1. what does oriC related to ?

A. origin of replication

B. convertase

C. primase

D. ligase

E. topoisomerase

2.____ ___ is an enzyme that catalyzes the formation of a covalent bond between adjacent 5'-P and 3'-OH termini of separate fragments of DNA.

A. origin of replication

B. convertase

C. primase

D. ligase

E. topoisomerase

3. _____ __ are enzymes that introduce single strand breaks, change the relationship of the strands and then seal the break to remove underwinding or overwinding of the DNA helix.

A. helicases

B. twistases

C. shoutases

D. topoisomerases

E. ligases

4. _____ The chemical bonds in DNA by which the sugar components of adjacent nucleotides are linked through the phosphate groups are called ____ bonds.

A. phosphodiester

B. hydrogen

C. hydrophobic

D. hydrophilic

E. ionic

5. _____ Which of the following is not an essential attribute that a biological molecule would need to be a useful genetic material?

A. It must carry all of the information needed to direct the specific organization and metabolic activities of the cell

B. It must replicate accurately so that the information it contains is precisely inherited by the daughter cells

C. It must be capable of undergoing occasional mutations, such that the information it carries is altered in a heritable way

D. It must have highly repetitive DNA sequences.

E. All are essential attributes of useful genetic material.

6. _____ Clusters of highly repetitive DNA located near the centromeres and telomeres are called

A. Nucleosomes

B. Euchromatin

C. Chromatids

D. Heterochromatin

E. 30 nm chromatin

7. _____ E. coli genomic DNA differs from a eukaryotic chromosome in that E. coli DNA

A. Has a single centromere

B. Has telomeres

C. Is circular

D. Does not undergo supercoiling

8. _____ A chromosome with its centromere in the terminal end is a

A. Submetacentric chromosome

B. Metacentric chromosome

C. Acrocentric chromosome

D. Telocentric chromosome

9. _____ Which of the following is true regarding RNA processing?

A. Spliceosomes are present in organelles and nuclei

B. Involves removal of exons

C. Involves removal of one or more introns.

D. Occurs in prokaryotes

E. None of the above

10 _____ Which of the following features is common to both DNA replication and transcription?

A. Nucleotides are added to the 5' end of the newly synthesized strand

B. A sugar-phosphate bond is formed between the 3' hydroxyl and the 5' phosphate

C. Deoxyribonucleotides are incorporated into the growing sequence

D. Both RNA and DNA polymerase require oligonucleotide priming

E. Both RNA and DNA polymerase initiate at promoter sequences

11 _____ Normal self-termination of transcription occurs due to the presence of

A. stem-loop sequences in mRNA

B. Termination proteins

C. Multiple RNA polymerase molecules

D. Polyribosome formation

12 _____ The four ribonucleotide triphosphates incorporated into mRNA are

A. Inosine, Guanine, Uracil, Thymine

B. Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine, Thymine

C. Cytosine, Uracil, Adenine, Guanine

D. Thymine, Uracil, Guanine, Cytosine

E. Inosine, Guanine, Adenine, Cytosine

13 _____ To describe the genetic code as degenerate indicates that

A. mRNA is rapidly degraded

B. The code is not universal among organisms

C. Some amino acids have more than one codon

D. Frameshift mutations are tolerated

E. Stop codons may have corresponding tRNA molecules

14 _____ Which of the following is unique to eukaryotic mRNA synthesis?

A. Polycistronic mRNA

B. Coupled transcription-translation

C. Removal of introns

D. Polysomes

15 _____ Which of the following is unique to prokaryotic mRNA synthesis?

A. Coupled transcription-translation

B. Exon processing

C. 3' polyadenylation

D. mRNA capping

E. Promoter sequences

16 _____ Which of the following is true regarding the machinery of translation?

A. Initiation usually begins at an AUG codon

B. Eukaryotes have nuclear ribosomes

C. Polycistronic mRNA usually has a single ribosome binding site

D. tRNAs released from the ribosome are degraded

E. Termination is at inverted repeats

17 _____ Nutritional mutants

A. Grow on minimal medium

B. Lack an essential metabolic protein

C. Are also called prototrophs

D. Are the same as carbon-source mutants

E. Are usually antibiotic resistant

18 _____ The process of producing a RNA polymer from a DNA template is called __.

A. replication

B. transcription

C. translation

D. duplication

19 _____ The process of producing an amino acid polymer (polypeptide) from a RNA template is called .

A. replication

B. transcription

C. translation

D. duplication

20 _____ Which of the following is not true for histones?

A. They are rich in basic amino acids

B. They are associated with the nucleosome.

C. H1, H2, H3 and H4 form the nucleosome core.

D. They are found in the nucleus.

E. H1 functions as a monomer.

21 _____ Which of the following is not true about chromosome structure?

A. A telomere is always on the end of a eukaryotic chromosome.

B. A centromere is always in the middle of a eukaryotic chromosome

C. A chromatid is a chromosome that has been replicated but has not yet separated from its sister chromatid.

D. The kinetichore is the site of attachment of the centromere to the nuclear spindle apparatus.

E. Heterochromatin are primarily associated with the centromere and telomere regions.

22. One can distinguish prokaryotic chromosomes from eukaryotic chromosomes by determining:

a. Nucleotide sequence

b. Chromosome-linked proteins

c. Base composition

d. Secondary structure

23. In E. coli DNA replication, primer is:

a. A deoxyribonucleotide short sequence

b. A short RNA annealing to the 3’ end of the template strand

c. A short RNA complementary to the 5’ end of the leading strand

d. Synthesized by DNA polymerase I

24. Shine-Dalgarno sequence is:

a. Found at the 3’ end of a prokaryotic gene

b. Found in 16S rRNA

c. Complementary to an mRNA sequence

d. Located upstream of the AUG initiation codon of a prokaryotic mRNA

25. If the uracil content is exhausted, the following process will immediately stop:

a. Reverse transcription

b. Transcription

c. Replication

d. Translation

26. The promoter is:

a. A factor involving in translational process

b. Associated with repressor in an inducible operon

c. A sequence located at the 3’ end of a gene

d. The binding site for RNA polymerase

27. Proofreading activity of DNA polymerase III relies on:

a. The Mut S, H, L repair system recognizing parental DNA methylation

b. 3’-5’ exonuclease function of DNA polymerase

c. RNAse H activity

d. The UvrABC repair system

28. The difference on the regulation of gene expression in prokaryotes and eukaryotes is partly due to:

a. Different environmental conditions

b. Different cell components

c. Different cell structural features

d. Different cell numbers

29. The enzyme catalyzing the binding of Alanine to its tRNA is called:

a. Alanine-tRNA polymerase

b. Alanine-tRNA transferase

c. tRNA-Alanyl polymerase

d. Alanyl-tRNA synthetase

30. Microarray analysis can be used to:

a. Determine the intron-exon organization of a gene

b. Determine the concentration of a protein in a cell

c. Determine the stage-specific expression of a gene

d. Determine the presence of a DNA sequence in a cell

31. Hyperchromicity (increased OD value) results from:

a. Increased light absorbance by double-stranded DNA when it is denatured

b. Increased light absorbance by double-stranded DNA when it is hydrolyzed

c. Increased light absorbance by double-stranded DNA contaminated by RNA

d. Increased light absorbance by double-stranded DNA when it is renatured

32. The repair system acting just after the replication finishes is based on:

a. The elimination of methylated bases

b. The activities of Methylases

c. The recognition of hemimethylated DNA strands to be repaired

d. The excision of the oligonucleotide bearing the mismatch

33. The control of gene expression through an operon aims at:

a. Regulating different gene networks depending on the external stimuli

b. Regulating stepwise expression of a gene

c. Exerting a synchronous and fast regulation of genes belonging to one metabolism process

d. Producing different concentration of proteins of a metabolism process

34. Muscle, skin, liver cells differ from each other due to:

a. Different mutations arisen in each cell type

b. Different expression of genes in each cell type

c. Different genes present in different cell types

d. Different location of cell types in the organism

35. Automatic sequencing is based on:

a. The utilisation of fluorescent labeling

b. The utilisation of four types of dideoxynucleotide

c. The utilisation of DNA polymerases

d. All of the above items

36. Which of the following processes is involved in DNA repair:

a. Conjugation

b. Reversion of mutation

c. Transposition

d. Homologous recombination

37. Which of the following processes is characteristic to eukaryotic gene expression control:

a. Alternative splicing

b. Alternative use of σ factor

c. Transcription initiation

d. Catabolite repression

38. Mendel did experiments with _________.

1. pisum sativum

2. hibiscus rosa-sinensis

3. nelumbo nucifera

4. mirabilis jalapa

39 Ths branch of science which studies hereditary is known as

1. cytology

2. cytopathology

3. genetics

4. histology

40. Who is known as the father of genetics?

1. Gregor Johann Mendel

2. Charles Darwin

3. Alfred Wallace

4. Herschel

41. Who coined the term genetics?

1. Brian J. Ford

2. William Bateson

3. Carl Correns

4. Leeuwenhoek

42. Who introduced the term mutation?

1. Thomas Henry Huxley

2. Clinton Richard Dawkins

3. Hugo de Vries

4. Samuel Wilberforce

43. The mutations causing no change in their products are known as

1. missense mutations

2. nonsense mutations

3. silent mutations

4. splice-site mutations

44. The process by which extra nucleotides are added into the DNA molecule is known as

1. point mutation

2. insertions

3. deletions

4. amplifications

45. The mutations that cause death of an individual are known as

1. reversion

2. lethal mutations

3. dominant negative mutations

4. gain-of-function mutations

46. Which of the following mutations are not the point mutations?

1. Silent mutations

2. Missense mutation

3. Loss-of-function mutations

4. Nonsense mutation

47. Which of the following processes is common in cancer?

1. Loss of heterozygosity

2. Inversion

3. Interstitial deletions

4. Chromosome translocation

48. Which of the following mutations affects phenotype negatively?

1. A neutral mutation

2. A deleterious mutation

3. An advantageous mutation

4. A nearly neutral mutation

49. The mutation due to the insertion or deletion of nucleotides is known as

1. frameshift mutation

2. neutral mutation

3. silent mutation

4. conditional mutation

50. __________ of the sex chromosomes leads to the Turner syndrome.

1. Monosomy

2. Disomy

3. Trisomy

4. Tetrasomy

51. Both bacteria and eukaryotes repair DNA by _____________________ process.

1. genetic drift

2. germline mutation

3. gene expression

4. genetic recombination

52. Which among the following is also known as genetic modification?

1. Genetic engineering

2. Gene targeting

3. Gene trapping

4. Protein engineering

53. The double-strand breaks are mainly repaired by

1. homologous recombination

2. non-homologous end joining

3. chromosomal translocation

54. genetic counselingWhich of the following statements about Drosophila melanogaster is wrong?

1. Can be grown easily in the laboratory

2. Long generation time

3. Easily distinguishable males and females

4. Only four pairs of chromosomes

55 Drosophila melanogaster is commonly known as

1. housefly

2. firefly

3. dragonfly

4. fruitfly

56 Which among the following is an autosomal recessive metabolic genetic disorder?

1. Sickle-cell disease

2. Cystic fibrosis

3. Tay–Sachs disease

4. Phenylketonuria

57. ______________ is a neuro-degenerative genetic disorder.

1. Mucopolysaccharidoses

2. Glycogen storage disease

3. Galactosemia

4. Huntington's disease (HD)

58. In which of the following genetic disorders connective tissue gets affected?

1. Marfan syndrome

2. Hereditary spherocytosis

3. Polycystic Kidney Disease

4. Familial hypercholesterolemia

59 The disorder due to single mutated gene is

1. single gene disorder

2. autosomal dominant gene

3. autosomal recessive disorder

4. x-linked dominant disorder

60. The unit of heredity is

1. locus

2. chromosome

3. allele

4. gene

61 The true breeding organisms are ______________.

1. homozygous

2. heterozygous

3. nullizygous

4. hemizygous

62. The compounds having the same structure as that of DNA & RNA are known as___________.

1. nucleosides

2. nucleotides

3. nucleobases

4. nucleic acid analogues

63. A cross between two snap dragon plants, one with red flowers and one with bright white flowers produces F1 offspring that are pink. When the F1 progeny are selfed a 1 : 2 : 1 ratio of red to pink to white flowers is observed. What genetic phenomenon is consistent with these results?

1. Epistasis

2. Incomplete dominance

3. Dominance

4. Codominance

64. The individuals morphology, or physiological properties, indicates his __________.

1. phenotype

2. genotype

3. haploid no. of chromosomes

4. diploid no. of chromosomes

65. _________ refers to the condition of the cell having multiple sets of chromosomes.

1. Mixoploidy

2. Dihaploidy

3. Polyploidy

4. Haploidisation

66. The process of two genotypic interaction at two different locii is termed as

1. Incomplete dominance

2. Co-dominance

3. Epistasis

4. Multiple alleles

67. Which of the following statements regarding the autosomal recessive traits is wrong?

1. The pattern of inheritance is horizontal.

2. Closely related parents.

3. The sex-linked genes are absent.

4. In X-linked recessive traits mother is the carrier and father is healthy.

68. Which of the following statements regarding the dominant genetic traits is false?

1. It has vertical transmission.

2. Both the sexes are unequally affected.

3. The unaffected persons do not transmit the trait further.

4. The degree of expression of the abnormal trait varies among the family members.

69. The pattern of sex determination in mammals including human beings is

1. ZO-ZZ type

2. ZW-ZZ type

3. XX-XO type

4. XX-XY type

70. The genes which are located apart in the chromosome shows

1. incomplete linkage

2. complete linkage

3. epistasis

4. linkage groups

71. The exchange of the corresponding parts of the adjacent paternal and maternal chromatids during meiosis is known as

1. Chromosomal Mapping

2. Genetic Variation

3. Crossing Over

4. Linkage

72. Who discovered the principle of linkage?

1. Bateson and Punnet

2. Watson and Crick

3. Carl Linnaeus

4. Lavoisier

73. The double helix model of DNA was given by

1. Linus Pauling

2. Rosalind Franklin

3. D. Watson and Francis Crick

4. Gregor Mendel

74. Which of the following statements regarding the crossing over is false?

1. It involves the exchange of genetic material.

2. It does not causes variations .

3. It helps in the chromosomal mapping.

4. It produces new individuals having new combinations of traits.

75. The uniduchat syndrome is an example of

1. deletion

2. duplication

3. Inversion

4. translocation