NARAYANA ENGINEERING COLLEGE:: NELLORE

DEPARTMENT OF MECHANICAL ENGINEERINGCourse: B.TECH III Year II SEM AY: (2015-16)

Non-Conventional Sources of Energy (NCSE)MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

UNIT-I1. The predominant source of energy on earth is

(a) Electricity (b) Natural Gas (c) The Sun (d) Plants 2. In what form can solar energy be used?

(a) Thermal energy (b) Electrical energy 3. Mechanical Energy (d) All of above 3. What is the most common material used in making solar cells?

(a) Silver (b) Iron (c) Aluminium (d) Silicon 4. Which of the following solar cookers is the most efficient and has the shortest cooking time?

(a) Box cooker (b) Parabolic cooker. (c) Panel cooker (d) Cardboard type cooker 5. The electrical output of a solar cell depends on the

(a) Intensity of solar radiation (b) Heat component of solar radiation (c) Ultraviolet radiation (d) Infrared radiation 6. Which type of dryer can be used to dry fruits and vegetables using renewable energy?

(a) Oil furnace (b) Solar dryer (c) Coal furnace (d) Wood-based furnace 7. Solar photovoltaic cell converts solar energy directly into

(a) Mechanical energy (b) Electricity (c) Heat energy (d) Transportation 8. What does SPV stand for with respect to solar energy?

(a) Solar photovoltaic (b) Solid platevoltaic (c) Solar platevoids (d) None of the above 9. Solar energy travels through space by the process of

(a) Conduction (b) Convection (c) Radiation (d) Transportation 10. A solar pond is a combination of which of the following combinations?

(a) Solar energy collection & heat storage (b) Solar energy storage & heat collection (c) Solar energy collection & energy storage (d) None of the above 11. Which of the following system is an application of solar thermal energy?

(a) Internal combustion engine (b) Biogas generation (c) Solar water heating (d) Solar lighting

12. Which of the following appliances use solar photovoltaic technology?

(a) Solar lantern (b) Biogas plant (c) Solar water heater (d) Solar air heater 13. The value of solar constant is approximately

(a) 6.5 kW/m2 (b) 1.36 kW/m2 (c) 3.64 kW/m2 (d) 10 kW/m2

14. A typical insulation material used in a solar collector is

(a) Fibre glass (b) Cotton (c) Glass wool (d) None of the above 15. In a box type solar cooker, the solar radiations that enter and leave the box are of

(a) Short & long wavelength respectively (b) Long & short wavelength respectively (c) Similar wavelengths (d) None of the above 16. Pyranometer is an instrument used for measuring the

(a) Temperature of solar photovoltaic cell (b) Solar irradiance of a solar photovoltaic cell (c) Wind speed of a solar photovoltaic cell (d) Efficiency of a solar photovoltaic cell 17. A solar still is device used for

(a) Heating water (b) Cooling water (c) Distilling water (d) Production of electricity 18. Which of the following solar energy devices is designed to reflect & concentrate energy from sunlight?

(a) Solar cooker (b) Solar cell (c) Solar water heater (d) Solar concentrator

19. A pyrheliometer is an instrument used to measure the

(a) Temperature of solar photovoltaic cell (b) Intensity of direct solar radiation at normal incidence (c) Intensity of indirect solar radiation (d) Efficiency of a solar photovoltaic cell 20. The term beam solar radiation is related to

(a) Small hydropower (b) Flat plate solar collector (c) Turbine (d) Coal extraction mechanism

UNIT-II

21. Which of the following is not related to solar photovoltaic systems?

(a) Cooking (b) Lighting (c) Irrigation (d) Generation of electricity 22. Solar energy cannot be stored in which of the following mediums?

(a) Water (b) Iron (c) Gas (d) Wood 23. Solar desalination provides

(a) Drinking water in areas where only salty or brackish water is available and distilled water for batteries (b) Distilled water needed for batteries (c) Drinking water in areas where only salty or brackish water is available (d) None of the above 24. What material does a solar pond contain?

(a) Salt (b) Sugar (c) Stone (d) Lime 25. A group of solar collectors connected together is called a

(a) Solar cell (b) Solar array (c) Solar centre (d) Solar concentrator 26. In a box type solar cooker, the box is covered with a

(a) Single glass layer cover (b) Double glass layer cover (c), Triple glass layer cover (d) Four glass layer cover 27. Sunlight light reaches the earth through

(a) Direct radiation (b) Diffuse radiation (c) Scattered radiation (d) All of above 28. Satellites in space are provided power with the help of

(a) Wind (b) Rain water (c) Solar photovoltaic cells (d) Petroleum 29. The working of a solar water heater is based on which of the following technologies?

(a) Solar photovoltaic technology (b) Solar thermal technology (c) Solar cell technology (d) Solar electricity technology 30. Solar radiation that is received after it changes its direction due to reflection and scattering in the atmosphere is called

(a) Diffused radiation (b) Scattered radiation (c) Beam radiation (d) Radiation 31. Solar radiation that has not been absorbed or scattered and reaches the earth surface directly is called

(a) Beam radiation (b) Scattered radiation (c) Diffused radiation (d) Radiation 32. The total solar radiation received at any point on the earth's surface is termed as

(a) Insulation (b) Insolation (c) Radiation (d) Insulated radiation 33. A pyrheliometer is an instrument that measures

(a) Diffuse solar radiation (b) Scattered solar radiation (c) Beam Solar radiation (d) Total radiation 34. What kind of energy does a wind turbine use?

(a) Kinetic energy (b) Potential energy (c) Chemical Energy (d) Thermal energy 35. Which of the following states in India ranks first in the installation of wind power?

(a) Gujarat (b) Andhra Pradesh (c) Maharashtra (d) Tamil Nadu 36. Horizontal axis windmills of modern design can

(a) Always turn towards the direction of the wind (b) Never adjust the energy output (c) Never turn towards the direction of the wind (d) None of the above

37. Which of the following sources emit fewer pollutants?

(a) Coal (b) Petroleum (c) Charcoal (d) Wind energy 38. The maximum energy conversion efficiency of a wind turbine for a given swept area is

(a) 25.1% (b) 50.4% (c) 59.3% (d) 99.9% 39. If the velocity of wind is doubled, then the power output will increase by

(a) 10 times (b) 8 times (c) 2 times (d) 6 times 40. The term Darrious & Savonius rotor are related to

(a) Small hydropower (b) Wind energy (c) Turbine (d) Coal extraction mechanism

UNIT-III

41. Power output from a wind energy electric generator is directly proportional to

(a) wind velocity (b) Square of wind velocity (c) Cube of wind velocity (d) Square root of wind velocity 42. Another name for a windmill is

(a) Wind farm (b) Propeller (c) Wind station (d) Wind turbine 43. A place where many wind turbines are installed together to produce electricity is called a

(a) Wind farm (b) Propeller collection (c) Wind station (d) Wind turbine station 44. What type of energy is associated with wind?

(a) Potential energy (b) Chemical energy (c) Kinetic energy (d) Rotational energy 45. Wind blows because of a difference in

(a) Temperature (b) Latitude (c) Longitude (d) Height 46. Wind turbines using aerodynamic lift produce more energy for a given area than wind turbines using aerodynamic drag as the

(a) Lifting force pushes the blade in the direction of the wind (b) Lifting force mis roughly perpendicular to the local flow fields (c) Lifting force produces more torque (d) Drag services capture more energy because of greater friction on the blade surfaces 47. Which of the following sources of energy does not get depleted?

(a) Natural gas (b) Coal (c) Petroleum (d) Wind

48. The relationship between power available from wind 'P' and wind velocity 'v' is

(a) P ά v (b) P ά v 2 (c) P ά v 3 (d) P = v 49. An anemometer is an instrument used for measurement of

(a) Solar radiation (b) Wind speed (c) Temperature gradient (d) Depth in ocean 50. Lower speed wind turbines are mainly driven by

(a) Drag forces (b) Lift forces (c) Push forces (d) None of the above 51. The torque causing the rotation of a rotor is due to the

(a) Drag force (b) Gravitational force (c) Force of lift (d) Axial thrust 52. Which source of renewable energy is caused by uneven heating of earth's surface?

(a) Solar (b) Wind (c) Geothermal (d) Biomass 53. With increase in height, wind speed

(a) Increases, (b) Decreases (c) Remains the same (d) None of the above 54. Wind power plants are required to have a large rotor size for large power output due to

(a) Low power density of air stream (b) Lift force acting perpendicular to the direction of wind flow (c) Lift force being more than drag force (d) Drag force acting perpendicular to lift force 55. Which of the following forces act on the blades of wind turbine rotor?

(a) Lift force (b) Drag force (c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of the above

56. Wind machine with Darrious type of rotor is a

(a) Vertical axis machine (b) Horizontal axis machine (c) Machine that can spin in one direction only (d) None of the above 57. During the day, the surface wind flows

(a) From sea to land (b) From land to sea (c) On the surface of the sea (d) On the surface of land 58. Air density at standard conditions is about

(a) 1.885 kg/m3 (b) 2.55 kg/m3 (c) 1.226 kg/m3 (d) 3.267 kg/m3

59. The main disadvantage of wind power is that

(a) It is available only in coastal areas (b) Wind energy systems are noisy when in operation (c) Large land area is required (d) The capacity utilization is less 60. Wind energy conversion devices based on drag force

(a) Move faster than wind (b) Move slower than wind (c) Move with equal velocity as wind (d) Do not depend on the velocity of wind

UNIT-IV

61. In rural areas, the locally generated gas from cow dung used for cooking & lighting is called (a) Biogas (b) Oxygen (c) Ammonia (d) Carbon dioxide 62. Which gas has a major share in biogas? (a) N2 (b) CH4 (c) CO2 (d) H2

63. What is the biggest source of biogas in rural India? (a) Kitchen waste (b) Leaves (c) Cow dung (d) Industrial waste 64. Under normal conditions, the maximum yield of biogas can be obtained at (a) 7-100C (b) 10-150C (c) 15-250C (d) 25-350C 65. Biomass can be converted into (a) Liquid fuel (b) Hydrogen (c) Producer Gas (d) All of the above 66. Gasification of biomass is a (a) Biochemical conversion process (b) Chemical conversion process (c)Thermochemical conversion process (d) Biological conversion process 67. Which of the following factors is irrelevant with respect to biogas production? (a) Temperature (b) pH value (c) Carbon to nitrogen ratio (d) Quality of water 68. Which of the following is not a raw material for biogas generation? (a) Water hyacinth (b) Coal (c) Algae (d) Grasses 69. Biomass gasifiers produce a combustible mixture of different gases called (a) producer gas (b) Internal gas (c) Mixed gas (d) Combustion gas 70. Biogas is produced when anaerobic bacteria digest organic matters in absence of oxygen. The process is called

(a) Anaerobic reduction (b) Anaerobic digestion (c) Anaerobic oxidation (d) anaerobic drying 71. Biomass can be used as fuel through (a) Combustion (b) Fermentation (c) Digestion (d) All of the above 72. Biomass can be converted into (a) Solid fuel (b) Liquid fuel (c) Gaseous fuel (d) All of the above 73. Which of the following fuel does not give ash as residue when burned? (a) Wood (b) Charcoal (c) Biogas (d) Coal 74. The gas produced by burning wood in an insufficient supply of oxygen is called (a) Producer gas (b) Biogas (c) Natural Gas (d) Nitrogen gas 75. Which of the following energy originate from the ocean? (a) Tidal energy (b) Sea energy (c) Wind energy (d) Hydropower

76. The Ocean thermal energy conversion system that is meant to generate power is most suitable in (a) Sub-tropical region (b) Tropical region (c) Cold region (d) Moderate climate region 77. The temperature gradient of ocean thermal energy conversion system is utilized in (a) Internal combustion engines (b) Heat engine (c) Water turbines (d) None of the above 78. The overall efficiency of an OTEC power plant is (a) 2-3% (b) 10-15% (c) 15-20% (d) 20-25% 79. Ocean and sea waves are indirectly caused due to (a) Pressure gradients (b) Solar energy (c) Geothermal energy (d) None of the above 80. The tidal energy of a sea wave is the sum of its (a) Mechanical energy & thermal energy (b) Potential energy & hydropower energy (c) Potential energy & kinetic energy (d) Kinetic energy& thermal energy

UNIT-V

81. The tidal range is the difference between (a) Water movement speed & high tide (b) Water movement direction & high tide (c) Water elevation at high tide & low tide (d) 82. Large amounts of solar energy is stored in oceans and seas. The process of harnessing this energy is called (a) Ocean thermal energy conversion(OTEC) (b) Ocean thermal conversion(OTEC) (c) Ocean and sea thermal energy conversion(OSTEC) (d) Sea thermal energy conversion(STEC) 83. The tidal waves are caused by the periodic rise and fall of oceans. It is associated with the position of (a) Moon (b) Sun (c) Earth (d) Sea 84. The energy available when the temperature of water at the surface of ocean is different from that at deeper level is called (a) Ocean thermal energy (b) Sea water energy (c) Ocean water energy (d) None of the above 85. Hydrogen can play an important role as an alternative fuel to conventional fuel as (a) An energy carrier (b) An energy device (c) A fossil fuel source (d) An energy system 86. What is the main by-product of burning hydrogen? (a) H2O (b) Ash (c) O2 (d) Steam 87. Hydrogen is produced by (a) Electrolysis (b) Incineration (c) Aerobic digestion (d) Decomposting 88. Hydrogen can be produced from (a) Soil (b) Silver (c) Iron (d) Water 89. Which of the following is not an application of hydrogen energy?

(a) Fuel cell (b) Generator set (c) Running a two wheeler (d) Producing bio fuel 90. Hydrogen can be generated commercially by (a) Aerobic digestion (b) Steam methane reforming (c) Anaerobic digestion (d) Incineration 91. Fuel reforming is a process of (a) Transforming fossil fuel into CO (b) Transforming fossil fuel into H2 (c) Removing carbon compounds from fossil fuel (d) None of the above 92. When hydrogen burns in air, it combines with which of the following gases to form water?

(a) O2 (b) N2 (c) CO2 (d) O3

93. Which form of energy source yields only water? (a) Hydrogen (b) Biogas (c) Methane (D) Oxygen 94. Hydrogen can be stored as a (a) Compressed gas (b) Liquid (c) Metal hydride (d) All of the above 95. Which of the following are considered to be drawbacks of geothermal energy? (a) It is not available everywhere (b) It is available only in areas where hot rocks are present near the earth’s surface (d) All of the above 96. Energy derived from hot spots beneath the earth is called (a) Bio energy (b) Geothermal energy (c) Nuclear energy (d) Hydrogen energy 97. Which type of energy does volcanoes posses? (a) Mechanical energy (b) Geothermal energy (c) Electrical energy (d) Nuclear energy 98. The molten mass of earth is called (a) Magnous (b) Magna (c) Hot cake (d) Magmus 99. Geothermal energy reservoirs are (a) Liquid dominated reservoirs (b) Steam dominated reservoirs (c) Hot rocks with no water (d) All of the above 100.Harmful radiation emitted from the sun is (a) Visible radiation (b) Infrared radiation (c) Ultraviolet radiation (d) None of the above

KEY

1 C 21 A 41 C 61 A 81 C 2 D 22 D 42 B 62 B 82 A 3 D 23 C 43 A 63 C 83 A 4 B 24 A 44 C 64 D 84 A 5 A 25 B 45 A 65 D 85 A 6 B 26 B 46 C 66 C 86 A 7 B 27 D 47 D 67 D 87 A 8 A 28 C 48 C 68 B 88 D 9 C 29 B 49 B 69 A 89 D 10 A 30 A 50 A 70 B 90 B 11 C 31 A 51 C 71 D 91 B 12 A 32 B 52 B 72 D 92 A 13 B 33 C 53 A 73 C 93 A 14 C 34 A 54 A 74 A 94 A 15 A 35 D 55 C 75 A 95 D 16 B 36 A 56 A 76 B 96 B 17 C 37 D 57 A 77 B 97 B 18 D 38 C 58 C 78 A 98 B 19 B 39 B 59 D 79 B 99 D 20 b 40 B 60 B 80 C 100 C