It Officer Complete Model Paper

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Time Allowed: 120 Minutes MODEL PAPER IBPS IT OFFICER Total Marks: 200

Part - (I): REASONING APTITUDE (50 Question) (50 Marks)

Part – (II): QUANTITIATI VE APTITUDE (50 Question) (50 Marks)

Part – (III): ENGLISH LANGUAGE (50 Question) (25 Marks)

Part – (IV): PROFESSIONAL KNOWLEDGE (50 Question) (75 Marks)

REASONING APTITUDE

Directions-(1-5) Study the following information to answer the given questions In a certain code 'best way to win' is written as 'ad mi ja no', ' the way to hell' is written as 'ku ja ig ad'. 'win of the day' is written as 'be ku zo mi' and 'to sell of night' is written as 'be Ii ya ja' 1. What is the code for 'sell'?

(1) be (2) Ii (3) ya (4) ja (5) Cannot be determined

2. Which of the following may represent 'hell is way'? (1) ig ad no (2) ig py ya (3) re ad be (4) ig li re (5) ad re ig

3. ‘mi’ is the code for (1) to (2) win (3) way (4) of (5) Cannot be determined

4. What is the code for' best'? (1) ad (2) mi (3) no (4) ja (5) Cannot be determined

5. Which of the following represents 'of the way'? (1) ku be ad (2) rni be no (3) ku be ya (4) mi ku be (5) be mi ad

Directions (6–10): Read the following passage carefully and answers the questions given below it— Nine persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W and X are sitting around a circular table facing the centre .V is fourth to the left of U who is second to the right of T. W is fourth to the right of T and is second to the left of S. R is fourth to the right of S. P is not an immediate neighbour of either S or V. Q is third to the right of X. 6. Who is fourth to the right of P?

(1)V (2)S (3)Q (4)X (5) None of these

7. Which of the following is not sitting immediate to each other? (1) UP (2)TQ (3)XS (4)QW (5)None of these

8. How many person are sitting between P and U? (1)None (2)One (3)Two (4)Three (5)Four

9. Who is sitting fourth to the left of R ? (1)V (2)S (3)P (4)T (5)None of these

10. Who is sitting between T and V? (1)R (2)W (3)Q


(4)T (5)None of these Directions (11-15): In each of the following questions two statements are given and these statements are followed by

two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at

variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically

follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer:

(1) If only I follows (2) If sonly II follows

(3) If either I or II follows (4) If neither I nor II follows

(5) If both I and II follow.

11. Statements: All cable are plug. Some plug are Switch.

All Switch are empty.

Conclusions: I. Some cable are empty.

II. No cable is empty.

12. Statements: All Chairs are phones.

Some phones are machines. All tablets are machines.

All machines are Wire

Conclusions: I. All those phones which are machines are also wire.

II. Some wire are not chairs.

13. Statements: : Some bag are glass. All glass are water.

No water is Door.

Conclusions: I. All glass being bag is a possibility.

II. At least some water are bag.

14. Statements: All books are slate. All slate are papers.

All papers are ink.

Conclusion: I. All ink are books. II. All papers are slate.

15. Statements: All man are boy. No boy is girl.

All girl are women .

Conclusions: I. Some women are man.

II. Some women are not man.

Directions—(Q. 16–20) In the following questions, the symbols @, $, %, # and © are used with the following meanings illustrated— ‘A @ B’ means ‘A is not smaller than B’. ‘A $ B’ means ‘A is not greater than B’. ‘A % B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor equal to B’. ‘A # B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor equal to B’. ‘A © B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor greater than B’. In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true. Give answer— 1] If only conclusion I is true. 2] If only conclusion II is true. 3] If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true. 4] If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true. 5] If both conclusions I and II are true. 16. Statements: A @ B, B # C, C $ D

Conclusions: I. D % A II. C % A 17. Statements: M $ N, N @ P, P % Q

Conclusions: I. P © M II. Q # N 18. Statements: E % F, F # G, G @ H

Conclusions: I. H # F II. E % G 19. Statements: J © K, K $ L, L % M


Conclusions: I. L © J II. L % J 20. Statements: W # X, X % Y, Y © Z

Conclusions: I. Z # X II. Y # W Directions (21–25): Read the following passage carefully and answers the questions given below it— Eight friends J, K, L, M, N, P, R and S like different movies – A , B, C, D, E, F, G and H. All of them are seated around a square table (two on each side) facing the centre. L sits third to the right of K. K likes C. R is sitting second to the left of P. P is not an immediate neighbour of L or K. The one who likes A in an immediate neighbour of P. Three people sit between K and the person who likes F. K, L and also their immediate neighbour do not like D. Only one person sits between the person who likes D and M. The persons who like E and H are immediate neighbour of each other. L likes neither H nor E. Only one person sits between J and the person who likes B. J does not like D or E. N does not like D. 21. Which of the following is true regarding R?

(1) R Like the B (2) S and M are immediate neighbours of R (3) One person sits between R and the person who likes H (4) R sits second to the right of J (5) None of these

22. Who amongst the following likes movie E ? (1) L (2) R (3) M (4) N (5) Cannot be determined

23. How many person sit between S and the person who likes H, when counted from the left hand side of the person who likes H? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) Four

24. Which of the following is true? (1) Only one person is sitting between the person who likes H and G brand. (2) S likes D brand. (3) The person who likes E is an immediate neighbour of K. (4) One person sits between K and the person who likes D brand . (5) None is true

25. Who amongst the following represent immediate neighbour of M? (1) J, N (2) P and the person who likes D (3) K and the person who likes G (4) P, R (5)J, S

DIRECTIONS (26-30): Each of the question below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II, III given below it . You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. (1)If statements I is sufficient to answer the question, but statement II by itself is not sufficient to answer the question. (2)If statement II by itself is sufficient to answer the question, but statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question. (3)If statement either I or II is sufficient to answer the question. (4)If both the statements I and II taken together are not sufficient to answer the question. (5)If both the statements I and II taken together are sufficient to answer the question. 26. Who is tallest among five friends A, B, C, D and E?

I. D is taller than at least two of his friends II. E is taller than A who is taller than D.

27. How is A related to B? I. A is B’s grandfather’s only daughter. II. B’s mother D is the daughter of C.

28. How is ‘R’ written in a code language? I. “Work” is written as “2341” and “ward” is written as “1375” in that language.


II. “Door” is written as “7993” and “Don” is coded as 978. 29. What will be the day on 9th December of current year?

I. 9th March of current year is Monday II. 9th February of current year is Monday

30. P and Q are father and mother of M, respectively. M has three uncles and five aunts. P has three siblings. The siblings of P and Q are unmarried. How many brothers does Q have? I. P has two brothers. II. Q has five siblings.

Directions (31-35): Study the following information to answer the given questions: A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. Input: 83 known 95 more dash 79 cash 63 has 71 88 work Step I : 63 83 known more dash 79 cash has 71 88 work 95 Step II: 63 71 83 known more dash 79 cash has work 88 95 Step III: 63 71 79 known more dash cash has work 83 88 95 Step IV: 63 71 79 cash known more dash has work 83 88 95 Step V: 63 71 79 cash dash known more has work 83 88 95 Step VI 63 71 79 cash dash has known more work 83 88 95 Step VI: is the last step of the rearrangement. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of following questions the appropriate steps for the given input. Input for the questions: Input: 64 jack queen 42 ear 84 lost 52 dear 76 gone 48 31. How many steps would be needed to complete the arrangement?

(1) X (2) VIII (3) IX (4) VII (5) None of these

32. Which Step number would be the following output? 42 48 52 dear ear jack queen lost gone 64 76 84 (1) II (2) VI (3) V (4) IV (5) None of these

33. Which of the following would be the Step I? (1) 42 48 52 jack queen ear lost dear gone 64 76 84 (2) 84 64 jack queen ear lost 52 dear 76 gone 48 42 (3) 42 64dear ear jack queen lost 52 76 gone 48 84 (4) 42 64 jack queen ear lost 52 dear 76 gone 48 84 (5) None of the above

34. Which of the following would be the final arrangement? (1) 64 76 84 dear ear gone jack lost queen 42 48 52 (2) 42 48 52 dear ear gone jack lost queen 64 76 84 (3) 42 48 52 64 76 84 dear ear gone jack lost queen (4) 42 48 52 dear lost ear gone jack queen 64 76 84 (5) None of the above

35. In Step IV, which of the following word/number would be on 7th position (from the right)? (1) queen (2) ear (3) 64 (4) gone (5) None of the above

36. During pre-harvest kharif seasons, the government has decided to release vast quantity of food grains from FCI. Which of the following assumptions are implicit in the above statement. (1) There may be a shortage of food grains in the market during this season. (2) The kharif crop may be able to replenish the stock of FCI. (3) There may be a demand from the farmers to procure kharif crop immediately after harvest. (4) Both I and II are implicit (5) All are implicit

37. An increasing number of farmers prefer to avail loans from local moneylenders instead of the banks owing to complicated paperwork involved in banks. Which of the following actions should be taken by the government?


(1) Local moneylenders who charge interest rates lower than the banks should be punished. (2) Banks should simplify the procedure to avail loans so as to suit the farmers. (3) The amount of loan should be increased for the farmers. (4) Both (1) and (2) (5) Both (2) and (3)

Directions-(38-39) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow- In a recent study of responses to visual images, researchers found that women most frequently gave the rating ‘most attractive’ to images of male faces that were more feminine in contour, and rated more masculine faces, on average, ‘less attractive’. The researchers concluded that modern women prefer men who are less obviously masculine in their facial features. 38. The conclusion would be most severely weakened if which of the following were true?

(1) Facial features are not the criterion that most women use to decide whether a man is attractive. (2) The visual images were computer generated composites of photographs and not pictures of actual men. (3) The rating scale was a ten point scale with most attractive scoring 1-2 and least attractive scoring 8-10. (4) Most popular male actors have the features that the study allocated to the more masculine category. (5) The faces with the more masculine features were all significantly older than those with the feminine features.

39. Which is the following is an assumption that the researchers apparently made in this study? (1) The women who participated in the study were sufficiently representative of modern women in general.

(2) Male faces are, in general, attractive to women.

(3) Visual images are important to women.

(4) It is impossible to predict what features an ideal face would have.

(5) Women in previous ages would have preferred more masculine men.

40. The city govt. has proposed establishing tollbooths on all the major routes into the city. The govt’s reasoning is that this fee will force many commuters to switch from private automobile to the public transportation system. Which of the following strengthens the views expressed in the above statement? 1] Most of the citizen’s support the new plan. 2] Several other cities have attempted to implement the scheme in past, with mixed results. 3] The price of petrol is expected to increase in coming months. 4] A new study suggests that many commuters with car would switch to public transport if the driving in the city becomes any more expensive. 5] None of these

Directions (41-45): Read the following passage carefully and answers the questions given below it—

(i) There is a family of six members A, B, C, D, E & F.

(ii) There are two married couples in the family and the family members represent three generations.

(iii) Each member has a distinct choice of colour amongst Green, Yellow, Black , Red, White & Pink.

(iv). No lady members like either green or White.

(v) C, who likes Black Colour, is the daughter in law of E

(vi) B is the brother of F and Son of D and likes Pink.

(vii) A is the grandmother of F and F does not like Red.

(viii) The husband has a choice for green colour, his wife likes Yellow.

41. Which of the following is true about F?

(1) Brother of B

(2) Sister of B

(3) Either sister or Brother of B

(4) Daughter of C

(5) None of the above

42. Which of the following is one of the married couples?

(1) CD (2) DA

(3) AC (4) Cannot Determined



43. How many male members are there in the family?

(1) Two (2) Three

(3) Four (4) Cannot Determined


44. Which of the following is the colour combination of one of the couples?

(1) Yellow-Red

(2) Green – Black

(3) Red – Yellow

(4) Yellow – Green

(5) None of these

45. Which of the following is the colour preference of A?

(1) Red

(2) Yellow

(3) Either Yellow or Red

(4) Cannot Determined


Directions (46-50): Study the following arrangement of combinations for English letters, numerals and symbols

carefully and answer the questions given below it:

8 C M @ N & T 2 Y 6 S & Q $ 7 * W Z 3 U E % A 4

46. If each symbol is first converted into a numeral and then all the numerals are converted into English letters, how

many such converted English letters will be there in the above arrangement of element?

(1) 25 (2) 7

(3) 12 (4) 13

(5) None of these

47. How many such symbols are there in the above series each of which is immediately preceded and also immediately

followed by vowel?

(1) One (2) Two

(3) Three (4) Nil

(5) None of these

48. What should come in place of the questions mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement?

CMA N&E 2Y3 (?) $7*

(1) S6& (2) S&Z

(3) S&# (4) &Q#

(5) None of these

49. If all the vowels are dropped from the above series, which of the following would be the 8th element to the right of the

13th element from the left end?

(1) 4 (2) %

(3) 8 (4) C

(5) None of these

50. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way with respect to their position in the above arrangement. Which is

one that is different from the other four?

(1) E3# (2) Q7W

(3) &62 (4) TMN

(5) YTS


QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

Directions (51-55): What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following questions? 51. 3.6 +36.6+3.66+0.36 +3.0 = ?

(1) 44.22 (2) 77.22 (3) 74.22 (4) 47.22 (5) None of these

52. 43% of 600+?% of 300=399 (1) 45 (2) 41 (3) 42 (4) 47 (5) None of these

53. 4 3 3

1 3 ? 45 5 10

(1) 7

910

(2) 7

710

(3) 3

910

(4) 3

910

(5) None of these

54. (256)9.4 × 412.8 × (64)8.1 = 4?

(1) 41.8 (2) 66.2 (3) 74.7 (4) 25.6 (5) None of these

55. 2(15.20) 103.04 ? 8

(1) 12 (2) 6.5

(3) 8.2 (4) 16

(5) None of these

Directions (56–60): What approximate value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions ?

(Note : You are not expected to calculate the exact value.) 56. 29·89 × 4·007 × 7·091 = ?

(1) 850 (2) 930 (3) 420 (4) 200 (5) 75

57. 12540 2400 ?

(1) 2465 (2) 5766 (3) 3216 (4) 4625 (5) 3969

58. 24.001 × 19.999 × 7.998 = ?

(1) 2349 (2) 2754

(3) 3643 (4) 3840

(5) None of these

59. 5556.999 ÷ 51.007 = ?

(1) 109 (2) 111

(3) 125 (4) 157

(5) None of these

60. 465.84 764.86 211.99 ?

(1) 1100 (2) 1080


(3) 1000 (4) 1020

(5) 1060

Directions (61–65): What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following number series? 61. 13, 16, 14, 17, 15, 18, (?)

(1) 16 (2) 15 (3) 14 (4) 21 (5) None of these

62. 10, 14, 26, 50, 90, (?) (1) 100 (2) 125 (3) 150 (4) 155 (5) None of these

63. 2, 8, 20, 44, 92, (?) (1)189 (2)188 (3) 288 (4) 818 (5) None of these

64. 15, 21, 33, 51, 75, (?) (1) 103 (2) 102 (3) 105 (4) 95 (5) None of these

65. 1108, 1117, 1142, 1191, ?, 1393

(1) 1312 (2) 1300

(3) 1272 (4) 1204 (5) None of these

66. During a special sale, the shop assistant was supposed to reduce the marked price of each article by 15%. For a particular

item, he made a mistake and increased the marked price by 15%. Consequently for that item, the customer had to pay

Rs.540 more than what he would have paid if the price was correctly reduced by 15%. What was the price paid by the

customer?

(1) 1800 (2) 2070

(3) 2340 (4) 2000

(5) None of these

67. A milkman adulterates milk by adding water. One day he mixed an amount of water equal to 20% of the milk content. He

was not happy with the outcome and added some water and increased the volume by 10%. If pure milk costs him Rs.20

per litre, then what is the profit percentage he now makes if he sells the final milk solution at Rs 22 per litre?

(1) 10% (2) 21%

(3) 37.5% (4) 45.2%

(5) None of these

68. Mohit travelled 20% of the time walking at a speed of 10 km/hr, 50% of the time in a bus at 40 km/hr and rest of the

journey in a cab at 50 km/hr. What is the average speed of Mohit over the entire journey?

(1) 37 km/hr (2) 25.97 km/hr

(3) 42 km/hr (4) 40 km/hr

(5) None of these

69. A bank lent Rs. 4,000 to Manoj at a certain rate of simple interest and Rs. 5,000 to Aditi at simple interest at a rate which

is 0.5 percentage points more than that of Manoj. After two years, the bank received Rs. 860 as interest from both of them

combined. Find the rate of interest per annum at which the amount was lent to Aditi ?

(1) 4.5% (2) 4%

(3) 5.5% (4) 5%

(5) 8%

70. 10 year ago Ram was 5 times as old as Shyam but 20 yr later from now he will be only twice as old as Shyam. How many

years old is Shyam?

(1) 20 yr (2) 30 yr


(3) 40 yr (4) 50 yr

(5) None of these

71. Seema brought some chocolates. She distributed 25% of the chocolates among the students of the first standard and 20%

of the remaining chocolates among the students of the second standard. If she still had 240 chocolates, how many did she

have initially?

(1) 436 (2) 350

(3) 400 (4) 410

(5) None of these

72. Rajat used to buy wheat at Rs. 10 per kg and sell it at a 20% profit, But, in this month , Rajat had to buy the wheat at Rs.11

per kg and sell it at the original selling price. Find the new profit percentage.

(1) 10% (2) 15%

(3) 8% (4) 9.09%

(5) None of these

73. Three fourth of a number is equal to 60% of another number and the difference between the two numbers is 20. what is the sum of the two numbers ? (1) 180 (2) 220 (3) 170 (4) cannot be determined (5) None of these

74. The ratio between the three angles of a quadrilateral is 1:4 : 5 respectively. The value of the fourth angle of the quadrilateral is 60°. What is the difference between the value of the largest and the smallest angles of the quadrilateral? (1) 120° (2) 90° (3) 110° (4) 100° (5)None of these

75. Sanjay purchased a bike for Rs. 65,000. He sold it at a loss of 6 per cent. With that money he again purchased another bike and sold it at a profit of 10 per cent. What is his overall loss/profit? (1) Loss of Rs. 1830 (2)Profit of Rs.2210 (3) Loss of Rs. 1830 (4) Loss of Rs. 2210 (5) None of these

76. Two tap A and B can fill a tank in 5 hours and 20 hours respectively. If both the taps are opened then due to a leakage it

took 30 min more to fill the tank. If the tank is full how long will it take for the leakage alone to empty the tank?

(1) 1

42

hrs (2) 9 hrs

(3) 18 hrs (4) 36 hrs

(5) None of these

77. In an examination P scored 25 marks less than Q. Q scored 45 more marks than R. T scored 75 marks which is 10 more than R. U's score is 80 less than maximum marks of the test. What approximate percentage of marks did U score in the examination if he gets 35 marks more than P? (1) 90 (2) 70 (3) 80 (4) 60 (5) 85

78. A cistern can be filled with water by a pipe in 5 hours and it can be emptied by a second pipe in 4 hours. If both the pipes

are opened when the cistern is full, the time in which it will be emptied is:

(1) 9 hrs. (2) 18 hrs

(3) 20 hrs (4) 1

202

hrs

(5) None of these

79. An order was placed for supply of carpet of breadth 3 meters, and the length of the carpet was 1.44 times of the breadth. Subsequently the breadth and the length were increased by 25 and 40 per cent respectively. At the rate of Rs 45per square metre, what would be the increase in the cost of the carpet?


(1) Rs 1020.60 (2) Rs 398.80 (3) Rs 437.40 (4) Rs 583.20 (5) None of these

80. In a mixture of milk and water the proportion of water by weight was 75%. If in 60gm of mixture 15gm water was added, what would be the percentage of water? (weight in gm) (1) 75% (2) 88% (3) 90% (4) 100% (5) None of these

Direction (81-85): Study the given graphs to answer the questions.

Production of wheat in different countries

Total Production=50 lakh Tonnes

Production: Scientific Vs Conventional Methods in Percentage

81. What is the difference between the production by scientific method and conventional method in Indonesia?

(1) 2.3 lakh tonnes (2) 2.8 lakh tones

(3) 2.5 lakh tonnes (4) 3 lakh tones

(5) None of these

82. What is the average production of wheat by scientific method for all the countries?



(5) None of these

83. What is the ratio of production by conventional method in Pakistan to that by scientific method in Japan?

(1) 9

40 (2)

99

260

7078

32

60

7366

2030

22

68

40

2734

80

0102030405060708090

Scientific method Conventional method


(3) 51

260 (4)

48

77

(5) None of these

84. The production of wheat in Sri Lanka by Conventional method is approximately how many times the production in India

by scientific method?

(1) 1.2 (2) 1.5

(3) 0.9 (4) 2.1

(5) None of these

85. The production of wheat in India by Scientific method is approximately how many times the production in Pakistan by

Conventional method?

(1) 2.88 (2) 2.07

(3) 2.61 (4) 0.81

(5) None of these

Directions (86–90): Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions that follow: Number of candidates Appeared in the examination and percentage of students passed from various colleges

Year

Colleges

P Q R S T U

App %pass App %pass App %pass App %pass App %pass App %pass

2005 900 60 1080 40 600 65 1280 50 1200 45 1360 60

2006 1040 50 860 70 700 60 1240 40 1160 70 1120 70

2007 860 60 980 70 760 50 1160 50 1360 70 1400 66

2008 800 65 1200 75 900 70 1200 75 1440 60 1560 70

2009 960 50 1140 50 800 75 1400 65 1400 48 1120 50

2010 1100 40 900 60 1000 68 1500 60 900 50 1300 60

2011 1000 58 940 60 940 60 1440 70 1120 60 1440 50

86. What is the ratio between the number of students passed from institute U in 2007 and the number of students passed

from institute Q in 2005 respectively? (1) 95: 154 (2) 154: 95 (3) 36: 77 (4) 77: 36 (5) None of these 87. What is the ratio between the average number of students appeared from institute P for all the years and that from

institute S respectively? (1) 463: 353 (2) 353: 463 (3) 461: 333 (4) 333 : 461 (5) None of these 88. What is the total number of students passed from all institutes together in year 2010?


(1) 3790 (2) 3970 (3) 2590 (4) 2930 (5) None of these 89. What is the overall percentage of students passed from all institutes together in 2008? (rounded off to nearest integer) (1) 68 (2) 70 (3) 69 (4) 71 (5) None of these 90. Approximately, what is the overall percentage of students passed from institute R for all the years? (1) 60 (2) 70 (3) 75 (4) 55 (5) 65 Directions (91-95): Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions that follow: Number of Girls and Boys participating in a rally from five different schools

91. What is the total number of girls participating in the rally from schools A and C together?

(1) 825 (2) 875 (3)950 (4)975 (5) None of these

92. The number of boys participating in the rally from school B is what percent of the total number of children participating in the rally from that school? (Rounded off to two digits after decimal. (1)48.84 (2) 47.37 (3) 49.28 (4) 46.46 (5) None of these

93. The number of girls participating in the rally from School E is approximately what percent of the number of boys participating in the rally from the same school? (1) 81 (2) 106 (3)122 (4) 98 (5) 114

94. What is the respective ratio of total number of girls participating in the rally from schools D and C together to the total number of boys participating in the rally from schools A and B together? (1) 23 : 18 (2) 43 : 35 (3) 41 : 38 (4) 21 : 20 (5) None of these

95. What is the average number of girls participating in the rally from all schools together? (1) 500 (2) 460 (3) 525 (4) 505 (5) None of these

400

450

500

550

600

A B C D E

Girls Boys


Directions (96-100): Study the pie-chart carefully to answer the following questions. Total number of passengers=8500 Percentage of passengers

96. What was the average approximate number of passengers in Train-S, Train-M and Train-L together? (1) 1521 (2)1641 (3) 1651 (4) 1671 (5)1691

97. If in Train-R 34% of the passengers are females and 26% are children, what is the number of males in that train? (1) 306 (2)316 (3) 308 (4) 318 (5) None of these

98. The number of passengers in Train-Q is approximately what percent of the total number of passengers in Train–A and Train-R? (1) 90 (2) 70 (3) 75 (4)80 (5) 86

99. Which train has second highest number of passengers? (1) A (2) Q (3)S (4) M (5) L

100. How many more percent (approximately) number of passengers are there in Train-M as compared to the number of passengers in Train-L? (1) 29 (2) 49 (3) 43 (4)33 (5) None of these

English Language

Directions (Q. 101-115): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words

are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

It is an old dictum of political science that the state comes into being for life (protection of life and security) but

it exists for good life. The transition of modern democracies from merely providing security from external aggression

and internal disturbances and disorder to a welfare state providing the citizen social security schemes from the cradle

to the grave is a familiar phenomenon of the 20th century. India is no exception to the rule. In fact, the Indian concept of

justice—Dharma—is far older than the concept of law. India had always regarded that peace and security were empty

concepts in a system where social, political and economic justice was denied to the people.

The concept of justice is itself a changing one. It changes with the growth and development of the society and with the

philosophy which informs the society at a given time. For instance, slavery was legitimate in certain parts of the world

but is no longer so now. An eye for eye and tooth for tooth was considered just in primitive society but is abhorrent

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today. In our own lifetime, right to property was included as a fundamental right in Art 19 (1)(f) of the Constitution. By

1978, it was sought to be removed from the statute books as contrary to the socialist philosophy. All these go to show

that human ingenuity does not extend to foreseeing the near or distant future and that no law can be permanent or

immutable. Orderly transition and growth of society can be stalled only at the peril of a revolution.

No Constitution is or can be perfect. Nor can it provide for every contingency that may arise in the future. Besides

conditions change or new concepts emerge as a result of changes in the political, social and economic conditions and

concepts. According to political science, sovereignty may rest with the Crown in a monarchy or with a dictator in ruthless

control over the people. But in a democracy sovereignty rests with the people of the country. If the generation living in

1949 had the authority to frame a Constitution for the nation, the generation living in 2000 AD will have equal right to

add, alter, amend, delete, substitute or even to frame a new Constitution, subject to compliance with the conditions and

restrictions imposed by the Constitution itself.

101. According to the theory of political science, survival of a state is related to 1) The law of the land.

2) Its tradition.

3) The welfare of its people.

4) Its defence strategy.

5) The growth of its service sector.

102. In India the main concept of the “state” is 1) The body which controls internal disturbances.

2) The organ which runs governments.

3) The organ which builds international relations.

4) The body which support the social cause.

5) The body which generates life.

103. Which of the following statements stands true in context of the Indian philosophy? 1) Peace and security emanates from social, political and economic justice.

2) Peace and security are empty slogans in today’s society.

3) There is no peace where there is no security.

4) Social, political and economic justice is a dream for the people.

5) None of these

104. What does it imply—“An eye for eye and tooth for tooth was considered just in primitive society but is abhorrent today”?

1) There is no place for the concept of ‘might is right’ in any society.

2) What may be legally just today may not be so tomorrow.

3) There is no give-and-take concept in our society.

4) He that is down needs fear no fall.

5) None of these

105. Which of the following is a feature of ‘law’? 1) Law is a phenomenon which remains unchanged for ages.

2) Law supports the mighty even today.

3) Law changes its shape along with time.

4) Law has become a force in a democracy.

5) None of these

106. Which of the following is a unique feature of a democratic set-up? 1) Democracy and sovereignty are inter-related.

2) According to the passage, democracy is more efficient than any other system of governance.

3) In a democracy people are free to do anything.


4) There can be no proper Constitution in a democracy.

5) None of these

107. What is the Indian concept of ‘Justice’ and ‘Dharma’? 1) To look after peace and security of the nation

2) To work for economic upliftment of the masses

3) To promote the social cause and look after the well-being of its people

4) to promote social harmony in the world

5) None of these

108. What do you mean by the phrase “from the cradle to the grave”, as used in the passage? 1) From step to step

2) From each and every possible means

3) From darkness to light

4) From birth to death

5) None of these

109. The passage is related to which subject? 1) Economics 2) Social Science 3) History

4) Constitutional law 5) None of these

Directions (110-112): Choose the word which is the same in meaning as the word given in bold as used in the passage.

110. DICTUM 1) philosophy 2) rule 3) theory

4) maxim 5) policy

111. LEGITIMATE 1) lawful 2) accurate 3) prevalent

4) basic 5) demanding

112. ABHORRENT 1) illegal 2) disgusting 3) banned

4) harmful 5) irrational

Directions (113-115): Choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the word given in bold as used in the passage.

113. TRANSITION 1) stubbornness 2) immutability 3) complexity

4) mobility 5) deadlock

114. PRIMITIVE 1) artificial 2) ancient 3) scientific

4) traditional 5) modern

115. INGENUITY 1) farce 2) detrimental 3) rigidity

4) stupidity 5) negativity

Directions (Q. 116-120): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one

part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 5). (Ignore the errors of

punctuation, if any.)

116. 1) He does often /2) embellishes /3) the tales /4) of his travels. /5) No error 117. 1) The strikers /2) have been encamping /3) outside the factory /4) since weeks. /5) No error 118. 1) At the end of the day /2) the new manager /3) is no better /4) than the previous. /5) No error 119. 1) You must realise /2) that the failing in /3) one exam is not /4) the end of the world. /5) No error 120. 1) He was such miserable /2) that he seriously /3) thought about /4) ending it all. /5) No error


Directions: (Q. 121-125): In each of the following sentences there are five pairs of words denoted by numbers 1), 2), 3), 4) and 5). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make it meaningfully complete. 121. It is _________ that in the present system there is neither justice nor _________ to law.

1) disgusting, practice 2) shameful, respect

3) unfortunate, adherence 4) unethical, subject

5) strange, concept

122. The war will have far-reaching _________ for the _________ region. 1) implications, distant 2) consequences, entire

3) spell, diverse 4) objective, across

5) destruction, disturbed

123. The police has not demonstrated any measure of _________ in _________ with street protests. 1) sympathy, tackle 2) mercy, fighting

3) case, confronting 4) atrocity, curbing

5) restraint, dealing

124. Proper_________ needs to be taken to protect the green cover _________ rocks and hillocks. 1) preservation, amidst 2) planning, covering

3) attention, across 4) action, around

5) consideration, across

125. In the last few years the _________ of administration has taken a ________. 1) quality, nosedive 2) stature, u-turn

3) infrastructure, backseat 4) area, vastness

5) shape, twist

Directions(126–130) : Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the paper sequence to form a

meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) Though forests lately been reulated by Governments, for a long time, they were also treated as free goods.

(B). Now it seems less and less possible for it to regenerat itself from destructin casued by human beings.

(C). When this number was rather small, these natural resources could regenerate themselves and continue the

ecological balance.

(D) Natural resources such as air and water from rivers have been treated as free goods.

(E) Thus, human beings and their organizations made extensive use of these commodities.

126. Which Of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement? (1) A (2) B

(3) C (4) D

(5) E

127. Which Of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement? (1) A (2) B

(3) C (4) D

(5) E

128. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement? (1) A (2) D

(3) C (4) D

(5) E

129. Which Of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement? (1) A (2) B

(3) C (4) D


(5) E

130. Which Of the following should be the FIFTH (LAST) sentence after the rearrangement? (1) A (2) B

(3) C (4) D

(5) E

Directions (Q. 131-140): In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers

are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find

out the appropriate word in each case.

Aspiring people seek their own glory and are deeply (131) with their own agenda. They may even (132) their

own spouse or children as possessions and try to (133) from them the kind of behaviour that will (134) them more

popularity and (135) in the eyes of others. Such (136) love is destructive. Instead of being agents or stewards they

(137) everything in life in terms of “what it will do for me”. Everybody then becomes either a competitor or (138). Their

relationships, even intimate ones, tend to be (139) rather than cooperative. They use various methods of (140) threats,

fear, bribery, pressure, deceit and charm to achieve their ends.

131. 1) invested 2) concerned 3) compatible 4) beset

5) satisfied

132. 1) offend 2) warn 3) guard 4) attribute

5) regard

133. 1) derive 2) exclude 3) recover 4) wrest

5) abstain

134. 1) prevent 2) save 3) win 4) ascribe

5) extract

135. 1) esteem 2) belief 3) delight 4) hope

5) aspiration

136. 1) charming 2) provocating 3) constant 4) possessive

5) excellent

137. 1) acquire 2) interpret 3) establish 4) substitute

5) empower

138. 1) persecutor 2) stabilizer 3) innovator 4) fighter

5) conspirator

139. 1) contributory 2) derogatory 3) competitive 4) supportive

5) projective

140. 1) manipulation 2) provoking 3) succeeding 4) organizing

5) compromise

Directions ( 141 – 150): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are

given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Italy and India are two nations at once ancient and modern. Two countries where tradition and progress coexist

symbiotically without losing each its own basic character. Two dynamic societies open to the world and friends with the world.


Two nations geographically distant but brought closer by a whole host of shared values. They are also inescapable points of

reference of their respective continents in terms of culture, politics and economy.

Culturally, every nation in the world owes something to India. Sanskrit has been the mother of all ancient languages and the

discovery of zero comes from the Indian subcontinent. Some of the major religions have spread from India across the world.

The ideals of peace and tolerance too have found in India interpreters and apostles who are still a source of inspiration for

Europe.

Politically, both nations play a fundamental role in their respective continents. They are countries of growing influence

thanks to the coherence of their political action and to their specific weight, which increases in time. Faithful to their

traditional alliance, Italy and India strive for a world without borders and, on the strength of their democratic credentials, they

are coherent interpreters of the universal values on which the UN Charter is based.

Economically, Indo-Italian relations go back to the times of the Roman Empire. The trade was often intense and it never

ceased even in less favourable periods of the two countries' history. After India's independence, these relations have continued

to be strong and it is not a coincidence that Italy was one of the first countries to welcome the launching of India's economic

reforms in 1991. In the last few years bilateral trade has continued to thrive and, if it recently underwent some difficult

moments, they were due to global causes, such as the attack on the Twin Towers in New York, which had economic

repercussions affecting all of India's partners. Italy and India have vast industrial capacities, a very interesting economic

complementarity and an active collaboration in sectors that span from the traditional to the most advanced.

Italy and India hold high economic potentials both in the field of trade and in that of investments. If the business climate in

India will continue to improve, Italian companies will be ready to seize the ensuing opportunities while Indian companies are

already welcome to set up home in Italy. India, with a rate of growth among the highest in the world, can have a promising

economic future and it can grow to be in the coming decades one of the strongest economies in the world.

141. What does it mean that in India and Italy tradition and progress co-exist symbiotically?

(1) In India and Italy old values and modernity both exist in harmony with each other.

(2) In India and Italy modernity gives space to tradition wherever required.

(3) In India and Italy tradition and modernity are no different from each other.

(4) India and Italy are on the path of progress only due to their tradition.

(5) None of these

142. What point does the author want to emphasise by stating that "culturally, every nation in the world owes something to

India"?

(1) India has preached about its culture in every nation in the world

(2) Indian culture is the richest in the world.

(3) India is indebted to every nation in the world on the front of culture

(4) India has given something to every nation on the front of culture.

(5) None of these

143. Which of the following is 'true' in the context of the passage?

(1) Indo-Italian economic relations started just after India's independence.

(2) Italy was the first country to welcome the launching of India's economic reforms in 1991.

(3) Indian culture has been followed in Italy in its entirety.

(4) India and Italy both support a borderless world

(5) None of these

144. What reflects the bright future of the Indian economy on the global stage?

(1) success of India's economic reforms which was started in 1991.

(2) India's economic growth rate which is among the highest in the world

(3) India's improving business climate.

(4) India's growing bilateral trade with different countries

(5) None of these

145. Which of the following is 'false' in the context of the passage?

(1) India and Italy are countries maintaining healthy relations.

(2) India has a good economic growth rate.


(3) While Italy is an ancient nation, India is modern

(4) India can emerge as one of the strongest economies on the global front.

(5) None of these

146. Give a suitable title to the passage?

(1) Indo-Italian economic potentials

(2) India and Italy – partners in progress

(3) India and Italy – emerging of a world power

(4) Indo-Italian culture and their influence

(5) None of these

Directions (147-148) Choose the word which is the same in meaning as the word given in bold as used in the passage

147. INTENSE

(1) competitive (2) challenging

(3) strong (4) beneficial

(5) gaining

148. THRIVE

(1) flourish (2) swing

(3) combat (4) emerge

(5) focus

Directions (149-150) Choose the word which is opposite in meaning of the word given in bold as used in the passage .

149. DISTANT

(1) remote (2) associated

(3) located (4) adjacent

(5) encircled

150. COHERENCE

(1) demerit (2) inconsistency

(3) misdeed (4) monopoly

(5) divergence

PROFESSIONAL KNOWLEDGE

151. Relational calculus is a

(1) Procedural language

(2) Non- Procedural language

(3) Data definition language

(4) High level language

(5) None of these

152. Parallel port can transfer ……………. bits of data at a time.

(1) 2 (2) 4

(3) 8 (4) 16

(5) None of these

153. USB stand for

(1) United serial bus

(2) Universal system bus

(3) Universal system bus

(4) Universal serial bus

(5) None of these

154. Default port for HTTP


(1) 23 (2) 80

(3) 21 (4) 25

(5) None of these

155. Which protocol is used to report error message?

(1) TCP (2) IP

(3) ICMP (4) SMTP

(5) None of these

156. By default the member of java class is

(1) Private (2) Protected

(3) Public (4) abstract

(5) None of these

157. Which class of IP is used for loop-back or local host?

(1) 192.168.0.0 (2) 127.0.0.0

(3) 127.0.01 (4) 156.00.01

(5) None of these

158. A critical region.

(1) is a piece of code which only one process executes at a time.

(2) is a region prone deadlock.

(3) is a piece of code which only a finite number of processes

(4) is found only in window NT operating system

(5) None of these

159. Switching the CPU to another process require to save state of the old process and loading new process state is called

(1) Process Blocking

(2) Context Switch

(3) Time sharing

(4) Both 1 & 2

(5) None of these

160. ………………… is a high level abstraction over semaphore.

(1) Shared memory (2) Message passing

(3) Monitor (4) Mutual exclusion

(5) None of these

161. IPX/SPX protocol used for

(1) Linux (2) Unix

(3) Novel Netware (4) Window

(5) None of these

162. The FDDI network stand for

(1) Fibre Distributed Data incorporation

(2) Fibre Distributed Data institute

(3) Fibre distributed data interface

(4) Fibre distributed dual corporation

(5) None of these

163. It is …………. possible to prevent a deadlock by avoiding mutual exclusion condition.

(1) Always (2) never

(3) Sometimes (4) Can’t say

(5) None of these

164. Name of a file in LINUX is stored

(1) data block

(2) boot block

(3) super block


(4) I- node block

(5) None of these

165. When images are used as link they get a blue border.

(1) Never (2) unless border is set to zero

(3) Always (4) Sometimes

(5) None of these

166. Which statement is true?

(1) All XML elements must be property closed

(2) All XML document must be lower case

(3) All XML document must have a DTO

(4) All the above are true

(5) None of these

167. Which of these terms are level names in the capability maturity model?

(1) Performed

(2) Repeated

(3) Reused

(4) optimized

(5) both1 and 4

168. To design and arrive at good database scheme ………. is used

(1) normalization (2) denormalization

(3) FD (4) field

(5) None of these

169. If the value of an attribute X uniquely determine the value of all other attributes in row then x is said to be the ……….. of

the relation.

(1) attribute (2) key

(3) field (4) record

(5) None of these

170. Let R= (a,b,c,d,e,f) be a relation schema with the following dependency c -> f, e -> a, ec-> d, a -> b

Which of the following is a key for R.?

(1) c d (2) ec

(3) ac (4) ac

(5) None of these

171. Which one of the following statement about normal form is False?

(1)BCNF is stricker than 3 NF

(2) Lossless, dependency – preserving decomposition into 3NF is always possible

(3) Lossless, dependency –preserving decomposition into BCNF is always possible

(4) Any relation with two attributes is in BCAF

(5) None of these

172. How many artificial satellite can be placed I Geo-stationary or bit

(1) 10 (2) 25

(3) 180 (4) 90

(5) None of these

173. Which of the following is not a DDL Command?

(1) Alter (2) Drop

(3) Truncate (4) Create


174. IP Address 168.2.7.6 belong to

(1) Class A (2) Class B

(3) Class C (4) Class D



175. We can design flip- flop circuit

(1) By NOR or NAND gate

(2) OR and AND gate

(3) XOR and AND gate

(4) NOR and AND Gate


176. A station in a network forward incoming Packet by placing them on its shortest output queue. What routing algorithm is

being used

(1) Hot potato routing

(2) Flooding

(3) Static routing

(4) Data routing


177. Which of the following condition is used to transmit two packets over a medium at the same time

(1) Contention (2) Collision

(3) Synchronous (4) a synchronous


178. Frame from one LAN can be transmitted to another LAN via the device

(1) Router (2) Bridge

(3) Repeater (4) Modem

(5) None of these

179. What are the most commonly used transmission speed in BPS (bps) used in data communication?

(1) 300 (2) 1200

(3) 2400 (4) 9600


180. View is a :

(1) Virtual table create on the basis of base table

(2) Real table create independently

(3) Hidden table

(4) Created internally


181. ROM is a:

(1) Combinational Circuit

(2) Sequential Circuit

(3) Registers

(4) Flip- Flop


182. Which of the following is used for modulation and demodulation?

(1) Modem

(2) Protocols

(3) Gate way

(4) Multiplexes


183. Example of Combinational Circuit is:

(1) Modem

(2) Register

(3) Adder

(4) Counter



184. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of wireless LAN?

(1) Slower data transmission

(2) Higher error rate

(3) Interference of transmission

(4) All of the above

(5) None of these

185. Decimal equivalent of 10101.11

(1) 21.75 (2) 25.75

(3) 35.75 (4) 25.25

(5) None of these

186. BCD code is used to:

(1) Represent decimal digit

(2) Binary Digit

(3) Hexa decimal digit

(4) Octal digit


187. The main objective of dividing database into different level is to

(1) Perform abstraction

(2) Inheritance

(3) Polymorphism

(4) Both 1 & 3

(5) None of these

188. We can apply the rule of Normalization on

(1) Network Model

(2) Hierarchical Model

(3) Relational Model

(4) Both 2 and 3

(5) None of these

189. Smallest unit in database is

(1) Field

(2) Data

(3) Database

(4) Tipple


190. What is the default subnet mask for class C network?

(1) 127.0.0.1 (2) 255.0.0.0

(3) 255.255.0.0 (4) 255.255.255.0


191. Register in computer is a

(1) Storing device

(2) Processing device

(3) Data transmitting device

(4) Modulating device


192. What is a SAVE POINT?

(1) Saver the data in database


(2) Identifies a point in a transaction to which we can later roll back

(3) save the profile in database

(4) save the point in file

(5) None of these

193. Which SQL command is used to reduce the access time?

(1) Minimize

(2) Reduce time

(3) Index

(4) Min time

(5) None of these

194. When a running process waits for an I/O event, it moves to which state?

(1) Ready

(2) Waiting

(3) Half

(4) Interrupt

(5) None of these

195. Which level of database is viewed by user?

(1) Internal level

(2) External level

(3) Conceptual level

(4) All of these

(5) None of these

196. Schema is usually stored in

(1) Table

(2) Data Dictionary

(3) both 1 and 2

(4) Field

(5) None of these

197. External noise is generally picked up from electrical appliances existing …………

(1) In the vicinity

(2) From the atmosphere

(3) From electrical transformer

(4) Also from outer space

(5) All of these

198. In the slow start phase of the TCP congesting control algorithm the size of the congestion window.

(1) Does not increase

(2) Increase linearly

(3) Increase quadratic ally

(4) Increase exponentially

(5) None of these

199. If a class B network on the Internet has a sub net mask of 255.255.248.0 What is the maximum number of host per

subnet?

(1) 1022 (2) 1023

(3) 2046 (4) 2047

(5) None of these

200. In relational database design, a primary key of one table that is also included in another table

(1) Usually indicates that someone made a mistake in deriving the tables and has added undesirable data


redundancy into the database

(2) Usually results in null values being introduced into the database

(3) Usually ensures that we can get all the information we need to make a decision by querying only one table or the

other (i.e., we would not need both tables in the same query).

(4) Usually uniquely and universally identifies each instance in both tables in which it is included

(5) Usually establishes a connection between the tables so they can be linked to generate useful information.

Documents

It Officer Complete Model Paper