) 12 dm3

(3) 14 dm3 (4) 16 dm3

88. 1 : 2 2 : 1

(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2

(3) 2 : 1 (4) 4 : 1

89. 0.5

(1) 2

a v b 2RTP

4V 2 2

(2) 2

aP (2V b) RT

4V

(3) 2

aP (2V 4b) RT

4V

(4) 2

a 2RTP

4V 2(V b)

90.

(1) PV = RT

(2) PV = RT + a

V

(3) PV = RT – a

V

(4) PV = RT + Pb

H-18/35 1001CM370715001


91. Characteristic of epithelial tissues is

(1) Never produce glands

(2) Cells can undergo rapid divisions

(3) Abundant vasularisation

(4) Large intercellular spaces.

92. Epithelial tissue is

(1) Protective covering

(2) Reproductive structure

(3) Nerve cells

(4) Corpuscles.

93. Brush border epithelium occurs in

(1) Trachea

(2) Stomach

(3) Small intestine

(4) Fallopian tube.

94. Mammalian pinna is supported by

(1) Hyaline cartilage

(2) Calcified cartilage

(3) Elastic cartilage

(4) White fibrous connective tissue

95. Which is unrelated to blood coagulation ?

(1) Fibrinogen (2) Fibrin

(3) Bilirubin (4) Calcium

96. Ends of two long bones are 'connected' by

(1) Cartilage (2) Muscles

(3) Ligaments (4) Tendons.

97. Mast cells occur in

(1) Connective tissue

(2) Epithelial tissue

(3) Skeletal tissue

(4) Nervous tissue.

98. Areolar connective tissue joins –

(1) Fat body with muscles

(2) Integument with muscles

(3) Bones with muscles

(4) Bones with bones

91. (1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

92.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

93.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

94.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

95.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

96.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

97.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

98. ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

H-19/351001CM370715001


99. Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a

certain type of connective tissue. Identify the parts

labelled A, B, C and D, and select the right option

about them.

A

B

C

D

Options :

Part-A Part-B Part-C Part-D

(1) Macro- Collagen Fibroblast Mast cell

phage fibres

(2) Mast cell Collagen Fibroblast Macro-

fibres phage

(3) Macro- Fibroblast Collagen Mast cell

phage fibres

(4) Mast cell Macro- Fibroblast Collagen

phage fibres

100. The function of the gap junction is to :

(1) stop substance from leaking across a tissue

(2) performing cementing to keep neighbouring

cells together

(3) Facilitate communication between adjoining

cells by connecting the cytoplasm for rapid

transfer of ions, small molecules and some

large molecules

(4) separate two cells from each other.

101. Fat storing tissue is :-

(1) Areolar tissue

(2) Adipose tissue

(3) Mucoid tissue

(4) Dense regular tissue

102. Unicellular gland is-

(1) Goblet gland (2) Gastric gland

(3) Brunner's gland (4) Sweat gland

103. What is the similarity between bronchi and

fallopian tube?

(1) Pseudostratified epithelium

(2) Columnar Ciliated epithelium

(3) Cuboidal epithelium

(4) Columnar non ciliated epithelium

99. A, B, C D

A

B

C

D

-A -B -C -D

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

100. :

(1)

(2) (3)

(4) 101. :-

(1) (2) (3) (4)

102. (1) (2) (3) (4)

103.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

H-20/35 1001CM370715001


104. In mammals the teeth are

(a) of different types

(b) embedded in the cuplike socket in the jaw bones

(c) only two sets, present throughout life

The condition are referred as :

(1) heterodont, thecodont, diphyodont

(2) thecodont, heterodont, diphyodont

(3) diphyodont, thecodont, heterodont

(4) heterodont, diphyodont, thecodont

105. Bile can be prevented to release into the duodenum

by :-

(1) pyloric valve (2) sphincter of oddi

(3) cardiac sphincter (4) sphincter of Boyden

106. Pepsinogen is converted to pepsin by:-

(1) Low pH (2) Trypsinogen

(3) Chymotrypsin (4) Enterokinase

107. If for some reason the parietal cells of the gut

epithelium become partially non-functional, what

is likely to happen ?

(1) The pH of stomach will fall abruptly

(2) Steapsin will be more effective

(3) Proteins will not be adequately hydrolysed by

pepsin into proteoses and peptones

(4) The pancreatic enzymes and specially the

trypsin and lipase will not work efficiently

108. Trypsin differs from pepsin because it digests :

(1) Carbohydrate in alkaline medium in stomach

(2) Protein, in alkaine medium in stomach

(3) Protein, in acidic medium of stomach

(4) Protein, in alkaine madium in duodenum

109. Glucose is transported to cell by :-

(1) Na+ Symport (2) K+ Symport

(3) Na+ Antiport (4) K+ Antiport

110. Lacteals take part-

(1) Digestion of milk

(2) Absorption of fat

(3) Digestion of lactic acid

(4) None of the above

104. (a)

(b) socket

(c) sets (1) heterodont, thecodont, diphyodont

(2) thecodont, heterodont, diphyodont

(3) diphyodont, thecodont, heterodont

(4) heterodont, diphyodont, thecodont

105. :-

(1) pyloric valve (2) sphincter of oddi

(3) cardiac sphincter (4) sphincter of Boyden

106.

(1) pH (2)

(3) (4)

107.

(1) pH

(2)

(3)

(4)

108. :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

109. :-

(1) Na+ (2) K+

(3) Na+ (4) K+

110.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

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111. Which one of the following pairs of the kind of

cells and their secretion is correctly matched ?

(1) Oxyntic cells – a secretion with pH between

2.0 and 3.0

(2) Alpha cells of Islets of Langerhans – secretion

that decreases blood sugar level

(3) Kupfer cells – a digestive enzyme that

hydrolyses nucleic acids

(4) Sebaceous glands – a secretion that evaporates

for cooling

112. Which one of the following is the correct

matching of the site of action on the given

substrate, the enzyme acing upon it and the end

product ?

(1) Small intestine:ProteinsPepsin

Amino acids

(2) Stomach : Fats Lipase

micelles

(3) Duodenum : Triglycerides Trypsin

monoglycerides

(4) Small intestine : Starch Amylase

Disaccharide (Maltose)

113. Gastric juice of infants contains :-

(1) nuclease, pepsinogen, lipase

(2) pepsinogen, lipase, rennin

(3) amylase, rennin, pepsinogen

(4) maltase, pepsinogen, rennin

114. The dental formula of an adult man is...

(1) 2321

2321(2)

1632

1632

(3) 2123

2123(4)

3216

3216

115. Jaundice is a disorder of :

(1) Skin and eyes

(2) Digestive system

(3) Circulatory system

(4) Excretory system

116. A patient is generally advised to specially,

consume more meat, lentils, milk and eggs in diet

only when the suffers from :

(1) Kwashiorkar (2) Rickets

(3) Anaemia (4) Scurvy

111. (1) Oxyntic – 2 3 pH (2)

(3) –

nucleic hydrolyses

(4) –

112.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

113.

(1) , ,

(2) , ,

(3) , , (4) , ,

114.

(1) 2321

2321(2)

1632

1632

(3) 2123

2123(4)

3216

3216

115.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

116. (1) Kwashiorkar (2) Rickets (3) Anaemia (4) Scurvy

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117. (a) CO

2

(b) 8.9% CO2

(c) CO2

RBC

H2CO

3

(d) Erythrocytes oxyhaemoglobin (HbO2)

(e) Chloride erythrocytes

(1) a,c, e 'b' 'd'

(2) a, c e 'b' 'd'

(3) a, b d 'c' 'e'

(4) a, b d 'c' 'e'

118.

(membrane):

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 1 3

119.

(1) WBC (2) RBC

(3) (4)

120.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

121.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

122. O2

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

117. Which of the following statements are true/false ?

(a) The blood transports CO2 comparatively easily

because of its higher solubility.

(b) Approximately 8.9% of CO2 is transported

being dissolved in the plasma of blood.

(c) The carbondioxide produced by the tissues,

diffuses passively into the blood stream and

passes into red blood corpuscles and react with

water to form H2CO

3.

(d) The oxyhaemoglobin (HbO2) of the

erythrocytes is basic.

(e) The chloride ions diffuse from plasma into the

erythrocytes to maintain ionic balance.

(1) a,c, and e are true and 'b' and 'd' are false

(2) a, c and e are false and 'b' and 'd' are true

(3) a, b and d are true and 'c' and 'e' are false

(4) a, b and d are false and 'c' and 'e' are true

118. Membrane separating air in pulmonary alveoli

from blood capillaries :

(1) alveolar epithelium

(2) cardiac epithelium

(3) endothelium of blood capillaries

(4) both '1' and '3'

119. Carbonic anhydrase is abundentally found in

(1) W.B.C. (2) RBC

(3) Blood plasma (4) All

120. Hamburger phenomenon is also known as

(1) bicarbonate shift (2) chloride shift

(3) potassium shift (4) all of these

121. During normal respiration without any effort the

volume of air insired or expired is called –

(1) Tidal volume (2) Reserve volume

(3) Residual volume (4) None of these

122. O2 dissociation curve is :

(1) sigmoid curve (2) parabolic

(3) hyperbolic (4) straight line

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123. options

A B C D

(1) larynx parathyroid tracheal trachea

cartilage

(2) nasolarynx thyroid tracheal trachea

cartilage

(3) trachea thyroid bronchiole tracheal

cartilage

(4) epiglottis thyroid tracheal trachea

cartilage

124. :-

(1) 2OP

(2) 2CoP

(3) pH (4)

125. A, B, C D :-

D

CB

A

(Lung)

(Cut end of rib)

(Bronchus)

heart

(1) D –

(2) A –

(3) B –

(4) C –

123. The diagram represents the human larynx. Choose the

correct combination of labelling from options given

A B C D

(1) larynx parathyroid tracheal trachea

cartilage

(2) nasolarynx thyroid tracheal trachea

cartilage

(3) trachea thyroid bronchiole tracheal

cartilage

(4) epiglottis thyroid tracheal trachea

cartilage

124. Oxygen dissociation curve shifts to right when:-

(1) 2OP decreases

(2) 2CoP decreases

(3) pH increases

(4) temp. decreases

125. The figure shows a diagrammatic view of human

respiratory system with labels A, B, C and D.

Select the option which gives correct identification

and main function and/or characteristic :-

D

CB

A

Lung

Cut end of rib

Bronchus

heart

(1) D – Lower end of lungs – diaphragm pulls it

down during inspiration

(2) A – trachea - long tube supported by

complete cartilaginous rings for conducting

inspired air

(3) B – pleural membrane - surround ribs on both

sides to provide cushion against rubbing

(4) C – Alveoli - thin walled vascular bag like

structures for exchange of gases

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126. Which of the following diseases are occupational

respiratory disorders ?

(1) Asthma and emphysema

(2) Emphysema and fibrosis

(3) Fibrosis, silicosis and asbestosis

(4) Dysentry and silicosis

127. Blood clotting requires :-

(1) Na+ + K+ (2) Na+ + Protbrombin

(3) Na+ + Thromboplastin (4) Ca++ + Thromboplastin

128. Chordae tendinae are found in :-

(1) Ventricles of brain

(2) Ventricles of heart

(3) Auricles of heart

(4) Connection between bone

129. Pace maker is

(1) Instrument for measuring heart beat

(2) Instrument of measuring pulse rate

(3) Auriculo-ventricular node that provides

mpulse for heart beat

(4) Sinu-auricular node that provides impulse for

heart beat

130. Heart beat becomes faster on stimulation by

(1) Sympathetic nerves and noradrenaline

(2) Sympathetic and parasymapathetic nerves

(3) Parasympathetic nerves and epinephrine

(4) Parasympathetic nerves and acetylcholine

131. Cardiac output :-

(1) Stroke volume x heart rate

(2) Stroke volume x end systolic volume

(3) Heart rate x end systolic volume

(4) End diastolic volume x End systolic volume

132. First heart sound is :-

(1) Lubb sound at the end of systole

(2) Lubb sound at the begining of ventricular systole

(3) 'Dup' sound at the end of systole

(4) Dup sound at the begining of ventricular systole

133. The diagram given here is the standard ECG of

a normal person. The P- wave represents the :

P Q

R

S T

(1) End of systole

(2) Contraction of both the atria

(3) Initiation of the ventricular contraction

(4) Beginning of the systole

126. (1) (2) (3) (4)

127. (1) Na+ + K+ (2) Na+ + Protbrombin

(3) Na+ + Thromboplastin (4) Ca++ + Thromboplastin

128. ( ) (1) (2) (3) (4)

129. (1) (2) (3)

(4)

130. (1) (2) (3) (4)

131. Cardiac output :-

(1) Stroke volume x heart rate

(2) Stroke volume x end systolic volume

(3) Heart rate x end systolic volume

(4) End diastolic volume x End systolic volume

132. (1) "" (2) "" (3) "" (4) ""

133.

P Q

R

S T

(1) (2) (3) (4)

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134. Blood pressure in the mammalian aorta is

maximum during :

(1) Diastole of the right ventricle

(2) Systole of the left ventricle

(3) Diastole of the right atrium

(4) Systole of the left atrium

135. Pain in heart muscle is :-

(1) Angina cardius (2) Angina pericardius

(3) Angina pectoris (4) None

136. In a normal man blood pressure is :-

(1) 120/80mm of Hg (2) 80/100 mm of Hg

(3) 80/120 mm of Hg (4) 100/80 mm of Hg

137. The conversion of a protein waste, the ammonia

into urea, occurs in

(1) Kidneys (2) Lungs

(3) Intestine (4) Liver

138. Columns of Bertini in the kidneys of mammals

are formed as extensions of

(1) Cortex in medulla (2) Cortex in pelvis

(3) Medulla in pelvis (4) Pelvis in ureter

139. Vasa recta are tubular capillaries around

(1) Posterior part of alimentary canal

(2) PCT

(3) Loop of Henle

(4) DCT

140. Micturition is

(1) Removal of urea from blood

(2) Removal of uric acid

(3) Passing out urine

(4) Removal of faeces

141. Tubular fluid at the base of Henle's loop is

(1) Isotonic (2) Hypotonic

(3) Hypertonic (4) Insoluble

142. Kidney stone is produced due to

(1) Deposition of sand particles

(2) Precipitation of proteins

(3) Crystallisation of oxalates

(4) Blockage of fat

143. Which is the correct pathway for passage of urine

in vertebrates ?

(1) Renal pelvis------medulla------urinary

bladder---urethra

(2) Renal vein------urethra-----bladder-----ureter

(3) Collecting duct------ureter------bladder-------

urethra

(4) Pelvis-----medulla------urinary bladder-----

urethra

134. (1) (2) (3) (4)

135. (1) (2) (3) (4)

136. (1) 120/80 mm (2) 80/120 mm (3) 80/120 mm (4) 100/80 mm

137. (1) (2) (3) (4)

138. (1) (2) pelvis (3) pelvis (4) Pelvis

139. (1) (2) PCT

(3) (4) DCT

140. (Micturition) (1) (2) (3) (4)

141. (1) (2) (3) (4)

142. Kidney stone (1) (2) (3) oxalates (4)

143. (1) Renal pelvis----medulla----urinary bladder---

urethra

(2) Renal vein------urethra-----bladder-----ureter

(3) Collecting duct------ureter------bladder-------

urethra

(4) Pelvis-----medulla------urinary bladder-----

urethra

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144. Parts A, B, C and D of Nephron are shown in the

diagram select the option which is incorrect with

it's function

A C

B

D

Cortex

Medulla

(1) A – 70-80% water reabsorption

(2) B – permeable to salts

(3) C – Selective secretion of H+ and K+ ions and

maintain pH

(4) D– allows passage of small amount of urea

into the medullary interstitium and help to

produce concentrated urine

145. What will happen if the stretch receptors of the

urinary bladder wall are totally removed ?

(1) There will be no micturition

(2) Urine will not collect in the bladder

(3) Micturition will continue

(4) Urine will continue to collect normally in the

bladder

146. Which of the following statement is correct about

excretion ?

(1) Human excretes 25-30gm urea per day

(2) Glucose and amino acids are absorbed

passively in renal tubules

(3) Descending loop of Henle is impermeable to water

(4) Kidneys can reabsorb only 2/3rd part of

glomerular filtrate.

147. Which of the following pairs, is correctly matched?

(1) Fibrous joint – between phalanges

(2) Cartilaginous joint – Skull bones

(3) Gliding joint – between zygapophyses of the

successive vertebrae

(4) Hinge joint – between vertebrae

144. A, B, C D

A C

B

D

Cortex

Medulla

(1) A – 70-80% (2) B – (3) C – H+ K+

pH (4) D–

145. ?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

146. (1) 25-30gm (2)

(3)

(4) 2/3

147. (1) (Fibrous) Phalanges (2) (3) Gliding vertebrae zygapophysis

(4) vertebrae

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148. In human body, which one of the following is

anatomically correct ?

(1) Cranial nerve – 10 pairs

(2) Floating ribs – 2 pairs

(3) Collar bones – 3 pairs

(4) Salivary glands – 1 pair

149. Elbow joint is an example of :-

(1) Ball and socket joint

(2) Pivot joint

(3) Hinge joint

(4) Gliding joint

150. Glenoid cacity is found in :

(1) Pelvic girdle (2) Skull

(3) Pectoral girdle (4) Sternum

151. In humans, coccyx is formed by the fusion of vertebrae

(1) 3 (2) 4

(3) 5 (4) 6

152. The type of muscles present in our :

(1) upper arm are smooth muscle fibres fusiform

in shape.

(2) heart are involuntary and unstriated smooth

muscles.

(3) intestine are striated and involuntary.

(4) thigh are striated and voluntary.

153. Which one of the following is correct pairing of

a body part and the kind of muscle tissue that

moves it ?

(1) Iris – Involuntary smooth muscle

(2) Heart wall – Involuntary unstriated muscle

(3) Biceps of – Smooth muscle fibres upper arm

(4) Abdominal – Smooth muscle wall

154. In a muscle fibre Ca++ is stored in :-

(1) Sarcoplasmic reticulum

(2) Sarcosom

(3) Sarcomere

(4) Sarcolemma

155. Ciliary movement is found in:

(1) Macrophages and leucocytes

(2) Fallopian tube and vasa deferentia

(3) Fallopian tube and Trachea

(4) Tongue and Limbs

148.

(1) – 10

(2) – 2

(3) – 3 (4) – 1

149. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 150.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

151. (1) 3 (2) 4

(3) 5 (4) 6

152. (1)

(2)

(3) (4)

153. (1) – (2) – (3) – (4) –

154. Ca++

(1)

(2)

(3) (4)

155. :(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

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156. Correctly match column-I with column-II.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Tetany (i) Auto immune

disorder.

(B) Osteoporosis (ii) Progressive

degeneration of skeletal

muscle.

(C) Muscular (iii) Inflammation of

dystrophy joints.

(D) Arthritis (iv) Rapid spasms in

muscle.

(E) Myasthenia (v) Bone mass

Gravis decreased.

(1) A(i), B(ii), C(iii), D(iv), E(v)

(2) A(iv), B(v), C(i), D(iii), E(ii)

(3) A(iv), B(v), C(ii), D(iii), E(i)

(4) A(ii), B(iii), C(i), D(v), E(iv)

157. The neural system provides or organised network of

___A___ connections for a ___B___ coordination.

Choose the correct option for A, B to complete

the given statement.

(1) A – point to point, B – slow

(2) A – chemical, B – fast

(3) A – point to point, B – fast

(4) A – Chemical, B – slow

158. The cerebrum wrap around a structure called

__A__. Which is major coordinating centre for

__B___ signaling. Another very important part of

the brain called ___C___ lie at the base of thalamus.

Choose the correct option for A, B and C to

complete the given statement

A B C

(1) Pons Visual Hypothalamus

(2) Cerebellum Smell Epithalamus

(3) Thalamus Sensorymotor

Hypothalamus

(4) Pons Sensorymotor

Hypothalamus

156. -I -II

-I -II

(A) (i)

(B) (ii)

(C) (iii)

(D) () (iv)

(E) (v)

(1) A(i), B(ii), C(iii), D(iv), E(v)

(2) A(iv), B(v), C(i), D(iii), E(ii)

(3) A(iv), B(v), C(ii), D(iii), E(i)

(4) A(ii), B(iii), C(i), D(v), E(iv)

157. __A__ __B__ A B

(1) A – , B –

(2) A – , B –

(3) A – , B –

(4) A – , B –

158. __A__ __B___ ___C___

A, B C

A B C

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

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159. In given digrammatic sketch of nervous system

Identify A, B & C and select incorrect option in

given table .

Nervous System

C PNS

Brain Spinal cord A B

D E

(1) A SNS Skeletal muscle Voluntary

(2) B ANS Skeletal muscle Involuntary

(3) C CNS Association area Memory

(4) E PNS Conserve energy Heart rate

160. The figure shows A,B,C where is different parts

of neuron are given, select the option give correct

identification together with what represents

(A) (B) (C)

(1) A - as group it forms grey matter gives greyish

appearence due to highly concentrate cell

body

(2) B - as a group it forms white matter which is

opaque, white in colour present in ANS & SNS

(3) C- Dendron which remain in contact with

effector organ

(4) A- Its group are known as ganglia in CNS &

as Nuclei in PNS

161. Which one of the following option gives the correct

categorisation of different stages nervous system :

APolarized

BDepolarized

CExcitable cell

(1) Resting stage Excitablestage

Neuron

(2) Repolarization Excited stage Nissl's granule

(3) Resting stage Excited stage Neurons

(4) Na+ high inAxoplasm

Na+ low inAxopolasm

Effector orgen

159. (A) (B) & (C)

C PNS

A B

D E

(1) A SNS dadky is'kh ,sfPNd(2) B ANS dadky is'kh vuSfPNd(3) C CNS lgHkkxh {ks=k ;knnk'r(4) E PNS ÅtkZ laj{k.k ân; nj esa deh

160. A,B,C

(A) (B) (C)

(1) A -

(2) B - ANS SNS

(3) C- (4) A- CNS PNS

161. :

A

B

C

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Na+

Na+

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162. The inner part of cerebral hemisphere & group of

associated deep structure form a complex structure

called limbic system these associated deep

structures include:-

(A) Amygdela

(B) Hippocampus

(C) outer parts of cerebral cortex

(D) Assoication area

(1) A & D (2) A & B

(3) A & C (4) C & D

163. The figure below shows synapse between two

neurons, select the option giving correct

identification

C

DE

G

FA

B

(1) A - It is a chemical messenger which transmit one

neuron to another and always excitatory in nature

(2) F - These are receptors which receive Na+ or

K+ ion

(3) D - It is synaptic cleft, which may be absent

in some other types of synapse

(4) B - It contains the enzyme, which is helpful

in reuse of neuro transmitter

164. Read the statements (A–D) :-

(A) Unmyelinated nerve fibres commonly found

in ANS and SNS

(B) Myelinated nerve fibres found in spinal and

cranial nerves

(C) Both myelinated and non myelinated nerve

fibres are enclosed by schwann cells in PNS

& its parts

(D) There are two types of axons, namely

myelinated and non myelinated

How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) One (2) Two

(3) Three (4) Four

162. (A) (B) (C) (D) (1) A & D (2) A & B

(3) A & C (4) C & D

163. :-

C

DE

G

FA

B

(1) A -

(2) F - Na+ K+

(3) D -

(4) B -

164. (A–D) :-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

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165. Reflex action :-

(A) With conscious effort or thought and requires

involument of a part of CNS.

(B) Reflex pathway contains at least two afferent

and one efferent neuron.

(C) In reflex action first afferent neuron receive

signal from sensory organ & transmit this

impulse via ventral nerve root to CNS.

(D) Sudden withdrawal of body part from object

which comes in contact may include in reflex

action

How many of above statements are false ?

(1) 4 (2) 3

(3) 2 (4) 1

166. Identify the type of neurons in the given diagram

a b

cOrgan

(1) 'a' is sensory neuron, 'b' is motor neuron

(2) 'a' is motor neuron, 'b' is sensory neuron

(3) 'a' is sensory neuron, 'b' is motor neuron,

'c' is inter neuron

(4) 'a' is sensory neuron, 'b' is inter neuron,

'c' is motor neuron

167. Consider the following statements.

(a) Occurs involuntarily and without councious effort

(b) At least one afferent and one efferent neuron

required

(c) Interneuron is involved in the action.

(d) Monosynaptic and unconditioned reflex

(e) Regulated by the spinal cord

Which of the above statements are correct for the

reflex shown in the above figure ?

(1) a and b

(2) b, c and d

(3) a, b, d and e

(4) a, b, c, d and e

165. :-(A) CNS

(B)

(C) CNS

(D)

?

(1) 4 (2) 3

(3) 2 (4) 1

166. neurons :-

a b

cOrgan

(1) 'a' neuron , 'b' neuron (2) 'a' neuron , 'b' neuron (3) 'a' neuron , 'b' neuron ,

'c' neuron (4) 'a' neuron , 'b' neuron ,

'c' neuron 167.

(a)

(b)

(c) (d) (e)

(1) a b

(2) b, c d

(3) a, b, d e

(4) a, b, c, d e

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168. Match these columns :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Multipolar (i) Retina of eye

(B) Bipolar (ii) Cerebral cortex

(C) Unipolar (iii) Cell body

(D) Nissl's granules (iv) Embryonic stage

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) ii iii i iv

(2) ii i iii iv

(3) ii iv i iii

(4) ii i iv iii

169. How many of the hormones in the list given below

interact with membrane bound receptors and

regulate cellular metabolism :-

Insulin, Glucagon, Pitutary hormone,Cortisol, Thyroxin, Testosterone, Estradiol,Progesterone, Epinephrine

(1) Four (2) Five

(3) Six (4) Three

170. Find out the correct match between column I & II:-

Column-I Column-II

(a) FSH (i) Darkness

(b) Thyroxine (ii) Release of ovum

(c) MSH (iii) Regulation of minimumO

2 consumption during

resting stage

(d) LH (iv) Regulation of sertolicells

(1) a – (i); b – (iii); (c) – (iv); d – (ii)

(2) a – (iii); b – (ii); (c) – (i); d – (iv)

(3) a – (iii); b – (iv); (c) – (ii); d – (i)

(4) a – (iv); b – (iii); (c) – (i); d – (ii)

168. :-

-I -II

(A) (i)

(B) (ii)

(C) (iii)

(D) (iv)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) ii iii i iv

(2) ii i iii iv

(3) ii iv i iii

(4) ii i iv iii

169.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

170. -I-II -

-I -II

(a) FSH (i)

(b) Thyroxine (ii)

(c) MSH (iii) O2

(d) LH (iv)

(1) a – (i); b – (iii); (c) – (iv); d – (ii)

(2) a – (iii); b – (ii); (c) – (i); d – (iv)

(3) a – (iii); b – (iv); (c) – (ii); d – (i)

(4) a – (iv); b – (iii); (c) – (i); d – (ii)

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171. Which one of the following is incorrect ?

(Hint = increase decrease)

(1) Insulin = Glycogenesis Glycogenolysis

(2) Glucagon = Glucose level in blood

(3) Cortisol = Glucose level in blood

(4) ADH = H2O in urine

172. How many hormones are synthesized & released

from posterior lobe or neurohypophysis of

pituitary gland respectively ?

(1) None, 2-hormones

(2) 2, 2 hormones

(3) None, None hormone

(4) 2, None

173. Which one is not a secondary messenger ?

(1) C-Amp (2) IP3

(3) Ca+2 (4) PO4–3

174. Hypersecretion of which hormone could be

expected to produce hypocalcaemia ?

(1) Parathyroid hormones (2) Aldosterone

(3) Calcitonin (4) Calcitriol

175. The disease casued by Non-functionting of

neuro hypophysis :-

(1) Diabetes Mellitus (2) Diabetes incipidus

(3) Addison disease (4) Acromegali

176. Given below is an incomplete table about certain

hormones, their source glands and one major

effect of each on the body in humans. Identify the

correct option for the three blanks A, B and C :

Gland Secretion Effect on Body

A Oestrogen Maintenance ofsecondary sexualcharacters

Alpha cellsof Islets ofLangerhans

B Raises bloodsugar level

Anteriorpituitary

C Over secretionleads togigantism

Options :

A B C

(1) Ovary Glucagon Growth hormone

(2) Placenta Insulin Vasopressin

(3) Ovary Insulin Calcitonin

(4) Placenta Glucagon Calcitonin

171. ?

(Hint = increase decrease)

(1) = , (2) = (3) = (4) ADH = H

2O

172.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

173. (1) C-Amp (2) IP3

(3) Ca+2 (4) PO4–3

174. ?(1) (2) (3) (4)

175. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

176. A, B C :

A

B

C

: A B C

(1) (2) (3) (4)

H-34/35 1001CM370715001


177. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. the hormone,

its source and function :-

Hormone Source Function

(1) ADH Supra opticnuclei

Water reabsorption innephrons

(2) ANF Heart Promote Na+ excretionin urine

(3) Insulin Acinar cellsof pancreas

Glucose transportinside liver

(4) Erythropoietin Kidney Promote erythropoiesis

178. Carbohydrate metobolism and electrolyte

balance in body is carried respectively by.........

and ......... hormones.

(1) Aldosterone and cortisol

(2) Adrenaline and GH

(3) Cortisol and Aldosterone

(4) Thyroxine and ADH

179. The brain associated structure function as 'master

clock' are :-

(A) Hypothalamus (B) Pituitary gland

(C) Epithalamus (D) Pineal gland

In above options which are correct ?

(1) A and C (2) B and C

(3) A and B (4) A and D

180. Which of the following is correct ?

(a) Pars distalis produces GH, PRL, TSH, ACTH,

LH, FSH

(b) Pars intermedia secretes only one hormone

called melatonin

(c) Posterior lobe of pituitary is also called as

neurohypophysis or pars nervosa

(d) Posterior pituitary stores and releases two

hormones called oxytocin and vasopressin

(1) a, b, c (2) b, c, d

(3) a, c, d (4) a, b, c, d

177.

(1) ADH

(2) ANF Na+

(3)

(4)

178. ............. ............. (1) (2) GH

(3) (4) ADH

179. :-(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) AC (2) BC(3) A B (4) A D

180. (a) GH, PRL, TSH, ACTH, LH, FSH

(b)

(c)

(d)

(1) a, b, c (2) b, c, d

(3) a, c, d (4) a, b, c, d

Your moral duty is to prove that

is

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2016

H-35/351001CM370715001


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