1. Figure given hare shows the variation of velocity of a particle with time. Averagevelocity during the motion is _________

2 4 7t

0

4

v ms-1

1) 20 /7

m s 2) 18 /7

m s 3) 36 /7

m s 4) 12 /7

m s

2. The centre of mass of a system of three particles of masses 1g ; 2g and 3 g is taken asthe origin of the coordinate system. The position vector of a fourth particle of mass 4gsuch that the centre of mass of the four particle system lies at the point (1, 2, 3) is

i 2 j 3k , where ' ' is a constant. The value of ' ' is

1) 103 2)

52 3)

12 4)

25

Pattern of the Entrance Test:-1) The Entrance Test shall consist of one paper containing 180 objective type questions (fouroptions with single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany & Zoology)to be answered on the specially designed machine-gradable sheet using Ball Point Pen only.The duration of paper would be 03 hours2) Each item carries 4 marks. For each correct response the candidate will get 4 marks. Foreach incorrect response one mark will be deducted from the total score.

PHYSICS

3. A small object of uniform density rolls up a curved surface with an initial velocity

' '. It reaches upto a maximum height of 23

4g

with respect to the initial position.

What is that object ?

1) Ring 2) Solid sphere 3) Hollow sphere 4) Disc

4. A projectile is fired on a horizontal ground. Coefficient of restitution between the

projectile and the ground is e. The ratio of horizontal range 1

2

RR

in first two

collisions with the ground is

1) 1/e 2) 1/e2 3) e 4) e2

5. Two constant horizontal forces F1 and F2 are acting on the blocks 'A' and 'B' as shownin the figure. At an instant acceleration of block 'B' is 4 m/s2 in the direction of F1,then the acceleration of block A with respect to block 'B' at this moment is1) 1 m/s2

2) 2 m/s2 2 kg 5 kgF2=70N F1=100N

A B

Smooth surface

3) 5 m/s2

4) 9 m/s2

6. A child with mass 'm' is standing at the edge of a merry-go-round with moment ofinertia I, radius 'R' and initial angular velocity , as shown in figure. The childjumps off the edge of the merry-go-round with a velocity ' ' with respect to the groundin a direction tangent to periphery of the disc as shown. The new angular velocity ofthe merry-go-round is

1) 2 2I m

I 2)

2 2 2I mR m

I

V

R

3) I m R

I

4) 2I mR m R

I

7. When a proton is released from rest in a room, it starts with an initial acceleration a0towards west. When it is projected towards north with a speed v0, it moves with aninitial acceleration 3a0 towards west. The electric and magnetic fields in the roomare respectively.

1) 0mae west ; 0

0

2maev upwards 2) 0ma

e west ; 0

0

2maev downwards

3) 0mae east ; 0

0

3maev upwards 4) 0ma

e east ; 0

0

3maev downwards

8. The adjoining figure represents a wavefront 'AB' which passes from air to anothertransparent medium and produces a new wavefront 'CD' after refraction. 'PQ' is the

boundary between air and the medium. The refractive index of the transparent

medium is

1) 1

3

coscos

2) 4

1

coscos

P QA

B

C

D

air

medium

2 31 4

3) 1

3

sinsin

4) 2

3

sinsin

9. A convex lens of refractive index 1.5 has a radius of curvature of magnitude 20 cm.Which one of the following options describe best about the image formed, whose objectis of height 2 cm placed 30 cm from the lens ?

1) Virtual ; upright ; height = 0.5 cm 2) Real ; inverted ; height = 4 cm

3) Real ; inverted ; height = 1 cm 4) Virtual ; upright ; height = 1 cm

10. The half-life of a radioactive isotope 'X' is 20 years. It decays to another element 'Y'which is stable. The two elements X and Y were found to be in the ratio 1 : 7 in asample of a given rock. The age of the rock is estimated to be

1) 40 years 2) 60 years 3) 80 years 4) 100 years

11. A piece of iron is heated in a flame. It first becomes dull red, then becomes reddishyellow and finally turns to white hot. The correct explanation for the above observationis possible by using

1) Stefan's law 2) Wein's displacement law

3) Kirchoff's law in thermal radiation 4) Newton's law of cooling

12. Assertion (A) : In the case of projectile motion, the rate of change in magnitude ofpotential energy of the particle first decreases and then increasing during motion.

Reason (R) : In the case of projectile motion, the rate of change of linear momentumof a particle remains constant during motion.1) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.2) A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.3) A is true, R is false. 4) A is false, R is true.

13. A car of mass 'm' is accelerating on a level smooth road under the action of a singleforce F. The power delivered to the car is constant and equal to 'P'. If the velocity ofthe car at an instant is v, then after travelling how much distance its velocity becomesdouble ?

1) 37mv

3P2)

34mv3P

3) 3mv

P4)

318mv7P

14. The current (I) in the inductor coil is varying with time according to the plot shownin figure.

(cur

rent

) I

O

I0

T/2 T time (t)

Which of the following is the correct variation of voltage with time in the inductorcoil

1)

V

OT

T/22)

V

tT/23)

V

tT/2T 4)

V

tT/2 T

15. The upper half of an inclined plane of inclination ' ' is perfectly smooth, while lowerhalf is rough. A block starting from rest at the top of the plane will again came to restat the bottom, the coefficient of friction between the block and lower half of the planeis

1) 1

tan

2) 2

tan

3) 2 tan 4) tan

16. A uniform ring of mass m is lying at a distance 3 a from the centre of a sphere ofmass 'M', where 'a' is the radius of the ring as well as that of sphere. Then magnitudeof gravitational force between them is

1) 2GMm8a

2) 2GMm

3 a 3) 23 GMm

a4) 2

3 GMm8a

17. By what percent the energy of a earth's satellite has to be increased to shift the satellitefrom an orbit of radius r to (3/2) r ?1) 15% 2) 20.3% 3) 66.7% 4) 33.33%

18. A particle of mass 'm' is located in a one-dimensional conservative field, where thepotential energy can be represented by U(x) = A(1 + cos Px) where A and P are constants.The period of small oscillations of the particle is

1) m2AP

2) 2m2

AP 3)

m2A

4) 2m2

A P

19. If the length of seconds pendulum is increased by 2%, then in a day the pendulum1) Loses 764 s 2) Loses 924 s 3) Gains 432 s 4) Loses 864 s

20. PV versus T graph of equal masses of three different gases namely Hydrogen (H2) ;Helium (He) and Oxygen (O2) is as shown in the figure. Choose the correct alternative.

PV

T

C

AB

O

1) A corresponds to O2 ; B corresponds to He and C corresponds to H22) A corresponds to He ; B corresponds to H2 and C corresponds to O23) A corresponds to He ; B corresponds to O2 and C corresponds to H24) A corresponds to O2 ; B corresponds to H2 and C corresponds to He

21. Pressure versus density graph of an ideal gas is as shown in the figure. Choose thecorrect option.

C

A

B

Pres

sure

(P)

Density ( )

D

1) During the process AB workdone by the gas is positive2) During the process AB workdone by the gas is negative3) During the process BC internal energy of the gas is increasing4) During the process DA internal energy of the gas remains constant

22. Three identical metallic uncharged spheres A, B and C of radius 'a' are kept at thecorners of an equilateral triangle of side d(d >>> a). A fourth sphere of radius 'a'which has charge Q touches 'A' and then removed to a position faraway. 'B' is earthedand then the earth connection is removed. Now 'C' is earthed. The charge on the 'C' is

1) Qa 2d a2d 2d

2) Qa 2d a2d d

3) Qa a d2d d

4) 2Qa d a

d 2d

23. From the diagram shown, area of each plate is 2m2 and 3d 2 10 m . A charge of88.85 10 C is given to the plate Q. Then the potential of Q becomes

1) 13V 2) 10V

PQ d

2dR

3) 20 V3 4) 8.85 V

24. Three conductors individually draw currents of 1A, 2A and 3A respectively, whenconnected across a battery. If they are joined in series and the combination is connectedacross the same battery, the current drawn will be

1) 6 A

11 2) 1 A6 3)

47 4)

27

25. For the circuit shown the charge on the capacitor will be

1) CE 2) 1

1

CE RR r

r

R1

R2C

E3) 2

1

CE RR r 4) 1

2

CE RR r

26. A beam of light is incident on a glass slab of refractive index, 1.54 in a direction asshown in the figure. The reflected light is analysed by a polaroid prism. On rotatingthe polaroid, (tan 570 = 1.54)

330 330

A B

GLASS SLABO

1) The intensity remains unchanged

2) The intensity is reduced to zero and remains at zero

3) The intensity gradually reduced to zero and then again increases

4) The intensity increase gradually

27. In feedback amplifier, feedback can be achieved byA) Inductive coupling B) LC network C) RC network1) Only A is correct 2) Only B is correct3) Only C is correct 4) A, B and C are correct

28. Pick out the correct statements from the following.

I) Electron emission during – decay is always accompanied by neutrino

II) Nuclear force is charge independentIII) Fusion is cheif source of stellar energy1) I, II are correct 2) I, III are correct 3) Only I is correct 4) II, III are correct

29. The increasing order of the frequency bands used for various communication services is1) Space waves, sky waves, ground waves 2) Space waves, ground waves, sky waves3) Sky waves, ground waves, space waves 4) Ground waves, sky waves, space waves

30. In the diagram shown, I1, I2 are the strength of the currents in the loop and straightconductors respectively. OA = AB = R. The net magnetic field at the centre 'O' iszero. Then, the ratio of the currents in the loop and the straight conductor is

1) 2) 2 OA

B

I1

I23) 1 4)

12

31. A closed organ pipe of length L and an open organ pipe contain gases of densities 1 and

2 respectively. The compressibility of gases are equal in both the pipes. Both thepipes are vibrating in their first overtone with same frequency. The length of the openorgan pipe is

1) L3 2)

4L3 3) 1

2

4L3

4) 2

1

4L3

32. Two similar rods are joined as shown in figure. Assume that no heat loss throughlateral surface of rod and temperatures at the ends are shown in steady state. Thentemperature of the junction is1) 500C2) 750C

500C

00C

500C

1000C

3) 66.60C4) 33.30C

33. A tap supplies water at 100C and another tap at 1000C. How much hot water must betaken so that we get 20 kg of water at 350C.

1) 409 kg 2)

509 kg 3)

209 kg 4)

609 kg

34. In an experiment four quantities a, b, c and d are measured with percentage error 1%,

2%, 3% and 4% respectively. Quantity P is calculated as follows 3 2a bPcd

; The

percentage error in 'P' is1) 14% 2) 10% 3) 7% 4) 4%

35. A material has poission's ratio 0.5. If a uniform rod of it suffers a longitudnal strain

of 32 10 . Then the percentage change in the volume is1) 0.6 2) 0.4 3) 0.2 4) Zero

36. A thread is tied slightly loose to a wire frame as shown in figure and the frame isdipped into a soap solution and taken out. The frame is completely covered with thefilm. When 'A' is pricked

1) Thread will become concave on seeing from side 'A'

2) Thread will become concave on seeing from side 'B'

Frame

Thread

A

B3) Thread will become straight

4) Thread will remain as it is

37. The end correction of a resonance column is 1cm. If the shortest length resonatingwith the tunnnig fork is 15cm. The next resonating length will be1) 31 cm 3) 45 cm 3) 46 cm 4) 47 cm

38. The root-mean-square (rms) speed of oxygen molecule at a certain absolute temperatureis v. If the temperature is doubled and the oxygen gas dissociates into atomic oxygen,then the rms speed would be

1) v 2) 2v 3) 2v 4) 2 2v

39. A body submerged in the sea. Which of the following graphs represents correctly thevariation of the pressure on the body with the depth?

1) 1 Atompressure

depth

2)

depth

1 Atompressure

3)1atom

depth

pressure 4)

depth

1 Atompressure

40. The Davisson-Germer experiment is the direct evidence of1) Particle nature of electrons 2) Wave nature of electrons3) Wave nature of light 4) Particle nature of light

41. The output (X) of the logic circuit shown in figure will be

XAB

1) X A.B 2) X A.B 3) X = A.B 4) X A B

42. The TV transmission tower in VIJAYAWADA has a height 150m. What is the totalpopulation covered by the TV tower, if the population density around the TV tower is103(km)–2 ? (Radius of the earth is 66.4 10 m )

1) 60.288 lakh 2) 40.192 lakh 3) 100 lakh 4) 20.22 lakh

43. In the circuit shown in the figure, what is the value of I1 just after pressing the key k ?

1) 5 A7 2)

5 A11

8

6 2mHI1

I2I38k

10v3) 1A 4) 5 A4

44. de-Broglie wavelength of an electron in the nth Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom is n andthe angular momentum is Jn then

1) n nJ 2) nn

1J

3) 2n nJ 4) n nJ

45. In a spring - block system force constant of the spring is k = 16 N/m, mass of the blockis 1kg. Maximum kinetic energy of the block is 8J. Then pickout the wrong statement1) Amplitude of oscillation is 1m

2) At half the amplitude potential energy stored in the spring is 2J3) At half the amplitude kinetic energy is 6J

4) Angular frequency of oscillation is 16 rad/s

ROUGH

46. X and Y are two crystalline substances both having cubic unit cells. The ratio of molecularmasses is 1 : 2. The ratio of 'a' parameters is 1 : 2. The ratio of number of formula units (Z) is1 : 4. The ratio of their densities is

1) 4 : 1 2) 1 : 1 3) 1 : 2 4) 1 : 4

47. The complex 3

3 6Co NH

is an inner orbital complex whereas the 3

6CoF is an outer orbital

complex. The number of unpaired electrons in these two complexes are respectively1) Zero and 4 2) 4 and 4 3) 6 and 2 4) 3 and 4

48. A hydrocarbon with molecular formula C4H6 reacts with bromine readily and gives a red precipitate

with ammoniacal Cu2Cl2. On treatment with dilute H2SO4 Containing HgSO4 gives 2- butanone.

The hydrocarbon is

1) 2- Butyne 2) 1 – Butene 3) 1- butyne 4) Cyclobutene

49. In C C C C C C C a b c d , the strongest C - C single bond is

1) b 2) a 3) c 4) d

50. One molal solution of Kx [Fe (CN)6] is isotonic with 4 molal urea solution. Thedegree of dissociation of potassium Iron cyanide is one. Then the value of 'x' is

1) 4 2) 3 3) 2 4) 1

51. The standard potential for the electrode 4 2MnO MnO in solution is

Given o

+2MnO Mn4E 1.51V and

o+2MnO Mn2

E 1.23V

1) - 1.70 V 2) + 1.1 V 3) + 1.70 V 4) - 1.1V

52. The limiting molar conductivities 0 for NaCl, KBr and KCl are 126, 152 and 150Scm2 mol–1

respectively. The 0 for NaBr is :

1) 278 S cm2 mol–1 2) 176 S cm2 mol–1 3) 128 S cm2 mol–1 4) 302 S cm2 mol–1

ROUGH

53. H SO NaCl2 44 2 4T T1 2

NaCl NaHSO Na SO . Correct statement is

1) HCl is obtained in both steps 2) 1 2T T

3) HCl is dried using conc 2 4H SO 4) All of these

54. Number of configurational isomers for 3 2 . . .CH CH CH Cl CH CHCl

1) 2 2) 3 3) zero 4) 4

55. Emf of the cell Pt , H2 (1 atm) / H+ (0.01) // Cl2(1atm) / Cl- ( 0.1M) , Pt . Given E of

2 1.36Cl Cl V

1) + 1.36V 2) + 1.54V 3) + 1.48V 4) + 1.12V

56. The electron affinity values of 3rd period elements A, B, C and D are respectively -135, -60, -

200 and 1348KJ mole . The outer configuration of element 'B' is

1) 2 13 3s p 2) 2 43 3s p 3) 2 33 3s p 4) 2 23 3s p

57. In a face centered cubic lattice, atom 'A' occupies the corner positions and atom 'B' occupiesthe face center positions. If one atom of B is missing from one of the face centered points. Theformula of the compound is

1) 2A B 2) 2 5A B 3) 2AB 4) 2 2A B

58. In the roasting of iron pyrites, equivalent weight of iron pyrites is

1) 11M

2) 11

10M

3) 6M

4) 6

5M

59. alc.KOH2 3CH CH CH Br CH X major . 'X' is

1) 2 3CH C CH CH 2) 2 2CH CH CH CH

3) 3 3CH CH CH CH 4) 2 2 3CH CH CH CH

60. Bond length and bond angle in ozone molecule is/are

1) 119 , 121pm 2) 117 , 148pm 3) 117 , 128pm 4) 111 , 128pm

ROUGH

61. Absolute configuration of

H Cl

Cl H

3CH

2 5C H

1) 2S, 3R 2) 3R, 2S 3) 2R, 3R 4) 2S, 3S

62. 'X' along with liquid oxygen provide a tremendous thrust in rockets. Oxidation state of nitrogenin 'X' is

1) - 2 2) - 3 3) - 1 4) + 1

63. The number of π πp d bonds present in 3XeO and 4XeO molecules respectively

1) 3, 4 2) 4, 2 3) 2, 3 4) 3, 2

64. 1, 3 butadiene and styrene on polymerisation give

1) Bakelite 2) Terylene 3) Buna - S 4) Teflon

65. To a 25ml 2 2H O solution, excess acidified solution of KI is added. The iodine liberated required

20ml of 0.3M 2 2 3Na S O solution. Strength of 2 2H O solution is

1) 1.344 gr litre 2) 3.244 gr litre 3) 5.4 gr litre 4) 4.08 gr litre

66. The gas evolved on heating 4 2 72NH Cr O is

1) NH3 2) N2 3) N2O 4) O2

67. When 3HNO oxidizes 2I , the change in oxidation number of iodine is

a) 0 to + 4 2) 0 to -5 3) 0 to +5 4) 0 to +3

68. Gabriel phthalimide synthesis is used for the preparation ofa) Primary aromatic amine 2) Primary aliphatic aminec) Secondary amine 4) Tertiary amine

ROUGH

69. Name of the compound given below

3CH

3CH

3CH

3CH

1) 5 - ethyl - 6 - methyl octane 2) 4 - ethy l - 3 - methyl octane

3) 3 - methyl - 4 ethyl octane 4) 2, 3 diethyl heptane

70. An alkene on ozonolysis gives isobutyraldehyde only. The alkene is

1) 2, 5 dimethyl hex - 3 ene 2) 3, 4 dimethyl hex - 3 ene

3) 2, 3 dimethyl but - 2 ene 4) 3 methyl pent - 1 - ene

71.

CH(CH3)2

+22

O HH OA

OH

+ B . ‘B’ in the above sequence of reaction is

1) CH3CHO 2) CH3COCH3 3) CH3COOH 4) CH3CHOHCH3

72. Which of the following is fast dehydro brominated

1)

Br

2) Br

3)

Br

4)

Br

73. Grignard reagent + CdCl2 A + MgCl2

A + B Butanone + CdCl2

A and B are respectively

1) (CH3)2Cd & C2H5COCl 2) CH3MgCl & C2H5Cl

3) (C2H5)2Cd & CH3Cl 4) CH3COCl & (C2H5)2Cd

ROUGH

74. A steel cylinder of 8 lit capacity contains H2 gas at 12 atm. At the same temperature, how manycycle tubes of 4l capacity at 2 atm pressure can be filled by this gas ?

1) 12 2) 5 3) 10 4) 15

75. CH3COOH 2SOClA 3.

Benzeneanhyd AlClB HCNC 2H O D

In the following sequence of reactions, acetic acid yields D. The structure of ‘D’ is

1)

3

|

|

OH

C COOH

CH

2) 2

3

|

|

OH

CH C COOH

CH

3) 3

|

|

OH

C CH

CN

4) 2

|

|

OH

CH C COOH

CN

76. Which of the following cannot undergo disproportionation ?

1) ClO- 2) 2ClO 3) 3ClO 4) 4ClO

77. Balance the following equation by oxidation number method

3 32 3s saqCr Pb NO Cr NO Pb , the coefficients of species in balanced reaction :

1) 3, 2, 3, 2 2) 2, 3, 2, 3 3) 2, 2, 3, 3 4) 3, 3, 2, 2

78. On passing H2S gas into a solution containing both Cu2+ and Zn2+ ions in acidic medium , only

CuS gets precipitated. This is because

1) CuS more stable than ZnS 2) Ksp of CuS = Ksp of Zns

3) Ksp of CuS < Ksp of ZnS 4) Ksp CuS > Ksp of ZnS

79. If the total energy of an electron in H - atom is - 3.4 eV then the kinetic energy and potentialenergy are respectively

1) 6.8eV, -3.4eV 2) 6.8eV, 3.4eV 3) 3.4eV, -6.8eV 4) 3.4eV, -3.4eV

ROUGH

80. The molecular formula of carbon compound ‘X’ is C4H10O. It liberates hydrogen gas with Nametal and gives turbidity immediately with Lucas Reagent. If the vapours of ‘X’ are passedover hot copper the product obtained is

1) 3 2 2 3CH CH O CH CH 2) 3 2 2CH CH CH CHO

3) O

3 2 3CH C CH CH 4) 3 2CH C CH

3CH

81. The value of PK for the equillibrium of the reaction 2 4 22g gN O NO is 2. Calculate the

percentage dissociation of 2 4N O at a pressure of 0.5 atm

1) 71 2) 50 3) 25 4) 88

82. The pH of 1010 M 2Mg OH solution will be

1) 10 2) 6 3) 4 4) 7.001

83. Consider the following reactions at 1000 C

1) 1

21 ; 3602s sZn O g ZnO G KJ mole

2) 1

21 ; 4602s g gC O CO G KJ mole

Choose the correct statement at 1000 C1) Zinc can be oxidised by CO 2) Zinc oxide can be reduced by C

3) Zinc can be reduced by CO 4) Zinc can be reduced by C

84. Copper matte contains

1) 2Cu S and 2Cu O 2) 2Cu O and FeS 3) 2Cu S and FeO 4) 2Cu S and FeS

85. In an adsorption experiment a graph between log xm vs log P is found to be linear with a slope

of 45 . The Y - intercept was found to be 0.3010. What is xm if pressure is 6 bar (tan 45 1

and 0.3010 = log 2)

1) 0.6 2) 2.8 3) 6 4) 12

ROUGH

86. 0.303 grams of an organic compound was analysed for nitrogen by Kjeldahl's method. Theammonia evolved was absorbed in 50ml of 0.1N 2 4H SO . The excess acid required 25ml of 0.1NNaOH for neutralisation. The percentage of nitrogen in the compound1) 11.55% 2) 23.3% 3) 44.6% 4) 18.4%

87. The Vanderwaal’s constant ‘b’ is………….times volume of the molecule

1) 4 2) 5 3) 2 4) 1088. Which one of the following statements is correct

1) Chloroxylenol is a tranquilizer 2) Sucralose is an antiseptic

3) Prontosil is an antimicrobial 4) Seconal is an antipyretic

89. The number of unpaired electrons present in the first excited state of chlorine atom is

1) 1 2) 3 3) 5 4) 2

90. The total number of antibonding electrons in 2N and 2O molecules respectively is

1) 4, 8 2) 4, 6 3) 6, 8 4) 5, 8

91. The following group of plants belong to how many families?

Lupin, Ashwagandha, Tulip, Tobacco, Petunia, Trifolium, Brinjal, Gloriosa

1) 3 2) 4 3) 2 4) 8

92. Choose the incorrect match regarding ETS of Respiration for one Glucose molecule

1) Cofactors oxidized 2 2NADH and FADH 12

2) Number of water molecules produced in ETS 12

3) Complexes involved in transfer of electrons 4

4) Oxygen atoms utilized in ETS 6

93. A canary grass seedling is exposed to light. Which one of the diagram given below best describesthe condition of the coleoptiles tip at the end of the experiment ?

1) 2) 3) 4)

94. Choose the correct set of statements about Lac operon

1) Operator lies upstream to ’structural genes’

2) Lactose is the inducer

3) Repressor is a protein which binds to the ‘operator’

4) All the above

95. Choose the mismatch

1) Single cell protein – Spirulina, Chlorella 2) Medicinal plants – Arnica, Cinchona3) Food for astronauts – Chlorella 4) Petroplants – Datura, Digitalis

96. Immuno suppressive agent ‘cyclosporin A’ is produced by

1) Monascus purpureus 2) Streptococcus

3) Trichoderma polysporum 4) Propionibacterium sharmanii

97. Given in the diagram shows at a pair of homologous chromosomes during meiosismaximum crossing over will occur between genes

1) A and a, D and d 2) C and d, c and D 3) B and c, b and C 4) A and d, a and D

98. T.W. Engelmann’s experimental plant for his discovery of first action spectrum of photosynthesisis

1) Azatobacter 2) Chlorella 3) Cladophora 4) Chlamydomonas

99. What is the ratio of total number of floral leaves in one flower of Pisum to one flower of Allium?1) 5 : 6 2) 4 : 5 3) 7 : 5 4) 4 : 3

100. Radial, Collateral, and Bicollateral vascular bundles are present respectively in anatomy of

1) Dicot and Monocot roots, dicot and monocot stem, and cucurbita stems

2) Dicot and Monocot stem, dicot and monocot root and cucurbita stem

3) Dicot and Monocot Root, cucurbita stem , dicot and Monocot stem

4) Dicot and monocot stem, cucurbita stems and Dicot and monocot root

101. Osmosis in involved in

1) Ascent of sap in xylem vessels

2) Translocation of sucrose in sieve tube elements

3) Turgidity and flaccidity of guard cells

4) Loss of water vapour into atmosphere from sub stomatal cavity

102. Statement - I : The initial appearance of deficiency symptoms is related to mobility of elementsin plant systemStatement - II : Deficiency symptoms first appear in senescent leaves and young leaves formobile and immobile elements respectively

1) Statement I and II both are correct

2) Statement I is correct, statement II is wrong

3) Statement II is correct, statement I is wrong

4) Statement I and II both are wrong

103. First pair of enzymes catalysic the transfer of groups and second pair of enzyme catalysebreakdown/ removal of groups from substrate. What would be the correct options ? Transfer Removal

1) Oxidoreductases and transferases Hydrolases and Lyases

2) Oxidoreductases and transferases Hydrolases and Ligases

3) Hydrolases and Ligases Oxidoreductases and transferases

4) Oxidoreductases and transferases Ligases and Lyases

104. A round and yellow plant is crossed to a round and green plant and progeny produced have allfour phenotypes in 3 : 3 : 1 : 1 ratio (round yellow, round green, wrinkled yellow, wrinkled green)respectively. Predict the genotypes of parents and choose the correct option.

1) RrYY RRyy 2) RrYy Rryy 3) RRYy Rryy 4) RRyy RRyy

105. Two genera are given below. In the genus A, its aerial roots possess multilayered dead epidermiswith chlorenchymatous cortex. In the genus B, a whorl of leaves at each node possess multilayeredepidermis with well developed chlorenchymatous palisade tissue on both sides of leaf. The twogenera A and B respectively1) Pisum and Taeniophyllum 2) Nerium and Pisum

3) Ficus and Taeniophyllum 4) Taeniophyllum and Nerium

106. The common character observed in members of Inferae, Heteromerae and Bicarpellatae inBentham and Hookers classification is

1) Inferior ovary 2) Superior ovary 3) Free petals 4) Fused petals

107. A cell organelle "A" produce polysaccharides, glycoproteins and glycolipids. A cell organelle"B" oxidize carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids and help in release of energy. A & B cellorganelles respectively are

1) Golgi complex and Endoplasmic reticulum 2) Golgi complex and Mitochondria

3) E. R and Chloroplasts 4) E.R and Mitochondria

108. A vascular element "A" is dead, cylindrical, lignified and conduct substances due to a negativepressure created in it due to transpiratory pull. A vascular element "B" is living, cylindrical,non lignified, enucleated and conduct substances due to a positive pressure created in it. A &B conducting elements respectively are1) Xylem parenchyma & Sieve tubes 2) Xylem vessels & Sieve tubes

3) Sieve tubes & Xylem tracheids 4) Sieve tubes & Xylem vessels

109. An enzymatic reaction format occurring in respiration is given below

A B C D

A = six carbon aldose sugarB = Nucleotide called energy currency

C = Hexose 6 phosphate

With the information provided to you, what could be the enzyme catalysing the above reactionand its enzyme code

1) Malic dehydrogenase, 2.7.1.2 2) Fructose 1, 6 di kinase, 2.7.1.2

3) Glucose isomerase, 2.7.1.2 4) Hexokinase, 2.7.1.2

110. Linkage is exhibited by

1) Genes that are located on homologous chromosomes

2) Genes that are located on same chromosome

3) Alleles of the same gene located on homologous chromosomes

4) Genes that are located on non homologous chromosomes

111. Choose the correct match

1) Probiotics - Salmonella, Methanobacillus2) Biofertilisers - Spirulina, Chlorella

3) Therapeutic chemicals - Clostridium, Aspergillus

4) Bio control - Trichoderma, NPV, Dragon fly

112. Pick the incorrect match1) Oxalis, strawberry Runner Rooted at each node

2) Pistia, Eichhornia Offsets One internodal length branch with respiratoryroots and leaves at a node

3) Nerium, Jasminium Stolon Axillary branch bending downwards

4) Chrysanthemum, Ananas Suckers Underground branch moving upwards

113. Pick the wrong match

Placentation Placenta Example

1) Marginal Margins of ventral suture Pisum

2) Axial Axis formed due to fusion of many ventral sutures Hibiscus3) Free central Central axis with bilocular or multilocular condition Dianthus

4) Parietal Inner wall of the ovary Argemone

114. Pick the incorrect match1) Rhizopus Asexual endogenous sporangiospores Bread preparation

2) Chlamydomonas Motile asexual zoospores Biflagellated gametes

3) Penicillium Asexual exogenous conidiospores Roquefort cheese and antibiotic

4) Cladophora Isogamy Biflagellated gametes

115. Bacterial transformation is

1) Discovered by F. Griffith in Streptococcus pneumoniae

2) Absorption of DNA from surroundings to recipient cell

3) Artificially induced by changing the permeability of host cell

4) All the above are correct

116. Choose the palindromic sequence in the following

1) 5' ACGTAC 3' 2) 5' GACCAG 3' 3) 5' AACGTC 3' 4) 5' ATTACG 3'

3' TGCATG 5' 3' CTGGTC 5' 3' TTGCAG 5' 3' TAATGC 5'

117. Plant 'A' exhibit apocarpy with many free carpels on conical thalamus. Plant 'B' exhibit syncarpyand is without style. Plant C exhibit syncarpy with five free stigmas. A, B and C respectively are

1) Michelia, Papaver, Hibiscus 2) Papaver, Michelia, Hibiscus

3) Hibiscus, Papaver, Michelia 4) Michelia, Hibiscus, Papaver

118. Read the following four statements and pick the incorrect match1) Herbarium - Preserve only plant specimens

2) Museum - Preserve both plant and animal specimens in preservative solutions or in dry conditions

3) Botanical gardens - Live plant specimens grown for the purpose of identification

4) Manual - Information about any one taxon

119. Choose the incorrect match

Genus Fruit Edible part

1) Annona (Annonaceae) Aggregate of berries Mesocarp and endocarp of fruitlet

2) Ananas (Bromeliaceae) Sorosis Peduncle, fleshy bracts

3) Artocarpus (Moraceae) Syconus Fleshy perianth

4) Pyrus (Rosaceae) Pome Fleshy thalamus

120. A linear double stranded DNA and a circular double stranded DNA, each with 4 target sites fora particular restriction endonuclease were cleaved with that enzyme. The number of fragmentsgenerated from linear and circular DNA respectively

1) 5 & 5 2) 5 & 4 3) 4 & 4 4) 4 & 5

121. The ratio between the number of male gametes and that of female gametes produced due to onemeiotic division occurring in their respective spore mother cells is1) 1 : 1 2) 2 : 1 3) 8 : 1 4) 2 : 7

122. One of the following is not a benefit of symbiotic association of fungus namely Glomus inplants. What is it ?1) Absorption of phosphorus from the soil 2) Resistance to root - borne pathogens3) Tolerance to salinity and drought 4) Nitrogen fixation

123. Choose the correct matches from the following1) Red colour of Red sea - Trichodesmium2) Red tides in Mediterranean sea - Gonyaulax3) Red colour of red algae - r. phycoerythrin4) All the above

124. Choose the correct sequence of genera that are characterised by palmella stage, coenobium,kelp body and strobilus respectively1) Spirulina, Volvox, Fucus, Pinus 2) Euglena, Volvox, Fucus, Equisetum3) Amoeba, Slime mould, Porphyra, Annona 4) Chara, Funaria, Adiantum, Cycas

125. Assign the floral diagrams and floral formula to their respective families

5 25 5K C A G

C

1) A-Brassicaceae B- Fabaceae C- Liliaceae 2) A - Solanaceae, B- Fabaceae, C- Brassicaceae

3) A- Liliaceae, B- Fabaceae, C- Solanaceae 4) A- Liliaceae, B - Fabaceae, C- Brassicaceae

126. N- terminal and C- terminal ends are present in macromolecule A, reducing end and non reducingend are found in B, and 5' end and 3' end are found in macromolecule C. What does A, B, Crespectively represent?

1) Polysaccharides Proteins DNA

2) Collagen Cellulose RNA

3) Chitin DNA Haemoglobin

4) Triglycerides Polysaccharides Nucleic acids

127. Permanent tissues may undergo ______ while secondary meristem form secondary permanenttissues by ____1) Differentiation, Redifferentiation 2) Differentiation, Dedifferentiation

3) Dedifferentiation, Redifferentiation 4) Redifferentiation, Differentiation

128. Sexual reproduction method in bacteria that provides the basis for understanding DNA as geneticmaterial

1) Binary fission 2) Transformation 3) Conjugation 4) Transduction

129. What would be the ratio of number of ATP molecules required for the production of two moleculesof NH3 in biological nitrogen fixation, six RUBP in regeneration phase of Calvin cycle and onemolecule of fructose 1, 6 diphosphate in glycolysis.

1) 4 : 3 : 1 2) 4 : 6 : 1 3) 8 : 9 : 1 4) 16 : 6 : 0

130. The ratio of megasporophylls of modified reproductive shoots of mustard, pea, makoi and onionplants is

1) 6 : 10 : 5 : 6 2) 4 : 5 : 5 : 3 3) 2 : 1 : 2 : 3 4) 16 : 21 : 17 : 15

131. A four carbon dicarboxylic acid that is an intermediate of 4C pathway, CAM pathway andKreb's cycle is

1) Aspartic acid 2) Oxalosuccinic acid 3) Malic acid 4) Succinic acid

132. A free floating hydrophyte with subaerial stem modification and a succulent xerophyte withaerial stem modification respectively are

1) Musa, Bryophyllum 2) Chrysanthemum, Casuarina3) Eichhornea, Opuntia 4) Dioscorea, Asparagus

133. Succession that starts on a bare rock is an example for

1) Primary succession 2) Lithosere 3) Xerosere 4) All the above

134. Plant physiologist among the following scientists is1) Carolus Von Linnaeus 2) G..N. Ramachandran

3) Sir J.C. Bose 4) M.S. Swaminathan

135. A genus with woody unbranched stem, spadix inflorescence, single seeded drupe fruit andendospermic seed is

1) Mangifera 2) Colacasia 3) Ricinus 4) Cocos

Rough Work

136. Given below is a pie chart showing relative contribution of various greenhouse gases to totalglobal warming. What gases to the four portions (A – D) represent respectively?

A B C D(1) Carbon dioxide CFCs Methane N2O(2) Carbon dioxide Methane N2O CFCs(3) Carbon dioxide Methane CFCs N2O(4) Methane Carbon dioxide CFCs N2O

137. Coat colour in mouse (albino, agouti and black) is an example for(1) Recessive epistasis (2) Dominant epistasis(3) Complementary genes (4) Inhibitory genes

138. An example of in situ conservation is(1) Seed bank (2) Zoological park(3) In vitro fertilization (4) Sacred groove

139. A species facing extremely high risk of extinction in the immediate future is called(1) Vulnerable species (2) Critically endangered species(3) Endemic species (4) Extinct species

140. Which of the following is an extinct subspecies of plains zebra that lived in South Africauntil the 19th century?(1) Quagga (2) Thylacine (3) Caspian (4) Dodo

141. Select the taxon mentioned that represents only marine species.(1) Porifera (2) Cnidaria (3) Ctenophora (4) Arthropoda

142. Hypostome is present in(1) Planaria (2) Obelia (3) Aplysia (4) Euspongia

143. A marine cartilaginous fish that possesses a poison sting is(1) Pristis (2) Torpedo (3) Labeo (4) Trygon

Rough Work

144. Mark the correct statement about ozone.(1) Bad ozone is formed in the troposphere whereas good ozone is found in the ionosphere.(2) Bad ozone is formed in the mesosphere whereas good ozone is found in the thermosphere.(3) Bad ozone is formed in the stratosphere whereas good ozone is found in the troposphere.(4) Bad ozone is formed in the troposphere whereas good ozone is found in the stratosphere.

145. Choose the correctly matched pair.(1) Specialised connective tissue – areolar tissue(2) Dense regular connective tissue – tendon(3) Loose connective tissue – cartilage(4) Fluid connective tissue – bone

146. The following oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curves explain the effect of pH on oxygen-affinity of haemoglobin. Find out option that gives the correct descending order of pH forX, Y and Z.

(1) Z>Y>X (2) X>Z>Y (3) Y>X>Z (4) X>Y>Z

147. Choose the correctly matched pair.(1) Columnar epithelium – proximal convoluted tubule of nephron(2) Cuboidal epithelium – mucosa of stomach and intestine(3) Squamous epithelium – alveoli of lungs(4) Compound epithelium – bronchioles

148. Fructose is absorbed into the blood through mucosa cells of intestine by the process called(1) Facilitated transport (2) Active transport(3) Simple diffusion (4) Co-transport

Rough Work

149. About seven percent of carbon dioxide is transported to the lungs(1) As carbamino compounds through RBC(2) In a dissolved state through the plasma(3) As bicarbonate ions through RBC(4) As bicarbonate ions through the plasma

150. A person with ‘O’ type blood is considered universal donor because he has(1) Both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in his blood plasma and has A and B antigens on his RBC(2) Neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies in his blood plasma(3) Neither A nor B antigens on his RBC(4) Both A and B antigens on his RBC

151. Which enzymes are likely to act on sweet potatoes eaten by a man, starting from mouth as itmoves down the alimentary canal?(1) Maltase Amylase Lactase(2) Lipase Trypsin Aminopeptidase(3) Salivary amylase Trypsin Invertase(4) Salivary amylase Pancreatic amylase Maltase

152. Muscles that help in the blood circulation in cockroach are(1) Alary muscles (2) Dorsal longitudinal muscles(3) Dorsoventral muscles (4) Ventral longitudinal muscles

153. The following figure shows a human blood cell. Identify it along with its characteristic.

Blood cell Characteristic(1) Basophil Involved in inflammatory reactions(2) Neutrophil The most abundant cells of total WBC(3) Lymphocyte Responsible for immune responses of the body(3) Monocyte Phagocytic and destroy foreign organisms

154. Select the correct matching of the type of the joint with the example in human skeletal system:(1) Fibrous joint - between adjacent vertebrae in the vertebral column(2) Cartilaginous joint – sutures between the cranial bones(3) Pivot joint – between carpal bones in the wrist(4) Saddle joint – between carpal and metacarpal of the thumb

Rough Work

155. Identify the correct matching of a hormone with its source and function.(1) PTH – Parathyroid glands; decreases calcium levels in the blood(2) Melatonin – Pituitary gland; maintains sleep-wake cycle(3) Cortisol – adrenal cortex; carbohydrate metabolism(4) Renin – JG cells of efferent arteriole; increases GFR

156. Hypoglycemia stimulates the secretion of(1) Glucagon from beta cells – It stimulates glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis(2) Glucagon from alpha cells – It stimulates glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis(3) Insulin from beta cells – It stimulates glycogenesis and lipogenesis(4) Insulin from beta cells – It stimulates glycogenesis and lipogenesis

157. Select the correct option with respect to cockroaches.(1) The head holds a bit of a nervous system while the rest is situated along the belly-

side part of its body.(2) Males bear a pair of short, thread-like anal cerci which are absent in females.(3) The mesothoracic wings are transparent, membranous and are used in flight.(4) Malpighian tubules remove urea from the haemolymph and release it into the

hindgut.

158. Hormones produced in women only during pregnancy are(1) Oestrogen, progesterone, FSH and LH(2) hCG, oxytocin and prolactin(3) Relaxin, oxytocin and progesterone(4) Human chorionic gonadotropin, human placental lactogen and relaxin

159. Which of the following is a contraceptive that contains progesterone?(1) LNG-20 (2) Multiload-375 (3) Saheli (4) Lippes loop

160. Active sites are unmasked when calcium binds with a subunit of(1) Troponin (2) Tropomyosin (3) Actin (4) Myosin

161. A localized injury to the hypothalamus is not likely to affect(1) Eating (2) Drinking (3) Breathing (4) Body temperature

162. Assisted reproductive technology, GIFT involves transfer of(1) Ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another woman who cannot produce one.(2) The zygote into the fallopian tube.(3) The early embryos with upto 8 blastomeres into the uterus.(4) Sperm from husband or a donor into the cytoplasm of the ovum.

Rough Work

163. A colour-blind man whose father was normal, marries a normal woman whose father wascolour-blind. What percentage of the children of this couple are likely to be colour-blind?(1) 0% (2) 25% (3) 50% (4) 75%

164. In a population of 10,000 individuals, 6,400 individuals are of the genotype ‘AA’, 3,200individuals are of the genotype ‘Aa’ and the remaining individuals are of the genotype ‘aa’.Based on this data, the frequency of the allele ‘A’ in the population is(1) 0.2 (2) 0.4 (3) 0.7 (4) 0.8

165. A human with Down’s syndrome(1) Has the karyotype 47,XXY(2) Has an additional copy of chromosome 21(3) Lacks one X chromosome and has rudimentary ovaries(4) Lacks one chromosome in the 21st pair

166. The sequencing and annotation of chromosome 1, the largest chromosome in the humangenome, was completed in the year(1) 2006 (2) 2003 (3) 2005 (4) 1990

167. Eyes of octopus and of mammals are an example of(1) Vestigial organs (2) Homologous organs(3) Adaptive radiation (4) Analogous organs

168. Which drug is extracted from the plant shown below?

(1) Marijuana (2) Morphine (3) Cocaine (4) LSD

169. It is imperative, for the physical and psychological well-being, that the HIV/AIDS infectedpersons are not isolated from family and society because(1) There is always a time-lag between the infection and appearance of AIDS symptoms.(2) HIV is not spread by mere touch; it spreads only through body fluids.(3) Anti-retroviral drugs are available to cure the disease effectively.(4) AIDS is only a congenital disease and cannot be acquired during the life of a person.

Rough Work

170. Which of the following is an example of ‘escape in time’ from stressful environmentalconditions?(1) A person moving from Delhi to Shimla for the duration of summer.(2) Change of the osmotic concentration of the body fluids in aquatic animals when the

ambient water osmotic concentration changes.(3) Siberian cranes migrating to Keolado National Park in Rajasthan every winter.(4) Many zooplankton species in lakes and ponds entering diapause under unvavourable

conditions.

171. The random unidirectional change in allelic frequencies that occurs by chance, especially insmall populations is called(1) Mutation (2) Genetic recombination(3) Natural selection (4) Genetic drift

172. Atrial systole increases the flow of blood into the ventricles by about(1) 30% (2) 50% (3) 10% (4) 60%

173. Which one of the following is not a parasitic adaptation?(1) Loss of unnecessary sense organs (2) Presence of adhesive organs(3) Loss of reproductive capacity (4) Loss of digestive system

174. Which of the following are barrier methods of contraception?(1) Condoms and intrauterine devices(2) Condoms, diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults(3) Lippes loop, multiload-375, vaults and cervical caps(4) Vasectomy, tubectomy and coitus interruptus

175. Which one of the following statements is not correct?(1) Scala media is filled with endolymph.(2) At the base of the cochlea, the scala vestibuli ends at the oval window.(3) Ampulla contains a projecting ridge called macula.(4) Organ of Corti contains hair cells covered by a tectorial membrane.

176. The foetal ejection reflex triggers the release of(1) Oxytocin from the maternal pituitary (2) Oxytocin from the foetal pituitary(3) hCG from the placenta (4) hPL from the placenta

Rough Work

177. Given below is a simplified model of nitrogen cycle in an ecosystem with three blanks labelledX, Y and Z. Identify the blanks.

Options:

X Y Z

(1) NH3 NO3– NO2

–

(2) N2 NO2– NO3

–

(3) NH3 NO2– NO3

–

(4) NO3– NO2

– NH3

178. The vehicular emission control device that converts carbon monoxide to carbon dioxide is(1) Scrubber (2) Catalytic converter(3) Electrostatic precipitator (4) Incinerator

179. If 20 J of energy is trapped at producer level, then how much energy will be available topeacock as food in the following chain?Plant Mice Snake Peacock(1) 2 J (2) 0.2 J (3) 0.02 J (4) 0.002 J

180. Renal pyramids contain(1) Proximal convoluted tubules (2) Malpighian corpuscles(3) Distal convoluted tubules (4) Loops of Henle

NEET PAPER -1 KEY SHEET

PHYSICS

1) 2 2) 2 3) 4 4) 1 5) 1 6) 4 7) 2 8) 3 9) 2 10) 2

11) 2 12) 2 13) 1 14) 4 15) 3 16) 4 17) 4 18) 2 19) 4 20) 1

21) 4 22) 3 23) 3 24) 1 25) 2 26) 3 27) 4 28) 4 29) 4 30) 4

31) 3 32) 1 33) 2 34) 1 35) 4 36) 1 37) 4 38) 3 39) 1 40) 2

41) 3 42) 1 43) 1 44) 1 45) 4

CHEMISTRY

46) 2 47) 1 48) 3 49) 1 50) 2 51) 3 52) 3 53) 4 54) 4 55) 2

56) 3 57) 2 58) 1 59) 2 60) 3 61) 4 62) 1 63) 1 64) 3 65) 4

66) 2 67) 3 68) 2 69) 2 70) 1 71) 2 72) 2 73) 1 74) 3 75) 4

76) 4 77) 2 78) 3 79) 3 80) 4 81) 1 82) 4 83) 2 84) 4 85) 4

86) 1 87) 1 88) 3 89) 2 90) 2 BOTANY

91) 1 92) 4 93) 2 94) 4 95) 4 96) 3 97) 4 98) 3 99) 3 100) 1

101) 3 102) 1 103) 1 104) 2 105) 4 106) 4 107) 2 108) 2 109) 4 110) 2

111) 1 112) 2 113) 3 114) 1 115) 4 116) 3 117) 1 118) 4 119) 3 120) 2

121) 3 122) 4 123) 4 124) 2 125) 3 126) 2 127) 3 128) 2 129) 3 130) 3

131) 3 132) 3 133) 4 134) 3 135) 4 ZOOLOGY

136) 3 137) 1 138) 4 139) 2 140) 1 141) 3 142) 2 143) 4 144) 4 145) 2

146) 4 147) 3 148) 1 149) 2 150) 3 151) 4 152) 1 153) 2 154) 4 155) 3

156) 2 157) 1 158) 4 159) 1 160) 1 161) 3 162) 1 163) 3 164) 4 165) 2

166) 1 167) 4 168) 2 169) 2 170) 4 171) 4 172) 1 173) 3 174) 2 175) 3

176) 1 177) 3 178) 2 179) 2 180) 4