IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS RELATED TO POST GRADUATE COMMON ENTRANCE

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IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS RELATED TO POST GRADUATE COMMON ENTRANCE TEST – 2012 AND SEAT ALLOTMENT PROCESS.

PRECEDING TO ENTRANCE TEST

1. The information / particulars furnished by the candidates in their ‘PGCET-2012’ online application form are FINAL for admissions to MBA, MCA, ME/ M.Tech / M.Arch courses for the year 2012-13.

2. Before claiming eligibility for Government seats, make sure that you satisfy any one of the eligibility clauses detailed in Item – 6 of Chapter – I of the brochure. The candidates who do not satisfy any one of the eligibility clauses will not be eligible for admission to Government seats.

3. If the information submitted by the candidates in the online application form or any other document submitted by the candidate / parents are found to be false / incorrect, such candidate’s seat will be cancelled at any point of time during his / her course of study and criminal proceedings will be initiated by the Government against such candidate.

DURING THE ENTRANCE TEST

1. The Post Graduate Common Entrance Test for admissions to MBA, MCA, M.E. / M.Tech / M.Arch courses will be held as per the schedule given ate page 06.

2. The candidates must appear for Post Graduate Common Entrance Test for admission to MBA, MCA, M.E. / M. Tech / M. Arch courses as per the schedule given at page 06 conducted by the Karnataka Examinations Authority.

3. The candidates should read the instructions printed on the OMR answer sheet before answering. The candidates have to mark the correct answers on the OMR answer sheet using BLUE OR BLACK INK BALL POINT PEN ONLY.

4. After completion of the test, the candidates must affix their LEFT HAND THUMB IMPRESSION in the space provided on the bottom portion of OMR answer sheet before handing over the same to the room invigilator.

5. After completion of the test, the candidates will be allowed to carry replica of the filled OMR answer sheet. Such replicas should be preserved for a period of one year.

6. THERE WILL BE NO NEGATIVE MARKING IN RESPECT OF WRONG ANSWERS BUT MARKS WILL NOT BE AWARDED IN RESPECT OF MORE THAN ONE ANSWER INDICATED AGAINST A QUESTION BY A CANDIDATE ON THE OMR ANSWER SHEET.

AFTER ENTRANCE TEST

1. The ANSWER KEY will be published within three days after the completion of the entrance test on the KEA website. The candidates / parents / lecturers, can file their objections, if any, within

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three days in respect of any of the published answer key, along with all the supporting documents & justification. Objections filed by the candidates without justification shall not be considered. Objections received after the last date fixed shall not be considered. Objections received by the KEA will be placed before an Expert Committee, whose decision will be final in this regard.

2. The merit list will be prepared separately for MBA, MCA, ME / M.Tech / M.Arch solely on the basis of the marks obtained in the Post Graduate Common Entrance Test without taking the marks obtained by the candidates in the qualifying examination. The qualifying examination marks is considered only for eligibility. Therefore, the candidates are advised to attend the counseling only if they have the requisite percentage of marks in the qualifying examination. (i.e., should have obtained 50% of aggregate minimum marks taken together in all the subjects for all the years of the Degree examination. 45% of aggregate marks in all the subjects for all the years in the Degree examination in case of candidates belonging to SC, ST and Category-I). Therefore, mere assignment of merit / a rank to a candidate does not confer any right to select a seat.

3. All the candidates (GM, SC, ST Category – I and OBC category candidates) must compulsorily produce the STUDY CERTIFICATE obtained from the heads of the institutions where the candidates have passed the 10th standard / SSLC examination / PUC / Degree Examination, by mentioning the Standards, Academic years as per the admission register of the institution. (Refer Appendix – III for study certificate proforma)

5. Candidates belonging to reserved categories should submit caste / income certificate as the case may be, issued by the Tahasildar in Form ‘D’ for SC, ST, in Form ‘E’ for Category-I and in Form ‘F’ for 2A, 2B, 3A and 3B categories.

6. Please read the refund and forfeiture conditions detailed in this brochure carefully.

7. KEA will publish on its website all the details of candidates who have selected seats under reserved category for MBA, MCA, ME / M.Tech / M.Arch courses, such as candidate’s name, father’s name, category under which seat selected, annual income of the parent etc., after the casual vacancy round.

8. If a candidate does not surrender the seat to KEA during casual vacancy seat selection round on or before his / her turn comes, he / she deemed to have got admitted to the seat selected by him / her.

9. If a candidate decides to surrender his / her seat, he / she has to surrender the seat only to KEA. Merely not reporting to the selected college should not be presumed by the candidate that he / she has surrendered the seat to KEA.

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2. JA©J, JA¹J, JAE/JA.mÉPï/JA.DQðmÉPÀÑgï PÉÆÃ ÀÄðUÀ¼À ¥ÀæªÉÃ±ÀPÁÌV gÁåAPï ¥ÀnÖAiÀÄ£ÀÄß, CºÀðvÁ ¥ÀjÃPÉëAiÀÄ°è ¥ÀqÉzÀ CAPÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß UÀt£ÉUÉ vÉUÉzÀÄPÉÆ¼ÀîzÉ C¨sÀåyðUÀ¼ÀÄ ¸ÁßvÀPÉÆÃvÀÛgÀ ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå ¥ÀæªÉÃ±À ¥ÀjÃPÉëAiÀÄ «µÀAiÀÄUÀ¼À°è ¥ÀqÉzÀ CAPÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß DzsÀj¹ ¥ÀæPÀn À ÁUÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ. CºÀðvÁ ¥ÀjÃPÉëAiÀÄ CAPÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß PÉÃªÀ® CºÀðvÉUÉ ªÀiÁvÀæ ¥ÀjUÀtÂ À ÁUÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ. DzÀÝjAzÀ C¨sÀåyðUÀ¼ÀÄ vÁªÀÅ CºÀðvÁ ¥ÀjÃPÉëAiÀÄ°è ¤UÀ¢vÀ CAPÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¥ÀqÉ¢¢ÝÃgÉAzÀÄ SÁwæ¥Àr¹PÉÆAqÀÄ ¹ÃlÄ DAiÉÄÌ ¥ÀæQæAiÉÄUÉ ºÁdgÁUÀ ÉÃPÀÄ. DzÀÝjAzÀ C¨sÀåyðUÀ¼ÀÄ ªÉÄjmï / gÁåAPï £ÀÄß ºÉÆA¢zÀ ªÀiÁvÀæPÉÌ ¹ÃlÄ DAiÉÄÌ ¥ÀæQæAiÉÄUÉ CºÀðgÁUÀÄªÀÅ¢®è. 3. J¯Áè C¨sÀåyðUÀ¼ÀÄ (¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå ªÀUÀð, ¥À.eÁ, ¥À.¥ÀA ªÀÄvÀÄÛ EvgÉ »AzÀÄ½zÀ ªÀUÀðUÀ¼À C¨sÀåyðUÀ¼ÀÆ ÉÃjzÀAvÉ) CªÀgÀÄ N¢zÀ vÀgÀUÀw, N¢zÀ ±ÉÊPÀëtÂPÀ ªÀµÀðUÀ¼ÀÄ, ªÀiÁvÀÈ ¨sÁµÉAiÀÄ£ÉÆß¼ÀUÉÆAqÀ ªÁå ÀAUÀ ¥ÀæªÀiÁt ¥ÀvÀæªÀ£ÀÄß (C£ÀÄ§AzsÀ-3gÀ°è ¤ÃrgÀÄªÀ £ÀªÀÄÆ£ÉAiÀÄAvÉ) CªÀgÀÄ J¸ï.J¸ï.J¯ï.¹ / 10£ÉÃ vÀgÀUÀwAiÀÄ°è / ¦AiÀÄÄ¹ / ¥ÀzÀ« vÀgÀUÀwUÀ¼À°è ªÁå ÀAUÀ ªÀiÁrzÀ ±Á¯Á / PÁ ÉÃdÄ ªÀÄÄRå ÀÜjAzÀ, zÁR¯Áw ªÀ»AiÀÄ°è EgÀÄªÀAvÉ ¥ÀqÉzÀÄ PÀqÁØAiÀÄªÁV ºÁdgÀÄ¥Àr À ÉÃPÀÄ. 5. «ÄÃ À Áw CrAiÀÄ°è ¹Ãl£ÀÄß DAiÉÄÌ ªÀiÁrPÉÆ¼ÀÄîªÀ C¨sÀåyðUÀ¼ÀÄ eÁw / DzÁAiÀÄ ¥ÀæªÀiÁt¥ÀvÀæªÀ£ÀÄß ÀA§AzsÀ¥ÀlÖ vÀºÀ¹Ã¯ÁÝgÀjAzÀ ¥ÀqÉzÀÄ ¹ÃlÄ CAiÉÄÌ ÀªÀÄAiÀÄzÀ°è À°è À ÉÃPÀÄ. ¥À.eÁ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¥À.¥ÀAUÀqÀzÀ C sÀåyðUÀ¼ÀÄ £ÀªÀÄÆ£É r AiÀÄ°è, ¥ÀæªÀUÀð 1gÀ C sÀåyðUÀ¼ÀÄ £ÀªÀÄÆ£É E ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¥ÀæªÀUÀð 2J, 2©, 3J ªÀÄvÀÄÛ 3© C sÀåyðUÀ¼ÀÄ £ÀªÀÄÆ£É J¥sï £À°è eÁw / DzÁAiÀÄ ¥ÀæªÀiÁt¥ÀvÀæªÀ£ÀÄß À°è À ÉÃPÀÄ. 6. F ÉÆæÃ±Àgï £À°ègÀÄªÀ ±ÀÄ®Ì ªÀÄgÀÄ¥ÁªÀw ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ªÀÄÄlÄÖUÉÆÃ°£À §UÉÎ zÀAiÀÄªÀiÁr NzÀ®Ä PÉÆÃjzÉ.

7. PÀ£ÁðlPÀ ¥ÀjÃPÁë ¥Áæ¢üPÁgÀÀªÀÅ vÀ£Àß ªÉ¨ï ÉÊmï£À°è http://kea.kar.nic.in JA©J, JA¹J, JAE/JA.mÉPï/JA.DQðmÉPÀÑgï PÉÆÃ ÀÄðUÀ¼À ¹ÃlÄUÀ¼À£ÀÄß «ÄÃ À Áw CrAiÀÄ°è DAiÉÄÌªÀiÁrPÉÆ¼ÀÄîªÀ C¨sÀåyðUÀ¼À J¯Áè «ªÀgÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß CAzÀgÉ C¨sÀåyðAiÀÄ ºÉ ÀgÀÄ, vÀAzÉAiÀÄ / ¥ÉÆÃµÀPÀgÀ ºÉ ÀgÀÄ, AiÀiÁªÀ ¥ÀæªÀUÀðzÀ°è ¹ÃlÄ CAiÉÄÌ ªÀiÁrPÉÆArzÁÝgÉ, vÀAzÉ / vÁ¬ÄAiÀÄ ¥ÉÆÃµÀPÀgÀ ªÁ¶ðPÀ DzÁAiÀÄ EvÁå¢AiÀÄÀ£ÀÄß PÁå±ÀÄAiÀÄ¯ï DAiÉÄÌ ¥ÀæQæAiÉÄ ªÀÄÄVzÀ £ÀAvÀgÀ ¥ÀæPÀn À ÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ. 8. C sÀåyðAiÀÄÄ ¹Ãl£ÀÄß PÁå±ÀÄAiÀÄ¯ï vÉgÀªÀÅ ºÀAvÀzÀªÀgÉUÀÆ ¹Ãl£ÀÄß gÀzÀÄÝ¥Àr ÀzÉÃ EzÀÝ°è C sÀåyðAiÀÄÄ ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀ PÁ ÉÃfUÉ ¥ÀæªÉÃ±ÀªÀ£ÀÄß ¥ÀqÉzÀAvÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ. 9. D sÀåyðAiÀÄÄ ¹Ãl£ÀÄß gÀzÀÄÝ¥Àr À ÉÃPÁzÀgÉ, PÉEJ PÀbÉÃjAiÀÄ°è ªÀiÁvÀæ gÀzÀÄÝ¥Àr À ÉÃPÀÄ. ¹Ãl£ÀÄß DAiÉÄÌ ªÀiÁr ÀA§AzsÀ¥ÀlÖ PÁ ÉÃfUÉ ¥ÀæªÉÃ±À ¥ÀqÉAiÀÄzÉ EzÀÝ ªÀiÁvÀæPÉÌ vÁªÀÅ DAiÉÄÌ ªÀiÁrzÀÝ ¹Ãl£ÀÄß PÉEJ PÀbÉÃjAiÀÄ°è gÀzÀÄÝ ¥Àr¹

PÉÆ¼Àî ÁVzÉAiÉÄAzÀÄ ¨sÁ« À ÁgÀzÀÄ.

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CALENDAR OF EVENTS

1. Date of Notification: .................................................................................... 05-06-2012

2. Commencement of Entry of Application Online …………............................ 07-06-2012

3. Last Date for Entry of application……………………………......................... 28-06-2012

4. Last date to pay the fees in the bank ……………….................................... 30-06-2012

5. Last date to upload the Challan Journal details for having paid the fees... 03-07-2012

5. Downloading of Admission Tickets on or after…....................................... 20-07-2012

9. DATE OF PGCET-2012 – (Please see Page 06 for time table): .......... 28-07-2012 & 29-07-2012

10. Date of publication of 'PGCET 2012' Answer Key: .............................. 31-07-2012

11. Last date for submission of objections, if any, regarding answer key: ... 04-08-2012

12. Date of publication of ‘PGCET 2012’ Results along with

applied answer key: .......................................................................... 14-08-2012

13. Commencement of Admission Round Seat Selection Process .… 22-08-2012

In all your future correspondence with the KEA do not forget to mention either your PGCET number or the application serial number along with complete postal address and contact telephone / mobile number.

The Government of Karnataka established Common Entrance Test Cell in the year 1994 for conducting of Entrance Test and to determine the merits of the candidates for admission to Professional courses such as Medical, Dental, Indian Systems of Medicine & Homoeopathy, Engineering / Technology & Architecture courses.

To expand the activities of the CET Cell, the Government by order no. ED. 212 TEC 2006 dated 20-12-2006 has converted the Common Entrance Test Cell in to an autonomous body Registered under Societies Registration Act 1960 called “Karnataka Examinations Authority” (KEA).

Conduct of Post Graduate Entrance Test for Admission to MBA / MCA / M.E. / M.Tech MBA (Infrastructure Management) courses through Karnataka Examinations Authority Government by its Notification No. ED 205 TEC 2011 dated 20-04-2011 has authorized Karnataka Examinations Authority to conduct Post Graduate Common Entrance Test for admission to first year / first semester MBA / MCA / M.E. / M.Tech courses from the year 2011-12.

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CHAPTER – I

1. INTRODUCTION

The Karnataka Post Graduate Common Entrance Test-2012 is being conducted for the purpose of determining the eligibility / merit, for admission of Karnataka and non-Karnataka candidates to the First year or First semester of full time and part time courses in MBA / MCA and M.E. / M.Tech / M.Arch / MBA (Infrastructure Management) in Government / University / Private Aided / Private Un-Aided professional educational institutions in the state of Karnataka for the academic year 2012-13.

Admissions to the Government seats shall be made in accordance with the Karnataka Selection of Candidates for Admission to Master of Business Administration and Master of Computer Application Courses Rules, 2005 and Karnataka Selection of Candidates for Admission to Master of Technology (M.Tech) Courses Rules, 2005 as the case may be (in short ‘Rules’) and as amended from time to time and therefore the details and instructions contained in this Brochure are subject to the said Rules. In case of any discrepancy, the Rules shall prevail.

2. MODE OF CONDUCTING THE TEST

In order to obtain admission to MBA or MCA or M.E. / M.Tech / M.Arch / MBA (Infrastructure Management) courses through KEA (No Part Time course is there in MCA), a candidate must appear for the Post Graduate Common Entrance Test - 2012, which will be conducted by the Karnataka Examinations Authority, Bangalore (Herein after referred to as KEA). The Post Graduate Common Entrance Test - 2012 will be conducted in specified places, spread over Karnataka. The details of the written test are as follows:

Date and Day Course For Timings Marks

28-07-2012 Saturday

M.E. / M. Tech / M. Arch

Courses offered by VTU, UVCE, UBDTCE. 10.30 am to 12.30 pm 100

Courses offered by Department of Post Graduate Studies and Research in Mathematics and Computer Science, Kuvempu University and Department of Studies in Computer Science, University of Mysore.

02.30 pm to 04.30 pm 100

29-07-2012 Sunday

MBA - 10.30 am to 12.30 pm 100

MCA - 02.30 pm to 04.30 pm 100

Based on the performance of the candidates in the Post Graduate Common Entrance Test the merit / rank list will be prepared and published. All the eligible candidates who have got the requisite percentage of marks as the case may be will be allowed to participate during the seat selection process in the order of their merit / rank for selecting the available seats, as per the time schedule which will be notified later.

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3. WHO CAN APPLY?

a) For MBA:

(i) For Full Time MBA courses: A candidate who has passed any under graduate examination or equivalent examination and obtained an aggregate minimum of 50% marks taken together in all the subjects including languages in all the years of the Degree Examination is eligible for admission to MBA courses. 45% of marks in Q. E. in case of SC, ST and Category-I of Karnataka candidates.

(ii) For Part Time MBA courses: A candidate who has passed any under graduate examination or equivalent examination and obtained an aggregate minimum of 50% marks taken together in all the subjects including languages in all the years of the Degree Examination is eligible for admission to MBA courses. 45% of marks in Q. E. in case of SC, ST and Category-I candidates. In addition to this a candidate after obtaining the degree, must have worked for not less than three years before the issue of notification for the relevant year, in an establishment and must be working in an organization situated within a radial distance of 40 km from the institution in which the candidate seeks admission.

b) For MCA; A candidate who has passed any under graduate examination or equivalent examination with Mathematics or Statistics or Computer Science or Computer Applications or Computer Programming or Business Mathematics or Business Statistics as one of the optional subjects or elective and obtained an aggregate minimum of 50% marks taken together in all the subjects in all the years of the Degree Examination is eligible for admission to MCA courses. 45% of marks in both Q. E. in case of SC, ST and Category-I candidates.

Provided that in respect of candidate who has studied and passed one of the subjects specified above in Pre-University Course with fifty percent of marks in that subject shall also be considered for admission. 45% of marks in case of SC, ST and Category-I candidates.

No Part Time course are offered for MCA.

c) (i) For Full Time M.E. / M.Tech / M.Arch / MBA (Infrastructure Management) Course

v A candidate with valid GATE score as defined in item 18 of the application form. v A candidate who has passed prescribed qualifying examination or equivalent examination as

specified in the Annexure – 00 and obtained an aggregate minimum of 50% marks taken together in all the subjects of all the years / semesters of the Degree Examination is eligible for admission to M.E. / M.Tech / M.Arch / MBA (Infrastructure Management) courses.

45% of marks in Q. E. in case of SC, ST and Category-I candidates.

(ii) For Part Time M.E. / M.Tech / M.Arch courses: A candidate who has passed prescribed

qualifying examination or equivalent examination as specified in the Annexure – 00 and obtained an aggregate minimum of 50% marks taken together in all the subjects of all the years / semesters of the Degree Examination is eligible for admission to M.E. / M.Tech / M.Arch courses. 45% of marks in Q. E. in case of SC, ST and Category-I candidates.

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In addition to this candidate after obtaining the complete degree, must have worked for not less than three years before the issue of notification for the relevant year, in an establishment and must be working in an organization situated within a radial distance of 40 km from the institution in which the candidate seeks admission. However, the employer has to fill up the NOC duly signed by the competent authority.

Not only a candidate who has passed the qualifying examination with requisite marks but also a candidate who is appearing for the Q. E. and expecting the results is eligible to apply for the Post Graduate Common Entrance Test – 2012. NOTE: The aggregate percentage of marks of the course of the qualifying examination shall be calculated as follows.

Sum of the marks scored by the candidate in all the subjects of all the examinations / semesters X 100

Aggregate Percentage of Marks = Sum of all the maximum marks of all the subjects of all the years / semesters

Based on the performance of the candidates in the Post Graduate Common Entrance Test, the rank list will be prepared and published for admission to MBA, MCA, ME / M.Tech / M. Arch courses. Therefore, the candidates are advised to attend the counseling only if they have the requisite percentage of marks in the qualifying examination. (i.e., should have obtained 50% of aggregate marks of all the years of the Degree examination. 45% of aggregate marks of all the years in the Degree Examination in case of candidates belonging to SC, ST and Category-I)

NOTE: Candidates who do not pass in all the subjects in the qualifying examination and candidates who do not possess the academic eligibility will not be eligible for selection of seats in the respective courses.

The SC / ST/Category-I / OBC eligibility criteria is applicable to persons of Karnataka origin who are claiming eligibility for Government seats under clauses (a), (b), (c), (d) and (h) Item - 6 of Chapter – I as the case may be and the same is not applicable to non-Karnataka candidates.

NOTE: Post Graduate M.E. / M.Tech / M.Arch / MBA (Infrastructure Management) Courses in Engineering and Technology will be of the following categories:

a) Full-Time M.E. / M.Tech / M.Arch (Two academic years consisting of four semesters)

b) Part-Time M.Tech (Three academic years consisting of six semesters)

c) Full-Time M.Tech (Three academic years consisting of Six semesters) only in the Department of Post Graduate Studies and Research in Mathematics and Computer Sciences, Kuvempu University, Shimoga. Department of Post Graduate Studies in Computer Science, University of Mysore, Mysore.

d) Full-Time MBA (Infrastructure Management) (Two academic years consisting of four semesters)

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A candidate can opt for M.E. / M.Tech / M.Arch course either under (i) Full-Time or (ii) Part-Time category. One cannot apply for both the programs.

Candidates with valid GATE score are given first preference for admission to all M.E. / M.Tech / M.Arch / MBA (Infrastructure Management) courses. Such candidates need not appear for PGCET-2012. However, they have to apply for admission in the prescribed form. When GATE qualified candidates are not available, seat allotment will be made to non-GATE candidates based on the merit list of PGCET-2012. Candidates have to make sure that they have valid qualifying marks in GATE in their respective subjects under the category to which they belong (GM/OBC/SC/ST/PD). If they do not have the qualifying marks, they have to appear for PGCET-2012 examination. (Refer page 13 or 19 for details about valid score in GATE).

a. VTU, UBDT and UVCE are offering all together 73 M.E. / M.Tech programs in different disciplines with 04 M.Arch programs and one MBA (Infrastructure Management). Candidates with B.E. / B. Tech / B.Arch. Degree or its equivalent from a recognized University are eligible to apply to these courses. A non-GATE candidate seeking admission to any of these courses should appear for PGCET-2012 Test as per the schedule under appropriate Board corresponding to their basic (qualifying / qualified) degree, irrespective of M.E. / M.Tech / M.Arch / MBA (Infrastructure Management) courses for which the candidate is eligible.

b. Candidate with B.Sc. degree from recognized University with Mathematics as one of the subjects or B.E. / B. Tech / B.Sc. (Engineering) are eligible of M.Tech Programs offered by Department of Post Graduate Studies and Research in Mathematics and Computer Science of Kuvempu University.

Candidates with BE / B. Tech. MCA, MBA and M.Sc. degree, with conditions specified under detailed eligibility criteria (Appendix- V) from recognized Universities are eligible for Department of Studies in Computer Science, University of Mysore, Mysore. A non-GATE candidate seeking admission to the M.Tech program should appear for PGCET-2012 as per the schedule. Separate applications should be submitted, if the candidate is seeking admission to both (a) and (b) of the above.

c. Sponsored candidates claiming seat under sponsored quota are not entitled for claiming seat under any other quota.

d. M.Tech part time program shall be conducted only if number of candidates admitted is eight or more.

e. Sponsored Candidate: A candidate having served as a full time employee for a minimum period of Three Years either continuously or in broken periods. Experience in the relevant field from registered firm / company / industry / educational institution / research institution / Government Department / Autonomous department or autonomous organization is considered, after the qualifying examination, up to the date of notification. However, candidate has to submit an undertaking from the employer, saying that the candidate is a full time employee and will not be withdrawn from the course till the completion of the course. Part Time / Trainee / Guest faculty will not be considered as sponsored candidate.

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GATE Scholarship: a. For receiving GATE Scholarship, a candidate must have a valid GATE Score. (Refer

page 13 or 19)

b. Candidates with valid GATE score, opting seats under Sponsored Quota, are not entitled for GATE stipend.

c. SC/ST/OBC candidates with valid GATE Score claiming any other scholarship from Government of Karnataka / India are not entitled for GATE Scholarship.

d. Candidates with valid GATE score opting for seat under Part-Time M.E. / M.Tech Program are not entitled for GATE stipend.

e. Applications for GATE scholarship from AICTE will be processed by the respective colleges where the candidates take admission and KEA has no responsibility in getting GATE scholarship to them.

4. HOW TO SUBMIT APPLICATION FORM ONLINE?

The candidates have to enter the application details online by browsing the URL on web http://kea.kar.nic.in . The detailed instructions are appended in the same website. Candidates have to visit the website and read instructions carefully to follow the same.

The application form is common for Post Graduate all courses like MBA, MCA, M.E. / M.Tech / M.Arch / MBA (Infrastructure Management). Before entering the application form online make sure that you are having all the necessary documents for reference.

PLEASE NOTE: The details entered on the online application form will directly be updated

on to the KEA server. Therefore, the candidates are advised not to enter any fields wrongly

or should not be left blank. If any field is not applicable then enter all such field as NA (Not

Applicable).

IMPORTANT: IF ANY OF THE INFORMATION FURNISHED BY THE CANDIDATES IN

THE ONLINE APPLICATION FORM IS FOUND TO BE FALSE / INCORRECT, SUCH

APPLICATION IS LIABLE TO BE REJECTED AT ANY POINT OF TIME and the seat

selected / allotted to the candidate, if any, is also liable to be cancelled at any stage and the

entire fee amount paid by such candidate shall be forfeited.

1. Course / courses applied for PGCET-2012: Candidate has to select the course to

which he is interested to apply for PGCET-2012 for admission to MBA, MCA, ME /

M.Tech / M.Arch./ MBA (Infrastructure Management). Application is common for all the

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courses. One can apply only for MBA or for both MBA and MCA or for all three courses

i.e., MBA, MCA and ME / M.Tech courses.

(a) Only MBA

(b) Only MCA

(c) Only ME/ M.Tech / M.Arch / MBA (Infrastructure Management)

(d) MBA and MCA

(e) MCA and ME / M.Tech / M.Arch / MBA (Infrastructure Management)

(f) MBA and ME/M.Tech/M.Arch/MBA (Infrastructure Management)

(g) MBA and MCA and ME/M.Tech/M.Arch/MBA (Infrastructure Management)

2. Part Time / Full Time: Only for MBA and ME / M.Tech Courses. (There is no Part Time course for MCA) Select the appropriate circle against the course.

3. Name of the Candidate: Enter your name as it is in the 2nd PUC or 12th Standard records. There should be no variation in the form or spelling.

For Example: If the name is SARTHAK RAJU then enter the name as shown below:

S A R T H A K R A J U

4. Date of Birth: Select your date of birth from the drop down menu. It should be as it is in the SSLC / 10th standard marks card.

For Example: If the date of birth is 15-10-1993, then the same should be selected as:

1 5 1 0 1 9 9 3

5. SEX: ENTER ‘M’ IF MALE; ‘F’ IF FEMALE.

6. Quota: If you satisfy any one of the eligibility clauses mentioned in the eligibility conditions then enter the field with correct letter against Karnataka quota.

If you do not satisfy the eligibility conditions then you have to enter ‘Y’ against non-Karnataka.

7. TOTAL NUMBER OF YEARS OF STUDY in the State of Karnataka from 1st standard

to qualifying examination should be selected from the dropdown menu.

8. ENTER THE Name of the place where you wish to write ‘PGCET 2012’: (Refer DETAILS FROM DROP DOWN MENU and select name of the place where

you wish to write ‘PGCET 2012’.) For Example: If you like to write in ‘DAVANGERE’, then select DAVANGERE from

drop down menu.

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9. Telephone details: enter your residence telephone number and the mobile phone number invariably, along with the STD codes in the space provided. If the residence and mobile phone numbers are not available, then mention any available contact number.

10. Full Postal Address: Candidates should carefully write their complete postal address within the space provided in BLOCK LETTERS to which all correspondence can be reached speedily.

11. Reserved Category CODE: Select the Reserved category CODE from the dropdown menu that you belong to from among the reserved category CODES.

NAME OF THE CATEGORY CODE NAME OF THE CATEGORY CODE

Category – 1 01 Category – 3B 3B Category – 2A 2A Scheduled Castes SC Category – 2B 2B Scheduled Tribes ST Category – 3A 3A General Merit GM

And Name of the Caste: Enter name of the caste within the space provided. 12. Annual Income: Enter the Annual Income of parents from all sources, in the space

provided.

NOTE: All the candidates claiming reservation benefits should produce original Caste / Caste – Income certificate at the time of Verification of Documents. The Caste / Category and the income in the caste certificate should be the same as Caste / Category and Income mentioned in the application form. Otherwise, such candidates will not be considered for allotment of seats under the reserved categories and will be treated on par with a General Merit candidate, if they fulfill the General Merit eligibility criteria.

13. Enter CODE of the ‘Native State’ as per the State Codes given in APPENDIX – II instruction sheet. If your Native State is ‘KARNATAKA’, then enter CODE of the ‘Native District’ and the CODE of ‘Native Taluk’, as per APPENDIX - II.

14. Qualifying Degree: Enter (or select from Dropdown Menu) the name of the Degree which you have passed or appeared.

15. Branch of Degree / Specialization: Enter the name of the branch or specialization which you have selected in the qualifying degree.

16. Qualification Details: Write all the details with regard to year of passing, maximum marks, marks obtained and total maximum marks and total obtained in all the subjects. If the results are awaited for a particular semester / year then indicate RA in the remarks column.

17. Study Details: All the candidates should write enter academic study details between 1st and qualifying examination in the space provided. They are required to write full name and address of the institutions studied and the respective telephone numbers with STD codes, the academic years of study and the year of passing.

(Item no. 18, 19, 20, 21 and 22 to be filled by M.E. / M.Tech candidates only)

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18. If you have appeared for GATE during 2011 or 2012 then write the GATE code, then write the marks obtained in the GATE exam and the GATE stream.

WHAT IS VALID GATE SCORE: GATE score are usually valid for two years, for example if you have appeared for GATE in 2011 and your marks are above qualifying marks, you are eligible to apply in 2012 for M.E. courses. But in 2013 your score is considered as invalid.

The next condition is about qualifying marks. Mere getting score does not show that its valid GATE score. Your score is ONLY VALID when it is above or equal to the score of qualifying marks. For example, if you have scored 20 marks and the qualifying marks for that year are mentioned as 25, then your GATE score is NOT VALID. Then you have to appear for PGCET-2012 examination.

Another question may arise, for this year I got 20 marks and qualifying score was 25, if next year qualifying marks decreased to 22, does it make my score valid? The simple answer is NO. The results for the same years will be considered as valid and invalid scores.

19. Details of Type –A and Type-B.: If you are appearing for VTU, UVCE and UBDTCE courses,

detailed in Appendix – 1 from 1 to 00 then select the circle against Type-A, OR if you are

appearing for the courses i.e., Department of PG studies and research in Mathematics and

Computer Science, Kuvempu University and Department of Studies in Computer Science,

Mysore University then select shade the circle against Type-B.

20. If you are appearing for VTU, UVCE and UBDTCE courses i.e., Type-A, then write the course

code that you are appearing for PGCET as per the Course CODES given below: It is the

responsibility of the candidate to enter the correct course code. KEA will not take the

responsibility of changing the course code at a later date. The candidates must be careful while

entering the course codes. There will be a separate question paper for each course. If a

candidate enters the wrong course code then he / she will be provided the question paper of

that course only.

The respective courses and codes are as follows:

Course Code and Course Name

Course Code and Course Name

01 – Civil Engineering 05 – Textile Technology 02 – Computer Science Engineering 06- Mechanical Science 03 – Chemical Engineering 07- Electrical Science 04 – Environmental Engineering 08- Polymer Science

09- Architecture Mechanical Science includes the following branches. The candidates who have studied the following

branches in the qualifying examination should select the course code as Mechanical Sciences. a. Mechanical Engineering b. Industrial and Production Engineering c. Industrial and Engineering Management d. Automobile Engineering e. Manufacturing Science and Engineering f. Allied Branches of Mechanical Science.

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Electrical Science includes the following branches. The candidates who have studied following branches in the qualifying examination should select the course code as Electrical Science.

a. Electrical and Electronics Engineering b. Electronics and Communication Engineering c. Telecommunication Engineering d. Instrumentation Technology e. Bio-Medical Engineering f. Medical Electronics g. Allied Branches of Electrical Science

21. USN: Enter the University Seat Number assigned by the concerned University in the space provided. 22. Sponsored: If you are appearing under sponsored scheme then enter ‘Y’. Sponsored Candidate: A candidate having served as a full time employee for a minimum

period of Three Years either continuously or in broken periods. Experience in the relevant

field from registered firm / company / industry / educational institution / research institution /

Government Department / Autonomous department or autonomous organization is

considered, after the qualifying examination, up to the date of notification. However,

candidate has to submit an undertaking from the employer, saying that the candidate is full

time employee and will not be withdrawn from the course till the completion of the course.

Part Time / Trainee / Guest faculty will not be considered as sponsored candidate.

CANDIDATE’S PHOTOGRAPH: UPLOAD A RECENT PASSPORT SIZE PHOTOGRAPH.

(CHECK THE SIZE DETAILS BEFORE UPLOADING)

IMPORTANT: If the photograph uploaded does not match with the actual candidate present

during examination, he / she will not be allowed to write the test. Also, if the photograph

does not tally with the actual candidate present during seat selection, he / she will not be

permitted to select the seat.

ASSIGNMENT OF EXAM CENTRES

Based on the information furnished by the candidate in the application, the examination centre

will be assigned by KEA.

ELIGIBILITY FOR GOVERNMENT SEATS Candidates who satisfy one of the following Clauses / Eligibility Criteria ONLY will be treated as Karnataka Candidates. Each condition is specified as a clause and is individually referred by a code. The documents to be produced during seat selection process in support of the claim for each of the Clauses are also detailed below the respective clauses.

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The candidates who do not satisfy any of the Clauses / Eligibility Criteria detailed below will be treated as non-Karnataka candidates and such candidates are eligible to select ONLY the seats surrendered by the management if any.

The candidates who do not produce the prescribed documents in original will not be eligible for admission to Postgraduate Courses under Government seats through KEA.

For MBA ELIGIBILITY CLAUSES CODES The candidate should have studied and passed in one or more Government or Government recognised educational institutions located in the State of Karnataka for a minimum period of SEVEN academic years commencing from 1st standard to Qualifying Examination either continuously or in broken period as on 1st July of the year in which the Entrance Test is held and must have appeared and passed either SSLC / 10th standard or 2nd PUC / 12th standard examination in a Government recognized institutions located in Karnataka State. In case of the candidate who had taken more than one year to pass a class or standard, the years of academic study is counted as one year only.

a

Documents to be produced: 1. SSLC / 10th standard Marks Card 2. 2nd PUC / 12th standard Marks Card and 3. QE marks card of the candidate 4. Candidate’s Study Certificate; If claiming reservation benefits: Caste / Caste Income Certificate issued by

Tahsildar- For SC / ST in Form-D, Category-I in form E and 2A, 2B, 3A and 3B in Form F.

The candidate should have studied and passed the qualifying examination within the State of Karnataka from an Educational Institution run or recognized by the State Government and that either of the parents should have studied in Government recognized institutions in Karnataka for a minimum period of SEVEN years.

b

Documents to be produced: 1. SSLC / 10th standard Marks Card 2. 2nd PUC / 12th standard Marks Card and 3. QE marks card of the candidate; 4. If claiming reservation benefits:- Caste / Caste Income Certificate issued by Tahsildar- For SC / ST in Form-

D, Category-I in form E and 2A, 2B, 3A and 3B in Form F., along with – 5. (a) a certificate for either of the parent having studied for at least 7 years in Karnataka from the Head of the

educational institution where he / she had studied. (b) the candidate’s study certificate for having studied Qualifying Examination in Karnataka issued by the head of the educational institution.

Son or daughter of an ex-servicemen who at the time of joining the defence service had declared a place in Karnataka as his home town, proof of such domicile should be obtained and produced from the “Deputy Director, Department of Sainik Welfare and Resettlement”. Further, the candidate should have passed the Q. E. from a University or Board or any other institution located anywhere in India.

h

Documents to be produced: 1. SSLC / 10th standard Marks Card. 2. 2nd PUC / 12th standard Marks Card of the candidate; 3. QE marks card of the candidate. 4. If claiming reservation benefits:- Caste / Caste Income Certificate issued by Tahsildar- For SC / ST in Form-

D, Category-I in form E and 2A, 2B, 3A and 3B in Form F, along with the

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5. Parent’s home town declaration certificate while joining the service issued by the Joint Director / Deputy Director of the concerned district and countersigned by the Director, Department of Sainik Welfare and Resettlement, Bangalore.

For MCA ELIGIBILITY CLAUSES CODES The candidate should have studied and passed in one or more Government or Government recognised educational institutions located in the State of Karnataka for a minimum period of SEVEN academic years commencing from 1st standard to Qualifying Examination either continuously or in broken period as on 1st July of the year in which the Entrance Test is held and must have appeared and passed either SSLC / 10th standard or 2nd PUC / 12th standard examination from Karnataka State. In case of the candidate who had taken more than one year to pass a class or standard, the years of academic study is counted as one year only.

a

Documents to be produced: 1. SSLC / 10th standard Marks Card, 2. 2nd PUC / 12th standard Marks Card and 3. QE marks card of the candidate, 4. Candidate’s Study Certificate; 5. If claiming reservation benefits: Caste / Caste Income Certificate issued by Tahsildar- For SC / ST in Form-

D, Category-I in form E and 2A, 2B, 3A and 3B in Form F. The candidate should have studied and passed Qualifying Examination within the State of Karnataka from an Educational Institution run or recognized by the State Government and that either of the parents should have studied in Government recognized institutions in Karnataka for a minimum period of SEVEN years.

b

Documents to be produced: 1. SSLC / 10th standard Marks Card 2. 2nd PUC / 12th standard Marks Card of the candidate; 3. QE Marks Card of the Candidate 4. If claiming reservation benefits:- Caste / Caste Income Certificate issued by Tahsildar- For SC / ST in Form-

D, Category-I in form E and 2A, 2B, 3A and 3B in Form F., along with – 5. (a) a certificate for either of the parent having studied for at least 7 years in Karnataka from the Head of the

educational institution where he / she had studied. (b) the candidate’s study certificate for having Qualifying Examination in Karnataka issued by the head of the educational institution.

Son or daughter of an ex-servicemen who at the time of joining the defence service had declared a place in Karnataka as his home town, proof of such domicile should be obtained and produced from the “Deputy Director, Department of Sainik Welfare and Resettlement”. Further, the candidate should have passed the Q. E. from a University or Board or any other institution located anywhere in India.

h

Documents to be produced: 1. SSLC / 10th standard Marks Card 2. 2nd PUC / 12th standard Marks Card of the candidate; 3. QE Marks Card of the candidate 4. If claiming reservation benefits :- Caste / Caste Income Certificate issued by Tahsildar- For SC / ST in Form-

D, Category-I in form E and 2A, 2B, 3A and 3B in Form F, along with the

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5. Parent’s home town declaration certificate while joining the service issued by the Joint Director / Deputy Director of the concerned district and countersigned by the Director, Department of Sainik Welfare and Resettlement, Bangalore.

For ME / M.Tech

ELIGIBILITY CLAUSES CODES

The candidate should have studied and passed in one or more Government or Government recognized educational institutions located in the State of Karnataka for a minimum period of SEVEN academic years commencing from 1st standard to qualifying examination either continuously or in broken period as on 1st July of the year in which the Entrance Test is held in a Government recognized institutions located in Karnataka State. In case of the candidate who had taken more than one year to pass a class or standard, the years of academic study is counted as one year only.

a Documents to be produced: 1. SSLC / 10th standard Marks Card 2. 2nd PUC / 12th standard Marks Card of the candidate, 3. QE Marks Card of the candidate 4. Candidate’s Study Certificate; 5. If claiming reservation benefits: Caste / Caste Income Certificate issued by Tahsildar- For SC / ST in

Form-D, Category-I in form E and 2A, 2B, 3A and 3B in Form F. The candidate should have studied and passed the qualifying examination within the State of Karnataka from an Educational Institution run or recognized by the State Government

b

Documents to be produced: 1. SSLC / 10th standard Marks Card 2. 2nd PUC / 12th standard Marks Card and 3. QE marks card of the candidate, 4. Candidate’s Study Certificate; If claiming reservation benefits: Caste / Caste Income Certificate issued

by Tahsildar- For SC / ST in Form-D, Category-I in form E and 2A, 2B, 3A and 3B in Form F along with the

5. Candidate’s study certificate for having studied and passed the Qualifying Examination in Karnataka issued by the head of the educational institution.

Candidates either of the parents should have studied in Government recognized institutions in Karnataka for a minimum period of SEVEN Years.

c

Documents to be produced: 1. SSLC / 10th standard Marks Card 2. 2nd PUC / 12th standard Marks Card and 3. QE marks card of the candidate 4. If claiming reservation benefits: Caste / Caste Income Certificate issued by Tahsildar- For SC / ST in

Form-D, Category-I in form E and 2A, 2B, 3A and 3B in Form F along with 5. Study certificate for either of the parent having studied for at least 7 years in Karnataka from the Head

of the educational institution where he / she had studied. A candidate or a parent of the candidate has been resided in Karnataka for a minimum period of SEVEN years.

d Documents to be produced: 1. SSLC / 10th standard Marks Card 2. 2nd PUC / 12th standard Marks Card and

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3. QE marks card of the candidate, 4. If claiming reservation benefits: Caste / Caste Income Certificate issued by Tahsildar- For SC / ST in

Form-D, Category-I in form E and 2A, 2B, 3A and 3B in Form F along with the 5. Candidate’s / parents residential in the state of Karnataka for a minimum period of SEVEN years

issued by the competent authority. NOTE: In case, if any of the documents produced in respect of the Clause claimed by the candidate is found to be false / incorrect, the seat selected by the candidate will be cancelled at any stage and the entire fee amount paid by such candidate will be forfeited. 7. RESERVATION OF SEATS IN FAVOUR OF CERTAIN CATEGORIES CODES Reservation for Ex-Defence Special category :- Son or daughter of Ex-Servicemen falling under Item – 6(h) of Chapter - I of the Brochure should obtain and produce a certificate showing the home address of the parent issued by the Joint Director / Deputy Director of the concerned district and countersigned by the Director, Department of Sainik Welfare and Resettlement, Bangalore failing which they will not be allowed for verification of certificates and also for later seat selection under Ex-Defence. Ex-Servicemen for the purpose of this clause includes personnel belonging to the Civil GT COYS ASC who were Civilian Class III or Class IV Government Servants, who became permanently disabled or were killed during hostilities. Note: This ex-defence reservation benefit is not applicable to ME / M.Tech / M.Arch courses.

U

Reservation for Physically Disabled Special category:- The candidates claiming reservation under this category will be required to appear for Medical examination on the specified date before a Committee comprising of the Executive Director, KEA as Chairman and three specialists from the Department of Orthopedics, Ophthalmology and ENT, nominated by the Government. Candidates with physical disability ranging above 40% should produce a Medical certificate issued by competent Doctor of any Government Hospital located in the State of Karnataka in the field of concerned disability, on the day of Medical examination only. Candidates suffering from hearing disability should compulsorily obtain and produce a BSER (Brain Stem Evoked Response) Audiometry report from NIMHANS / Manipal Hospital / Government Speech and Hearing Institute, Lingarajapuram, Bangalore. The Medical Board will examine the candidate and certificate and certify regarding the percentage of disability and the decision of the Medical Board is final. For the purpose of this proviso, persons with disability shall have the same meaning assigned to it as in the Persons with Disabilities (Equal Opportunities, Protection of Rights and Participation) Act 1995 (Central Act 1 / 1995). The candidates with disability less than 40% will not be eligible for claiming a seat under Physically Disabled category.

v

NOTE: 1. The Physically Disabled candidates, who fail to appear before the Committee for Medical examination on specified date will not be eligible for selection of a seat under Physically Disabled category.

2. As per rule 39 of the Persons with Disabilities (equal opportunities protection of rights and full participation) act, 1995, 3% of seats only in Government and Government Aided colleges are reserved.

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(2) RESERVATION FOR RESERVED CATEGORY CANDIDATES

(ONLY FOR KARNATAKA CANDIDATES)

Reservation is made in favour of candidates belonging to the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward Classes of citizens under categories 1, 2A, 2B, 3A and 3B in accordance with Government Order No. SWL 251 BCA 94 dated 31st January 1995, as amended from time to time.

Production of a “Caste Certificate / Caste Income Certificate” issued by the concerned Jurisdictional Tahasildar in accordance with the Government order No. Sa Ka E 225 BCA 2002 dated 30th March 2002, as amended from time to time, in Form ‘D’ in case of Scheduled Castes & Scheduled Tribes; in Form ‘E’ in case of Category-I; in Form ‘F’ in case of Other Backward Classes like 2A, 2B, 3A and 3B in support of the claim is mandatory for selecting a seat under reserved category.

Provided that candidates belonging to SC, ST & Category - I should produce an Income certificate issued by Jurisdictional Tahasildar in the prescribed format. (This is for the purpose of processing eligibility of candidates to claim Government of India scholarship).

Provided further that only candidates of Karnataka origin and who are claiming eligibility for Government seats in accordance with clause (a), (b), (c) (d) and (h) of Item - 6 of Chapter – I for the respective courses shall be eligible to claim the benefit of reservation under this sub-rule. The non-Karnataka candidates are not eligible to claim benefit of reservation. The interse merit determined under Rule - 6 (Please see Item - 4 of Chapter - II) will remain the same for the purpose of eligibility and benefit of reservation under Item - 8 of Chapter - I. If any seat reserved in favour of candidates belonging to any of the categories referred to from (1) to (4) above is not filled up due to non-availability of eligible candidates belonging to such categories, the reservation to that extent will stand reduced and will be transferred to the General Merit category during Casual vacancy round seat selection.

WHAT IS VALID GATE SCORE?

GATE score are usually valid for two years, for example if you have appeared for GATE in 2011 and your marks are above qualifying marks, you are eligible to apply in 2012 for M.E. courses. But in 2013 your score is considered as invalid.

The next condition is about qualifying marks. Mere getting score does not show that its valid GATE score. Your score is ONLY VALID when it is above or equal to the score of qualifying marks. For example, if you have scored 20 marks and the qualifying marks for that year are mentioned as 25, then your GATE score is NOT VALID. Then you have to appear for PGCET-2012 examination.

Another question may arise, for this year I got 20 marks and qualifying score was 25, if next year qualifying marks decreased to 22, does it make my score valid? The simple answer is NO. The results for the same years will be considered as valid and invalid scores.

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In all your future correspondence with the KEA do not forget to mention either your PGCET number or the computer generated application serial number along with complete postal address and contact telephone / mobile number.

KARNATAKA EXAMINATIONS AUTHORITY

Sampige Road, 18th Cross, Malleshwaram, Bangalore - 560 012.

Phone : 080 - 23461575, 23462758, 23462599 Fax : 080 - 23461576

e-mail : [email protected] Website : http://kea.kar.nic.in

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CHAPTER – II

MORE ABOUT THE WRITTEN TEST

1. SYLLABUS – For MBA

MBA: The broad outline syllabus for the Post Graduate Common Entrance Test for MBA PG Courses is detailed below:

1.Proficiency in English Language: (Section – A) a. Synonyms b. Antonyms c. One word Substitution d. Idioms and phrases e. Pairs expressing relationships f. Grammar g. Famous Books in English Literature h. Sentence Correction 2. General Knowledge : (Section - B) a. Indian Business Environment b. Global Environment c. Social Events d. Cultural Events e. Economics f. Management g. Political Events h. Historical Events I. Current Affairs j. Sports k. Awards l. Personalities and Achievements m. Science and Technology n. Humanities

3. Test of Reasoning and General Intelligence (Section – C) a. Puzzles b. Diagrams c. Analogy d. Logic e. Verbal Ability f. Analytical Ability g. Related Aspects 4. Quantitative Analysis (Section – D) a. Arithmetic b. Data Analysis and Interpretation c. Statistics d. Related Quantitative Aspects

SYLLABUS – For MCA

MCA: The question papers of the Post Graduate Common Entrance Test for MCA PG Courses are detailed below: The syllabus shall comprise of the following broad areas.

1. Mathematics.

Algebra : Fundamental operations in Algebra, Expansion, Factorization, Simultaneous Linear / Quadratic equations, Indices, Logarithms, Arithmetic, Geometric and Harmonic progressions, Binomial Theorem, Permutations and Combinations, Surds, Determinants, Matrices and application to solution of simultaneous linear equations.

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Co-Ordinate Geometry: Rectangular Cartesian co-ordinates, Equations of Line, Mid-point, Intersections etc, Equations of a Circle, Distance formulae, Pair of straight lines, Parabola, Ellipse and Hyperbola, Simple Geometric transformations such as Translation, Rotation, Scaling.

Vector: Position vector, addition and subtraction of Vectors, Scalar and Vector products.

Trigonometry: Simple identities, Trigonometric equations, Properties of Triangles, Inverse function.

Probability and Statistics: Basic concept of Probability theory, Averages, Dependent and Independent events, Frequency distributions and measures of dispersions, Skewness and Kurtosis, Random variable and Distribution functions, Mathematical Expectations, Binomial, Poisson, Normal distributions, Curve fitting and Principle of Least Squares, Correlation and Regression.

2. Computer Awareness:

Computer Basics : Organization of a computer, Central Processing Unit (CPU), Input / Output devices, Computer Memory, Back-up devices, Computer Languages, Operating Systems.

Data Representation: Representation of Characters, Integers and Fractions, Binary and Hexadecimal representations, Binary Arithmetic: Addition, Subtraction, Multiplication, Division, Two’s complement arithmetic, Floating-point representation of numbers, Normalized Floating-point representation.

3. Analytical Ability and Logical Reasoning:

The question in this section will cover Logical Reasoning, Quantitative reasoning and Visuo-spatial reasoning.

4. General Awareness:

This section shall carry questions to test the general awareness about Business, Finance, Industry, Transportation, Scientific inventions, Governance, Healthcare and Cultural dimensions etc.

5. General English:

Questions on Grammar and Vocabulary.

SYLLABUS – For ME / M.Tech / M.Arch

The broad outline syllabus for the Post Graduate Common Entrance Test for M.E. / M.Tech. / M.Arch. / MBA (Infrastructure Management) PG Courses and model question paper is updated on the KEA website http://kea.kar.nic.in.

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2. DURATION, QUESTION PAPER AND OMR ANSWER SHEETS

Model Question Paper: It is provided in APPENDIX – V.

The PGCET-2012 will be held in one session separately for MBA, conducted for 100 marks each with 150 minutes duration. Each question paper will be of (Objective) Multiple Choice type. The question paper will be in four different versions. Each question will have four different options. Each question will carry ONE mark. The PGCET-2012 will be held in one session separately for MCA courses conducted for 100 marks with 150 minutes duration. Each question paper will be of (Objective) Multiple Choice type. The question paper will be in four different versions. Each question will have four different options. 60 questions in Part - A carry one mark each. 20 questions in Part - B carry two marks each. Thus there will be 80 questions and a total mark is 100.

The PGCET-2012 will be held in two sessions separately for ME / M.Tech / M.Arch conducted 100 marks with 150 minutes duration. Each question paper will be of (Objective) Multiple Choice type. The question paper will be in four different versions. Each question will have four different options. The different types of question paper pattern for ME / M.Tech / M.Arch courses are as follows:

Question Paper Pattern:

A) M.Tech of Department of Post Graduate Studies and Research in Mathematics and Computer Science of Kuvempu University and Department of Studies in Computer Science, University of Mysore, is as follows:

Total Number of Questions : 75 Multiple Choice Questions

Total Marks : 100

50 Questions – 1 Mark each : 50 X 1 = 50

25 Questions – 2 Mark each : 25 X 2 = 50

Total : 100 Marks

B) M.E. / M.Tech / M.Arch / MBA (Infrastructure Management) programs of VTU / UBDTCE and UVCE

(I) Written Test will be conducted in NINE disciplines i) Civil Engineering ii) Chemical Engineering iii) Computer Science Engineering iv) Environmental Engineering v) Textile Engineering vi) Polymer Science vii) Architecture

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Total Number of Questions : 75 Multiple Choice Questions Total Marks : 100 50 Questions – 1 Mark each : 50 X 1 = 50 25 Questions – 2 Mark each : 25 X 2 = 50 Total : 100 Marks

(II) viii) Electrical Science, this includes

a) Electrical and Electronics Engineering (E & E)

b) Electronics and Communication Engineering (E & C)

c) Telecommunication Engineering (TC)

d) Instrumentation Technology (IT)

e) Bio-Medical Engineering (BME)

f) Medical Electronics (ME)

g) Allied branches of Electrical Science (ABE)

Question paper will consist of part-A and part-B.

Part-A is common to

h) Electrical and Electronics Engineering (E & E)

i) Electronics and Communication Engineering (E & C)

j) Telecommunication Engineering (TC)

k) Instrumentation Technology (IT)

l) Bio-Medical Engineering (BME)

m) Medical Electronics (ME)

n) Allied branches of Electrical Science (ABE)

Total Number of Questions : 45 Marks: 60

30 Questions Carrying 1 mark each : 30 X 1 = 30

15 Questions carrying 2 mark each : 15 X 2 = 30

Part-B is specific to candidates belonging to respective branch of specialization of engineering and consists of total number of questions: 30 Marks: 40

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Marks = 40

Grand Total Part – A + Part-B = 75 Questions = 100 marks

ix) Mechanical Science, this includes

a) Mechanical Engineering (MC)

b) Industrial and Production Engineering (IPE)

c) Industrial and Engineering Management (IEM)

d) Automobile Engineering (AE)

e) Manufacturing Science and Engineering (MSE)

f) Allied Branches of Mechanical Science (ABM)

Question paper will consist of Part-A and Part-B.

Part-A is common to (a) M.E. (b) IPE (c) IEM (d) AE (e) MSE (f) ABM

Total number of questions : 45 Marks: 60

30 questions carrying 1 mark each : 30 X 1 = 30

15 questions carrying 2 mark each : 15 X 2 = 30

Total: 60 Marks

Part-B is specific to candidates belonging to respective branch of specialization of engineering and consists of

Total number of questions: 30 Marks: 40

20 Questions carrying 1 Mark each : 20 X 1 = 20


Total: 40 Marks

Grand Total: Part-A + Part-B = 75 questions Marks = 100

Books / Tables / Mechanical Charts / Programmable Electronic aids / Cell Phones are not permitted in the examination hall Possession of these items in the examination hall is considered as malpractice and disciplinary action will be taken by the concerned examination conducting authorities.

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All questions are compulsory. In other words, there is no choice among questions. Candidate is expected to attempt all the questions, in order to obtain maximum marks.

All questions are compulsory. In other words, there is no choice among questions. Candidate is expected to attempt all the questions, in order to obtain maximum marks. THERE WILL BE NO NEGATIVE EVALUATION WITH REGARD TO WRONG ANSWERS BUT MARKS WILL NOT BE AWARDED IN RESPECT OF MULTIPLE ANSWERS. The version code of the question paper will be boldly printed on facing sheet of the question paper. The version codes used in each paper will be from A - 1 to A - 4.

COMPULSORY: Initial TEN minutes will be given for the candidates to write / shade the particulars such as Name, PG CET Number, Version Code and Serial number of the question booklet on the OMR answer sheet in the boxes provided. The candidates who do not write / shade the correct PGCET Number and Version Code on the OMR answer sheets, the OMR answer sheets of such candidates will not be scanned and will not be assigned any rank.

The candidates will have to mark correct options on the Optical Mark Reader (OMR) answer sheet, which will be supplied at the beginning of the test.

Among the four options provided against a question, only one answer will be correct. The candidate should mark the correct answer by completely shading only one circle against a question number, using BLUE or BLACK ink ball point pen. More details about precautions to be taken while filling the particulars on OMR answer sheet is given below. The OMR answer sheet comprises of two sheets. The top sheet will be used for the purpose of marking correct answers and later scanning & evaluation and the bottom sheet will be returned to the candidates after completion of the test. The bottom sheet is coated with a special kind of chemical which acts as Carbon. When the candidate fills the circles on the top sheet, the pressure on the bottom sheet will automatically create a replica of the top sheet. The candidates are required to COMPULSORILY AFFIX THEIR LEFT HAND THUMB IMPRESSION in the space provided on the bottom portion of the OMR answer sheet (top sheet) with the ink-pad provided by the room Invigilator, after completion of the test. However, they need not affix their thumb impression on the replica (bottom sheet) of the OMR answer sheet. Thereafter, the invigilators will detach the bottom sheet from the top sheet at the perforations and hand over the bottom sheet replica to the candidates and they are allowed to carry the same with them. The top sheet will be retained by the invigilator for returning the same to the Deputy Chief Superintendent of the examination center and in turn to KEA.

NOTE: The OMR answer sheets in respect of all the candidates who have affixed their left hand thumb impression will only be scanned and the results in respect of such candidates will be published. The OMR answer sheets in respect of candidates who have not affixed their left hand thumb impression, for any reason, will not be scanned. Also, the results in respect of such candidates will not be published.

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Optical Mark Reader sheets as Answer Sheets

The need for the replica has compelled us to design OMR sheet in such a way that all the information and the answers are marked only on one side. The top portion of the sheet is meant for furnishing the particulars about the candidates such as the Name, PGCET Number, Version code and serial number of the question booklet. The bottom portion is meant for marking the answers, affixing the signature of the room Invigilator & candidates and also for affixing the Left Hand Thumb Impression of the candidate. The space meant for the subject would have been pre-marked. The square blocks in each item should be filled by the candidate in capital letters and numbers. The circles corresponding to the letters or numbers are meant to be completely shaded using blue or black ink ballpoint pen only. Why Ball Point Pen? Remember, we are allowing the candidates to carry home a replica or facsimile of the OMR answer sheet and the OMR answer paper comes in a set of two sheets. When you shade the top sheet, the pressure will create a dark mark on the bottom sheet on the corresponding circle. If a pen with a nib is used, the pressure on the top sheet will not be sufficient to activate the chemical on the bottom sheet. On the other hand, a ballpoint pen exerts sufficient pressure to convert the bottom sheet chemical into a dark spot. That is why we want you to use a blue / black ink ballpoint pen only.

Important precautions to be taken while writing / shading Top portion of OMR Answer Sheet

The initial TEN minutes will be given to a candidate, for writing / shading the particulars on the top portion of the OMR answer sheet, wherein the candidates are required to write their Name within the boxes, write their PGCET Number in the boxes and shade the respective circles, write the Question booklet version code in the boxes and shade the respective circle in the required manner. The candidates are also required to write the Question booklet serial number. Of the five items, entries pertaining to ‘Name’, ‘PGCET Number’ and ‘Question booklet Version code’ are very crucial ones. Therefore, candidates are advised to take extra precaution while writing and shading these three items accurately on the top portion of the OMR answer sheet. Important precautions to be taken while shading answers on bottom portion of OMR Answer sheet. After the initial TEN minutes 120 minutes will be given to a candidate for shading the answers on the bottom portion of the OMR answer sheet. Against each question number, four circles will be provided corresponding to four options of the question paper. The candidates are required to shade only one circle corresponding to the correct answer.

The scanner is so sensitive to black and blue ink shades that even a slight residual ink mark or an unintended ink dot within a circle on the OMR answer sheet will be taken by it, as filled / shaded, at the time of scanning. Consequently, the candidate may lose marks. Therefore, please do not make any stray pen marks on the OMR answer sheets. As the scoring done by the scanner and the computer in tandem is final, a plea for erasing or neglecting the ink mark on a circle cannot be entertained. Therefore, candidates are advised to take extra precaution while shading the circles on the bottom portion.

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THINK BEFORE YOU INK!

Once you darken a circle, there is no way to erase or to remove it. That way, your decision about a correct answer will be final. The invigilator will not permit you to use marker, white fluid or any other device to hide the shading already done and you will not be supplied with one more set of OMR sheet. If you spoil a sheet in your attempt to rub off the shading done on a circle, you may ruin your opportunities. If two circles are shaded in a row and even if one of the circles is partially rubbed off, the scanner will take it as a multiple attempt. Therefore, think twice before you shade a circle with ink. Darken only one circle for each question as shown against the CORRECT METHOD.

CORRECT METHOD OF SHADING

WRONG METHOD OF SHADING

The candidates should invariably preserve their ‘PGCET 2012’ OMR answer sheet replica

for a minimum period of one year from the date of obtaining the admission order.

3. DETERMINATION OF MERIT AND PUBLICATION OF MERIT LISTS

(A) DETERMINATION OF MERIT:

The merit of the candidate, who appears for Post Graduate Common Entrance Test–2012 for MBA and MCA Courses, will be determined separately for each course only on the basis of marks obtained by candidates in the Post Graduate Common Entrance Test – 2012.

Provided that where the merit of two or more candidates is the same, the interse merit shall be determined with reference to the total aggregate marks obtained in the Qualifying examination and where marks obtained are equal again, the interse merit shall be determined on the basis of the age of the candidate, wherein the elder candidate will be considered before the younger.

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NOTE: If everything as specified in the sub-clause referred to above are equal, then the interse merit will be determined by draw of lots. The determination of interse merit as detailed above for selection of Government seats will be the basis for the merit list of candidates claiming benefit of reservation under Admission Rules.

In case of ME/ M.Tech / M.Arch / MBA (Infrastructure Management) (Full Time) Course merit will be determined for different classes of candidates as indicated below:

(a) M.E. / M.Tech / M.Arch / MBA (Infrastructure Management) (Full Time) course

1. GATE candidates: Merit in respect of GATE candidates shall be determined on the basis of valid GATE score.

2. SPONSORED Candidates: Merit in respect of Sponsored candidates shall be determined in the following order of preference namely.

i. Candidates employed in State Government Institutions / Organisations.

ii. Candidates employed in Public Sector / Aided Institutions.

iii. Candidates employed in Private Institutions / Private Sector Organisations.

No age limit is prescribed for sponsored candidates. However, while allotting seats persons below 45 years of age will be preferred. In the event of his / her quitting service from sponsoring institutions, a candidate automatically loses seats allotted under sponsored category.

3. In case of all non-GATE candidates belonging to different categories merit shall be determined on the basis of marks secured by them in the PGCET-2012.

(b) M.E. / M.Tech / M.Arch. (Part-Time) Course:

1. GATE Candidates: Merit in respect of GATE candidates shall be determined on the basis of valid GATE score.

2. Merit in respect of all other candidates, shall be determined on the basis of marks secured by them in the PGCET-2012.

Where the merit of two or more candidate is same, the inter-se merit shall be determined with reference to the aggregate marks obtained in the qualifying examination and the candidate securing higher marks will be placed above the candidate securing lower marks.

Where the merit of two or more candidates is equal after determining the merit under clause above, the interse merit shall be determined on the basis of the age of the candidate, with the elder candidate placed above the younger.

(B) PREPARATION OF RANK LIST:

For VTU, UBDTCE and UVCE.

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1. For admission to M.E. / M.Tech / M.Arch / MBA (Infrastructure Management) (Full Time) Course, there shall be two merit lists prepared as mentioned below:

a) The list of GATE candidates, arranged in the order of merit considering the valid GATE score, is called “GATE Rank List (FT)”

b) The list of PGCET-2012 candidates, arranged in the order of merit considering the PGCET-2012 marks is called PGCET Rank List (FT)”.

2. For admission to M.Tech (Part Time) course, there shall be two merit lists prepared as mentioned below:

a) The list of GATE candidates, arranged in the order of merit considering the valid GATE score is called “GATE Rank List (PT)”.

b) The list of PGCET-2012 candidates, arranged in the order of merit considering the PGCET-2012 score, is called “PGCET-Rank list (PT)”.

For Kuvempu and Mysore University; Separate rank list will be prepared for these two Universities and procedure is similar as mentioned above.

(B) PUBLICATION OF MERIT LISTS:

After completion of the entrance test, the ANSWER KEY will be published on the KEA Website: http://kea.kar.nic.in The candidates / parents / lecturers can file their objections, if any, addressed to the “Executive Director, Karnataka Examinations Authority, Bangalore” either in person, or through e-mail, or by SPEED POST, with regard to any of the published Answer Key, along with all supporting documents / justification. Objections received from the candidates without justification shall not be considered. The objections received by KEA will be placed before an Expert Committee, whose decision will be final for determination of the right answer key. The answer key approved by the Expert Committee will be applied during evaluation for determination of merit order.

As per the merit determined by the KEA, ranks will be assigned separately for MBA, MCA, ME / M. Tech / M. Arch courses as per the norms and procedure to the eligible candidates. Result sheets will be published on KEA Website http://kea.kar.nic.in The correct Answer Keys will also be published along with the results.

Request for re-totaling or revaluation of the OMR answer sheets will not be entertained, as the valuation and the subsequent scoring will be error free.

Result sheets will not be displayed in the KEA premises.

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CHAPTER – III

1. DOCUMENTS TO BE PRODUCED DURING SEAT SELECTION PROCESS

The original documents to be produced during seat selection process have been detailed separately for MBA, MCA, ME / M.Tech / M.Arch in respect of Government seats in Item – 6 of Chapter – I below each of the Eligibility Clauses.

Government seats: Candidates who seek admission to Government seats should compulsorily produce the required documents in ORIGINAL with ONE set of attested photocopies of all the original documents and two passport size photographs along with the Demand Draft for the notified fees, for verification at the KEA at the time of registration for seat selection. After verification, only ONE set of attested photocopies of all the documents will be retained by the KEA and all original documents will be returned to the candidates. The documents to be produced for claiming Government seats are detailed clause wise, below the respective CLAUSES in Item – 6 of Chapter – I of this brochure.

Explanation for some of the prominent documents is as follows:

SSLC Marks Card SSLC or 10th standard or equivalent examination marks card.

2nd PUC Marks Card 2nd PUC or 12th standard or equivalent examination marks card.

Study Certificate Study Certificate to show that the candidate has studied in Karnataka for a minimum period of SEVEN years from 1st standard to 12th standard or qualifying examination issued by Head of the institution. Further, School study certificates should be got countersigned by the concerned Block Educational Officer (BEO)/Deputy Director of Public Instructions (DDPI) COMPULSORILY in the proforma prescribed at APPENDIX – III. PLEASE CONTACT CONCERNED SCHOOL FOR BEO / DDPI OFFICE ADDRESS. (The counter signature for PUC / 12th Std / Degree study certificate is not required)

Qualifying Exam Degree Marks Card of all the Years / Semester applicable to PG Course Marks Card which you have applied. Caste / Caste Income Certificate Candidates seeking reservation benefit should produce a Caste

Certificate in Form ‘D’ in case of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes; in Form ‘E’ Income in case of Category -1; a Caste Income Certificate in Form ‘F’ for Other Backward Classes such as 2A, 2B, 3A and 3B, issued by the concerned Jurisdictional Tahasildar, in accordance with the Government order No. Sa Ka E 225 BCA 2000 dated 30th March 2002, as amended from time to time. The candidates belonging to SC, ST and Category –1 of the other backward classes should also produce a separate Income Certificate. (This is for the purpose of processing eligibility of candidates to claim Government of India scholarship).

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The school study certificates of the candidates should be got countersigned invariably by the BEO / DDPI along with full Address, Seal & Telephone Number of the concerned office. HOWEVER, COUNTERSIGNATURE FOR PUC / 11TH & 12TH STANDARD / QE STUDY CERTIFICATE IS NOT REQUIRED.

NOTE: 1.Where the eligibility of the candidate is based on the study of the parent, relevant documents to establish the relationship of candidate with the parent has to be produced.

2. The contents of the documents submitted by the candidates should be either in Kannada or English languages only. If the documents are in any other language, the same should be got translated to Kannada or English language through the concerned authorities with signature and seal and should be produced during seat selection. Otherwise the KEA reserves the right to reject the same.

THE FOLLOWING ATTESTED PHOTOCOPIES OF DOCUMENTS SHOULD BE SUBMITTED DURING DOCUMENT VERIFICATION PROCESS.

³ SSLC / 10th Standard / Equivalent Examination Marks Card

³ 2nd PUC / 12th Standard/ Equivalent Examination Marks Card

³ Degree Marks Card of all the Years / Semesters.

³ Study Certificate (Only for Karnataka Candidates)

³ TWO recent passport size photographs

The following documents should be produced, ONLY if applicable:

³ Minimum 3 years work Experience Certificate (for Part time candidates) (work experience certificate should include name of the organisation, date of joining, designation, working period, no objection condition etc.,).

³ Caste Certificate / Caste Income Certificate / Income Certificate obtained from the concerned Tahasildar, for the candidates claiming Reservation benefits. (Only for Karnataka Candidates)

³ Parent’s study certificate / Parent’s Hometown certificate / (Parent’s Domicile certificate / Parent’s Employment certificate / Parent’s Cumulative Record / Parent’s Marks Card, etc.,) for the candidates claiming eligibility for Government seats based on the (domicile) / study / (employment) of the parent.

• GATE Score Card. (Result Sheet) • Sponsorship Certificate (For Full Time Program)

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2. ADMISSION FEE

The admission fee for MBA / MCA / M.E. / M.Tech / M.Arch / MBA (Infrastructure Management) courses for the year 2012-13 will be notified later on the KEA website.

³ The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes candidates need not to pay any fees.

³ The fee amount should be paid by the candidates when they come for seat selection process in the form of a Demand Draft obtained from any Nationalized Banks.

³ Demand Draft should be drawn in favour of “The Executive Director, Karnataka Examinations Authority”, payable at Bangalore.

³ The candidates should come prepared with the Demand Drafts for the fee before registering themselves for selection of a seat, failing which they will not be allowed to register and select any seat. The Bank counter functioning at the seat selection premises will not issue the demand drafts, the candidates and parents are also advised not to bring the prescribed fee in the form of CASH / CHEQUE.

3. GOVERNMENT SEATS (SEAT MATRIX)

The KEA will receive the seat matrix from the Government before the commencement of Admission round seat selection process. Hence, an accurate number of seats to be offered for allotment as Government seats, college wise, category wise and course wise, cannot be made known at this stage. The seat matrix (Government seats) in respect of MBA / MCA / M.E. / M.Tech / M.Arch / MBA (Infrastructure Management) courses, as notified by the Government will be published on the notice boards of the KEA and also on the KEA website http://kea.kar.nic.in before the commencement of seat selection. For the benefit of candidates, full postal address and telephone / fax numbers of Professional colleges and the total number of Government share of seats offered in these colleges for the academic year 2011-12 are given in APPENDIX – IV and no inference shall be drawn either for number of seats or to the college for the academic year 2012- 13. The allotment of seats will be done as per the Seat Matrix published by the Government of Karnataka.

4. PROCEDURES FOLLOWED DURING THE SEAT SELECTION PROCESS

The candidates who have been assigned ranks in the ‘Post Graduate Common Entrance Test–2012’ will be allowed to select a seat of their choice in the order of merit. The details of the seat selection schedule will be notified separately in the newspaper and also on the KEA website http://kea.kar.nic.in

Seat selection process will be conducted in accordance with the schedule which will be notified later. The candidates should visit KEA Website http://kea.kar.nic.in and should confirm the rank ranges, date and time of seat selection process before coming to the seat selection center. No individual intimation will be sent to the eligible rank holders regarding the date and time of seat selection process.

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Before coming for seat selection process, all eligible rank holders should make sure that they have kept the required original documents with one set of attested photocopies of all the documents and two photographs along with the Demand Draft for the fee prescribed by the Government for various courses.

The entire seat selection activities in the KEA are handled through software right from the stage of registration till the stage of printing of admission orders. The highly sophisticated software used in the system has the ability on one side to control the initial registration, provide data for verification of the original documents and on the other side to take care of selection of seats by the candidates in the order of merit, online display of availability of seats, payment of fees and finally printing of admission orders. Once the candidate comes to the seat selection hall by registering and verifying the documents, the software will not allow any jump in the order of merit. Even if one has registered himself / herself before another candidate with higher merit, he / she will have to wait for his / her turn at the admission terminals. Unless a candidate who has a higher rank and whose PGCET number is registered gets the opportunity to select a seat, a candidate who has a rank next to him will not by-pass him.

Selection of seat by a candidate and admission thereafter at the KEA shall comprise of the following stages, wherein all the candidates will be allowed to select a seat of their choice strictly in the order of merit:

(a) Registration of the candidate; (b) Verification of the original documents; (c) Selection of seats in accordance with merit order; (d) Remittance of Fees in the form of Demand Draft; (e) Issue of Admission Order.

The candidates will be allowed to participate in accordance with the notified time schedule and as per the stipulated rank ranges only. The candidates are required to register their PGCET number in the computer system. From there, the candidates are sent to the Verification Counter where the entries of original documents are checked against the computer data that has been furnished by them in their application forms. After verification, KEA will retain one set of the attested photocopies and the original documents will be returned to the candidates. Before leaving the verification counter, an acknowledgment card and a verification slip will be issued to the candidates. Thereafter, the candidates will proceed to the seat selection hall, wherein the candidates will have the assistance of a huge on-line projector screen, which will show category-wise, course-wise and college-wise availability of seats at that moment. In the seat selection hall, all the candidates who have registered and verified their original documents will be called for seat selection as per the MERIT QUEUE. At this point, the candidate should produce the verification slip issued at the verification counter and the Demand Draft for the prescribed fee amount, failing which he will not be allowed to select a seat. The moment he / she selects a seat, the computer display and the on-line projector screen will show one seat less against the course / college from which the candidate has selected the seat. The details pertaining to the candidates who select seat at the allotment terminals such as Name, PGCET Number, Rank, Category, College / Course selected and Photograph of the candidate will also be displayed on the screens, for the information of all the candidates and parents who are waiting seat selection within and outside the premises of the KEA.

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After seat selection, candidate will have to go to the Bank counter and deposit the Demand Draft for the prescribed fee. The Bank Officer can enter the amount only if the candidate has selected a seat. Otherwise the computer at the Bank counter will not allow him to do so. After entering Demand Draft particulars against name of the candidate, a receipt will be issued to candidates in the Bank counter. Thereafter, the candidates are required to submit their verification slip in the Admission order issue counter located opposite to Bank counter. The admission order for the seat selected by candidates will be printed and the Admission Order will be issued ONLY to the candidates after obtaining candidate’s signature in the register and also after ascertaining that he has submitted all the required documents and has paid the prescribed fees.

5. SELECTION OF SEATS BY THE CANDIDATES AND ADMISSION

The candidates who have been assigned ranks in the ‘Post Graduate Common Entrance Test–2012’ will be allowed to select a seat of their choice in the order of merit. The details of the seat selection schedule will be notified separately in the newspaper and also on the KEA website http://kea.kar.nic.in

In accordance with Admission rules, the seat selection process comprises of an Admission Round followed by a Casual Vacancy Round for casual vacancies, if any. The seats will be offered to all eligible rank holders as per the seat matrix issued by the Government.

During the admission round, if the seat of their choice is not available or all the seats are exhausted before their turn comes, then for such candidates it is not compulsory to attend the admission round, they can directly attend the casual vacancy round in the order of merit with all the necessary original documents and the requisite fee. There is no rule that “only the candidates who have attended the admission round will have the opportunity to select seat in the casual vacancy round”. All the eligible candidates will have an opportunity to participate in the casual vacancy round in the order of merit. i.e., the candidates;

(I) Whether attended or not attended the admission round.

(ii) Whether holding an acknowledgment card issued by this office, or not (An acknowledgment card will be issued to the candidates after verifying the original documents)

(iii) Whether selected a seat in the admission round or not,

(iv) Selected and reported to the concerned colleges,

(v) Selected but not reported to the concerned colleges.

Provided that the candidate should report to the college selected by him within 3 days from the date of issue of admission of order in casual vacancy round, if he has selected seat in the casual vacancy round, failing which he shall intimate to KEA within 3 days, otherwise he shall be deemed to be admitted to the college.

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ADMISSION ROUND SEAT SELECTION PROCESS

The admission round seat selection process will be held in the following stages and all eligible candidates will be allowed to participate in the same:

STAGE – 1 : For Physically Disabled candidates. (MBA, MCA, M.E./M.Tech/M.Arch)

STAGE – 2 : For MBA course.

STAGE – 3 : For MCA course

STAGE – 4 : For ME/M.Tech/M.Arch courses

In all the above stages of the admission round, the eligible rank holders will be allowed to select the seats in the order of merit, as per the schedule which will be notified later.

The candidates, who select a seat in any of the above stages during the admission round, should invariably pay the prescribed fee in the form of Demand Draft and should obtain the admission order for the seat selected. The fee paid by the candidates during the Admission Round for one discipline / course will be adjusted upon selection of a seat in the other discipline.

STAGE – 1: FOR PHYSICALLY DISABLED CATEGORIES.

In the first instance, the seats reserved for Physically Disabled Special category candidates will be offered.

The candidates claiming a seat under the persons with disability category should COMPULSORILY appear before the Medical Board comprising of the Executive Director and three specialists nominated by the Competent Authority. The Medical Board shall examine the candidate and certify regarding the percentage of disability and the decision of the Medical Board will be final. The candidates with less than 40% of disability and those who fail to appear before the Committee on the notified date and time, will not be eligible for selection of a seat under the Physically Disabled category. The list of eligible Physically Disabled candidates prepared by the Medical Board will be final for the purpose of seat selection.

The eligible Physically Disabled candidates will be allowed to select the seats after they submit all the required original documents and the prescribed fees.

STAGE – 2 : ADMISSION ROUND FOR MBA COURSES.

The MBA seats pertaining to all reserved categories, Ex-Defence and General Merit students will be offered in this stage at once. All eligible MBA rank holders including the candidates, who have selected seats under the Physically Disabled, will be allowed to select MBA seats in accordance with their ranks, after they submit all the required original documents and the prescribed fees. Seat selected in the earlier STAGES of admission round, if any, shall stand automatically cancelled, if a candidate selects a seat in this STAGE.

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STAGE – 3 : ADMISSION ROUND FOR MCA COURSES.

The MCA seats pertaining to all reserved categories, Ex-Defence and General Merit students will be offered in this stage at once. All eligible MCA rank holders including the candidates, who have selected seats under the Physically Disabled, will be allowed to select MCA seats in accordance with their ranks, after they submit all the required original documents and the prescribed fees. Seat selected in the earlier STAGES of admission round, if any, shall stand automatically cancelled, if a candidate selects a seat in this STAGE.

Allocation of Seats:

For MBA and MCA course:

There will be both General & Reserved Category seats under Government Seats and only General Category Seats under Management Seats (surrendered by Private Unaided Institutions, if any),

(1) The General Category and Reserved Category seats under Government Seats shall be allotted to only those candidates who becomes eligible as Karnataka candidates as per item 6 of Chapter - 1 of the brochure.

(2) The General category seats under Management Seats shall be allotted to both Karnataka and Non Karnataka candidates.

STAGE – 4 : ADMISSION ROUND FOR ME / M.Tech / M.Arch / MBA (Infrastructure Management) COURSES.

For M.Tech Course:

There will be both General & Reserved Category seats under Government Seats and only General Category Seats under Management Seats (Surrendered by Private Unaided Institutions, if any).

1. In the case of M.E. / M.Tech./ M.Arch / MBA (Infrastructure Management) (Full Time) courses, first seat will be allotted to VALID GATE SCORE candidates irrespective of the Karnataka or non-Karnataka. However, reservation is applicable only to those who become eligible as Karnataka candidates as per item 6 of Chapter - 1 of the brochure and the same is not applicable to Non-Karnataka GATE rank holders. Non-Karnataka GATE rank holders have to select seats under Open / General category.

2. After allotment of seats to eligible GATE rank holders is over, the seat that remains under General category, 90% of the seats are reserved for Karnataka Candidates and the remaining 10% for Non-Karnataka Candidates to the eligible PGCET-2012 rank holders.

3. The General Category and Reserved Category seats under Government Seats shall be allotted to only those candidates who becomes eligible as Karnataka candidates as per item 6 of Chapter - 1 of the brochure.

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4. The General category seats under Management Seats shall be allotted to both Karnataka and Non Karnataka candidates.

The procedure followed for selection of seats shall be as follows:

1) Selection of seats for M.E. / M.Tech/ M.Arch / MBA (Infrastructure Management) Full Time Course:

a) Seat selection for GATE Candidates: As per the seat matrix issued by the Government, selection of seat shall be held for all GATE candidates from GATE Rank List (FT).

b) Seat selection for PGCET-2012 Candidates: The seats remaining vacant after selection of seats by the GATE candidates shall be offered to candidates who will become eligible in PGCET-2012(FT).

2) Selection of seats for M.Tech (Part Time Course)

a) Seat selection for GATE Candidates: As per the seat matrix issued by the Government, selection of seat shall be held for all GATE candidates from GATE Rank List (FT).

b) Seat selection for PGCET-2012 Candidates: The seats remaining vacant after selection of seats by the GATE candidates shall be offered to candidates who will become eligible in PGCET-2012(PT).

The ME / M.Tech / M.Arch / MBA (Infrastructure Management) seats pertaining to all reserved categories, Ex-Defence and General Merit students will be offered in this stage at once. All eligible ME / M.Tech / M.Arch / rank holders including the candidates, who have selected seats under the Physically Disabled, will be allowed to select ME / M.Tech / M.Arch / seats in accordance with their ranks, after they submit all the required original documents and the prescribed fees. Seat selected in the earlier STAGES of admission round, if any, shall stand automatically cancelled, if a candidate selects a seat in this STAGE.

NOTE : THE CANDIDATES BELONGING TO RESERVED CATEGORIES SUCH AS SC, ST, CATEGORY – 1, 2A, 2B, 3A, 3B, WILL HAVE THE OPPORTUNITY OF SELECTING A SEAT UNDER GENERAL MERIT CATEGORY ALSO.

IMPORTANT: The candidate’s who select a seat in the Admission Round, may report to the respective colleges along with the original admission order issued by the KEA, well within the last date prescribed in their admission orders.

PROCEDURE FOLLOWED FOR CONVERSION OF UNFILLED SEATS

After completion of the admission round, the seats that remain unfilled under all the reserved categories will be converted to the General Merit category and offered to GM candidates along with all other reserved category candidates in the General casual vacancy round.

IMPORTANT: 1. This procedure of conversion of seats will be adopted before the commencement of Casual vacancy round in respect of all the disciplines. Further, if the

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reserved category candidates select a General Merit / respective reserved category seat during the General casual vacancy round, then a reserved category seat becomes vacant. Such seats are treated as ‘CONSEQUENTIAL CASUAL VACANCIES’. These consequential reserved category vacancies that arise during the General casual vacancy round will remain under the same categories and will be offered only to the candidates belonging to the same reserved categories.

2. The reserved category seat cancelled by a candidate either before the commencement of casual vacancy round or during the casual vacancy round at any stage, will not be converted to General Merit category and such reserved category cancelled seats will be offered only to the respective category candidates.

CASUAL VACANCY ROUND SEAT SELECTION PROCESS

After the completion of admission round seat selection, all the unfilled / surrendered / forfeited / cancelled / newly added seats, if any, will be offered as CASUAL VACANCIES. All candidates who have selected a seat and obtained admission orders in respect of the seat selected in the admission round whether reported to the college or not, will be eligible to participate in the Casual Vacancy round along with all those candidates who have not selected any seat in any of the stages in the admission round. The candidates who participate in the Casual Vacancy Round for the first time should invariably submit the required documents in Original along with one set of attested photocopies and prescribed fees without fail.

The candidates who have selected seat in the admission round will have the following three options when their turn comes in the casual vacancy round;

(i) if the candidate is satisfied with the seat selected during the admission round he / she can continue in the same seat. The last date for reporting will be extended if the candidate has not reported to the college and if he / she retains the same seat. OR

(ii) a candidate can select a seat afresh in the order of merit, the fee paid during the admission round if any, will be adjusted for the seat selected and a fresh admission order will be issued to the candidate. The seat selected in the admission round will get automatically cancelled by the computer and immediately added to the seat matrix (display board) to the same college, course / category, upon selection of a seat in this round.

(iii) A candidate can cancel the seat when his / her turn comes in this round by forfeiting 50% of the fee amount paid.

IMPORTANT NOTE: (1) The candidates who select casual vacancy seats should invariably report to the respective colleges along with all original documents and the admission order issued by KEA, well within the last date prescribed in the admission order, for that discipline.

(2) If a candidate does not surrender the seat to KEA during casual vacancy seat selection round before the turn comes, he / she deemed to have got admitted to the seat selected by him / her selected in either of the rounds.

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(3) If a candidate decides to surrender the seat, he / she has to surrender the seat only to KEA. Merely not reporting to the selected college should not be presumed by the candidate that he / she has surrendered the seat to KEA.

In the first instance Casual Vacancy Round will be held for Physically Disabled candidates. Then the Casual Vacancy Round will be held for General Merit and for all the reserved category candidates.

STAGE – 1 : CASUAL VACANCY ROUND FOR MBA COURSES

The MBA Casual vacancies, if any, will be offered in the following two rounds:

(1) Special categories: In this round, the casual vacancies, if any, will be offered to Physically Disabled candidates.

(2) General Merit and all reserved categories: In this round, the seats that remain unfilled under all reserved and special categories after completion of the admission rounds will be converted to General Merit category and will be offered to General Merit category candidates along with all other reserved category candidates.

STAGE – 2 : CASUAL VACANCY ROUND FOR MCA COURSES



(2) General Merit and all reserved categories : In this round, the seats that remain unfilled under all reserved and special categories after completion of the admission rounds will be converted to General Merit category and will be offered to General Merit category candidates along with all other reserved category candidates.

STAGE – 3 : CASUAL VACANCY ROUND FOR ME / M.Tech / M.Arch COURSES



(2) General Merit and all reserved categories: In this round, the seats that remain unfilled under all reserved and special categories after completion of the admission rounds will be converted to General Merit category and will be offered to General Merit category candidates along with all other reserved category candidates.

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A NOTE ON REFUND AND FORFEITURE OF FEE 1. In the case of a candidate who cancels / surrenders the seat selected in the Admission round, before the turn of such candidate in the Casual Vacancy round, the Executive Director, KEA shall forfeit an amount of 50% from the fee paid by him / her and refund the remaining amount to the candidate, in the form of Account Payee Cheque through Indian Bank, KEA Extension Counter. (Account Payee Cheque will be issued only in the name of the candidate) 2. In the case of a candidate who cancels / surrenders the seat after such candidate’s turn in the Casual Vacancy round, the Executive Director, KEA shall forfeit 100% of the fee paid by the candidate. 3. The fee paid in the Casual Vacancy round, will not be liable to be refunded, in case of cancellation / surrender of the same by the candidate. A candidate who selects a casual vacancy seat and does not join the college concerned shall not be entitled for refund of deposited fees, which shall be forfeited by the Executive Director, KEA. 4. In the case of a candidate who does not surrender, cancel or fails to join the college / course allotted, even after the completion of the Casual Vacancy round, then the Executive Director, KEA shall forfeit the entire amount paid as fees by the concerned candidate. 5. In the case of a candidate who claims the refund with regard to the excess fee remitted by him / her should claim such amount on or before 31-03-2013, failing which, the Executive Director, KEA shall forfeit such excess fee amount paid by the concerned candidate. LEGAL JURISDICTION Any dispute that may arise in respect of the test or the later seat selection process and admission is subject to the jurisdiction of the Hon’ble High court of Karnataka. The issue of admission order by the KEA shall enable the candidate to join the concerned college, subject to the academic eligibility, etc., being approved by the concerned University as per the Regulations.

APPENDIX – I

LIST OF PLACES AND RESPECTIVE CODES WHERE THE ‘PGCET 2012’

TEST CENTRES ARE LOCATED

EXAM PLACEGULBARGAMYSORESHIMOGATUMKUR

EXAM PLACE

MANGALOREDHARWAD

BAGALKOTDAVANGERE

EXAM PLACEBANGALORE BELGAUMBELLARYBIJAPUR

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APPENDIX – II

STATE, DISTRICT AND TALUK CODES

1. STATE CODES

01 -02 -03 -04 -05 -06 -07 -08 -09 -10 -

BANGALORE URBANBANGALORE RURALBAGALKOTBELGAUMBELLARYBIDARBIJAPURCHAMARAJANAGARCHICKAMAGALURCHICKABALLAPUR

11 -12 -13 -14 -15 -16 -17 -18 -19 -20 -

CHITRADURGADAKSHINA KANNADADHARWADDAVANGEREGADAGGULBARGAHASSANHAVERIKODAGUKOLAR

21 -22 -23 -24 -25 -26 -27 -28 -29 -30 -

KOPPALMANDYAMYSORERAICHURRAMANAGARAMSHIMOGATUMKURUDUPIUTTARA KANNADAYADGIR

01 -02 -03 -04 -05 -06 -07 -08 -09 -10 -11 -12 -

KARNATAKA ANDHRA PRADESHARUNACHAL PRADESHASSAMBIHARCHANDIGARHCHATTISGARHDELHIGOAGUJARATHARYANAHIMACHAL PRADESH

13 -14 -15 -16 -17 -18 -19 -20 -21 -22 -23 - 24 -

JAMMU & KASHMIRJHARKHANDKERALAMADHYA PRADESHMAHARASHTRA MANIPURMEGHALAYAMIZORAMNAGALANDORISSAPONDICHERRYPUNJAB

25 -26 -27 -28 -29 -30 -31 -32 -33 -34 -

RAJASTHANSIKKIMTAMILNADUTRIPURAUTTARAKHANDUTTAR PRADESHWEST BENGAL ANDAMAN NICOBARLAKSHA DWEEPOTHERS

2. DISTRICT CODES

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001 -002 -003 -004 -005 -006 -007 -008 -009 -010 -011 -012 -013 -014 -015 -016 -017 -018 -019 -020 -021 -022 -023 -024 -025 -026 -027 -028 -029 -030 -031 -032 -033 -034 -035 -036 -037 -038 -039 -040 -041 -042 -043 -044 -045 -046 -047 -048 -049 -050 -051 -052 -053 -054 -055 -056 -057 -058 -059 -

AFZALPURALANDAALURANEKALANKOLAARASIKERE ARAKALAGUDATHANIAURADBADAMIBAGALKOTBAGEPALLIBAGEWADIBAILAHONGALABANGALORE NORTHBANGALORE SOUTHBANGALORE EASTBANGARPETBANTWAL BASAVAKALYANBELGAUMBELLARY BELTHANGADIBELURBHADRAVATHIBHALKIBHATKALBIDARBIJAPURBILAGIBYADAGICHIKKANAYAKANA HALLICHALLAKERECHAMARAJANAGAR CHANNAGIRICHANNAPATNACHANNARAYAPATNACHICKAMAGALURCHICKABALLAPURCHIKKODICHINCHOLICHINTAMANICHITTAPURCHITRADURGADAVANGEREDEVADURGADEVANAHALLIDHARWAD DODDABALLAPURGADAGGANGAVATHIGOKAKGOWRIBIDANURGUBBI GUDIBANDEGULBARGAGUNDLUPETHAGARI BOMMANAHALLIH. D. KOTE

060 -061 -062 -063 -064 -065 -066 -067 -068 - 069 -070 -071 -072 -073 -074 -075 -076 -077 -078 -079 -080 -081 -082 -083 -084 -085 -086 -087 -088 -089 -090 -091 -092 -093 -094 -095 -096 -097 -098 -099 -100 -101 -102 -103 -104 -105 -106 -107 -108 -109 -110 -111 -112 -113 -114 -115 -116 -117 -118 -

HADAGALIHALIYALHANGALHARAPANAHALLIHARIHARHASSANHAVERIHIREKERURHIRIYURHOLALKEREHOLENARASIPURAHONNALIHONNAVARAHOSADURGAHOSAKOTEHOSANAGARHOSPETHUBLIHUKKERIHUMNABADHUNAGUNDHUNSURINDIJAGALURJAMAKHANDIJEWARGIKADURKALGHATAGIKANAKAPURAKARKALA KARWARKHANAPURKOLARKOLLEGALAKOPPAKOPPALKORATAGEREKRISHNARAJANAGARKRISHNARAJA PETKUDLIGIKUMTAKUNDAPURKUNDAGOLKUNIGALKUSHTAGILINGASUGURMADDURMADHUGIRIMADIKERIMAGADIMALAVALLIMALURMANDYAMANGALOREMANVIMOLAKALMURUMUDDEBIHALMUDHOLMUDIGERE

119 -120 -121 -122 -123 -124 -125 -126 -127 -128 -129 -130 -131 -132 -133 -134 -135 -136 -137 -138 -139 -140 -141 -142 -143 -144 -145 -146 -147 -148 -149 -150 -151 -152 -153 -154 -155 -156 -157 -158 -159 -160 -161 -162 -163 -164 -165 -166 -167 -168 -169 -170 -171 -172 -173 -174 -175 -176 -

MULABAGAL MUNDARGIMUNDAGODMYSOREN. R. PURANAGAMANGALANANJANAGUDNARAGUNDNAVALAGUNDNELAMANGALAPANDAVAPURA PAVAGADAPERIYAPATNAPUTTURRAIBAGRAICHURRAMANAGARAM RAMADURGRANEBENNURRONSAGARSAKALESHPURASANDURSAVANURSEDUMSHAHAPURSHIGGAONSHIKARIPURSHIMOGASHIRAHATTISHORAPURSIDDAPURSHIDLAGHATTASINDAGISINDHANURSIRASIRAGUPPASIRSISOMWARPETSORABSOUNDATTISRINGERISRINIVASAPURASRIRANGAPATNASULLIAT. NARASIPURATARIKERETHIRTHAHALLITIPTURTUMKURTURUVEKEREUDUPIVIRAJPETYADGIRYELANDURYELBURGAYELLAPURZOIDA

3. TALUK CODES

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APPENDIX – III

SPECIMEN OF PRESCRIBED FORMATS

Working Experience CertificateThis is to certify that Sri / Smt _______________________________________________ working in this organization as a permanent employee and presently holding the post as ______ _____________ He / she has joined this organization on _________ ______. He / She has

Further, this organization has no objection for Sri / Smt. joining to MBA (Part Time) course.

Govt. Semi Govt. Public Sector Private.

_______ ___________ years and

___________ Months of experience in this organization.____________________________________________ for

Organisation:

Date :Place :

Signature of the Head of the Institution / Organisation With Seal

Phone No &Complete Address of the Organisation

SPECIMEN OF STUDY CERTIFICATE

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PROFORMA FOR STUDY CERTIFICATE

Signature ofHead of the institution

(Name in Block letters.............................)

NAME, FULL POSTAL ADDRESS & TELEPHONE NUMBER OF THE INSTITUTION.

Date ….…....................

This is to certify that Sri. / Kum. ......................................................………………….. S/o / D/o ................…............................…….. has studied from ......................…..... .... standard to .……........................................................................... standard in our i nstitution from ………..................…................. to ………..…..............…........ academic years.

The mother tongue of the candidate is …………………..........................…………………. as per the Admission register of the institution.

The above details are true and correct to the best of my knowledge.

Institution seal

COUNTER SIGNED BY ME

Address, Seal & Office Telephone Numberof the Block Educational Officer / DDPI.

APPENDIX – IV

PROFESSIONAL COLLEGES INFORMATION

The total number of Government share of seats offered in the following colleges for the Academic Year 2010-11 are given at pages 26 to 32 for the information of the candidates / parents and no inference shall be drawn either for number of seats or to the college for the Academic Year 2011- 12. The allotment of seats will be done as per the Seat Matrix published by the Government of Karnataka.

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Part - I

Section ‘A’

Test of Proficiency in English Language

Direction: For each of the questions from 1 to 3, choose the Word or Phrase that is similar in meaning to the numbered word.

1. HECTIC

a) Organised b) Clumsy c) Frantic d) Thrilling

2. DETER

a) Distract b) Suppress c) Discouraged d) Contaminate

3. JETTISON

a) Control b) Emit c) Stir d) Discard

Direction : For each of the questions from 4 to 6, choose the Word or Phrase that is similar in meaning to the numbered word.

4. ABOMINATE

a) Loathe b) Despise c) Adore d) Abhor

5. INVECTIVE

a) Normality b) Restoration c) Fertility d) Praise

6. UNTOWARD

a) Experienced b) Inevitable c) Industrious d) Proper

Direction : Relate the Ologies & Ographies in the following numbered question from 7 to 9.

7. ICHTHYOLOGY

a) Study of hair b) Study of insects c) Study of fishes d) Study of dates

8. NEPHROLOGY

a) Study of kidney b) Study of clouds c) Study of snakes d) Study of liver

9. PHILOLOGY

a) Study of Historical language b) Study of people

c) Study of supernatural beings d) Study of rocks

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Direction : An idiom and four possible meanings are given in questions from 10 to 12. Identify the closest meaning of the idiom from among the answer choices.

10. Child’s play

a) To handle a situation calmly b) To dispute over petty points

c) An easy task d) To treat lightly

11. Cut no ice

a) Unable to perform b) Make no impression

c) Come to nothing d) To fail

12. Head to toe

a) Thoroughly b) Continuously c) Nothing d) Completely

Direction : Each question from 13 to 15 gives a sentence with a part of the sentence underlined that may contain an error. Four alternative substitutes are given for the underlined portion. Identify the choice that replaces the underlined part to form a logical and grammatically correct statement.

13. He would not have failed if he had enough money.

a) if he had enough money b) if he would have enough money

c) if he would have had enough money d) if he had had enough money

14. The professor asked her when will you submit her thesis.

a) when will you submit her thesis b) when she would have submit her theses

c) when you will have submitted your thesis d) when she would submit her thesis.

15. He tried his best to be punctual, but he was occasionally behind time.

a) he was always lagging behind b) he was seldom on time

c) he was late on some occasion d) he would be punctual

Direction : In each of the following question 16 & 17, capitalised pair of words is given, followed by four numbered pairs of words. Three of the numbered pairs exhibit the same relationship between the words as the capitalised pair of words. Identify the numbered pair which does not exhibit the same relationship as the capitalised pair.

16. MISTAKE : PRACTICE

a) draught : rain b) anger : resentment c) extinct : protect d) error : diligence

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17. SKETCH : DIAGRAM

a) design : plan b) draw : picture c) print : book d) paint : portrait

Direction : A sentence is written in four different formats in questions 18 & 19. Only one of them is grammatically correct. Mark the correct choices as your answer.

18. a) I will meet you if you will come tomorrow.

b) I will meet you if you have come tomorrow.

c) I shall meet you if you come tomorrow.

d) Harsher punishment will increase the crime number.

19. a) Harsher punishment will not reduce the number of crime.

b) Harsher punishment will not reduce the number of crimes.

c) Harsher punishment will increase the number of crime.

d) Harsher punishment will increase the crime number.

Direction : Fill in the blanks in the given sentence so as to make it logically and grammatically correct by choosing the correct word from the choices given, in questions 20 & 21.

20. ___________ about nine months ago, john was in excellent health.

a) Until b) In c) At d) As

21. Mental talents if buried and not used, ________to deteriorate.

a) lead b) get c) tend d) matter

DIRECTION : Each question 22 & 23 below gives a sentence followed by four answer choices. From the choices provided, identify the one that best restates the given sentence and mark its choice as your answer.

22. It might be truly said of him that he never sought honour.

a) It is true that he never sought honour.

b) The truth of him is that he never sought honour.

c) Honour was not truly sought by him.

d) He never truly sought honour.

23. I am afraid I did not make myself understood.

a) I am afraid of not making myself understood.

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b) I am afraid I have not made myself understood.

c) I am afraid I did not make myself understood.

d) I am afraid of not having made myself understood.

Direction : A word and four jumbled choices are given in questions 24 & 25. One of the choices, when properly arranged given the meaning of the word. Identify the correct choice.

24. DEFEAT

a) UQAVNHSI b) CETAH c) COTUH d) TACSRCH

25. FANTASTIC

a) TIAIRLSIC b) BDCINREILE c) ALCER d) YNIMIAGAR

Part - I

Section ‘B’

Test of General Knowledge

26. The tusks of male elephant are

a) premolar b) molar c) incisor d) canine

27. In which year was the RBI nationalized ?

a) 1948 b) 1950 c) 1947 d) 1949

28. The Mauryan dynasty ruled from 321 BC to 185 BC. The last Mauryan emperor was defeated by Pushyamitra Sunga. Who among the following was the last Mauyuran emperor ?

a) Brihadratha b) Asoka c) Bindusara d) Samprati

29. Which of the following books is not written by Shashi Tharoor ?

a) Bookless in Baghdad b) The Great Indian Novel

c) Riot : A Novel d) India : The Siege Within

30. When bullet is fired upwards vertically it gains in

a) Potential energy b) Kinetic energy c) Speed d) inertia

31. How many players make up a team in a basketball game ?

a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 7

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32. Who among the following is the director of the film Corporate?

a) Shekar Kapoor b) Mahesh Bhatt

c) Nagesh Kukanoor d) Madhur Bhandarkar

33. The traditional new year celebrations of Bihu are associated with

a) West Bengal b) Orissa c) Assam d) Kerala

34. Who is the author of the book, Elizabeth Costello?

a) J.M.Coetzee b) Peter Carey c)Glunter Grass d) Hari Kunzru

35. Which is the solar system’s fastest planet, which orbits the sun at nearly twice the speed of the earth?

a) Venus b) Mercury c) Jupiter d) Pluto

36. US President Barack Obama served as Unites States Senator from January 4, 2005 to

November 16, 2008 from which of the following states?

a) Iowa b) California c) Illinois d) New York

37. Who among the follwoing owns The Taj hotel, Mumbai which was recently attacked by militants?

a) Ratan Tata b) Arun Sarin c) KM Birla d) Vijay Mallya

38. Which among the following is the most common element on earth?

a) Hydrogen b) Carbon c) Oxygen d) Nitrogen

39. Which of the following nations gave women, the right to vote, first?

a) West Indies b) United States of America c) India d) New Zealand

40. What is the meaning of Veni, Vidi, Vici?

a) I came, I fought, I won b) I came, I saw, I conquered

c) I saw, I planned, I achieved d) I saw, I fought, I won

41. The disease Swine Flu, is caused by which subtype of Influenza A virus?

a) H5N1 b) H5N c) H1M1 d) H1N1

42. What are the Primary Colours?

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a) Red, Blue and Yellow b) Red, Blue, Green

c) Blue Yellow, Brown d) Blue, Brown, Black

43. The Narmada Valley Project is spread across three states. Which of the following is not a part of the project?

a) Maharashtra b) Jharkhand c) Gujarat d) Madhya Pradesh

44. The PGA championship is associated with

a) Bridge b) Polo c) Horse racing d) Golf

45. Jeep, an automobile brand, is registered and owned by

a) General Motors b) Ford Motors c) Daimler Chrysler d) Mahindra & Mahindra

46. What should be the minimum level of public shareholding in listed companies under the new SEBI guidelines issued in April 2006?

a) 20% of total equity capital b) 15% of total equity capital

c) 25% of total equity capital d) 30% of total equity capital

47. Which company is associated with the campaign, Taste Bhi, Health Bhi?

a) GlaxoSmithKline b) Dabur c) Nestle d) Amul

48. The book, To Kill a Mocking Bird, is written by

a) Harper Lee b) Joseph Heller c) Ken Casey d) Ayn Rand

49. Spoil yourself is the punch line of

a) Tata Indigo b) Tata Indica c) Toyota Corolla d) Toyota Camry

50. Lawrence J Ellison, one of the world,s highest paid CEOs is heading _______ Company?

a) IBM b) Toshiba c) Oracle d) Wipro

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Part - II

SECTION ‘C’

Test of Reasoning and General Intelligence

DIRECTION (Question No.: 51 to 53): Answer these question based on the information given below:

A visits Vizag where his brother P resides. A stays with his father Q and mother S. P’s Grandfather, R also stays with him. P has two children B and C. B’s husband is X. C is married to Y, who is a wrestler, C’s son T welcomed A on his visit.

51. How is T related to B

a) Niece b) Nephew c) Cousin d) son

52. How is S related to C?

a) Mother b) Grandmother c) Aunt d) Cannot be Determined

53. How is P related to X?

a) Mother-in-law b) Mother c) Father-in-law d) Cannot be determined

DIRECTION (Question No. 54 to 56): Answer these question based on the data given below:

“In a class of 70 students, 30 failed in Mathematics and 35 failed in Statistics. Ten Students passed in both the subjects.”

54. How many failed in both the subjects?

a) 65 b) 60 c) 05 d) 15

55. How many students passed only in Mathematics?

a) 40 b) 30 c) 15 d) 20

56. How many students passed in exactly one of the two subjects?

a) 60 b) 55 c) 40 d) 35

DIRECTION (for Question No. 57 to 59): Answer the question based on the following data:

Puja, kajol, Raj, Sanju, Teena and Uday sit round a hexagonal table in such a way that neither Puja nor Raj sits opposite to Kajol and neither Teena nor Uday sits opposite to Sanju, whereas Raj sits to the immediate left of Sanju.

57. If Teena sits opposite to Raj, Then which of the following must be true?

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a) Puja is opposite to sanju b) kajal and Uday sit opposite to each other

c) puja and Uday sit opposite to each other d) None of these

58. If Teena sits opposite to Kajol, then with of the following is definitely false?

a) Uday and Puja sit next to each other b) Uday sits opposite to Raj

c) Puja sist opposite to Sanju d) Puja and Uday have only one person between

them.

59. If Puja sits to the immediate left of Raj, then

a) Kajol sits opposite to Raj b) Puja sits opposite to Sanju

c) Kajol sits opposite to Sanju d) Teen is opposite to Raj

Direction (Question No. 60-62): Select the alternative that logically follows the two given statements :

60. All Books are pages. All pages are boxes.

a) All boxes are books b) All books are boxes

c) No books are boxes d) Both (a) and (b)

61. No monkeys are apes. Some apes are chimpanzees

a) Some chimpanzees are not monkeys b) Some monkeys are not chimpanzees

c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of the above

62. No men are good. Some good people are saints.

a) Some saints are not men b) Some men are not saints

c) All men are saints d) None of the above

63. a) Income Tax b) Sale Tax c) Commercial Tax d) Professional Tax

64. a) Vishakapatnam b) Bhilai c) Rourkela d) Vijaywad

65. a) 180 b) 120 c) 48 d) 28

66. A clock is so placed that at 2:00p.m. the minute hand points towards north-west. In which direction does the hour hand point at 6”00p.m. ?

a) North-West b) West c) North-East d) South-East

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67. One evening, two friends Vikas and Viju were talking to each other with their backs towards each other. If Vikas’ shadow was exactly to the right of him, which direction was Viju facing?

a) South b) North c) East d) West

68. If 1cm on a map corresponds to an actual distance of 40 kms. And the distance on the map between Bombay and Calcutta is 37.5 cms. the actual distance between them is :

a) 375 Kms b) 3750 Kms c) 1500 Kms d) 1375 Kms

69. Which of the following is the greatest ?

a) 40% of 30 b) 3/5 of 25 c) 6.5% of 200 d) ½ -4

70. After walking 10 Km, Rajesh turned right and walked 5 Km, then turned left and walked 1 K.

Now he is moving towards south. From which direction did Rajesh start his journey ?

a) North b) South-West c) East d) West

71. Two identical taps fill 2/5 of a tank in 20 minutes. When one of the taps goes dry in how

many minutes will the remaining one tap fill the rest of the tank ?

a) 15 Minutes b) 5 Minutes c) 10 Minutes d) 20 Minutes

72. If “Square” = 87 and “Rectangle” =94, then what is the value of “Rhombus” ?

a) 96 b) 94 c) 89 d) None of these

73. On what day of the week did India celebrate its first Republic Day i.e. 26th January, 1950 ?

a) Sunday b) Monday c) Tuesday d) None of these

74. Padma walks 10 Kms from north to south and turns left again walks 5 Kms. Then she turns left and walks 8 Kms. In which direction is she positioned now with reference to the starting point ?

a) East b) South-East c) North d) North-East

75. Find the next number in the series:

3, 12, 48, 192, 768. ?

a) 2868 b) 2968 c) 3072 d) 3176

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Part - II

Section ‘D’

Test of Quantitative Analysis (Mathematical Skills)

76. If Rs. 2000 amounts to Rs. 2200 in two years under simple interest, what is the rate of interest per annum ?

a) 5% b) 6% c) 10% d) 8%

77. Rahul borrowed Rs.1,00,000 @ 8% p.a. compound interest, interest being compounded

annually. How much should he repay at the end of the first year, so that by repaying Rs. 54,000 at the end of the second year he can clear the loan ?

a) Rs.46,000 b) Rs.54,000 c) Rs.58,000 d) Rs. 50,000

78. 6 litres of pure milk are added 10 litres of a mixture of water and milk, with 40% milk. What is the percentage of milk in the new solution ?

a) 50% b) 62.5% c) 75% d) 87.5%

79. The price of the product is decreased by 10% and then increased by 10%. What is the change in price ?

a) increased by 1% b) Decreased by 1%

c) No change int he price d) None of these

80. The worth of a car depreciates by 4% every year. If the present worth of a car is Rs. 6,00,000, what is its worth after four years (to the nearest thousands) ?

a) Rs. 5,04,000 b) Rs. 5,12,000 c) Rs. 5,10,000 d) Rs. 5,16,000

81. What is the area of the smallest square that can be formed with rectangles of dimensions

3 x 2 ?

a) 6 b) 12 c) 72 d) 36

82. Number “85” is divided into two parts, such that thrice the first part and twice the second part are in the ratio of 18 : 5. Find the first part ?

a) 60 b) 55 c) 45 d) 24

83. A party is attended by a total of 60 persons. If the ratio of men and women is 3 : 2, how many more men must join the party such that the ratio becomes 7 : 3 ?

a) 10 b) 15 c) 20 d) 25

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84. A group of five people can do a certain work in a certain number of days. If more people join the group, they take 12 days less to do the same work. In how many days a group of three people can do the work ?

a) 30 days b) 45 days c) 15 days d) 60 days

85. A man leaves P and reaches Q in three hours at an average speed of 60 Kmph. What is the distance from P to Q ?

a) 180 Km b) 150 Km c) 300 Km d) 250 Km

86. The sum of the first and the 9th of an arithmetic progression is 24. What is the sum of the first nine terms of the progression ?


87. The sum of 20 terms of the series 12 + 22, 32+ 42. 52+62 is:


88. If 3/p=6 and 3/p=15 then p-q = ?

a) 1/3 b)2/5 c) 3/10 5/6

89. In how many ways can 5 letters be posted in 3 post boxes, if any number of letters can be posted in all of the three post boxes ?

a) 5C3 b) 5P3 c) 53 d) 35

90. John starts work at 8:45am and finishes at 5:15pm. He has 90 minutes of breaks. How many hours does he work in 29 days ?

a) 180 b) 200 c) 220 d) 240

91. The ratio of the present ages of Suman and Renu is 5 : 7 respectively. Four years hence the ratio will become 3 : 4 respectively. What is the present age of Renu in years ?

a) 28 b) 24 c) 21 d) 20

92. A man bought some fruits at the rate of 16 for Rs. 24 and sold them at the rate of 8 for Rs. 18. What is the profit per cent ?

a) 50% b) 40% c) 60% d) 25%

93. A, B and C contract a work for Rs. 550. Together A and B are supposed to do 7/11th of the work. How much does C get ?

a) Rs. 270 b) Rs. 200 c) Rs. 310 d) Rs. 175.

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94. If the diagonals of a rhombus are 8cm and 10cm respectively what will be the area of the

rhombus?

a) 35 sq.cm b) 40 sq.com c) 30 sq.cm d) 20 sq.cm

95. Brijesh was born on 17th August 1983 and the day was Friday. If Aryan was born on 27th March 1986, what was the day ?

a) Thursday b) Monday c) Friday d) Saturday

96. A person standing in a queue is 17th from the first and 13th from the last. How many peoples are standing in the queue ?

a) 29 b) 33 c) 45 d) 26

97. Pipes A and B can fill a tank in 15 hours and 20 hours respectively. Both together can fill it in:

a) 12.5 hours b) 17.5 hours c) 8.57 hours d) 15.57 hours

98. In a group of 15, 7 have studies Latin, 8 have studied Greek and 3 have not studied either. How many of these studied both Latin and Greek ?

a) 6 b) 3 c) 9 d) 0

99. There is a safe with a 5 digit number as the key. The 4th digit is 4 greater than second digit, while 3rd digit is 3 less than 2nd digit. The 1st digit is thrice the last digit. There are 3 pairs whose sum is 11. Find the 3rd digit.

a) 0 b) 1 c) 3 d) 3

100. If 4563 = 5437 and 6647 = 3353, then 546 is

a) 453 b) 454 c) 8445 d) 9454

* * * * *