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LEGAL GK QUESTION BANK

Choose the correct alternative :

1. Free Consent is defined under Section _____ of Indian Contract Act.a) 14 b) 24c) 17 d) 9

2. Which of the following shall make a contract void?a) Vitiated consentb) Unlawful objectc) Sane state of mind in an insane persond) All of the above.

3. Which of the following is not an “insurance intermediary”?a) Insurance Brokersb) Insurance Surveyorsc) Loss Assessorsd) None of these.

4. Committee on progressive development of International Law and its codification is alsoknown as:a) Committee of Seventeen b) Forum for realizing International Lawc) G-20 Associates d) Association for International Law Reforms

5. Vide which resolution of UN General Assembly was International Law Commissionestablished?a) Resolution 178 b) Resolution 174 (11)c) Resolution 33 (4) d) Resolution 96 (8)

6. Supreme Court of India laid down the indicators for interpreting ‘other authorities’ underArticle 12 of the Indian Constitution in:a) Ajay Hasia v. Khalid Mujibb) Shankari Prasad v. State of Rajasthanc) R.D. Shetty v. International Airport Authority of Indiad) Central Inland Water Corporation v. S.C. Sinha

7. What is COMPAT?a) Consumers Malpractice Prohibition Actb) Competition Appellate Tribunalc) Companies’ Association for Transactionsd) Commission for Prohibition of Atrocities in Trade

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8. Parliament can legislate on state matter in national interest under:a) Article 393, Constitution of India b) Article 249, Constitution of Indiac) Article 324, Constitution of India d) Article 248, Constitution of India

9. What provision of Indian Constitution guarantees protection against retrospective applicationof criminal law?a) Article 20 (2) b) Article 20 (1)c) Article 31-C d) Article 62

10. Pick the odd one out with respect to Article 19 (2) of Indian Constitution:a) Public Interest b) Security of Statec) Public Order d) Defamation

11. Supreme Court has formulated the test of ___________ for the purpose of interpreting‘other authorities’ under Article 12, Constitution of India.a) Sovereign authorities b) Instrumentality of Statec) Ejusdem Generis d) Direct Action of State

12. Which of the following is not state for the purpose of Article 12, Constitution of India?a) Board of Control for Cricket in Indiab) Cinema Hall Organizersc) Oil and Natural Gas Corporationd) None of these.

13. Which of the following statements is not true about Intellectual Property?I. Patents are included in Intellectual Property Rights.II. Intellectual Property Law is the law of evidence pertaining to patents and determine

the validity.III. All copyrights are registered for a certain period of time.a) II only b) II and IIIc) I and II d) I, II and III

14. Standing committee to recommend apmendment to Section 66-A of Information TechnologyAct, 2000 was headed by:a) P. Karunakaran b) Nandini Satpathyc) R. Deka d) Dr. Ajay Kumar

15. Who amongst the following was not a member of Justice J.S. Verma Committee?a) Gopal Subramaniam b) Mukul Rohtagic) Leila Seth d) None of these.

16. Constituent Assembly of India met for the first time on:a) 8th October,1944 b) 9th December, 1946c) 16th September, 1947 d) 22nd January, 1947

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17. The historic day on which the basic structure doctrine for Indian Constitution was adoptedis:a) 24th April, 1973 b) 16th March, 1972c) 22nd June, 1982 d) 19th August, 1976

18. Which amongst the following is not a Fundamental Right in India?a) Right to freedom of speech and expressionb) Right to Equalityc) Right to Privacyd) None of these.

19. Injury caused by negligent throw of a ball shall come within the ambit of:a) Malfeasance b) Misfeasancec) Nonfeasance d) Differs from case to case

20. Theory of naturalism for understanding International Law was propounded by:a) Grotius b) Austinc) Froster d) Socrates

21. Are International Customs a source of International Law?a) Yes, subject to the evidence of general practice.b) Yes, subject to its acceptances by the ICJc) Yes, subject to the consent of nations in conflict.d) No.

22. What is Dualism?a) Two-tier system of justice administration under International Lawb) Theory recognizing International Law and Municipal Law as distinctc) Theory recognizing the international identity of a state as different from its

sovereign authorityd) Operations of ‘peacekeeping’ and ‘peacemaking’ as exhibited by the United

Nations

23. Universal Declaration of Human Rights is contained in:a) Article 68, U.N. Charterb) Article 47, Statute of ICJc) Rule 47, U.N. Rules on Prohibition of Slaveryd) Regulation 14, U.N.I.C.E.F. Regulations

24. International Law is a:a) Soft law b) Law without jurisdictionc) Law without sanctions d) All of the above.

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25. Can Fundamental Rights be waived off?a) Yes, as per Article 32 of the Indian Constitutionb) Yes, as per the decision of Supreme Court in R.D. Shetty v. State of Rajasthanc) No, as per the decision of Supreme Court in Basheshar Nath v. Commissioner

Income Taxd) No, as per Article 32 of the Indian Constitution

26. The Supreme Court in E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu propounded for:a) Expanding the horizons of right to equalityb) Establishment of Universal Adult Franchisec) Establishment of Lok Adalats to trickle down justiced) None of these.

27. After which landmark judgment of the Supreme Court was Article 15 (4) added toIndian Constitution?a) R.K. Shukla v. V.P. Shrivastavab) Basheshar Nath v. Commissioner Income Taxc) Ranjit D. Udeshi v. State of Maharashtrad) State of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan

28. Constitutional validity of death penalty was discussed by the court in:a) Sajjan Singh v. State of Punjabb) Bachan Singh v. State of Punjabc) Golak Nath v. State of Punjabd) Mithu v. State of Punjab

29. In Mithu v. State of Punjab, Section ____ of Indian Penal Code was declaredunconstitutional.a) 302 b) 306c) 303 d) 309

30. Pick the odd one out with respect to amendments to Indian Constitution:a) Article 47 b) Article 4c) Article 239-A d) Article 169

31. Which of the following cannot be a copyrighted work?a) A music video made by school childrenb) Newly developed architecture techniquec) New interpretation of a religious textd) All of the above.

32. The principles of higher transparency and simplified procedures were laid downfor company law by:a) Justice Triveni Committee Reportb) M.D. Singh Committee Reportc) J.J. Irani Committee Reportd) D.R. Antulay Committee Report

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33. What is meant by jus gestionis?a) Commercial acts of a nationb) Actions pursuant to a good faith gesture by a nationc) Actions of a nation based on public policy and welfared) Illegal acts of a nation

34. Forum Prorogatum means:a) Conferring jurisdiction to the International Court of Justice by virtue of a statuteb) Conferring jurisdiction to the International Court of Justice by a special legislation

passed by the parliament of the statec) Conferring jurisdiction to the International Court of Justice after institution

of proceedings with the consent of partyd) Conferring jurisdiction to the International Court of Justice by a special resolution

passed at the United Nations annual meeting

35. A company is incorporated under Section _____ of Companies Act, 2013.a) 7 b) 11c) 24 d) 3

36. Who is the natural guardian of an adopted minor son as per Hindu Law?a) Adoptive father b) As designated by lawc) Adoptive mother d) Real father

37. Appellate Civil Jurisdiction is conferred in the Supreme Court by:a) Article 145, Constitution of Indiab) Rule 33, Supreme Court Rulesc) Article 133, Constitution of Indiad) Article 300-A, Constitution of India

38. Which of the following is not an objective for establishment of United Nations?a) Maintenance of international peace and securityb) Promotion of equality and fraternity amongst nationsc) International cooperation to resolve problems of global concernd) Promotion of trade and commerce amongst member nations

39. The principles on which United Nations is based are contained in:a) Article 7, Montreal Conventionb) Article 2, U.N. Charterc) Article 43, Constitution of Federation of Statesd) None of these.

40. Report of Mandal Commission was challenged before the Supreme Court of Indiain:

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a) State of Maharashtra v. Abdul Latif Shaikhb) Ashok Sancheti v. Liela Royc) Ashok Kumar Aggarwal v. Union of Indiad) Indra Sawhney v. Union of India

41. Which case established that Fundamental Rights can also be enjoyed by companiesformed by citizens of India?a) Bennett Colemon & Co. v. Union of Indiab) R.C. Cooper v. Union of Indiac) Bharat Heavy Industries Ltd. v. State of Gujaratd) State of Madhya Pradesh v. Gaurav Pathak

42. In which case the Supreme Court of India acknowledged the freedom of press?a) Francis Mullin Ltd. v. Union of Indiab) Sakal Papers (P) Ltd. v. Union of Indiac) Romesh Thapar v. Union of Indiad) Trisha Singhania v. Union of India

43. Who is the chairperson of Competition Commission of India?a) Ashok Chawla b) Vinay Mehtac) Ramesh Sharma d) None of these.

44. Which of the following is not a part of the basic structure of Indian Constitution?a) Article 31 b) Article 21c) Article 136 d) Article 32

45. Parliamentary privileges are extended to state legislatures by the virtue of:a) S. 11, Legislatures’ Act b) A. 194, Constitution of Indiac) Both (a) and (b). d) Neither (a) nor (b).

46. Doctrine of ‘Pith and Substance’ means:a) Every law should be seen in its substance and severed from other laws.b) Substance of a law is not severed from other laws.c) Substance of a law is the determining factor for legislative competence.d) None of these.

47. Anticipatory bail is granted under Section ____ of Code of Criminal Procedure.a) 438 b) 434c) 437 d) 442

48. Number of judges in Supreme Court of India is:a) 27 b) 31c) 9 d) 17

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49. What is meant by the de facto recognition of a state in International Law?a) State is existent legally and recognized by U.N.b) State is recognized factually by other states.c) There is no fact to suggest that the state does not exist and hence it is

recognized.d) None of these.

50. Volenti Non Fit Injuria is a defence under:a) Hindu Law of Inheritance b) Law of Tortsc) Law of Piracy and Hijacking d) Law of Crimes

51. Doctrine of blowing Hot and Cold means:a) A person cannot be both angry and happy at the same time.b) A person cannot both claim a benefit and exit the attached liability at the

same time.c) A person can be both hot and cool exhibiting features of dualism.d) A person cannot cause a loss to another for his own benefit.

52. What is meant by Escheat Succession in Hindu Law?a) Succession by perceiving a fraudb) Succession before lawful division of propertyc) Succession to the Governmentd) Succession to the illegitimate child of a deceased

53. Pick the odd one out:a) Restitution of property b) Expulsion of trespasserc) Re-entry of land d) Abatement of nuisance

54. Pick the odd one out with regard to U.S. Constitution:a) Press b) Religionc) Double Jeopardy d) Petition

55. Sitting of Cyber Appellate Tribunal is at:a) Mumbai b) Chennaic) New Delhi d) Dehradun

56. Ministry of Home Affairs in India is held by:a) Sushma Swaraj b) Rajnath Singhc) Narendra Modi d) Varun Gandhi

57. What is the theme of Law Day 2016?a) LGBT b) Miranda: More than wordsc) HIV d) Media Trial

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58. A contract is discharged by:a) Impossibility of performance b) Breach of contractc) Waiver of performance d) All of the above.

59. Mithun asked Ramesh for lending his horse for a consideration of 700 INR per day.Ramesh responded with a telegram stating that the consideration should be 800INR. The contract is:a) Valid but unenforceable b) Voidablec) Valid and enforceable d) None of these.

60. Which of the following events nullifies a communication?a) Revocation before communication is received by the promisee.b) Revocation before communication is transmitted to the promisee.c) Revocation before the acceptance is received by the promisor.d) Revocation before the acceptance is transmitted to the promisor.

61. Pick the odd one out:a) Piracy b) Hijackingc) Genocide d) Slaughter

62. Supreme Court of India is established under:a) Article 145, Constitution of Indiab) Article 124, Constitution of Indiac) Rule 27, Supreme Court Rulesd) Indian High Courts Act

63. Jurisdiction of a High Court u/s 9 of Arbitration and Conciliation Act is:a) Original b) Appellatec) Ordinary Original d) Extraordinary Appellate

64. What was Justice Mudgal Committee concerned with?a) Spot fixing probe in IPL b) Contracts of players in ISLc) Offences Against the State d) Offences of Currency Counterfeiting

65. Ab extra: From the beginning :: Ab initio: ________.a) From the beginning b) From outsidec) From another territory d) From another person

66. Ratio in jure aequitas integra means:a) Reason in law is perfect equityb) Rationale of a judgment shall be integratedc) No rationale shall be valid in law if not integratedd) A person cannot question the reason if it is integrated

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67. Res Integra means:a) A matter untouchedb) Integrated matterc) Reasons of a judgment shall be integratedd) None of these.

68. Ubi jus ibi remedium est means:a) Where there is a remedy, there is a right.b) Where there is a wrongful act, there must be a remedy.c) Where there is no wrongful act, remedy may exist.d) Where there is a right, there is a remedy.

69. Voluntas in delictis non exitus spectator means:a) In offences the intent and not the outcome is looked atb) In offences the intent and not the reason is looked atc) In offences the intent and not the motive is looked atd) In offences the intent and not the physical action is looked at

70. Which of the following is not covered within the purview of RTI Act, 2005?a) Judicial Actions b) Administrative Actionsc) Quasi-judicial Actions d) None of these.

71. Exemption from taxes in respect of religious affairs is ensured by:a) Article 27, Constitution of India b) S. 42, Income Tax Actc) Both (a) and (b). d) Neither (a) nor (b).

72. Punishment for the offence of culpable homicide not amounting to murder is containedin:a) S. 302, Indian Penal Code b) S. 304 (2), Indian Penal Codec) S. 187, Indian Penal Code d) S. 299, Indian Penal Code

73. SARFAESI Act stands fora) Sphere Retaliation Forces and Establishment of Security in India Actb) Special Retaliation Forces and Establishment of Security in India Actc) Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of

Security Interest Actd) None of these.

74. Tribunals are established under:a) S. 32, Tribunals of India Actb) Article 323-A, Constitution of Indiac) Article 50, Constitution of Indiad) Both b) and c).

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75. Piracy is recognized as a universal crime by:a) Montreal Convention, 1971b) Treaty of Shipments and Merchants, 1988c) U.N. Convention on the Law of the Sead) Article 14, U.N. Charter

76. What provision of Indian Constitution prohibits forced labour?a) Article 24 b) Article 23c) Article 17 d) Article 27

77. National Legal Services Act, 1987 is in pursuance of :a) Article 48, Indian Constitution b) Article 34, Indian Constitutionc) Article 47, Indian Constitution d) Article 39-A, Indian Constitution

78. What provision of Indian Constitution defines State?a) Article 12 b) Article 17c) Article 4 d) Article 22

79. The term of a patent under patents act is:a) 20 years from the date of applicationb) 20 years from the date of grant of licensec) 15 years from the date of grant of licensed) 20 years from the date of application minus period of pre-grant opposition

80. What is a debenture?a) Debt security convertible to preference share.b) Security acknowledging debt.c) Debt security convertible to an equity share.d) None of these.

81. Which of the following is not amongst the powers of Central Sales Tax AppellateAuthority?a) Enforcing the attendance of any person during hearing of an appeal.b) Issuing commissions for the examinations or witnesses.c) Staying the operation of certain orders.d) None of these.

82. Institution of Supreme Court of India was created by:a) Regulating Act, 1773 b) Indian Councils Act, 1814c) Judicial Plan, 1772 d) Judicial Plan, 1774

83. Sitting of TRAI is at:a) New Delhi b) Bangalorec) Hyderabad d) Gurgaon

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84. Family Courts Act was enacted in:a) 1987 b) 1984c) 1942 d) 1993

85. Principle of utility as the tool to frame laws was given by:a) Austin b) Karl N. Llewync) Karl Marx d) Jeremy Bentham

86. What is meant by right to consular access?a) Right to contact the local embassy.b) Right to access records of other sovereign with consent.c) Bona fide access of sovereign records based on good conscience.d) Right to conduct research and development for access to databases in

territory.

87. Pick the odd one out:a) Citizenship b) Domicilec) Tenancy d) Nationality

88. Inclusion of Jat community in Central OBC category has been held to be invalidby the court in the case of :a) Ram Singh v. Union of Indiab) Shreya Singhal v. Union of Indiac) Risha Chamariya v. Palaghar Schools Associationd) Panchsheel Priyadarshini v. Khushboo Rani

89. Forceful Narco-analysis of an accused in a trial is:a) Invalid as per the ruling of Supreme Court of India in Selvi v. State of Karnatakab) Invalid as per Article 20 (3) of the Indian Constitutionc) Both a) and b).d) Neither a) nor b).

90. Which of the following is not ‘law’ for the purpose of Article 13, Indian Constitution?a) Draft Notificationb) Regulations formed under an Actc) Rules of a government bodyd) Constitution of India

91. What is Doctrine of Severability?a) No law before the passing of Indian Constitution can be held to be constitutionally

invalid.b) Every law can be held unconstitutional by the Supreme Court.c) A law is invalid only to the extent of inconsistency with the Constitution of

India.d) Laws of severe punishments are not subject to Indian Constitution.

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92. Sale of property is performed under Section __ of Transfer of Property Act, 1882.a) 54 b) 37c) 91 d) 105

93. Cognizable offence is defined under:a) S. 3 (1), Code of Civil Procedureb) S. 2 (c), Code of Criminal Procedurec) S. 2 (e), Code of Criminal Procedured) S. 2 (l), Code of Criminal Procedure

94. Abolition of death penalty for murder cases has been provided in:a) 250th Report of Law Commission of Indiab) 262nd Report of Law Commission of Indiac) 230th Report of Law Commission of Indiad) 268th Report of Law Commission of India

95. Salus populi est suprema lex means:a) Population makes the supreme law.b) Democracy has the superiority.c) Protection of people is the supreme law.d) Protection of law shall be supreme for the people. “Hence, (c).”

96. What is restitution of conjugal rights in a marital relationship?a) Restoration of custody of child with the motherb) Restoration of custody of male child with the fatherc) Restoration of co-inhabitance of the spoused) Restoration of the property rights accrued before marriage

97. Every right is accompanied by:a) Penalty b) Dutyc) Remedy for its breach d) Imprisonment for its breach

98. Which of the following is not a reasonable restriction of fundamental right to tradeand profession?I) Imposing ban on publication of obscene books.II) Prohibiting slaughter of all kinds of animals.III) Imposing ban on trade of old vintage cars.a) II and III. b) II only.c) I and II. d) I, II and III.

99. Who is the Minister of Law and Justice in India?a) D.V. Sadananda Gowda b) Radha Mohan Singhc) Manohar Parrikar d) P.L. Punia

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100. National Company Law Tribunal is established under:a) Companies Act, 2013b) MRTP Act, 1969c) Companies Act, 1956d) Companies (Settlements of Debts) Rules, 2008

101. Pick the odd one out with respect to nationality under International Law:a) Deprivation b) Renunciationc) Extradition d) Release

102. What is statelessness in International Law?a) A person deprived of his/her nationalityb) States unrecognized in the international communityc) States unrecognized by United Nationsd) States whose recognition has been revoked by United Nations owing to bad

conduct

103. In India, Extradition is wholly governed by:a) Extradition Act, 1962 b) International Treaty on Extraditionsc) Both (a) and (b). d) Neither (a) nor (b).

104. Public Interest Litigation emerged in the case of:a) Ratlam Cotton Mills v. Union of Indiab) Bandhua Mukti Morcha v. Union of Indiac) Paschim Banga Khet Mazdoor Samiti v. State of West Bengald) Maithli Devi v. State of Bombay

105. Does right to life include Right of an individual to die?a) No, as per the judgment of Supreme Court of India in Palvinder Kaur v. State

of Punjab.b) Yes, as per the judgment of Supreme Court of India in Gian Kaur v. State

of Punjab.c) Yes, as per the judgment of Supreme Court of India in Palvinder Kaur v.

State of Punjab.d) No, as per the judgment of Supreme Court of India in Gian Kaur v. State

of Punjab.

106. “Intelligible Differentia” as per Indian Constitution means:a) Constitution of India is intelligent enough to understand the difference amongst

different intellectuals.b) Right to Equality can be violated if the action is overall intelligent.c) The grounds for making classes amongst people shall be reasonable.d) No person shall be differentiated or discriminated with for his poor intelligence.

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107. Article 16 (2), Indian Constitution does not include ______ as a ground for discrimination.a) Domicile b) Residencec) Gender d) Caste

108. Article 22 (2) of Constitution of India does not apply to:a) People detained under preventive detention lawsb) Alien enemiesc) Both (a) and (b).d) Neither (a) nor (b).

109. In a conflict between Article 15 and Article 29 of Constitution of India:a) Article 29 prevailsb) Provisions are harmoniously construedc) Article 15 prevailsd) None of these.

110. What is a ‘bailable offence’?a) Offence in which arrest cannot be made by the policeb) Offence in which bail is a matter of right for the accusedc) Offence in which bail cannot be granted to the accusedd) Offence in which only magistrate can grant bail

111. Arrange the following judicial posts in the ascending order of their seniority:A. District JudgeB. Chief Judicial MagistrateC. Metropolitan Magistratea) ABC b) CABc) CBA d) ACB

112. Legal Aid Committee, 1972 was chaired by:a) Justice H.R. Khanna b) Justice V.R. Krishna Iyerc) Justice H.L. Dattu d) Justice A.N. Ray

113. Committee for Implementation of Legal Aid Services was chaired by:a) Justice A.P. Shah b) Justice G.B. Patnaikc) Justice P.N. Bhagwati d) Justice H.R. Khanna

114. Qui non improbat, approbat means:a) He who disapproves need to bring evidence.b) He who does not disapprove, approves.c) He who approves, does not disapprove.d) He who approves, shall bring evidence.

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115. What is meant by ‘dividend’?a) Profit issued to a preference shareholder by the companyb) Divided liability of a shareholder in a companyc) Profit issued to an equity shareholder by the companyd) Difference between total liability of the company and the liability of a shareholder

116. Pick the odd one out:a) Alien Enemy b) Bankruptc) Registered Company d) Unborn child

117. Member states of United Nations are:a) 197 b) 245c) 193 d) 202

118. What is pledge?a) Oath taken before a magistrate before testimony.b) Bailment of goods as security for repayment of money.c) Transfer of ownership as security for repayment of money.d) Consumption of goods on failure to repay money.

119. The maximum number of members of IRDA at a particular time can be:a) 7 b) 10c) 8 d) 6

120. If X murders Y in U.S.D., a country where murder is no offence, and an extraditiontreaty exists between the two countries, X can be prosecuted in India for:a) Murderb) Man Slaughteringc) Laws of Extraditiond) X cannot be prosecuted.

121. Under what provision of Universal Declaration on Human Rights is ‘right to asylum’recognized?a) Schedule V b) Article 14c) Article 77 d) Article 21

122. Passive euthanasia has been held to be valid in the case of:a) Gian Kaur v. State of Punjabb) Arup Bhaiyyan v. State of Assamc) Aruna Ramchandran Shaubag v. Union of Indiad) Saurabh Mandal v. Union of India

123. In which case Supreme Court of India incorporated ‘due process of law’ in Constitutionof India?

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a) E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadub) Shantanu Moitra v. Central Board of Film Certificationc) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of Indiad) Rudra Sen Chaudhary v. State of Andhra Pradesh

124. Untouchability is prohibited under the Indian Constitution by:a) Article 17 b) Article 20c) Article 84 d) Article 77

125. Article 18, Indian Constitution intends to:a) Put untouchability to endb) Stop retrospective application of criminal lawc) Abolition of titlesd) End of discrimination in matters of public employment

126. What is meant by discharge of an offence?a) Acquitting the accused for lack of evidenceb) Acquitting the accused for non-filing of charge sheetc) Acquitting the accused for misapplication of lawd) Acquitting the accused for serving the full term while trial was going on

127. How many Information Commissioners are appointed at present in India?a) 8 b) 11c) 5 d) 3

128. Liberty: Privacy :: Life: _______.a) Health b) Moneyc) Housing d) Farming

129. Freedom of Press: United States :: Right to Efficient Governance: _________.a) England b) South Africac) Ireland d) Australia

130. Section 377, Indian Penal Code was alleged to be violative of:a) Article 21, Constitution of Indiab) S. 4, LGBT Bill 2012c) Article 39, Constitution of Indiad) S. 11, LGBT Bill 2012

131. Punishment for the offence of rape is contained in:a) Section 376, Indian Penal Codeb) Section 375, Indian Penal Codec) Section 378, Indian Penal Coded) Section 377, Indian Penal Code

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132. In how many zones are the meetings of Copyright Board held?a) 7 b) 5c) 11 d) 13

133. Pick the odd one out with regard to Reserve Bank of India:a) Bhopal b) Bangalorec) Lucknow d) Mumbai

134. APTEL has its seating at:a) New Delhi b) Punec) Varanasi d) Chandigarh

135. National Commission for Scheduled Tribes is established under:a) Article 37, Constitution of Indiab) Article 338, Constitution of Indiac) Article 157, Constitution of Indiad) Article 48, Constitution of India

136. The present governor of Reserve Bank of India is:a) Mahesh Chawla b) Y.V. Reddyc) Raghuram Rajan d) D. Subbarao

137. Is cheque a negotiable instrument?a) Yes, under S. 138 of Negotiable Instruments Actb) Yes, under S. 13 of Negotiable Instruments Actc) Yes, under S. 2 (h) of Cheques Actd) No

138. Securities Appellate Tribunal has its seating at:a) New Delhi b) Mumbaic) Pune d) Chennai

139. Labour Courts are established under:a) Consumer Protection Act, 1986b) Workmen Compensation Act, 1975c) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947d) Jurisdiction to Labour Courts has been provided in all of these acts.

140. Pick the odd one out with respect to jurisdictional immunities under InternationalLaw:a) Consent b) Criminal Liabilityc) Tortuous Liability d) Contracts of employment

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141. Investigation about alleged contravention of Competition Act, 2002 is done by:a) Director General b) Local Magistratec) Chief Judicial Magistrate d) Investigating Officer, Local Police

142. Freedom of movement throughout the territory of India is contained in:a) Article 19 (1) (e), Constitution of Indiab) Article 19 (1) (d), Constitution of Indiac) Article 19 (5), Constitution of Indiad) Article 19 (4), Constitution of India

143. Maintenance can be claimed under Section ___________ of Code of Criminal Procedure.a) 138 b) 125c) 147 d) 133

144. Decriminalization of attempt to suicide has been recommended by:a) Ministry of Healthb) Centre for Mental Health, All India Institute of Medical Sciencesc) 210th Report, Law Commission of Indiad) 225th Report, Law Commission of India

145. What is the meaning of term ‘Mofussil’?a) Parts of territory outside the three presidency townsb) Presidency towns other than Bombay, Calcutta and Madrasc) Collective name for the area of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa in British Indiad) None of these.

146. Air India Ltd. is headquartered at:a) New Delhi b) Bangalorec) Chennai d) Mumbai

147. Who is the senior most civil servant of India?a) National Security Adviserb) Personal Assistant to the Prime Ministerc) Cabinet Secretary of Indiad) Attorney General of India

148. Pick the odd one out:a) Soli Sorabjee b) Mukul Rohatgic) Ranjit Kumar d) M.C. Setalvad

149. Central Bureau of Investigation is established under:a) Delhi Special Police Establishment Actb) Central Bureau of Investigation Actc) Special Task Forces (Amendment) Actd) None of these.

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150. Transgender day of Remembrance is celebrated on:a) 27th December b) 4th Augustc) 20th November d) 15th June

151. Provisions for establishment of a Debt Recovery Tribunal are contained in:a) Recovery of Debt Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, 1993b) Recovery of Debt against Nationalized Banks, 1993c) Money Lenders’ Act, 1974d) None of these.

152. Competition Appellate Tribunal has its seat at:a) Varanasi b) New Delhic) Mumbai d) Lucknow

153. Pure theory of law was propounded by:a) Roscoe Pound b) Robert Jonesc) Hans Kelsen d) H.R. Maine

154. The contiguous zone of India in the seas exists till:a) 24 nautical miles b) 17 nautical milesc) 12 nautical miles d) 19 nautical miles

155. The PIL for issuance of directives related to Uniform Civil Code was recently filedby:a) A.K. Upadhyay b) Gopal Subramaniamc) Subramaniam Swamy d) Arun Jaitley

156. Guiding principles to exercise jurisdiction under Article 136 of Constitution of Indiahas been laid down:a) Pritam Singh v. Stateb) Hindustan Unilever Ltd. v. Union of Indiac) Navjot Sandhu v. NCT of Delhid) Suresh Koshal v. Union of India

157. New interpretation of law penal in nature:a) Applies to pending casesb) Applies to pending cases and extends to cases already decidedc) Applies to future cases onlyd) Cannot be entertained

158. Pick the odd one out:a) Article 20 (2) of the Indian Constitutionb) S. 300, Code of Criminal Procedurec) S. 26, General Clauses Actd) S. 151, Code of Civil Procedure

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159. The doctrine of ‘rarest of rare’ for exercise of discretion is applied by the judgein cases of:a) S. 302, Indian Penal Code b) Capital Punishmentc) TADA d) All of the above.

160. Sub modo means:a) Notwithstanding anything b) Within limitsc) Beyond statutory prescription d) None of these.

161. Who can claim divorce on ground of irretrievable breakdown of marriage under HinduMarriage Act?a) Both husband and wifeb) Husband onlyc) Wife onlyd) Breakdown of marriage is no explicit ground for divorce.

162. A Muslim woman is entitled after divorce for maintenance:a) Till second marriageb) During Iddat Periodc) Till procurement of a source of incomed) All of the above.

163. Film star Sanjay Dutt was convicted under:a) Section 34. Indian Penal Code b) Section 120-B, Indian Penal Codec) Section 3, TADA d) Section 5, Arms’ Act

164. FERA stands for:a) Foreign Exchange Regulation Actb) Foreign Exchange Restrictions Actc) Free Exchange Regulation Actd) Foreign Exchange Reconstruction Act

165. The Pensions’ Act, 1871 was enacted to:a) Extend to all classes of workers the benefits of pensionb) Consolidate and amend the law relating to pensionsc) Control the number of suits in lieu of pensionsd) Make the scheme of One Rank One Pension applicable

166. The concept of qualitative utilitarianism can be attributed to:a) J.S. Mill b) Jeremy Benthamc) Garry Stewart d) None of these.

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167. The landmark case related to sexual harassment at workplace is:a) Vishakha v. State of Rajasthanb) Ramesh Patil v. State of Haryanac) Mehboob v. Stated) Jyoti Kumari v. NCT of Delhi

168. Maintenance under Section 125, Code of Criminal Procedure can be availed bya Muslim women after the decision in:a) Mohd. Ahmed Khan v. Shah Bano Begumb) Daniel Latifi v. Union of Indiac) Shrioman Sinha v. Bajid Altafd) None of these.

169. R.C. Cooper v. Union of India is famously known as:a) SARFAESI Case b) Bank Nationalization Casec) Cooper Industries Scam Case d) Due Process of Law Case

170. Who among the following people shall not be entitled to the benefit of protectionagainst double jeopardy under Article 20 (2) of the Indian Constitution?a) A person murdering another, serving 6 month imprisonment for theft in another

case.b) A person serving life imprisonment for murder punished with death penalty

for another murder.c) A person murdering another, acquitted and prosecuted again on reopening

of the case.d) All of the above.

171. Judgment should be delivered in:a) Language of the courtb) Language understood by the prosecutorc) Language understood by the defence counseld) Language of the accused

172. Pick the odd one out:a) Jadish Tytler Committee b) Poti Rosha Committeec) Nanavati Commission d) Marwah Commission

173. Quid pro quo means:a) Monetary considerationb) Consideration, something for somethingc) Barter considerationd) Professional transactions without considerations

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174. The offence of Voyeurism is punishable under Section ______ of Indian Penal Code.a) 354A b) 354Cc) 354E d) 354D

175. Is state of Baluchistan eligible to become a member of United Nations?a) No, because it has not ratified the U.N. Charter.b) No, because it is not a state.c) No, because it is not peace-loving state.d) All of the above.

176. Which of the following organizations is the intelligence arm of Indian Armed Forces?a) Intelligence Bureaub) Research & Analysis Wingc) Armed Forces Special Survey Teamd) Directorate of Military Intelligence

177. National Policy of India as to Narcotic Drugs gets its origin in:a) The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985b) Article 47, Constitution of Indiac) Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940d) Narcotic Drugs Convention, 1971

178. National Martyr’s Day is celebrated every year on:a) 21st August b) 30th Januaryc) 15th July d) 11th September

179. Can a juvenile be prosecuted jointly with a non-juvenile?a) Yes, if the intention is common under S. 34, Indian Penal Codeb) Yes, if the charges are joined under Code of Criminal Procedurec) Yes, if the juvenile is an accomplice under S. 133, Indian Evidence Actd) No.

180. DRT stands for:a) Debt Recovery Tribunalb) Dispute Resolution Tribunalc) Dematerialized Redemption Tribunald) Domestic Reimbursements Tribunal

181. The landmark case from which the concept of negligence seems to have emergedis:a) Hill v. Tupper b) Donoghue v. Stevensonc) Bolton v. Stone d) Dickson v. Reuter

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182. The limit of Exclusive Economic Zone was determined to be ___________ nauticalmiles at___________.a) 14, UN Convention on Law of Seas, 1982b) 150, UN Convention on Law of Seasc) 200, UN Convention on Law of Seasd) 80, UN Convention on Exclusive Economic Zone, 1992

183. Agreements between competitors at the same stage of production are known as:a) Horizontal Agreements b) Cartel Agreementsc) Vertical Agreements d) Dominant Agreements

184. Pick the odd one out:a) Article 17, Constitution of Indiab) Article 20, Constitution of Indiac) Article 14, Constitution of Indiad) Article 18, Constitution of India

185. 86th Constitutional Amendment:a) Inserted Article 21-A to the Indian Constitutionb) Removed education of children as a fundamental dutyc) Both (a) and (b).d) Neither (a) nor (b).

186. Evidentiary burden of proof:a) Is always with prosecutionb) Shifts regularlyc) Is always with the party procuring evidenced) None of these.

187. A division bench comprises of:a) Two judges b) Four judgesc) Seven judges d) Three judges

188. Reforms for Banking Industry were suggested by:a) Narsimham Committee b) Mandal Commissionc) Mirza Aziz Committee d) Malimath Committee

189. Which of the following is not true about the Judicial Committee of Privy Council?a) Matters were to be heard by not less than three members of the committeeb) No dissenting judgment were to be made by any of its members

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c) Reports to be given in an advisory formatd) Bound by its previous decisions

190. Which of the following is not included in iddat period under Muslim Law?a) Period of three menstrual courses after the date of divorceb) Period of seven months after pregnancy of the divorced womanc) Period of three lunar months for women not subject to menstruationd) Period between the date of divorce and termination of pregnancy

191. Compassionate Appointment is a:a) Right b) Settlementc) Remedy d) Privilege

192. Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed under:a) Section 13, Central Audits Act, 1951b) Article 148, Constitution of Indiac) Article 52, Constitution of Indiad) None of these.

193. Gambling Law of India is contained in:a) Article 37, Constitution of Indiab) Public Gambling Actc) Morally Deteriorating Activities (Prevention) Actd) Gambling Activities (Prohibition) Act

194. Theory of social engineering was propounded by:a) Iherring b) Roscoe Poundc) T.J. Raymond d) J.S. Mill

195. What is meant by ‘ought’ law?a) The justice which is served by lawb) Law as it should bec) Law as it isd) Law as it tends to be

196. Rajya Sabha Select Committee on GST is chaired by:a) Bhupendra Yadav b) Arun Jaitleyc) Parmod Bakshi d) Anil Desai

197. The number of judges at the International Court of Justice are:a) 22 b) 15c) 27 d) 14

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198. The number of judges required to constituted the quorum of International Court ofJustice are:a) 9 b) 4c) 11 d) 8

199. National Judicial Appointments Commission has been held constitutionally____________ in the case of ____________.a) Valid, Supreme Court Advocates on Record Assn. v. Union of Indiab) Invalid, Supreme Court Advocates on Record Assn. v. Union of Indiac) Valid, Delhi Bar Assn. v. Union of Indiad) Invalid, Delhi Bar Assn. v. Union of India

200. Under Article 22 (2) of the Indian Constitution, no person can be detained beyond:a) 48 hours b) 7 daysc) 24 hours d) 3 days

201. Supreme Court Rules are formulated under:a) Article 136, Constitution of Indiab) Article 145, Constitution of Indiac) Article 133, Constitution of Indiad) Article 124, Constitution of India

202. Article 21-A of Constitution of India vests in every _____ right to _______.a) Citizen, livelihood b) Citizen, shelterc) Child, education d) Child, shelter

203. Which of the following is not a fundamental duty?a) Respecting the national flag of Indiab) Providing to the nation services of defence whenever requiredc) Promoting trade and commerce of the countryd) Cultivating scientific temperament

204. Appeal against the decision of a single judge of High Court lies before:a) Constitutional bench of High Courtb) Division bench of High Courtc) Full bench of Supreme Courtd) Division bench of Supreme Court

205. Which of the following is not a kind of punishment of crimes under Muslim Law?a) Harem b) Tazeerc) Hadd d) Kasi

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206. Who was T.B. Macaulay?a) The chairman of first law commission of Indiab) The prime man behind drafting of Indian Penal Codec) The Chairman of Society of Public Instructionsd) All of the above.

207. Law on Evidence in India was codified by:a) Jeremy Bentham b) James Fitzjames Stephenc) A.V. Dicey d) T.B. Macaulay

208. What is Doctrine of Alternative Danger?a) No person can invite an alternate danger.b) If there is an alternative to danger, plaintiff not choosing it shall not be

compensated.c) If a risk is to be taken by plaintiff consequential to defendants’ act, the same

shall be compensated.d) None of these.

209. Does right to personal liberty include right to speedy trial of an accused?a) Yes, under Article 21 of Constitution of India.b) Yes, as per the decision of Supreme Court of India in Katar Singh v. State

of Punjab.c) Yes, as per the decision of Supreme Court of India in Hussainara Khatoon

v. State of Punjab.d) All of the above.

210. 26th November is celebrated as National Law Day because:a) Constitution of India came into force on this day.b) Constituent Assembly started to draft the Constitution on this day.c) Constitution of India was enacted on this day.d) Constitution of India was assented to by the Queen on this day.

211. Dishonour of cheques is an offence under:a) Section 124, Cheque’s Actb) Section 138, Negotiable Instruments Actc) Section 42, Indian Contract Actd) All of the above.

212. Which of the following is not true about Juvenile Justice Board?A. It comprises of three members.B. There shall be a woman metropolitan magistrate presiding over the board.C. The board comprises of two social workers.a) B and C b) C onlyc) B only d) A and C

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213. Liability of a surety is:a) Higher than that of principal debtorb) Equal to that of principal debtorc) Co-extensive with that of principal debtord) Less than that of principal debtor

214. International Military Tribunal was established in pursuance of:a) Moscow Declaration b) Rio Summitc) Delhi Declaration d) Dhaka Declaration

215. The concurring opinion in Keshavananda Bharti v. State of Kerala was deliveredby:a) Justice H.R. Khanna b) Justice A.N. Rayc) Justice Chandrachud d) Justice M.L. Roy

216. Finance Commission of India is constituted under Article ____ of Constitution ofIndia.a) 280 b) 247c) 262 d) 273

217. What is the difference between review and appeal?a) Review is filed before the same court.b) Review is filed before another district court of similar jurisdiction.c) Appeal is filed before the Supreme Court of India.d) None of these.

218. Pick the odd one out with regard to Bombay High Court:a) Nagpur b) Punec) Aurangabad d) Mumbai

219. What is a ‘uterine blood relation’ under Special Marriage Act, 1954?a) Siblings with same father b) Siblings with same grandparentsc) Siblings with same mother d) Siblings with same parents

220. Pick the odd one out:a) Assault b) Batteryc) Conversion d) False imprisonment

221. Performance of an assigned duty in a criminal manner by an employee makes himliable under:a) Law of torts b) Law of crimesc) No liability d) None of these.

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222. Arrange the following police posts in the order of increasing seniority:A. Inspector General of PoliceB. Director General of PoliceC. Senior Superintendent of PoliceD. Inspector of Policea) DABC b) CBDAc) DCAB d) CADB

223. What is Corporate Governance?a) Governing the corporationsb) Ideology of self-governance of corporations with regulatory framework of the

Governmentc) Appointment of a separate government for corporationsd) None of these.

224. Special Leave to Appeal is instituted in circumstances of:a) Grave miscarriage of justiceb) Procedural inequalityc) Arbitral disposal of appeal by the High Courtd) Sanction for Special Leave by the High Court

225. Pick the odd one out:a) Article 131, Constitution of Indiab) Article 133, Constitution of Indiac) Article 136, Constitution of Indiad) Article 134, Constitution of India

226. Anthropological school of law is attributable to:a) H.R. Maine b) Roscoe Poundc) Bandustan Chatterjee d) Alex Joseph

227. Which of the following is not true about literal rule of interpretation?a) It always ends the ambiguity and absurdity in law.b) It generates certainty in the content of law.c) It is closely related to the school of positivism.d) It is the primary rule of interpretation.

228. What is meant by Res Gestae?a) Things done b) Things plannedc) Things intended d) Things apprehended

229. Which of the following incomes is not exempted under Income Tax Act?a) Agricultural incomeb) Share of profit from the firm

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c) Receipts from life insurance policiesd) Allowances of Judicial Officers

230. Wealth Tax is levied on:a) Income of an individualb) Annual gratuity obtained by an individualc) Assets of an individuald) All of the above

231. What is meant by “judicial legislation”?a) Advice of judges taken before legislative formation.b) Forming of law by judges through decisions.c) Appointment of judges on legislative posts.d) Legislature ratified by judiciary.

232. An arrested person has:a) Right to remain silentb) Right to know reasons for arrestc) Right to be presented before the magistrate without delayd) All of the above.

233. Which of the following is not an ingredient for the offence of theft under Indian PenalCode?a) Dishonest intention b) Without consentc) Possession of owner d) Moveable property

234. Pick the odd one out with respect to U.N. Security Council:a) United Kingdom and Northern Irelandb) Chinac) Italyd) France

235. What is meant by ‘natural law’?a) Law of nature such as gravitation.b) Law of justice, equity and good conscience.c) Law of Gods.d) All of the above.