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1 NO:71A,PRAKASAM SALAI, BROADWAY,CHENNAI-108 www.jupitereducationacademy.com JUPITER EDUCATION ACADEMY MOCK TEST - 7 Questions 1. There is a body having mass and performing SHM with amplitude . There is a restoring force = −, where is the displacement. The total energy of body depends upon (a) , (b) , (c) ,, (d) ,, 2. A hollow sphere is filled with water through a small hole in it. It is then hung by a long thread and made to oscillate. As the water slowly flows out of the hole at the bottom, the period of oscillation will (a) continuously decrease (b) continuously increase (c) first decrease and then increase to original value (d) first increase and then decrease to original value 3. The kinetic energy and the potential energy of a particle executing SHM are equal. The ratio of its displacement and amplitude will be (a) 1 √2 (b) √3 2 (c) 1 2 (d) √2 4. Displacement between maximum potential energy position and maximum kinetic energy position for a particle executing S.H.M. is (a) (b)+ (c) ± (d) ± 4 5. A particle doing simple harmonic motion, amplitude = 4 cm, time period = 12 sec. the ratio between time taken by it in going from its mean position to 2 cm and from 2 cm to extreme position is (a) 1 (b) 1/3 (c) 1/4 (d) ½ 6. The potential energy of a simple harmonic oscillator when the particle is half way to its end point is (where E is the total energy) (a) 1 8 (b) 1 4 (c) 1 2 (d) 2 3 7. The time period of a mass suspended form a spring is T. If the

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1 NO:71A,PRAKASAM SALAI, BROADWAY,CHENNAI-108

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JUPITER EDUCATION ACADEMY

MOCK TEST - 7

Questions

1. There is a body having mass 𝑚 andperforming SHM with amplitude 𝑎. There is a restoring force 𝐹 = −𝐾𝑥, where 𝑥 is the displacement. The total energy of body depends upon

(a) 𝐾, 𝑥

(b) 𝐾, 𝑎

(c) 𝐾, 𝑎, 𝑥

(d) 𝐾, 𝑎, 𝑣

2. A hollow sphere is filled with waterthrough a small hole in it. It is then hung by a long thread and made to oscillate. As the water slowly flows out of the hole at the bottom, the period of oscillation will

(a) continuously decrease

(b) continuously increase

(c) first decrease and then increase to original value

(d) first increase and then decrease to original value

3. The kinetic energy and the potentialenergy of a particle executing SHM are equal. The ratio of its displacement and amplitude will be

(a) 1

√2

(b) √3

2

(c) 1

2

(d) √2

4. Displacement between maximumpotential energy position and maximum kinetic energy position for a particle executing S.H.M. is

(a) −𝑎

(b)+𝑎

(c) ±𝑎

(d) ±𝑎

4

5. A particle doing simple harmonicmotion, amplitude = 4 cm, time period = 12 sec. the ratio between time taken by it in going from its mean position to 2 cm and from 2 cm to extreme position is

(a) 1

(b) 1/3

(c) 1/4

(d) ½

6. The potential energy of a simpleharmonic oscillator when the particle is half way to its end point is (where E is the total energy)

(a) 1

8𝐸

(b) 1

4𝐸

(c) 1

2𝐸

(d) 2

3𝐸

7. The time period of a masssuspended form a spring is T. If the

2 NO:71A 2ND FLOOR SHERYA TOWER ,PRAKASAM SALAI, BROADWAY,CHENNAI-108

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spring is cut into four equal parts and the same mass is suspended from one of the parts, then the new time period will be

(a) T

(b) 𝑇

2

(c) 2T

(d) 𝑇

4

8. In case of a forced vibration, theresonance wave becomes very sharp when the

(a) restoring force is small

(b) applied periodic force is small

(c) quality factor is small

(d) damping force is small

9. Which one of the followingstatements is true for the speed v and the acceleration 𝑎 of a particle executing simple harmonic motion?

(a) When v is maximum, 𝑎 is maximum

(b) Value of 𝑎 is zero, whatever may be the value of v

(c) When v is zero, 𝑎 is zero

(d) When v is maximum, 𝑎 is zero

10. The resultant of two rectangularsimple harmonic motions of the same frequency and unequal amplitudes but differing in phase by 𝜋/2 is

(a) Simple harmonic

(b) Circular

(c) Elliptical

(d) Parabolic

11. A particle executing simple

harmonic motion of amplitude 5 cm has maximum speed of 31.4 cm/s. The frequency of its oscillation is:

(a) 3 Hz

(b) 2 Hz

(c) 4 Hz

(d) 1 Hz

12. The potential energy of a longspring when stretched by 2 cm is U. If the spring is stretched by 8 cm the potential energy stored in it is:

(a) 4 U

(b) 8 U

(c) 16 U

(d) U/4

13. The phase difference between theinstantaneous velocity and acceleration of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is:

(a) 0.5 𝜋

(b) 𝜋

(c) 0.707 𝜋

(d) zero

14. The particle executing simpleharmonic motion has a kinetic energy K0 cos2 𝜔𝑡. The maximum values of the potential energy and the total energy are respectively:

(a) 0 and 2K0

(b) 𝐾0

2 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐾0

(c) 𝐾0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 2𝐾0

(d) 𝐾0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐾0

15. A particle executes simpleharmonic oscillation with an amplitude

3 NO:71A 2ND FLOOR SHERYA TOWER ,PRAKASAM SALAI, BROADWAY,CHENNAI-108

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𝑎. The period of oscillation is T. The minimum time taken by the particle to travel half of the amplitude from the equilibrium position is:

(a) 𝑇

4

(b) 𝑇

8

(c) 𝑇

12

(d) 𝑇

2

16. Two simple harmonic motions ofangular frequency 100 and 1000 rad s-

1 have the same displacement amplitude. The ratio of their maximum acceleration is

(a) 1 : 10

(b) 1 : 102

(c) 1 : 103

(d) 1 : 104

17. Which one of the followingequations of motion represents simple harmonic motion?

(a) Acceleration = −𝑘0𝑥 + 𝑘1𝑥2

(b) Acceleration = −𝑘(𝑥 + 𝑎)

(c) Acceleration = 𝑘(𝑥 + 𝑎)

(d) Acceleration = 𝑘𝑥

18. A block of mass M is attached tothe lower end of a vertical spring. The spring is hung from a ceiling and has force constant value k. The mass is released form rest with the spring initially unstretched. The maximum extension produced in the length of the spring will be

(a) Mg/k

(b) 2Mg/k

(c) 4Mg/k

(d) Mg/2k

19. The damping force on an oscillatoris directly proportional to the velocity. The units of the constant of proportionality are

(a) kgs

(b) kgms-1

(c) kgms-2

(d) kgs-1

20. A particle is executing a simpleharmonic motion. It maximum acceleration is 𝛼 and maximum velocity is 𝛽. Then, its time period of vibration will be:

(a) 2𝜋𝛽

𝛼

(b) 𝛽2

𝛼2

(c) 𝛼

𝛽

(d) 𝛽2

𝛼

21. How many ATP molecules areproduced by aerobic oxidation of one molecule of glucose?

(a) 2

(b) 4

(c) 38

(d) 34

22. In which one of the following do thetwo names refer to one and the same thing:

(a) Krebs cycle and Calvin cycle

(b) Tricarboxylic acid cycle and citric acid cycle

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(c) Citric acid cycle and Calvin cycle

(d) Tricarboxylic acid cycle and urea cycle

23. During anaerobic digestion of organic waste, such as in producing biogas, which one of the following is left undergraded:

(a) Lipids

(b) Lignin

(c) Hemi-cellulose

(d) Cellulose

24. In alcohol fermentation:

(a) Triose phosphate is the electron donor while acetaldehyde is the electron acceptor

(b) Triose phosphate is the electron donor while pyruvic acid is the electron acceptor

(c) There is no electron donor

(d) Oxygen is the electron acceptor

25. In glycolysis, during oxidation electrons are removed by:

(a) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate

(b) NAD+

(c) Molecular oxygen

(d) ATP

26. During which stage in the complete oxidation of glucose are the greatest number of ATP molecules formed from ADP.

(a) Glycolysis

(b) Krebs cycle

(c) Electron transport chain

(d) Conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl

CoA

27. Chemiosmotic theory of ATP synthesis in the chloroplasts and mitochondria is based on:

(a) Membrane potential

(b) Accumulation of K ions

(c) Proton gradient

(d) Accumulation of Na ions

28. The bacterium (Clostridium botulinum) that causes botulism is:

(a) A facultative anaerobe

(b) An obligate anaerobe

(c) A facultative aerobe

(d) An obligate aerobe

29. The overall goal of glycolysis, Krebs cycle and the electron transport system is the formation of:

(a) Nucleic acids

(b) ATP in small stepwise units

(c) ATP in one large oxidation reaction

(d) Sugars

30. In germinating seeds fatty acids are degraded exclusively in the:

(a) peroxisomes

(b) mitochondria

(c) proplastids

(d) glyoxysomes

31. The energy-releasing process in which the sub-strate is oxidized without an external electron acceptor is called:

(a) aerobic respiration

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(b) glycolysis

(c) fermentation

(d) photorespiration

32. Aerobic respiratory pathway is appropriately termed:

(a) Anabolic

(b) Catabolic

(c) Parabolic

(d) Amphibolic

33. The energy-releasing metabolic process in which substrate is oxidized without an external electron acceptor is called:

(a) Glycolysis

(b) Fermentation

(c) Aerobic respiration

(d) Photorespiration

34. Which of the metabolites is common to respiration mediated breakdown of fats, carbohydrates and proteins?

(a) Glucose-6-phosphate

(b) Fructose 1, 6-bisphosphate

(c) Pyruvic acid

(d) Acetyl CoA

35. In which one of the following processes CO2 is not released?

(a) Aerobic respiration in plants

(b) Aerobic respiration in animals

(c) Alcoholic fermentation

(d) Lactate fermentation

36. Chromatophores take part in:

(a) Respiration

(b) Photosynthesis

(c) Growth

(d) Movement

37. Proteinaceous pigment which control the activities concerned with light:

(a) Phytochrome

(b) Chlorophyll

(c) Anthocyanin

(d) Carotenoids

38. Glycolate induces opening of stomata in:

(a) Presence of oxygen

(b) Low CO2 conc.

(c) High CO2

(d) CO2 absent

39. Which plant is LDP?

(a) Tobacco

(b) Glycine max

(c) Mirabilis jalapa

(d) Spinach

40. Which of the following prevents the fall of fruits?

(a) GA3

(b) NAA

(c) Ethylene

(d) Zeatin

41. Hormone responsible for senescence:

(a) ABA

6 NO:71A 2ND FLOOR SHERYA TOWER ,PRAKASAM SALAI, BROADWAY,CHENNAI-108

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(b) Auxin

(c) GA

(d) Cytokinin

42. Which breaks dormancy of potato tuber?

(a) Gibberellin

(b) IAA

(c) ABA

(d) Zeatin

43. Seed dormancy is due to the:

(a) Ethylene

(b) Abscisic acid

(c) IAA

(d) Starch

44. Plants deficient of element zinc show its effect on the biosynthesis of plant growth hormone:

(a) Auxin

(b) Cytokinin

(c) Ethylene

(d) Abscissic acid

45. Cell elongation in intermodal regions of the green plants takes place due to:

(a) Cytokinins

(b) Gibberellins

(c) Ethylene

(d) Indole acetic acid

46. One set of a plant was grown at 12 hours day and 12 hours night period cycles and it flowered while in the other set night phase was interrupted

by flash of light and it did not produce flower. Under which one of the following categories will you place this plant?

(a) Darkness neutral

(b) Day neutral

(c) Short day

(d) Long day

47. Anthesis is a phenomenon which refers to:

(a) Formation of pollen

(b) Development of anther

(c) Opening of flower bud

(d) Reception of pollen by stigma

48. How does pruning help in making the hedge dense?

(a) It induces the differentiation of new shoots from the rootstock

(b) It frees axillary buds from apical dominance

(c) The apical shoot grows faster after pruning

(d) It released wound hormones

49. Treatment of seed at low temperature under moist conditions to break its dormancy is called:

(a) Sclarification

(b) Vernalization

(c) Chelation

(d) Stratification

50. An enzyme that can stimulate germination of barley seeds is:

(a) 𝛼-amylase

(b) Lipase

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(c) Protease

(d) Invertase

51. “Foolish Seeding” disease of rice led to the discovery of:

(a) IAA

(b) GA

(c) ABA

(d) 2, 4-D

52. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) IAA – Cell wall elongation

(b) Abscisic acid – Stomatal closure

(c) Gibberellic acid – Leaf fall

(d) Cytokinin – Cell division

53. Opening of floral buds into flowers is a type of:

(a) Autonomic movement of growth

(b) Autonomic movement of locomotion

(c) Autonomic movement of variation

(d) Paratonic movement of growth

54. Senescence as an active development cellular process in the growth and functioning of a flowering plant is indicated in:

(a) Annual plants

(b) Floral parts

(c) Vessels and tracheid differentiation

(d) Leaf abscission

55. Which one of the following acids is a derivative of carotenoids?

(a) Abscisic acid

(b) Indole butyric acid

(c) Indole-3-acetic acid

(d) Gibberellic acid

56. One of the synthetic auxin is:

(a) IBA

(b) NAA

(c) IAA

(d) GA

57. Phototropic curvature is the result of uneven distribution of:

(a) Gibberellin

(b) Phytochrome

(c) Cytokinins

(d) Auxin

58. During seed germination its stored food is mobilized by:

(a) Ethylene

(b) Cytokinin

(c) ABA

(d) Gibberellin

59. Which one of the following is not used for exsitu plant conservation?

(a) Field gene banks

(b) Seed banks

(c) Shifting cultivation

(d) Botanical Gardens

60. Non-albuminous seed is produced in:

(a) Maize

(b) Castor

(c) Wheat

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(d) Pea

61. A few normal seedling of tomato were kept in a dark room. After few days they were found to have become white-coloured like albinos. Which of the following terms will you use to describe them?

(a) Mutated

(b) Embolised

(c) Etiolated

(d) Defoliated

62. Dr F. Went noted that if coleoptiles tips were removed and placed on agar for one hour, the agar would produce a bending when placed on one side of freshly cut coleoptiles stumps. Of what significance is this experiment?

(a) It made possible the isolation and exact identification of auxin.

(b) It is the basis for quantitative determination of small amounts of growth-promoting substances.

(c) It supports the hypothesis that IAA is auxin.

(d) It demonstrated polar movements of auxins

63. What causes a green plant exposed to the light on only one side to bend toward the source of light as it grows?

(a) Auxin accumulates on the shaded side, stimulating greater cell elongation there.

(b) Green plants need light to perform photosynthesis.

(c) Green plants seek light because they are phototropic.

(d) Light stimulates plant cells on the lighted side to grow faster.

64. Typical growth curve in plants is:

(a) Parabolic

(b) Sigmoid

(c) Linear

(d) Stair-steps shaped

65. Auxin can be bioassayed by:

(a) Lettuce hypocotyls elongation

(b) Avena coleoptiles curvature

(c) Hydroponics

(d) Potometer

66. Reaction BaO2(s) ⇌ BaO(s) + O2(g); ∆𝐻 = +𝑣𝑒.

In equilibrium condition, pressure of O2 depends on

(a) increased mass of BaO2

(b) increased mass of BaO

(c) increased temperature of equilibrium

(d) increased mass of BaO2 and BaO

both

67. For the reaction,

CH4(g) + 2O2(g) ⇌ CO2(g) + 2H2O (𝑙),

∆𝑟𝐻 = −170.8 𝑘𝐽 mol-1

Which of the following statements is not true?

(a) Addition of CH4(g) or O2(g) at equilibrium will cause a shift to the right

(b) The reaction is exothermic

(c) At equilibrium, the concentrations of CO2(g) and H2O(𝑙) are not equal

(d) the equilibrium constant for the reaction

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is given by: Kp = [𝐶𝑂2]

[𝐶𝐻4][𝑂2]

68. The following equilibrium constants are given

N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3; K1

N2 + O2 ⇌ 2NO; K2

H2 + 1

2 O2 ⇌ H2O; K3

The equilibrium constant of the reaction

2NH3 +5

2 O2 ⇌ 2NO + 3H2O in terms

of K1, K2 and K3 is

(a) K = 𝐾2×𝐾3

2

𝐾1

(b) K = 𝐾2

2× 𝐾3

𝐾1

(c) K = 𝐾1× 𝐾2

𝐾3

(d) K = 𝐾2×𝐾3

3

𝐾1

69. Given the reaction between 2 gases represented by A2 and B2 to given the compound AB(g).

A2(g) + B2(g) ⇌ 2AB(g)

At equilibrium, the concentration

of A2 = 3.0 × 10-3 M

of B2 = 4.2 × 10-3 M

of AB = 2.8× 10-3 M

If the reaction takes place in a sealed vessel at 527˚C, then the value of Kc will be

(a) 2.0

(b) 1.9

(c) 0.62

(d) 4.5

70. For the reversible reaction,

N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g) + heat

The equilibrium shifts in forward direction

(a) By increasing the concentration of NH3(g)

(b) By decreasing the pressure

(c) By decreasing concentration of N2(g) and H2(g)

71. Which of the following statements is correct for a reversible process in a state of equilibrium?

(a) ∆𝐺° = −2.30 𝑅𝑇 log 𝐾

(b) ∆𝐺° = 2.30 𝑅𝑇 log 𝐾

(c) ∆𝐺 = −2.30 𝑅𝑇 log 𝐾

(d) ∆𝐺 = 2.30 𝑅𝑇 log 𝐾

72. If the value of equilibrium constant for a particular reaction is 1.6 x 1012, then at equilibrium the system will contain

(a) mostly products

(b) similar amounts of reactants and products

(c) all reactants

(d) mostly reactants

73. NH3 gas dissolves in water to give NH4OH. In this reaction, water acts as

(a) an acid

(b) a base

(c) a salt

(d) a conjugate base

74. Solubility of M2S type salt is 3.5 x 10-6, then find out its solubility product

(a) 1.7 x 10-6

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(b) 1.7 x 10-16

(c) 1.7 x 10-18

(d) 1.7 x 10-12

75. The solubility product of a sparingly soluble salt AX2 is 3.2 x 10-

11. Its solubility (in mol/L) is

(a) 5.6 x 10-6

(b) 3.1 x 10-4

(c) 2 x 10-4

(d) 4 x 10-4

76. Which of the following pairs constitutes buffer?

(a) HNO3 and NH4NO3

(b) HCl and KCl

(c) HNO2 and NaNO2

(d) NaOH and NaCl

77. Calculate the pOH of solution at 25℃ that contains 1 x 10-10 M of hydronium ions, i.e., H3O+

(a) 4

(b) 9

(c) 1

(d) 7

78. Equimolar solutions of the following were prepared in water separately. Which one of the solutions will record the highest pH?

(a) BaCl2

(b) MgCl2

(c) CaCl2

(d) SrCl2

79. The values of 𝐾𝑝1and 𝐾𝑝2

for the

reactions

X ⇌ Y+Z (i)

and A ⇌ 2B (ii)

are in the ratio of 9 : 1. If the degree of dissociation of X and A be equal, then total pressure at equilibrium (i) and (ii) are in the ratio

(a) 3 : 1

(b) 1 : 9

(c) 36 : 1

(d) 1 : 1

80. Which of the following molecules acts as a Lewis acid?

(a) (CH3)3 N

(b) (CH3)3 B

(c) (CH3)2 O

(d) (CH3)3 P

81. Which one of the molecular hydride acts as Lewis acid?

(a) NH3

(b) H2O

(c) B2H6

(d) CH4

82. Which of the following describes correct sequence for decreasing Lewis acid nature?

(a) BCl3 > BF3 > BBr3

(b) BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3

(c) BBr3 > BF3 > BCl3

(d) BF3 > BCl3 >BBr3

83. Which of the following is least likely to behave as Lewis acid?

(a) OH-

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(b) H2O

(c) NH3

(d) BF3

84. Buffer solutions have constant acidity and alkalinity because

(a) they have large excess of H+ or OH- ions

(b) they have fixed value of pH

(c) these give unionized acid or base on reaction with added acid or alkali

(d) acids and alkalies in these solutions are shielded from attack by other ions

85. Equimolar solutions of the following substances were prepared separately. Which one of these will record the highest pH value?

(a) LiCl

(b) BeCl2

(c) BaCl2

(d) AlCl3

86. Which of the strongest acid in the following?

(a) HClO3

(b) HClO4

(c) H2SO3

(d) H2SO4

87. Identify the correct order of solubility in aqueous medium

(a) ZnS > Na2S > CuS

(b) Na2S > > CuS > ZnS

(c) Na2S > ZnS > CuS

(d) CuS > ZnS > Na2S

88. Which of these is least likely to act as Lewis base?

(a) F-

(b) BF3

(c) PF3

(d) CO

89. Which of the following salts will give highest pH in water?

(a) KCl

(b) NaCl

(c) Na2CO3

(d) CuSO4

90. Which one of the following pairs of solution is not an acidic buffer?

(a) H2CO3 and Na2CO3

(b) H2PO4 and Na3PO4

(c) HClO4 and NaClO4

(d) CH3COOH and CH3COONa