Contents

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1-How does the level of the tropopause vary with latitude in the Northern Hemisphere?

A)Constant.

B)It varies with longitude not latitude.

C)Decreases North - South.

D)Decreases South - North.

2-What is the primary cause of all changes in the Earths weather?

A)Movement of air masses from moist areas to dry areas.

B)None of the above.

C)Variation of solar energy at the Earths surface.

D)Changes in air pressure over the Earths surface.

3-The changes of state of water are known as:

A)freezing, liquidation, evaporation, sublimation, condensation.

B)liquidation, freezing, evaporation, sublimation, melting.

C)evaporation, freezing, sublimation, vaporization, melting.

D)melting, freezing, sublimation, vaporization, condensation.

4-The maximum water in the air depends on the following:

A)Density

B)None of the above

C)Cloud type

D)Temperature

4-What do the Met Service mean by the term subsidence?

A)Vertical down draught of air

B)Horizontal motion of air.

C)Vertical up draught of air.

D)Adiabatic cooling.

5-Earth heating by solar radiation is called:

A)absorption.

B)insolation.

C)conduction.

D)reflection.

6-What does a CB contain at moderate latitudes in summer?

A)A combination of ice crystals, water droplets and supercooled water droplets.

B)A combination of ice crystals and water droplets.

C)Ice crystals, snow, and water droplets.

D)Ice crystals only.

7-On a clear sky, continental ground surface, wind calm, the minimum temperature is reached approximately:

A)half an hour after sunrise.

B)one hour before sunrise.

C)half an hour before sunrise.

D)at the moment the sun rises.

8-The difference between QNH and QFE at an airport is:

A)dependent on the air pressure as well as the air temperature of the airport.

B)dependent on the air pressure at the airport.

C)dependent on the (ambient) air temperature of the airport.

D)always the same.

9-At which location does Coriolis force have the least effect on wind direction?

A)It is almost constant everywhere on earth.

B)At the Equator.

C)At the poles.

D)Middle latitudes (30 to 60 ).

10-The difference between geostrophic wind and gradient wind is caused by:

A)friction.

B)horizontal temperature gradients.

C)curvature of isobars.

D)slope of pressure surfaces.

11-The Thermal Wind in a layer is defined as:

A)that wind which must be added vectorialy to the geostrophic wind at the lower level in order to obtain the geostrophic wind at the upper level.

B)the wind resulting from an horizontal temperature gradient.

C)the wind caused by the pressure gradient which tries to move air from high pressure to low pressure.

D)the vector difference between the wind at the same height in warm and cold air.

12-How could you visually identify a jet stream?

A)Streaky cirrus.

B)Contrails.

C)Cirrus stratus.

D)Impossible without radar.

13-Where do the maximum winds associated with the jetstream usually occur?

A)In the vicinity of breaks in the tropopause on the polar side of the jet core.

B)Below the jet core where a long straight stretch of the jetstream is located.

C)In the vicinity of breaks in the tropopause on the equatorial side of the jet core.

D)On the equatorial side of the jetstream where moisture has formed cirriform clouds.

14-A parcel of fair is forced to rise and becomes saturated at 3.000 ft when it is at the same temperature as the surrounding dry air. The parcel of fair will subsequently.

A)It is impossible to say.

B)Remain at the same level.

C)Fall.

D)Continue to rise.

15-Turbulent flow around a pressure head will cause:

A)an increase in the dynamic pressure.

B)approximately 95% of the position error.

C)95% increase in manoeuvre induced error.

D)density error.

16-On board an aircraft the altitude is measured from the:

A)temperature altitude.

B)density altitude.

C)standard altitude.

D)pressure altitude.

The errors to which the machmeter is subject are:

17-A)instrument error, position error, density error and manoeuvre induced error.

B)instrument error, position error.

C)instrument error, position error, compressibility error and manoeuvre induced error.

D)instrument error, position error, barometric error, temperature error and manoeuvre induced error.

18-With a constant weight, irrespective of the airfield altitude, an aircraft always takes off at the same:

A)equivalent airspeed.

B)true airspeed.

C)ground speed.

D)calibrated airspeed.

19-In a combined mach/airspeed indicator the purposes of the BARBER POLE is to indicate:

A)VMO and this value increases at high altitudes

B)VMO and this is a fixed value at all altitudes

C)The maximum safe airspeed with flaps/slats extended

D)VMO and this value decreases at high altitudes

20-The hysteresis error of an altimeter varies substantially with the:

A)static temperature.

B)mach number of the aircraft.

C)time passed at a given altitude.

D)aircraft altitude.

21-The case of an air driven turn and balance indicator is leaking. A rate 1 turn of 360 will take:

A)More than two minutes

B)Less than two minutes

C)Two minutes exactly

D)None of the above

22-In a Slaved Gyro Compass System the output of the flux-valve is fed to:

A)to the power supply of the gyro unit.

B)the stator in the slaved gyro control.

C)the slaving torque motor directly.

D)to the indicator.

24-The product of the first integration of the E/W acceleration sensed by an INS system is:

A)speed along the local horizontal

B)speed along the local parallel

C)departure

D)distance

25-The corrections fed to the platform gimbal motors of a north referenced inertial navigation system during the ALIGN mode use inputs from:

A)the latitude setting, the longitude setting, the accelerometers

B)the latitude setting, the accelerometers

C)the longitude setting, the latitude setting, the air data computer

D)all the above

26-An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 1 degree of freedom and a horizontal spin axis is a:

A)fluxgate compass.

B)directional gyro.

C)turn indicator.

D)gyromagnetic compass.

27-Gimballing error:

A)will be zero on only two headings during a 360 turn.

B)will disappear after a turn is completed.

C)will remain until the gyro is reset.

D)will only occur during a 360 turn.

28-The acceleration errors of en electrical artificial horizon are reduced compared to those of an air driven one by:

A)designing the gyro so that it is not pendulous

B)the use of compensation stilts

C)spinning the electrical rotor slower

D)reducing the erection rate of the gyro assembly

29-Why is an INS platform virtually unusable at very high latitudes?

A)The value of earth rate affecting the E/W accelerometer is a component dependent on the sine Lat. At high latitudes this component is nearly zero and makes alignment to true north virtually impossible

B)The value of earth rate affecting the E/W accelerometer is a component dependent on the sine Lat. At high latitudes this component is nearly zero and makes alignment to magnetic north virtually impossible

C)The value of earth rate affecting the E/W accelerometer is a component dependent on the cosine Lat. At high latitudes this component is nearly zero and makes alignment to magnetic north virtually impossible

D)The value of earth rate affecting the E/W accelerometer is a component dependent on the cosine Lat. At high latitudes this component is nearly zero and makes alignment to true north virtually impossible

30-What are the advantages of a laser gyro compared to a conventional gyro?

A)takes longer to set up/ spin up.

B)uses more power.

C)takes longer to align.

D)has a longer cycle life.

31-The heading reference unit of a three-axis data generator is equipped with a gyro with:

A)2 degrees of freedom and horizontal spin axis.

B)2 degrees of freedom and vertical spin axis.

C)1 degree of freedom and horizontal spin axis.

D)1 degree of freedom and vertical spin axis.

32-A space gyro has .... (i) gimbal rings with .... (ii) planes of freedom:

A)(i) 3 (ii) 2

B)(i) 3 (ii) 3

C)(i) 2 (ii) 3

D)(i) 2 (ii) 2

33-During deceleration following a landing in Northerly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate:

A)a heading fluctuating about 360 .

B)an apparent turn to the West.

C)no apparent turn.

D)an apparent turn to the East.

34-The detector unit of a remote indicating compass is normally:

A)fixed in the vertical plane only.

B)free in the vertical.

C)fixed in the azimuth.

D)free in the horizontal plane.

35-The directive force of the earth's magnetic field:

A)is greatest at the magnetic equator.

B)increases as the magnetic variation increases.

C)varies with the heading of the aircraft.

D)increases as magnetic latitude increases.

36-When turning from 060 to 320 in the Northern Hemisphere the direct reading compass will .... (i) causing an .... (ii) indication of the turn. Liquid Swirl will .... (iii) the error:

A)(i) over read (ii) under (iii) increase

B)(i) under read (ii) over (iii) decrease

C)(i) under read (ii) over (iii) increase

D)(i) over read (ii) under (iii) decrease

37-An aircraft in the southern hemisphere is turning from a heading of 045 (C) to 315 (C) using a DGI. At the end of the turn the compass will read... than 315 and liquid swirl will... this effect.

A)less, decrease.

B)less, increase.

C)more, increase.

D)more; decrease.

38-The principal advantage of a gyromagnetic compass (slaved gyro compass) is:

A)It does not have to be aligned with the north

B)It combines the north-seeking ability of the magnetic compass with the stability of the direction indicator

C)It does not precess

D)None of the above

39-The EHSI mode in which the whole compass rose is not visible and upon which the relative bearing to the active waypoint is shown although the waypoints themselves are not is the:

A)Expanded VOR mode.

B)Full Rose VOR mode.

C)Center MAP mode.

D)Expanded NAV mode.

40-Decision height is displayed on the:

A)EHSI in Map mode, and below 1000 ft is shown as a circular display which is erased anti-clockwise as the aircraft descends.

B)EADI, and below 800 ft changes to a circular scale which is white with a magenta DH marker.

C)EADI, and below 2500 ft the display changes to a circular scale with a magenta colour marker.

D)EADI, and below 1000 ft is shown as a circular scale which is erased anti-clockwise as the aircraft descends.

41-With an EFIS flight director using EFIS guidance, reference north can be:

A)magnetic north between 73 N and 65 S and true north above these latitudes

B)magnetic north between 75 N and 75 S and true north above these latitudes

C)magnetic north only

D)magnetic north between 65 N and 73 S and true north above these latitudes

41-What are the primary navigation inputs used by RNAV system?

A)INS, Nav Aids, TAS and Drift.

B)Nav Aids, Mapping Radar, FMC.

C)INS, Mapping Radar, FMC.

D)Nav Aids, INS, FMC.

42-What are the advantages of an IRS compared to an INS?

A)Increased accuracy and a dither motor to prevent 'lock-out'.

B)Insensitivity to 'g' and reduced wander of the gyroscopes.

C)Reduced spin-up time and a dither motor to prevent 'lock-out'.

D)Reduced spin-up time and insensitivity to 'g'.

43-In order to know in which mode the autothrottles are engaged, the crew will check the:

A)PFD (primary flight display)

B)SFD (secondary flight display)

C)MCP (mode control panel)

D)TMD (thrust mode display)

44-An aircraft heading 040 (M) has an ADF reading of 060 Relative. The alteration of heading required to intercept the 120 track inbound to the NDB at 50 is:

A)030 Right.

B)020 Right.

C)050 Right.

D)040 Right.

45-A VDF bearing Class A should be accurate to within:

A) 5

B) 10

C) 20

D) 2

46-if the (i) of a radio wave is (ii) then the skip distance will (iii) and the dead space will (iv):

A)(i) wavelength; (ii) decrease; (iii) increase; (iv) decrease

B)(i) frequency; (ii) increase; (iii) increase; (iv) increase

C)(i) wavelength; (ii) increase; (iii) increase; (iv) increase

D)(i) frequency; (ii) decrease; (iii) increase; (iv) decrease

47-A horizontally polarised signal would be best received by an aerial which is:

A)vertical.

B)horizontal.

C)the plane of the aerial does not matter.

D)horizontal or vertical.

48-An aircraft heading 130 (M) has an ADF reading of 190 Relative. The heading to steer to intercept the 170 track outbound from the NDB at 30 is:

A)210 (M)

B)220 (M)

C)190 (M)

D)200 (M)

49-When is coastal error its worst for an aircraft at low level?

A)Beacon close to the coast at 90 to the coast.

B)Beacon close to the coast at an acute angle to the coast.

C)Beacon inland at 90 to the coast.

D)Beacon inland at an acute angle to the coast.

50-The TO/FROM indicator of a VOR:

A)Tells whether the deviation indicator shows that you should manoeuvre the aircraft towards or from the CDI needle.

B)Tells whether a track equal to the selected bearing will bring you to or away from the VOR.

C)Tells whether you should turn the aircraft towards or away from the CDI indication.

D)Tells whether you are now flying towards or from the VOR.

51-If you correctly tuned in a VOT situated to your east, your RMI should read ... and your OBS would read...

A)090; 090 with needle central and TO indicated.

B)000; 000 with needle central an TO indicated.

C)000; 000 with needle central and FROM indicated.

D)090; 090 with needle central and FROM indicated.

52-An aircraft heading 140 (M) bears 320 (T) from a VOR (VAR 10 E). The bearing, selected on the OBS which would make the VOR/ILS deviation indicator show TO would be:

A)330

B)130

C)320

D)120

53-The antenna polar diagram of a conventional VOR:

A)Rotates at 30 revolutions per second.

B)Is always directed towards the aircraft.

C)Is like a figure of 8.

D)Is a pencil beam.

54-Transmissions from VOR facilities may be adversely affected by:

A)quadrantal error.

B)uneven propagation over irregular ground surfaces.

C)static interference.

D)night effect.

55-An airway 10 NM wide is to be defined by two VOR s each having a resultant bearing accuracy of plus or minus 5.5 . In order to ensure accurate track guidance within the airway limits the maximum distance apart for the transmitter is approximately:

A)210 NM.

B)165 NM.

C)105 NM.

D)50 NM.

56-The average total system error using VOR is:

A)+/- 7,5

B)+/- 2,5

C)+/- 5

D)+/- 3,5

57-The position of the centre of gravity can always be determined by:

A)dividing the total mass by the total moment

B)dividing the total moment by the total mass

C)subtracting the total mass from the total moment

D)subtracting the total moment from the total mass

58-What determines the longitudinal stability of an aeroplane?

A)The relationship of thrust and lift to weight and drag

B)The location of the centre of gravity with respect to the neutral point

C)The dihedral, angle of sweepback and the keel effect

D)The effectiveness of the horizontal stabilizer, rudder and rudder trim tab

59-Traffic load is the:

A)Dry Operating Mass minus the disposable load

B)Take-off Mass minus Zero Fuel Mass

C)Zero Fuel Mass minus Dry Operating Mass

D)Dry Operating Mass minus the variable load

60-Given:

Maximum structural take-off mass= 146 900 kgMaximum structural landing mass= 93 800 kgMaximum zero fuel mass= 86 400 kgTrip fuel= 27 500 kgBlock fuel= 35 500 kgEngine starting and taxi fuel = 1 000 kg

The maximum take-off mass is equal to:

A)120 900 kg

B)120 300 kg

C)121 300 kg

D)113 900 kg

61-The take-off mass of an aeroplane is 141000 kg. Total fuel on board is 63000 kg including 14000 kg reserve fuel and 1000 kg of unusable fuel. The traffic load is 12800 kg. The zero fuel mass is:

A)78000 kg

B)65200 kg

C)93000 kg

D)79000 kg

62-On an ATC flight plan, an aircraft indicated as H for HEAVY:

A)is of the highest wake turbulence category

B)has a certified landing mass greater than or equal to 136 000 kg

C)has a certified take-off mass greater than or equal to 140 000 kg

D)requires a runway length of at least 2 000m at maximum certified take-off mass

63-TOTAL ELAPSED TIME for an IFR flight, when filling in the ICAO flight plan at box 16, is the time elapsed from:

A)taxiing until the IAF (Initial Approach Fix) of the destination aerodrome

B)take-off until reaching the IAF ( Initial Approach Fix) of the destination aerodrome

C)taxi-out prior to take-off until taxiing after landing

D)take-off until landing

64-In flight, it is possible to:

i. File an IFR flight plan

ii. Modify an active flight plan

iii. Cancel a VFR flight plan

iv. Close a VFR flight plan

A)i, iv

B)i, ii, iii, iv

C)i, iii

D)ii, iii, iv

65-In the ATS flight plan item 15, it is necessary to enter any point at which a change of cruising speed takes place.For this purpose a CHANGE OF SPEED is defined as:

A)10 % TAS or 0.05 Mach or more

B)5% TAS or 0.01 Mach or more

C)20 knots or 0.05 Mach or more

D)20 km per hour or 0.1 Mach or more

66-During an IFR flight TAS and time appear to deviate from the data in the flight plan. The minimum deviations, that should be reported to ATC in order to conform to PANS-RAC, are:

A)TAS 3% and time 3 minutes

B)TAS 10 kt and time 2 minutes

C)TAS 5 kt and time 5 minutes

D)TAS 5% and time 3 minutes

67-An upward runway slope:

A)increases the accelerated-stop-distance available

B)increases the take-off distance required

C)decreases the accelerated-stop-distance available

D)decreases the take-off distance required

68-How does a headwind affect the speed to fly at in a descent?

A)The speed only increases with weight

B)The TAS should be increased

C)The TAS should be decreased

D)The speed is not affected

69-What is density altitude?

A)The altitude read from the altimeter when set to 1013hPa

B)The same as temperature altitude

C)The height above the standard datum plane

D)The pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature

70-The Clearway at an aerodrome is an area beginning :

A)at the end of the runway, having a minimum required width, disposed equally about the extended centre line, with no obstacles protruding above a plane sloping upwards with a slope of 1.25%

B)at the end of the stopway, with a width equal to the runway width, and clear of obstacles

C)at the end of the runway, clear of obstacles and capable of supporting the weight of the aircraft during an emergency stop

D)at the end of the runway, with a minimum width of 60 m each side of the centre line and clear of obstacles

71-Given:

VS = Stalling speedVMCA = Air minimum control speedVMU = Minimum unstick speed (disregarding engine failure)V1 = Take-off decision speedVR = Rotation speedV2 min. = Minimum take-off safety speedVLOF = Lift-off speed

72-The correct formula is:

A)VMU < = VMCA < V1

B)VR < VMCA < VLOF

C)V2 min < VMCA > VMU

D)VS < VMCA < V2 min

74-In the MF frequency band:

A)ducting is a common phenomena.

B)skywaves are more common by night than by day.

C)reasonable reception is restricted to line of sight range.

D)skywaves are more common by day than by night.

75-With reference to VDF, the true bearing of an aircraft from a ground station is:

A)QDM

B)QTE

C)QUJ

D)QDR

76-An aircraft is on a bearing of 263 (M) from a VOR station, the OBI is set to 091 , the deviation indicator will show:

A)FROM and fly left 4 dots.

B)TO and fly right 4 dots.

C)FROM and fly right 4 dots.

D)TO and fly left 4 dots.

77-The FMC position is:

A)the average of the IRS positions

B)computer generated from the IRS and radio navigation positions

C)computer generated from the radio navigation positions

D)the average of the IRS and radio navigation positions

78-The accuracy required of a basic RNAV equipment is:

A)+/-5 nm.

B)+/-1 deg.

C)+/-1 nm.

D)+/-5 deg.

79-Which of the following statements is true in respect of GNSS?

A)The P code is the only code available for civilian use. It is transmitted on L.

B)The C/A code is the only code available for civilian use. It is transmitted only on L1.

C)The C/A code is for authorised (military) use only. It is transmitted on both L1 and L2.

D)The P code is for authorised (military) use only. It is transmitted only on L2.

80-To provide 3D fixing with RAIM and allowing for the loss of one satellite requires ... SVs:

A)4

B)5

C)6

D)7

81-An all in view satellite navigation receiver is one which:

A)selects and tracks all (in view) satellites and selects the best four.

B)tracks selected satellites.

C)monitors all 24 satellites.

D)tracks the closest satellites.

What weather conditions are indications of the summer

monsoon in India?

A Fog.

B Thunderstorms, showers of heavy rain.

C Stratus clouds and drizzle.

D Sandstorms.82-For a similar pressure gradient, the geostrophic wind

speed will be

A greater at 30N than at 60N

B greater at 60N than at 30N

C the same at all latitudes north or south of 15

D equivalent to gradient wind thermal component

83-You experience CAT which

causes passengers and crew to feel definite strain

against their seat belt or shoulders straps. Unsecured

objects are dislodged. Food service and walking are

difficult. This intensity of CAT should be reported as

A severe

B extreme

C moderate

D light

84-Which thunderstorms generally develop in the afternoon

in summer over land in moderate latitudes?

A Airmass thunderstorms

B Warm front thunderstorms

C Cold mass thunderstorms

D Occlusion thunderstorms

85-An aircraft is approaching under visual flight rules an

airfield whose runway is parallel to the coast. When

downwind over the sea, the airfield is on the right. What

wind effect should be anticipated on final approach and

landing during a sunny afternoon?

A Tailwind

B Headwind

C Crosswind from the right

D Crosswind from the left

86-The vertical extent of the friction layer depends

primarily on

A roughness of surface, temperature, local time

B temperature, local time, environmental lapse rate

C stability, wind speed, roughness of surface

D wind speed, roughness of surface, temperature

87-An observer on the northern hemisphere is under

influence of the wind system of a depression, which is

moving from West to East. The centre of the depression

passes to the South of the observer. For this observer

the wind direction is

A continuously veering

B initially backing, then veering

C initially veering, then backing

D continuously backing

88-What surface weather is associated with a stationary

high pressure region over land in the winter?

A NS with continuous rain.

B The possibility of snow showers.

C A tendency for fog and low ST.

D Thunderstorms.

89-Weather conditions at Bombay during January are

mainly influenced by the

A SE monsoon

B NE monsoon

C SW monsoon

D NW monsoon

90-Which of the following statements is true regarding

moderate-to-severe airframe icing?

A It may occur in the uppermost levels of a cumulonimbus

capillatus formation

B It always occurs in altostratus cloud

C It is likely to occur in nimbostratus cloud

D It will occur in clear-sky conditions

91-In which environment is aircraft structural ice most

likely to have the highest rate of accretion ?

A Stratus clouds.

B Snow.

C Freezing rain.

D Cirrus clouds

92- Which forces are balanced with geostrophic winds?

A Friction force, pressure gradient force, Coriolis force.

B Pressure gradient force, Coriolis force, centrifugal force.

C Pressure gradient force, centrifugal force, friction force.

D Pressure gradient force, Coriolis force..

93-What type of precipitation would you expect at an active

unstable cold front?

A Freezing rain

B Light to moderate continuous rain

C Drizzle

D Showers associated with thunderstorms94-Which of the following is unlikely to have any effect on

the position of the centre of gravity on an aeroplane in

flight ?

A Lowering the landing gear.

B Movement of cabin attendants going about their normal

duties.

C Normal consumption of fuel for a swept wing aeroplane.

D Changing the tailplane (horizontal stabiliser) incidence angleA.1 nm95-The distance from the datum to the Centre of Gravity of

a mass is known as

A the lever.

B the moment.

C the index.

D the moment arm or balance arm.96-Given the following :

- Maximum structural take-off mass 48 000 kg

- Maximum structural landing mass: 44 000 kg

- Maximum zero fuel mass: 36 000 kg

-Taxi fuel: 600 kg

-Contingency fuel: 900 kg

-Alternate fuel: 800 kg

-Final reserve fuel: 1 100 kg

-Trip fuel: 9 000 kg

Determine the actual take-off mass:

A 47 800 kg

B 48 000 kg

C 48 400 kg

D 53 000 Kg

98-The crew of a transport aeroplane prepares a flight

using the following data:

- Dry operating mass: 90 000 kg

- Block fuel: 30 000 kg

- Taxi fuel: 800 kg

- Maximum take-off mass: 145 000 kg

The traffic load available for this flight is:

A 55 000 kg

B 55 800 kg

C 25 800 kg

D 25 000 kg.15 C.60 nm99-What determines the longitudinal stability of an

aeroplane ?

A The location of the centre of gravity with respect to the

neutral point.

B The effectiveness of the horizontal stabilizer, rudder and

rudder trim tab.

C The relationship of thrust and lift to weight and drag.

D The dihedral, angle of sweepback and the keel effect.D.

110-Assuming gross mass, altitude and airspeed remain

unchanged, movement of the centre of gravity from the

forward to the aft limit will cause

A higher stall speed.

B lower optimum cruising speed.

C reduced maximum cruise range.

D increased cruise rang101-The following data applies to an aeroplane which is

about to take off:

Certified maximum take-off mass 141500 kg

Performance limited take-off mass 137300 kg

Dry Operating Mass 58400 kg

Crew and crew hand baggage mass 640 kg

Crew baggage in hold 110 kg

Fuel on board 60700 kg

From this data calculate the mass of the useful load.

A 17450 kg

B 78900 kg

C 78150 kg

D 18200

103-Given an aeroplane with:

Maximum Structural Landing Mass: 68000 kg

Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 70200 kg

Maximum Structural Take-off Mass: 78200 kg

Dry Operating Mass : 48000 kg

Scheduled trip fuel is 7000 kg and the reserve fuel is

2800 kg,

Assuming performance limitations are not restricting,

the maximum permitted take-off mass and maximum

traffic load are respectively:

A 77200 kg and 22200 kg

B 75000 kg and 17200 kg

C 75000 kg and 20000 kg

D 77200 kg and 19400 kg

104-What is the final position after the following rhumb line

tracks and distances have been followed from position

6000'N 03000'W?

South for 3600 NM,

East for 3600 NM,

North for 3600 NM,

West for 3600 NM.

The final position of the aircraft is:

A 5900'N 09000'W

B 6000'N 09000'W

C 6000'N 03000'E

D 5900'N 06000'W

105-A line drawn on a chart which joins all points where the

value of magnetic variation is zero is called an:

A isotach

B agonic line

C aclinic line

D isogonal

106-An aircraft at latitude 10North flies south at a

groundspeed of 445 km/HR.

What will be its latitude after 3 HR?

A 0350'S

B 0200'S

C 1215'S

D 2200'S

107-Given:

TAS = 465 kt,

Track (T) = 007,

W/V = 300/80kt.

Calculate the HDG (T) and GS?

A 357 - 430 kt

B 358 - 428 kt

C 001 - 432 kt

D 000 - 430 kt

108-The distance between positions A and B is 180 NM. An

aircraft departs position A and after having travelled 60

NM, its position is pinpointed 4 NM left of the intended

track. Assuming no change in wind velocity, what

alteration of heading must be made in order to arrive at

position B?

A 2 Left

B 4 Right

C 6 Right

D 8 Right

109-Given:

M 0.80,

OAT -50C,

FL 330,

GS 490 kt,

VAR 20W,

Magnetic heading 140,

Drift is 11 Right.

Calculate the true W/V?

A 025/45 kt

B 020/95 kt

C 025/47 kt

D 200/95 kt

110-On a chart, the distance along a meridian between

latitudes 45N and 46N is 6 cm. The scale of the chart is

approximately:

A 1 : 1 850 000

B 1 : 1 000 000

C 1 : 185 000

D 1 : 18 500 000

111-Given:

TAS = 485 kt,

True HDG = 226,

W/V = 110(T)/95kt.

Calculate the drift angle and GS?

A 9R - 533 kt

B 7R - 531 kt

C 9R - 433 kt

D 8L - 435 kt

112-Given :

ETA to cross a meridian is 2100 UTC

GS is 441 kt

TAS is 491 kt

At 2010 UTC, ATC requests a speed reduction to cross

the meridian at 2105 UTC.

The reduction to TAS will be approximately:

A 75 kt

B 60 kt

C 40 kt

D 90 kt

113-On a Lambert conformal conic chart, with two standard

parallels, the quoted scale is correct:

A along the parallel of origin

B along the prime meridian

C along the two standard parallels

D in the area between the standard parallels

114-On which of the following chart projections is it NOT

possible to represent the north or south poles?

A Transverse Mercator

B Polar stereographic

C Direct Mercator

D Lambert's conformal

115-Given:

Distance 'A' to 'B' 2484 NM

Mean groundspeed 'out' 420 kt

Mean groundspeed 'back' 500 kt

Safe endurance 08 HR 30 MIN

The distance from 'A' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR)

'A' is:

A 1736 NM

B 1630 NM

C 1940 NM

D 1908 NM

116-Given:

True track 180

Drift 8R

Compass heading 195

Deviation -2

Calculate the variation?

A 21W

B 25W

C 5W

D 9W

117-Given:

Runway direction 230(T),

Surface W/V 280(T)/40 kt.

Calculate the effective cross-wind component?

A 26 kt

B 31 kt

C 36 kt

D 21 kt

118-Complete the following statement regarding magnetic

variation.

The charted values of magnetic variation on earth

normally change annually due to:

A magnetic pole movement causing numerical values at all

locations to increase or decrease

B magnetic pole movement causing numerical values at all

locations to increase.

C a reducing field strength causing numerical values at all

locations to decrease.

D an increasing field strength causing numerical values at all

locations to increase.

119-An aircraft was over 'Q' at 1320 hours flying direct to 'R'.

Given:

Distance 'Q' to 'R' 3016 NM

True airspeed 480 kt

Mean wind component 'out' -90 kt

Mean wind component 'back' +75 kt

Safe endurance 10:00 HR

The distance from 'Q' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR)

'Q' is:

A 2370 NM

B 1310 NM

C 1510 NM

D 2290 NM

120-An aircraft is maintaining a 5.2% gradient is at 7 NM from

the runway, on a flat terrain; its height is approximately:

A 3640 FT

B 2210 FT

C 680 FT

D 1890 FT

121-Given: Waypoint 1. 60S 030W

Waypoint 2. 60S 020W

What will be the approximate latitude shown on the

display unit of an inertial navigation system at longitude

025W?

A 06000'S

B 06006'S

C 06011'S

D 05949'S

123-An aircraft at FL290 is required to commence descent

when 50 NM from a VOR and to cross that VOR at FL80.

Mean GS during descent is 271kt.

What is the minimum rate of descent required?

A 1900 FT/MIN

B 2000 FT/MIN

C 1700 FT/MIN

D 1800 FT/MIN

124-Parallels of latitude on a Direct Mercator chart are :

A straight lines converging above the pole

B parallel straight lines unequally spaced

C parallel straight lines equally spaced

D arcs of concentric circles equally spaced

125-Given :

A is N55 000

B is N54 E010

The average true course of the great circle is 100.

The true course of the rhumbline at point A is:

A 107

B 100

C 096

D 104

126-On a Direct Mercator chart, meridians are:

A inclined, equally spaced, straight lines that meet at the

nearer pole

B parallel, unequally spaced, vertical straight lines

C inclined, unequally spaced, curved lines that meet at the

nearer pole

D parallel, equally spaced, vertical straight lines

127-A ground feature was observed on a relative bearing of

315 and 3 MIN later on a relative bearing of 270.

The W/V is calm; aircraft GS 180 kt.

What is the minimum distance between the aircraft and

the ground feature?

A 6 NM

B 9 NM

C 12 NM

D 3 NM

128-An aircraft at FL370, M0.86, OAT -44C, headwind

component 110 kt, is required to reduce speed in order

to cross a reporting point 5 MIN later than planned.

If the speed reduction were to be made 420 NM from the

reporting point, what Mach Number is required?

A M0.79

B M0.81

C M0.73

D M0.75

129-An island appears 30 to the left of the centre line on an

airborne weather radar display. What is the true bearing

of the aircraft from the island if at the time of

observation the aircraft was on a magnetic heading (MH)

of 020 with the magnetic variation (VAR) 25W?

A 145

B 195

C 205

D 325

130-The maximum difference between geocentric and

geodetic latitude occurs at about:

A 0 North and South (equator)

B 45 North and South

C 60 North and South

D 90 North and South

131Given:

Chart scale is 1 : 1 850 000.

The chart distance between two points is 4 centimetres.

Earth distance is approximately :

A 100 NM

B 4 NM

C 40 NM

D 74 NM132-Isogonals converge at the:

A North and South magnetic poles only

B North and South geographic and magnetic poles

C Magnetic equator

D North magnetic pole only

134-A pilot receives the following signals from a VOR DME

station:

radial 180+/- 1, distance = 200 NM.

What is the approximate error?

A +/- 7 NM

B +/- 3.5 NM

C +/- 1 NM

D +/- 2 NM

135-What is the ratio between the litre and the US-GAL ?

A 1 litre equals 3.78 US-GAL

B 1 US-GAL equals 4.55 litres

C 1 litre equals 4.55 US-GAL

D 1 US-GAL equals 3.78 litres

136-The automatic flight control system (AFCS) in an aircraft

is coupled to the guidance outputs from an inertial

navigation system (INS) and the aircraft is flying from

waypoint No. 2 (6000'S 07000'W) to No. 3 (6000'S

08000'W).

Comparing the initial track (T) at 07000'W and the final

track (T) at 08000'W, the difference between them is

that the initial track is approximately:

A 5 less than the final one

B 9 less than the final one

C 5 greater than the final one

D 9 greater than the final one

137-With reference to an inertial navigation system (INS), the

initial great circle track between computer inserted

waypoints will be displayed when the control display

unit (CDU) is selected to:

A DSRTK/STS

B HDG/DA

C TK/GS

D XTK/TKE

137-An aircraft in the northern hemisphere makes an

accurate rate one turn to the right/starboard. If the initial

heading was 330, after 30 seconds of the turn the direct

reading magnetic compass should read:

A more or less than 060 depending on the pendulous

suspension used

B less than 060

C 060

D more than 060

138-Given:

An aircraft is flying a track of 255(M),

2254 UTC, it crosses radial 360 from a VOR station,

2300 UTC, it crosses radial 330 from the same station.

At 2300 UTC, the distance between the aircraft and the

station is :

A less than it was at 2254 UTC

B the same as it was at 2254 UTC

C greater than it was at 2254 UTC

D randomly different than it was at 2254 UTC

139-Given:

ILS GP angle = 3.5 DEG,

GS = 150 kt.

What is the approximate rate of descent?

A 1000 FT/MIN

B 700 FT/MIN

C 800 FT/MIN

D 900 FT/MIN

140-At what approximate date is the earth closest to the sun

(perihelion)?

A Beginning of July

B End of June

C Beginning of January

D End of March

141-Which of the following lists the first three pages of the

FMC/CDU normally used to enter data on initial start-up

of the B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System?

A POS INIT - RTE - IDENT

B IDENT - RTE - DEPARTURE

C POS INIT - RTE - DEPARTURE

D IDENT - POS INIT RTE

142-Assuming mid-latitudes (40 to 50N/S).

At which time of year is the relationship between the

length

of day and night, as well as the rate of change of

declination

of the sun, changing at the greatest rate?

A Summer solstice and spring equinox

B summer solstice and winter solstice

C Winter solstice and autumn equinox

D Spring equinox and autumn equinox

Given:

143-Aircraft at FL 150 overhead an airport

Elevation of airport 720 FT.

QNH is 1003 hPa.

OAT at FL150 -5C.

What is the true altitude of the aircraft?

(Assume 1 hPa = 27 FT)

A 15 840 FT

B 14 160 FT

C 14 720 FT

D 15 280 FT