IBPS PO EXAM SOLVED QUESTION PAPER (BANK OF ......IBPS PO EXAM SOLVED QUESTION PAPER (BANK OF MAHARASHTRA) • TEST OF REASONING • QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE • ENGLISH LANGUAGE •

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IBPS PO EXAM SOLVED QUESTION PAPER

(BANK OF MAHARASHTRA)

• TEST OF REASONING • QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE • ENGLISH LANGUAGE • GENERAL AWARNESS

Table of Content

Title Page Number

Bank of Maharashtra 2007 Question Paper

1. Test I - Test of Reasoning ………………………………………1

2. Test II – Quantitative Aptitude………..…………………….10

3. Test III – General Awareness………………………………….19

4. Test IV – English Language……………………………………..27

5. Answers for Bank of Maharashtra 07 Paper…………..37

Bank of Maharashtra 2009 Question Paper

6. Test I – Reasoning ability ………………………………………..39

7. Test II – Quantitative Aptitude…….………………………….47

8. Test III – General Awareness….……………………………….56

9. Test IV – English Language….…………………………………..63

10. Answers for Bank of Maharashtra 08 Paper…… .71

BANKOFMAHARASHTRA 07

TEST - I TEST OF REASONING

Q.1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one thatdoes not belong to the group? a) 72 b) 42 c) 152 d) 110 e) 156

Q.2. How manymeaningful words can .be made from the letters ADEL using each letter only once? a)None b)One c)Two d) Three e)More than three

Q.3. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘ADVERTISE’, each of which has as manyletters between them in the word, as they have in the English alphabet? a)None b)One c)Two d) Three e) None of these

Q.4. In a certain code FUEL is written as $%#6 and KITE is written as@•7#. How is LIFE written inthat code? a) 6%$# b) 6$%# c) 6*$# d) 6%*# e) None of these

Q.5. If in the word CUSTOMIZE all the consonants are replaced by the previous letter and all thevowels are replaced by the next letter in English alphabet and then all the letters are arrangedalphabetically from left to right, which letter will be fourth from the right? a) R b) T c) L d) M e) None of these

In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be atvariance from

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commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of thegiven conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly knownfacts. Q.6. Statements : All flowers are fruits. No fruit is juice. Some juices are proteins. All proteins are vitamins. Conclusions: I. Some vitamins are fruits. II. Some juices are vitamins III. No flower is juice. a) Only I & II follow b) Only I & III follow c) All I, II & III follow d) Only II & III follow e) None of these

Q.7. Statements : Some bags are suits. All suits are trousers.Some trousers are shirts. All shirts are coats. Conclusions: I. Some trousers are coats. II. Some bags are trousers.III. Some suits are coats. a) Only I & II follow b) Only I follows c) Only II & III follow d) All follow e) None of these

Q.8. Statements : All books are novels. Some novels are poems.Some poems are stories. No novel is amovie. Conclusions : I. Some books are poems. II. Somemovies are novels.III. No movie is a novel. a) Only I follows b) Only I & II follow c) Only either II or III follows d) None follows e) None of these

Q.9. Statements : All cups are bowls. All bowls are trays. Some trays are plates. No plate is spoon. Conclusions : I. Some bowls are plates. II. Some cups are spoons. III. No cup is spoon. a) Only I follows b) Only II follows c) Only II & III follow d) All follow e) None of these

Q.10. Statements : Some towers are pillars. Some pillars are buildings. All buildings are flats. No flat is house. Conclusions : I. No building is house. II. Some towers are houses.III. Some towers are flats. a) None follows b) Only I follows c) Only II & III follow d) All follow e) None of these

In these questions the symbols ©,#,$, % and # are used with different meanings as follows : ‘A @ B’ means ‘A is not smaller than B. ‘A # B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor equal to B’.


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‘A $ B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor smaller than B’. ‘A % B’ means ‘A is not greater than B’. ‘A *B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor equal to B’. In each question, four statements showing relationships have been given, which are followed by three conclusions I, II and III. Assuming that the given statements are true, find out which conclusion(s) is/are definitely true. Q.11. Statements : V $ Y, Y@Z, Z % X, X # T Conclusions : I. T # Z II. X # Y III. Z Y a) None follows b) Only I follows c) Only II & III follow d) Only I & III follow e) None of these

Q.12. Statements : R @ J, J % F, F E, E % M Conclusions : I. M # J II. F%M III. M R a) Only I follows b) Only II follows c) Only III follows d) Only I & II follow e) All follow

Q.13. Statements : H # R, R @ L, L W, W % F Conclusions : I. H # L II. F # L III. H $ F a) Only I follows b) Only I & II follow c) Only II & III follow d) Only either I or II follows e) All follow

Q.14. Statements : M # K, M $ F, F % Q, Q H Conclusions : I. H # K II. Q # K III. Q @ M a) Only I & II follow b) Only either I or II follows c) All I, II & III follow d) Only II & III follow e) None of these

Q.15. Statements : D Q, Q $ L, L # T, T % H Conclusions : I. D L II. L @ H III. H L a) Only I follows b) Only I & II follow c) Only either II or III follows d) All I, II & III follow e) Only I and either II or III follow

Given an input line the machine arranges the words and numbers in steps in a systematic manner as illustrated below:


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Input line : 56 dress fine shine 32 66 72 offer Step I 72 56 dress fine shine 32 66 offer Step II 72 shine 56 dress fine 32 66 offer Step III 72 shine 66 56 dress fine 32 offer Step IV 72 shine 66 offer 56 dress fine 32 StepV 72 shine 66 offer 56 fine dress 32 Step VI 72 shine 66 offer 56 fine 32 dress Step VI is the last step and the output in Step VI is the final output. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input. Q.16. Step IV of an input is ’62 sound 56 sleep roampresent 33 49'.What will be the input definitely? a) sound 62 sleep 56 roam present 33 49 b) sleep sound 62 56 roam present 33 49 c) 62 sound sleep 56 roam present 33 49 d) Cannot be determined e) None of these

Q.17. Which of the following will be the third step for input: ‘jockey firm 36 43 growth chart 22 45’? a) 45 jockey 43 growth firm 36 chart 22 b) 45 jockey 43 firm growth 36 chart 22 c) 45 jockey 43 growth 36 firm chart 22 d) 45 jockey 43 firm 36 growth chart 22 e) None of these

Q.18. Step II of an input is ’53 window 42 50 door lock key 36'. How many more steps will be required to complete the arrangement? a) Three b) Four c) Five d) Six e) None of these

Q.19. What will be the fifth step of an input whose first step is ’85 journey train 36 54 daily 28 mansion’? a) 85 train 54 mansion 28 journey daily 36 b) 85 train 54 mansion journey 36 daily 28 c) 85 train 54 mansion 36 journey daily 28 d) There is no such step e) None of these

Q.20. Which step will be the last step for an input whose second step is ’63 Sour 18 56 grapes healthy 32 rise’? a) IV b) V c)VIII d) VII e) None of these


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In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing. Give answer a) if only course of action I follows. Give answer b) if only course of action II follows. Give answer c) if either course of action I or II follows. Give answer d) if neither course of action I nor II follows. Give answer e) if both courses of action I and II follow. Q.21. Statement : Misuse of subsidies offered to the farmers was observed and brought to the notice of the concerned authorities. Courses of Action : I. Government should issue orders to the concerned officials to be stricter andmore careful while verifying the required documents while granting subsidy. II. Government should take stringent action against those making false claim of subsidy.

Q.22. Statement : Expensive clothes and accessories are becoming a growing need among college going teenage children of middle-income group. Courses of Action : I. Colleges should introduce a dress code. II. Children should be counseled emphasizing the importance of many other things.

Q.23. Statement : People in the locality were agitated as more than thirty people died in a building collapse. Courses ofAction : I. Government should immediatelyannounce compensations for the affected families. II. Authorities should take a stringent action against builders tending to compromise over quality of material used.

Q.24. Statement : With the onset of monsoon all the hospitals are getting increased number of patients due to various epidemics. Courses of Action : I. Civic authorities should educate the public the need for observing minimum required hygiene. II. Civic authorities shouldmake arrangements to equip the hospitals with required medicines and other facilities.

Q.25. Statement : More number of students passing SSC examination has resulted into frustration among children for not getting admissions into colleges of their choice. Courses of Action : I. Government should permit the colleges to increase the number of seats. II. Children and their parents should be counseled for being flexible on the choice of college.

In each of these questions a group of digits is given followed by four combinations of letter/symbol code numbered a), b), c)&d). You have to code the group of digits as per the scheme and conditions given below. Serial number of the combination that correctly represents the group of digits is your answer. If none of the combinations is correct, your answer is e) i.e. ‘None of these’. Digit : 5 7 0 9 3 1 6 4 8 2 Letter/Symbol Code : K E H $ ΔA J Q R @ Conditions : (i) If the first as well as the last digit is odd their codes are to be interchanged. (ii) If the first digit is even and the last digit odd both are to be coded by the code for odd digit. (iii) If the last digit is ‘0’ it is to be coded by ‘X’.


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(iv) If the first as well as the last digit is even both are to be coded by * Q.26. 586403 a) KRJQHΔ b)ΔRJQHK c)ΔHJQRK d) KHJQRΔ e) None of these

Q.27. 801234 a) * HA@Δ* b) RHA@Δ* c) *H \Δ@A* d) RHA@ΔQ e) None of these

Q.28. 439157 a) QΔ$AKE b) EΔ$AKQ c)QΔ$AKQ d) EΔ$AKE e) None of these

Q.29. 389160 a)ΔR$AJH b)ΔR$AJX c)XR$AJX d)ΔR$AJΔ e) None of these

Q.30. 764138 a) EJQAΔE b) RJQAΔE c)RJQAΔR d) EJQAΔ* e) None of these

These questions are based on the following information.Study it carefully to answer the questions. Seven officers L,M, N, P, Q, R & S work in three different shifts I, II & III with at least two persons working in each shift. Each one of them has a different weekly off from Monday to Sunday not necessarily in the same order.

M works in second shift only with R whose weekly off is on Friday. Q’s weekly off is on the nextday of L’s weekly off and both of them work in different shifts. P works in third shift and his weekly off is on Saturday. S has a weekly off on Monday and he works in first shift. The one who has a weekly off on Sunday works in first shift. L & P do not work in the same shift, L’s weekly off is on Tuesday. Q.31. Whose weekly off falls on Thursday? a) L b) N c) Q


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d) Cannot be determined e) None of these Q.32. Which of the following combinations of shift, person and weekly off is definitely correct? a) II, M, Sunday b) III, N, Sunday c) II, P, Sunday d) I, L, Tuesday e) None of these

Q.33. Whose weekly off is on Sunday? a) L b) M c) N d) Q e) None of these

Q.34. On which day is Q’s weekly off? a)Tuesday b)Wednesday c) Sunday d) Cannot be determined e) None of these

Q.35. Which of the following group of officers work is shift I? a) L,N,S b) L,S c) N,S d) L,P,Q e) None of these

In each of the following questions two rows of numbers are given. The resultant number in each row is to be worked out separately based on the following rules and the questions below the rows of numbers are to be answered. The operations of numbers progress from left to right. Rules : (i) If a two digit odd number is followed by a two digit odd number they are to be added. (ii) If a two digit even number is followed by a two digit odd number which is the perfect square is to be subtracted from the odd number. (iii) If a three digit number is followed by a two digit number the first number is to be divided by the second number. (iv) If a prime number is followed by an even number they are to be added. (v) If an even number is followed by another even number the two are to be multiplied. Q.36. 37 12 21 38 81 14 What is the difference between the resultants of the two rows? a) 23 b) 32 c) 13


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d) 18 e) None of these

Q.37. 23 15 12 X 24 49 If X is the resultant of the first row, what is the resultant of the second row? a) 24 b) 25 c) 28 d) 22 e) None of these

Q.38. 16 8 32 132 11 X2 If X is the resultant of first row, what is the resultant of the second row? a) 192 b) 128 c) 132 d) 144 e) None of these

Q.39. 345 23 X 45 17 81 If X is the resultant of the second row, what is the resultant of the first row? a) 285 b) 33 c) 135 d) 34 e) None of these

Q.40. 12 28 84 37 22 18 What is the sum of the resultants of the two rows? a) 77 b) 87 c) 84 d) 72 e) None of these

Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity. Mark answer a) if the inference is ‘definitely true’, i.e. it properly follows from the statement of facts given.


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Mark answer b) if the inference is ‘probably true’ though not ‘definitely true’ in the light of the facts given. Mark answer c) if the ‘data are inadequate’, i.e. from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false. Mark answer d) if the inference is ‘probably false’, though not ‘definitely false’ in the light of the facts given. Mark answer e) if the inference is ‘definitely false', i.e. it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts.

Growth through acquisitions and alliances has become a critical part of creating value for pharmaand biotechmanufacturers and their shareholders. However, companies and their investors may risk value destruction if they acquire rights to a drug that suddenly poses unanticipated safety risks for patients. Similarly, safety related compliance violations committed by an acquired company could significantly impair the ultimate value of the transaction and the reputation of the acquirer. The pace of deal making between pharma and biotech companies continued to accelerate in 2006, increasing 17% to about $ 18 billion. Pharma companies were typically the buyers, and the premiums they paid increased substantially as competition intensified, to secure access to novel drugs and biologics. The stakes increase everyday as competition pushes up prices and drives deal-making to earlier development stages with greater uncertainty and less time to complete thorough due diligence.

Q.41. Acquisitions of biotech companies was preferred among pharmaceutical companies in the recent past.

Q.42. Biotech companies are not capable to acquire pharmaceutical companies.

Q.43. Pharmaceutical companies at times may incur loss after acquisition of biotech companies.

Q.44. Safety related issues are prime concerns for the pharmaceutical companies while negotiating acquisition of biotech companies.

Q.45. Stiff competitions among the prospective buyers have resulted into erosion of value of the biotech companies.

In each of theQuestions given below which one of the five answer figure on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, If the sequence were continued.

Q.46.

a)b)c)d)e)

Q.47.


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a)b)c)d)e) Q.48.

a)b)c)d)e) Q.49.

a)b)c)d)e) Q.50.

a)b)c)d)e)

TEST - II QUANTITATIVEAPTITUDE Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow:

NUMBEROFARTICLES (IN THOUSANDS)MANUFACTURED AND SOLD BY SIX DIFFERENT COMPANIES OVER THE YEARS

Company A B C D E F

Year Manu Sold Manu Sold Manu Sold Manu Sold Manu Sold Manu Sold

2001 28.2 18.6 18.1 14.4 24.5 20.1 14.5 9.7 30.0 24.4 24.4 17.9

2002 16.7 11.2 23.4 16.5 18.8 11.1 29.7 20.5 23.5 16.9 31.6 21.7

2003 30.1 23.4 20.2 12.8 24.9 13.5 29.0 19.4 26.2 17.7 21.4 15.5

2004 22.5 15.9 30.5 17.6 22.7 16.2 16.8 10.2 26.2 21.4 20.8 14.3

2005 18.9 12.8 29.6 19.3 31.4 18.9 28.3 11.8 29.9 22.2 19.3 14.2

2006 15.4 10.3 33.5 24.6 28.8 21.3 19.8 13.5 24.3 18.2 27.8 18.5

Q.51. What is the respective ratio of number of articles not sold by Company C in the year 2005 to those not sold by Company D in the same year? a) 33 : 25 b) 21 :44 c) 25 : 33 d) 44 : 21 e) None of these

Q.52. What is the average number of articles not sold by all companies together in the year 2006?


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a) 7200 b) 43.2 c) 43,200 d) 7.2 e) None of these

Q.53. What is the approximate average percentage of articles sold by Company B to thosemanufactured by it over the years? a) 54 b) 77 c) 42 d) 68 e) 83

Q.54. Which Company sold the least number of articles overall the years together? a) C b) A c) F d) B e) None of these

Q.55. Number of articles sold by Company E in the year 2003 is what percent of the articles manufactured by it in that year? (Rounded off to two digits after decimal) a) 71.48 b) 67.56 c) 52.43 d) 44.29 e) None of these

In the following questions two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and— Give answer If a) X> Y b) X > Y c) X < Y d) X < Y e) X = Y or the relationship cannot be established.

Q.56.

I. Y = X

Q.57. I. 4X + 2Y = 8.5 II. 2X + 4Y = 9.5

Q.58.


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I. X =

II. Y = ±

Q.59. I. X2 + 17X + 72 = 0 II. Y2 + 15Y + 56 = 0

Q.60. I. X2 + 12X + 27 = 0 II. Y2 + 11Y + 30 = 0

Study the pie-charts carefully to answer the questions that follow: Percentage of employees in different departments of our Organization out of which the number of employees promoted 1 - PERCENTAGEOF EMPLOYEES IN DIFFERENTDEPARTMENTSN = 4200 2 - OUT OFWHICH THE NUMBER OFEMPLOYEESPROMOTED

Q.61. What is the percentage of employees promoted from the Maintenance and Accounts departments together to the total number of employees from these two departments? (Rounded off to two digits after decimal) a) 7.58 b) 6.27 c) 9.15 d) 8.34 e) None of these

Q.62. What is the respective ratio of number of employees not promoted from HR department to those from Production department? a) 216:389 b) 337:417 c) 389:216 d) 417:337 e) None of these

Q.63. What is the number of employees working in the IT department?


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a) 1020 b) 1045 c) 1150 d) 1140 e) None of these

Q.64. Which department has the highest percentage of promoted employees to the total number of employees of that department? a) IT b) Marketing c) Maintenance d)HR e) None of these

Q.65. The number of employees who got promoted from the Marketing department is what percent of total number of employees in that department? (Rounded off to the nearest integer) a) 12 b) 10 c) 3 d) 6 e) None of these

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions? Q.66. 73% of 8523 + 32% of 6245 =? a) 8042.21 b) 8136.28 c) 8625.35 d) 8220.19 e) None of these

Q.67. =? a) 93 b) 76 c) 83 d) 86 e) None of these

Q.68. 81.3 x 40.6 x 160.2 =2? a) 2.1 b) 3.8 c) 5.9 d) 4.7 e) None of these

Q.69. 8226÷ 15 ÷ 5 =? a) 2156 b) 109.68 c) 185.56


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Q.70. (3?)? = 19683 a) 6 b) 9 c)4 d) 8 e) None of these

What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.) Q.71. 182.225x21.652x33.584 =? a) 132507 b) 149428 c) 120426 d) 106438 e) 112642

Q.72. 63.5% of 8924.2 +?% of 5324.4 = 6827.5862 a) 36 b) 22 c) 17 d) 31 e) 9

Q.73. 1 +7 + 3 = ?

a) 21 b) 8 c) 25 d) 13 e) 30

Q.74. =? a) 84 b) 79 c) 99 d) 87 e) 93

Q.75. 9546324÷ 4584 =? a) 2149 b) 1986 c) 2083 d) 2247 e) 1805


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Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow: Number of people (In thousands) staying in 6 different Cities and the Percentage of Men, Women and Children in those Cities

CITY Total Number of People PERCENT OF

(in thousands) Men Women Children

P 48.35 38 36 26

Q 32.16 45 30 25

R 54.20 47 31 22

S 44.42 35 45 20

T 65.25 54 28 18

U 56.80 53 25 22

Q.76. Which City has the lowest number of children? a) R b) S c) T d) Q e) None of these

Q.77. What is the average number of men from all the cities together?

a) 21450

b) 23200

c) 19445

d) 18620

e) None of these

Q.78. What is the respective ratio of number of women from City R to those from City T? a) 8401 : 9135 b) 7325: 8462 c) 9124:10131 d) 6487 : 7758 e) None of these

Q.79. Total numbers of people from City U formapproximately what percent of the total number of people from all cities together? a) 28 b) 11 c) 6 d) 24 e) 19

Q.80. Number of women from City S forms what percent of those from City P? (Rounded off to two digits after decimal) a) 87.08


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b) 124.68 c) 114.84 d) 92.16 e) None of these

Study the graph carefully to answer the questions that follow: INCOME (IN LAKHS) OF THREE COMPANIESOVER THE YEARS

Years

Q.81. If the percent profit of Company A in the year 2002 was 20, what was its expenditure in that year? a) Rs.2,50,000 b) Rs.2,75,000 c) Rs.1,75,000 d) Rs.1,50,000 e) None of these

Q.82. If the expenditure of Company C in 2003 was Rs.1.75 lakh, what was its percent profit in that year? (rounded off to two digits after decimal) a) 38.29 b) 42.86 c) 53.41 d) 58.64 e) None of these

Q.83. What is the average Income of Company A over the years? a) Rs.2,75,000 b) Rs.30,00,000 c) Rs.27,50,000 d) Rs.30,000 e) None of these

Q.84. What is the approximate percent increase in Income of Company B in the year 2006 from the previous year?


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a) 28 b) 11 c) 17 d) 8 e) 22

Q.85. Percent increase/decrease in Income of Company C was highest for which year? a) 2004 b) 2006 c) 2003 d) 2002 e) None of these

In the following number series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number. Q.86. 7 56 442 3089 18532 92647 370586 a) 442 b) 92647 c) 18532 d) 3089 e) None of these

Q.87. 8000 3200 1280 512 204.8 84.92 32.768 a) 512 b) 84.92 c) 204.8 d) 1280 e) None of these

Q.88. 898 906 933 996 1122 1338 1681 a) 906 b) 933 c) 1122 d) 1338 e) None of these

Q.89. 4 55 576 4209 21280 64083 64204 a) 4209 b) 576 c) 21280 d) 64204 e) None of these

Q.90. 3 6 16 47.5 154.5 558.5 2257 a) 2257 b) 47.5 c) 154.5 d) 558.5 e) None of these


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Study the information carefully and answer the questions that follow: A school has a total of 1200 students. The ratio of girls to boys in the school is 3 : 2. All

thestudents have enrolled in hobby classes viz. Singing, Dancing, Martial Arts and Cooking. One- twelfth of the boys have enrolled in only cooking classes. 25 percent of the girls have enrolled in Cooking and Singing classes together. Number of boys enrolled in only Martial Arts classes is 150 percent of the number of girls enrolled in the same. Number of students enrolled in only Dancing is 26 percent of the total number of students. 5 percent of the girls have enrolled in only Martial Arts classes. One-third of the boys enrolled in only Dancing classes. 35 percent of the girls enrolled in Singing, Dancing and Martial Arts together and the remaining enrolled in only Cooking. 15 percent of the boys enrolled in Cooking and Singing classes together and the remaining enrolled in Singing, Dancing and Martial Arts classes together. Q.91. Number of boys enrolled in Cooking and Singing classes together is what percent of the girls enrolled in the same? a) 48 b) 36 c) 20 d) 25 e) None of these

Q.92. What is the total number of students teaming Martial Arts? a) 90 b) 496 c) 342 d) 128 e) None of these

Q.93. How many girls are enrolled in only Cooking classes? a) 280 b) 252 c) 154 d) 100 e) None of these

Q.94. How many boys team Singing? a) 226 b) 184 c) 72 d) 96 e) None of these

Q.95. What is the respective ratio of girls to boys enrolled in only Dancing classes? a) 8 : 7 b) 14:17 c) 19:20 d) 12: 7 e) None of these


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Q.96. 4 men, 5 women and 3 children together can complete a piece of work in 16 days. In how many days can 10 women alone complete the piece of work if 10 men alone complete the work in 24 days? a) 18 b) 15 c) 12 d) Cannot be determined e) None of these

Q.97. What will be the difference between the simple interest and compound interest earned on a sum of Rs.985/- @ 14 p.c.p.a. at the end of two years? a) Rs. 16.408 b) Rs. 14.214 c) Rs.19.218 d) Rs. 17.405 e) None of these

Study the information carefully to answer the questions that follow: A basket contains 3 blue, 2 green and 5 red balls. Q.98. If three balls are picked at random, what is the probability that at least one is red?

a)

b)

c)

d)

e) None of these

Q.99. If four balls are picked at random, what is the probability that two are green and two are blue?

a)

b)

c)

d)

e) None of these

Q.100. In howmany different ways can the letters of the word ‘FLEECED’ be arranged? a) 840 b) 2520 c) 1680 d) 49 e) None of these

TEST - III GENERAL AWARENESS Q.101. Who has appointed prime minister of Russia? a)Mikhail Fradkov b) Victor Zubkov c)Yasuo Fukuda


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d) Yuriko Koike e) None of these

Q.102. Who has been awarded 'One Day Player of the Year 2006-07' in ICC ranking? a)Mathew Hayden b) Shaun Tait c)Muhammad Yusuf d) Ricky Ponting e) None of these

Q.103. RecentlyMr. Sergei Stainshev visited India. He is— a) Prime Minister of Thailand b) President of Thailand c) Prime Minister of Bulgaria d) Prime Minister of Romania e) None of these

Q.104. Who among the following is known as 'Mountain Man'? a)Jhaman Lal Sharma b)DashrathManjhi c) Chandra Shekhar Singh d)Yogendra Narayan e) None of these

Q.105. RecentlyAPEC summit was held in Sydney (Australia). Howmany countries are in APEC group? a) 42 b) 21 c) 10 d) 47 e) None of these

Q.106. Recently a report was issued regarding Indian economy, which of the following is right accordingit — a) According to ANCTAD, Indian economy growth rate was expected 8.5%. b) The GDP of India in term of rupee expected Rs. 14,71,255 cr. by ANCTAD. c) UNCTAD advised NABARD to launch special scheme for progress in agriculture. d) According to ANCTADin year 2007- 08 the growth rate of Indian economywas expected 8.75%. e) None of these

Q.107. 'INS Jalashwa' has joined Navy recently from which country it has been brought? a) Russia b) America c) France d) Japan e) None of these

Q.108. At which place Shanghai co-operation organization (SCO) of 6 countries has conducted its joint military exercise?


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a) Nusa Dua b)Chebarkul c) Bishkek d) Ankara e) None of these

Q.109. Mexican president Hinojosa visited India recently. Which of the following agreements has not taken place in it? a) Extradition Treaty b) Double TaxationAvoidance Treaty c) The bilateral trade between two countries will be $3.2 bn up to 2010. d) Agreement ofmutual co-operation in criminal affairs. e) None of these

Q.110. Who is the coach of 'Indian Men Hockey Team'? a)PrabodhTirkey b) Bob Harlton c)JokhimKarveho d)Bai Chung Bhutia e) None of these

Q.111. Rojer Federer has defeated Novak Djokovic in US Open Tennis - 2007. To which country Novak Djokovic belongs— a) Belgium b) Russia c) America d) Serbia e) None of these

Q.112. At which place The International Solar Energy Summit held in 2007? a) New Delhi b)Mumbai c) Shanghai d) Bangalore e) None of these

Q.113. Howmuch billion dollar trade will be between India & Japan up to 2010? a) $10 bn b) $15 bn c) $20 bn d) $12 bn e) None of these

Q.114. What has changed in limit of foreignDirect Investment in Internet Services byCentralGovernment? a) It decreased from 100%to 74%. b) It increased from 74%to 100%. c) It increased from 25% to 48%


21

d) It decreased from 74%to 49%. e) None of these

Q.115. Which state has decided to remove house tax from its citizens? a) Karnataka b) Rajasthan c) Uttar Pradesh d)Madhya Pradesh e) None of these

Q.116. What do you understand from 'Bottom fishing'? a) Slow speed of economy in condition of loss. b) Sudden fall in share market. c) To sell the share of companies in condition of collapsing of share market. d) This is the team which is used by RBI to advice the commercial Bank where the N.P.A. is high to reduced lending. e) None of these

Q.117. What is the production ratio of wheat, rice and pulses respectively under the National Food Security Mission? a) 10 : 15 : 8 b) 15 : 12 : 10 c) 15 : 10 : 8 d) 10 : 15 : 12 e) None of these

Q.118. What is the target of additional electricity production set by central government under the 11th

five year plan? a) 45,000MW b) 56,000MW c) 80,000MW d) 70,000MW e) None of these

Q.119. According to Steel Ministry India achieved 49.45 mn. tonnes of steel production in year 2006 presently what is India's position in it? a) 4th b) 2nd c) 3rd d) 5th e) 10th

Q.120. Omex has listed in BSE and NSE recently. It is related to __________sector. a)Medicine b) Software c) Real Estate d) Energy producer in private sector e) None of these


22

Q.121. According to Kyoto protocol related to environment one carbon credit is equal to— a) $1000 b) $100 c) $10 d) $1 e) None of these

Q.122. When we celebrate International Human Rights Day? a) December, 1 b) December, 10 c) November, 10 d) December, 5 e) None of these

Q.123. Where will be next environment summit in year 2009— a) Sumatra b)Copenhagen c) Shanghai d) New Delhi e) None of these

Q.124. Who has appointed as new president of FICCI recently? a)RajivChandra Shekhar b)Vinod Rai c) H. F. Khorkiwala d)ParthSarthiSom e) None of these

Q.125. According to business standardmagazine who has awarded 'Best Banker of the year 2006-07'? a) Mr. O. P. Bhatt b) Mr. Y. V. Reddy c) Mr. Usha Thorat d) Mr. M.V. Kamath e) None of these

Q.126. Who has written the book 'The Year of Magical Thinking'— a)Maxwell Pareira b) John Didion c) N. K. Singh d)Kamalnath e) None of these

Q.127. The annual meeting of Indian Science Congress was held in— a) Bangalore b) Visakhapatnam c) Hyderabad d) New Delhi


23

e) None of these

Q.128. International Tribe Film Festival celebrated in— a) Beijing b)Sanya c) Indore d)Coimbatore e) New Delhi

Q.129. Which airline joined Star Alliance— a) Air India b) Kingfisher c) Singapore Alliance d) Air China e) None of these

Q.130. Lisbon Treaty is related to— a) European union b) ASEAN countries c) African countries d) NATO e) None of these

Q.131. Which country has signed a shared vision for the 21st century with India? a) Japan b) China c) Nepal d) Bulgaria e) None of these

Q.132. The first Mountaineer of Everest AdmandHillery who has died recently belongs to— a) America b) New Zealand c) China d) Russia e) None of these

Q.133. Following facts are concerned with report of MadhavManon Committee. You are required to find correct option. (A) CBI is not free adequately in probe of corruption. (B) There should be an autonomous law agency that is responsible only for judiciary. (C) They should introduce 'White-paper' on economic security. a) Only A b) Only B c) A and B d) A, B and C e) None of these


24

Q.134. Which of the following are not the elected members of security council? a) Croatia b) Vietnam c)Costarica d) Burkina Faso e) None of these

Q.135. Defence Research andDevelopmentOrganization (DRDO) has developed 'Akash'.Which type of missile it is — a) Air to air b) Surface to surface c) surface to air d) Surface toWater e) None of these

Q.136. Which state declared 2008 the ‘Year of Education'— a) Karnataka b)Gujarat c) Haryana d)Madhya Pradesh e) None of these

Q.137. Who is the chairman of the committee which analyzes the data of saving and investment in countries? a) Dr. C. Rangrajan b) G. K. Chaddha c)KuldeepNayyer d)Kuldeep Singh e) None of these

Q.138. Yasir-Al-Qahtami has been as awarded as Best footballer at Asia in 2007. He belongs to— a) Pakistan b) Saudi Arab c) Russia d) India e) None of these

Q.139. Mamta Banerjee of Trinamool Congress declared the collision of 16 political parties which is known as— a) Secular Democratic Alliance b) Democratic Alliance c) Progressive Secular Democratic Front d) Progressive secular Democratic Alliance e) None of these

Q.140. Where was the meeting held to finalize TAPI Gas Pipe line project? a) New Delhi b) Karachi


25

c) Islamabad d)Fazilka e) None of these

Q.141. Which satellite has been launched by ISRO (Indian Space Research Organization)? a) Surya b) Aditya c)Parikshak d) Anal e) None of these

Q.142. Which Bank started iMobile Banking? a) HDFC Bank b) IDBI c) PNB d) ICICI Bank e) None of these

Q.143. Capital Adequacy Ratio at present is — a) 6.5% b) 7.25% c) 7.5% d) 7.75% e) 7%

Q.144. In which year the Agni-III Missile of 5000 Km range will be test fire? a) 2008 b) 2009 c) 2011 d) 2010 e) None of these

Q.145. Which of the following sector is selected to emphasis most in 2008 by the central government? a) Science b) Agriculture c) Education d) Infrastructure e) None of these

Q.146. Which of the following European countries has/have recently adopted the Euro Currency Zone? (A) Cyprus (B) Bulgaria (C) Hungary (D)Malta a) A, B and C b) B and C c) A and D d) Only A e) None of these

Q.147. Which of the following company is working on 4000MW KrisnapatnamUltraMega Power Project?


26

a) Reliance Power Ltd. b)NTPC c) BHEL d) JPGroup e) None of these

Q.148. Which state is declared as total Banking state? a)Kerala b) Haryana c)AndhraPradesh d)Maharashtra e) None of these

Q.149. What do you understand by 'CARMA'? a) Center for the Advancement of research method and analysis. b) Carbonmonitoring for action. c) Carmanufacturing agency. d) Carbon Emission maintaining academy. e) None of these

Q.150. Who has been awarded "Business person of the year 2007" according to business week magazine? a)MukeshAmbani b) Ratan Tata c) L. N. Mittal d)Mark Hurd e) None of these

TEST - IV ENGLISHLANGUAGE Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

The wakeup call that China represents to India is not limited to its showpiece urban centres or thatNew Delhi hopes India will experience the benefits that the Olympic games have brought to Beijing. More pertinent is the comparison of the agricultural sectors of the two countries. Why and how has China managed to outstrip India in agriculture when 25 years ago the two countries were on par on most parameters? Both have traditionally been agrarian economies and over half their populations continue to depend on the land for their livelihood. With large populations and histories of famine, India and China share concern on issues such as food security, however while India’s agriculturalsector is projected to grow by about 2.5 per cent this year-a slide from the previous year’s growth,China’s has been steadily growing at between 4 per cent and 5 per cent over the last fifteen years. Thewidest divergence between India and China is in the profitable horticultural sector with the production of fruits and vegetables in China leaping from 60 million tonnes in 1980 compared to India’s 55million tonnes at the same time, to 450 million tonnes in 2003 ahead of India’s corresponding 135million tonnes. China’s added advantage lies in the more diversified composition of its agricultural sector with animal husbandry and fisheries which account for close to 45 per cent of growth compared to 30 per cent for India.


27

According to the latest report by the Economic Advisory Council the traditional excuses for India’ssubstandard performance in the farm sector are inadequate since India is placed favourable when compared to China in terms of quantity of arable land, average farm size, farm mechanization etc. The reasons for China having outperformed India are threefold: technological improvements accruing from research and development (China has over 1,000 R & D centers devoted to agriculture), investmentin rural infrastructure and an increasingly liberalized agricultural policy moving away from self-sufficiency to leveraging the competitive advantage with a focus on “efficiency as much as equity”. Investment in rural infrastructure, roads, storage facilities, marketing facilities are also crucial but government support in India has mainly been through subsidies, not investment. There has been much debate about subsidies and their utility; the opposing views being that subsidies are against the market reforms and distorts the market as well as reduces resource efficiency. In contrast to the 2,046 applications for the registration of new plant varieties in China over the past few years, data reveals that despite India having the largest number of agricultural scientists in the world India’s current research track record is abysmal, equivalent to what China achieved in the 1980s? Far from developing new strains, the number of field crop varieties fell by 50 percent between 1997 and 2001 despite the fact that there was sharp and sustained increase in funding. One reason is that majority of the budget is eaten up by staff salaries with only 3 per cent being allotted for research. In contrast, most agricultural research centres in China must use Central government funding purely for research. Funds relating to salaries and other administrative incidentals must be generated by the centres themselves. The centres and scientists are thus encouraged to engage in joint ventures with private sector companies to form commercial signoffs from their research. In fact research staff is now being hired on a contract basis with pay based on performance and salaries raised proportionately for those who perform well. India needs to learn from China’s example and adopt a pragmatic approach if it has to meet its targets of the Eleventh Five Year Plan. Q.151. Which of the following is/are area/s in which China has not outdone India? (A) Development of urban infrastructure. (B) Activities allied to agriculture like animal husbandry. (C) Successful bids for international sporting events. a) None b) Only (B) c) Only (A) d) Both (A) & (C) e) None of these

Q.152. What has been the major area of difference in the development of the agricultural sectors of India and China? a) Quantity of arable land in China is far greater than in India. b) Food security is not a concern for China as the country is basically self-sufficient c) China has experienced substantial growth in production in allied agricultural activities like horticulture d) India’s agricultural sector is too diversified so it is difficult to channel funds for development e) None of these

Q.153. Which of the following is not responsible for China’s successful transformation of its agricultural sector? (A) Change in philosophy from self-sufficiency to competitiveness and efficiency. (B) Greater allocation for subsidies. (C) Increased investment in marketing and distribution networks. a) Only (B)


28

b) Both (B) & (C) c) Both (A) & (C) d) All (A), (B) & (C) e) None of these

Q.154. Which of the following cannot be said about Indian agricultural universities? (A) Attendance is poor because of the dwindling funds to carry out research. (B) Enrollment of students and qualified staff have fallen because of the lack of funds for salaries. (C) Allotment for research funding by the government is non existent. a) Only (B) b) Both (A) & (B) c) Both (B) & (C) d) All (A), (B) & (C) e) None of these

Q.155. How are Chinese agricultural research facilities governed? a) Salaries of staff are linked to performance which hampers productive research b) Their funding comes from the government alone to prevent private companies from manipulating the direction of their research c) A fixed proportion of government grants is allotted to be utilized for administrative incidentals which cannot be exceeded d) Research staff even those on contract are entitled to increments for good performance e) None of these

Q.156. What argument has been posed against implementation of subsidies? (A) Subsidies sacrifice equity for efficiency. (B) Subsidies hamper efficient resource utilization. (C) Subsidies reduce private sector investment and involvement in agriculture. a) Both (A) & (B) b) Only (B) c) Both (B) & (C) d) Only (A) e) None of these

Q.157. According to the author which of the following is a legitimate explanation for India’s stagnating agricultural sector? (A) India diverts funds that should be spent on agricultural research to urban development. (B) Reforms are hampered because adequate subsidies are not provided by the government. (C) The procedure for registering new plant varieties is very tedious so research is limited. a) Only (A) b) Only (B) c) Only (C) d) Both (A) & (C) e) None of these

Q.158. Which of the following is an advantage that India holds over China with respect to the agricultural sector? a) Lack of diversification of the agricultural sector


29

b) Superior technology and farming practices c) Greater prevalence of farm mechanization d) Provision of fertilizer and power subsidies e) Abundant research generated by their scientists

Q.159. Why was there a drop in development of new crop varieties for five years from 1997? a) Government funding for research fell during that period. b) Funds were diverted during this period to agricultural mechanization. c) The private sector was not allowed to fund research d) A large number of agricultural scientists left India for better opportunities abroad during this period e) None of these

Q.160. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in the context of the passage? a) Agricultural status of China and India was equivalent a quarter of a century ago b) India’s current economic growth rate is half that of China c) China is traditionally an agrarian economy d) Agricultural research in India is inadequate e) India’s current agricultural growth rate has fallen from the previous year

Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage. Q.161. concern a) importance b) regret c) business d) anxiety e) emphasis

Q.162. devoted a) surrendered b) dedicated c) established d) staunch e) dependent

Q.163. pertinent a) intense b) sizeable c) practical d) visible e) significant

Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage. Q.164. sustained a) intermittent b) discouraged c) habitual


30

d) defeated e) restrained

Q.165. pragmatic a) faithful b) unwilling c) idealistic d) practical e) inexperienced

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is e). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any). Q.166. He has a reputation / for acquiring bankrupt companies / restructuring them and sells / them off for profit. a)He has a reputation b)for acquiring bankrupt companies c)restructuring them and sells d)them off for profit e)No error

Q.167. The lack of no funds / has resulted in several / delays in launching our / new product in India. No error a)The lack of no funds b)has resulted in several c)delays in launching our d)new product in India. e)No error

Q.168. The only option is / for the bank to / modernize its operations / at all their branches. a)The only option is b)for the bank to c)modernize its operations d)at all their branches e)No error

Q.169. The company recently opened / its first branch in Bangalore / and will expand its operations/ to otherstates sooner. a)The company recently opened b)its first branch in Bangalore c)and will expand its operations d)to otherstates sooner e)No error

Q.170. The government has introduced / a new law who forces / farmers to sell their produce /only to licenseddealers. a)The government has introduced b)a new law who forces


31

c)farmers to sell their produce d)only to licenseddealers e)No error

Q.171. If we have to be / competitive we must be / ready to face / various technical challenge. a)If we have to be b)competitive we must be c)ready to face d)various technical challenge e) No error

Q.172. According to the consultant / a more detail analysis of / customer needs / and product pricing is required. a)According to the consultant b)a more detail analysis of c)customer needs d)and product pricing is required e)No error

Q.173. Over the next five years / the government needs to invest / at less 350 billion dollars / in rural infrastructure. a)Over the next five years b)the government needs to invest c)at less 350 billion dollars d)in rural infrastructure e)No error

Q.174. The ongoing merger among / the two companies will / have an adverse / impact on consumers. a)The ongoing merger among b)the two companies will c)have an adverse d)impact on consumers e)No error

Q.175. It is evident that / the banking sector has underwent / tremendous changes during / the past two decades. a)It is evident that b)the banking sector has underwent c)tremendous changes during d)the past two decades e)No error

In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each, five words have been denoted by numbers a), b), c), d) and e). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete

Q.176. A company can ___ the potential of its employees ______ various training programs. a)emphasize-for


32

b) exploit-from c) enhance-through d) appraise-by e) identify – under

Q.177. The objective of the survey is to ___the impact of the rising rupee on a_____ engineering sector. a) attribute - profitable b) establish - tensed c) intensify – volatile d) substantiate - reinforced e)ascertain - thriving

Q.178. Research shows that an organization’s ____ to cater to the customer’s changing needs will ___its success. a) intent - realize b) ability - determine c) capacity – lead d) desire - insure e) flexibility – acquire

Q.179. The country’s economic growth has been achieved _____exports and______large amounts of foreign direct investments. a) on-boosting b) despite - estimating c) mostly – soliciting d) via-attracting e) substantial – opposing

Q.180. In many rural areas hospitals are ___equipped because of the_____of funds from the government. a) well-dearth b) faulty - lacking c) optimally – disparity d) inadequately-scarcity e) ill-surplus

Which of the phrases a), b), c) and d) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct? If the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required, mark e) as the answer.

Q.181. The bank’s accumulated losses have come up for manageable levels this year. a) come to b) came into c) coming from d) came within e) No correction required


33

Q.182. The incident has clearly highlighted his knowledge and attentive of detail. a) attended to detail b) attentively on details c) attention to detail d) attend for detail e) No correction required

Q.183. Improving the educational system, which is one of the worst in the world, requires commitment from the country’s politicians. a) among the worse b) one of the worse c) become the worse d) from the worst e) No correction require

Q.184. Considering the high demand for flights to Gulf countries airlines can risenprices. a) should rise b) could raised c) may raise d) will raise up e) No correction required

Q.185. Without both issue is clarified the Board has kept all other matters before it pending. a) Unless both issues are b) Until each issue were c) Without the issue being d) Since both issues e) No correction required

Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) into a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below it. (A) Moreover salaries in public sector enterprises are not as competitive as those offered by private or foreign corporates. (B) This trend should be a wakeup call for stakeholders to examine why employees are seeking better opportunities with private companies in India and abroad. (C) Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs) have been experiencing severe challenges in attracting, motivating and retaining their key staff. (D) Having identified these as the reasons employees leave PSEs it is important to empower stakeholders to find ways to remedy the situation. (E) One reason is that young employees lured away by private firms are more willing to undertake professional risks. (F) Employees in specialist roles especially have become increasingly difficult to retain.

Q.186. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement? a) (A) b) (B) c) (C)


34

d) (D) e) (E)

Q.187. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement? a) (A) b) (B) c) (C) d) (D) e) (E)

Q.188. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement? a) (A) b) (B) c) (C) d) (D) e) (F)

Q.189. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement? a) (B) b) (C) c) (D) d) (E) e) (F)

Q.190. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement? a) (A) b) (B) c) (C) d) (D) e) (E)

In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words have been suggested, one of which fills the blanks appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Traditional bank architecture is based on bank branches. These branches ensure the physical (191)of a customer’s savings. A customer may go there to deposit and withdraw money, (192) loans and (193) in other financial transactions. In the past two decades banking architecture has changed-the Automated Teller Machine (ATM) has been a big (194) and credit and debit cards have created new financial spaces. (195) the bank branch has remained the bedrock of the banking system-after all a person needs a bank account in a branch before he can operate a debit or ATM card. This may be about to change as technocrats now (196) cell phones as the new architecture of virtual banks. This has the potential to make branches (197). Cell phone banking looks especially relevant for India sinceit can penetrate the countryside cheaply and (198). The world over cell phones are spreading at a (199)rate and in India alone new cell phone connections are growing at the rate of six million a month a rate of customer (200) that no bank can dream of.

Q.191. a) confidentiality


35

b) guarantee c) knowledge d) security e) presence

Q.192. a) disburse b) sanction c) negotiate d) advance e) credit

Q.193. a) enable b) engage c) pursue d) interact e) operate

Q.194. a) luxury b) innovation c) drawback d) hurdle e) consequence

Q.195. a) Yet b) Until c) Despite d) Although e) Even

Q.196. a) engineer b) assess c) view d)realize e) display

Q.197. a) retreat b) expired c) essential d) obsolete e) extant

Q.198.


36

a) indiscriminately b) effectively c) moderately d) occasionally e) compulsorily

Q.199. a) competitive b) projected c) phenomenal d) gradual e) proportionate

Q.200. a) satisfaction b) relationship c) discount d) base e) expansion

------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

ANSWERS

Q.1 C

Q.2 D

Q.3 B

Q.4 E

Q.5 A

Q.6 D

Q.7 A

Q.8 E

Q.9 E

Q.10 B

Q.11 A

Q.12 A

Q.13 B

Q.14 C

Q.15 A

Q.16 D

Q.17 A

Q.18 B

Q.19 C

Q.20 E

Q.21 E

Q.22 B

Q.23 E

Q.24 E

Q.25 D

Q.26 B

Q.27 A

Q.28 D

Q.29 B

Q.30 E

Q.31 E

Q.32 D

Q.33 C

Q.34 B

Q.35 A

Q.36 C

Q.37 E

Q.38 A

Q.39 D

Q.40 E

Q.41 B

Q.42 E

Q.43 A

Q.44 C

Q.45 A

Q.46 D

Q.47 B

Q.48 A

Q.49 E

Q.50 A

Q.51 C

Q.52 A

Q.53 D

Q.54 E

Q.55 B

Q.56 A

Q.57 C

Q.58 B

Q.59 D

Q.60 E

Q.61 A

Q.62 B

Q.63 E

Q.64 C

Q.65 D

Q.66 D

Q.67 A

Q.68 C

Q.69 B

Q.70 E

Q.71 A

Q.72 B

Q.73 D

Q.74 E

Q.75 C

Q.76 D

Q.77 B

Q.78 A

Q.79 E

Q.80 C

Q.81 A

Q.82 B

Q.83 E

Q.84 C


37

Q.85 D

Q.86 C

Q.87 B

Q.88 E

Q.89 A

Q.90 D

Q.91 E

Q.92 B

Q.93 D

Q.94 A

Q.95 C

Q.96 D

Q.97 E

Q.98 C

Q.99 B

Q.100 A

Q.101 B

Q.102 A

Q.103 E

Q.104 B

Q.105 B

Q.106 A

Q.107 B

Q.108 B

Q.109 C

Q.110 C

Q.111 D

Q.112 E

Q.113 C

Q.114 A

Q.115 B

Q.116 C

Q.117 A

Q.118 D

Q.119 D

Q.120 C

Q.121 D

Q.122 B

Q.123 B

Q.124 A

Q.125 A

Q.126 B

Q.127 B

Q.128 C

Q.129 A

Q.130 A

Q.131 B

Q.132 B

Q.133 D

Q.134 E

Q.135 C

Q.136 C

Q.137 A

Q.138 B

Q.139 C

Q.140 C

Q.141 B

Q.142 D

Q.143 C

Q.144 B

Q.145 A

Q.146 C

Q.147 A

Q.148 A

Q.149 B

Q.150 D

Q.151 A

Q.152 C

Q.153 A

Q.154 D

Q.155 D

Q.156 B

Q.157 E

Q.158 C

Q.159 E

Q.160 B

Q.161 D

Q.162 B

Q.163 E

Q.164 A

Q.165 C

Q.166 C

Q.167 A

Q.168 D

Q.169 D

Q.170 B

Q.171 D

Q.172 B

Q.173 C

Q.174 A

Q.175 B

Q.176 C

Q.177 E

Q.178 B

Q.179 D

Q.180 D

Q.181 A

Q.182 C

Q.183 E

Q.184 C

Q.185 A

Q.186 D

Q.187 C

Q.188 A

Q.189 E

Q.190 B

Q.191 D

Q.192 C

Q.193 B

Q.194 A

Q.195 A

Q.196 C

Q.197 D

Q.198 B

Q.199 C

Q.200 E


38

BANK OF MAHARASTRA 09

Reasoning Ability

1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? a) RU b) BE c) FI d) AD e) IM

2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? a) 28 b) 56 c) 175 d) 112 e) 63

3. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word SEDATIVE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet? a) None b) One c) Two d) Three e) More than three

4. In a certain code CURATIVE is written as BSVDDUHS. How is STEAMING written in that code? a) BFUTFMHL b) TUFBFMHL c) BFUTLHMF d) BFUTHOJN e) None the these

5. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters SWNE using each letter only once in each word? a) None b) One c) Two d) Three e) More than three

6. In a certain code language, 'when did you come' is written as 'tina kija', 'will you come· again' is written as 'napa sa ja' and 'she will go' is written as 'pa da ra'. How is 'again' written in that code language? a) na b) sa c) ja d) da e) None of these.

7. In a certain code 'COURT' is written as '5% @ 38' and 'TILE' is written as '8©$4', How is 'CITE' written in that code? a) 5$84 b) 5%84


39

c) 5©84 d) 3©84 e) None of these

8. Among P, Q, R, S and T, each having different weight, R is heavier than S but lighter than T. P is lighter than S. Who among them is the heaviest? a) T b) Q c) T or Q d) Data inadequate e) None of these

9. If '+' means 'subtracted from', 'x' means 'added to', ‘÷’ means 'multiplied by' and '-' means 'divided by', then 15 + 6 4 - 8 x 5 = ? a) 12 b) 23

c) 13


10. Pointing to a girl, A run said "She is the only daughter of my grandfather's son". How is the girl related to Arun? a) Daughter b) Sister c) Cousin Sister d) Data inadequate e) None of these

Directions (11-15) : Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below : 4 K @ 1 E F © 2 H D % 3 8 B I M 6 * U W Y 5 $ 9 G J # 7 A

11. Which of the following is the eighth to the left of the nineteenth from the left end of the above arrangement? a) 5 b) U c) D d) # e) Nome of these

12. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a number? a) None b) One c) Two d) Three e) More than three

13. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? a) F2© b) JG$ c) W5Y d) D3% e) 59$


40

14. If all the numbers in the above 'arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the fourteenth from the left end? a) M b) % c) D d) W e) None of these

15. How many such symbols are there· in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a number? a) None b) One c) Two d) Three e) More than three

Directions (16-20): In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III & IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

16. Statements: All dolls are toys. Some toys are gems. Some gems are boxes. All boxes are sticks. Conclusions: I. Some sticks are gems. II. Some gems are dolls. III. Some sticks are dolls. IV. Some toys are dolls a) Only I follows b) Only II follows c) Only III and IV follow d) Only I and IV follow e) None of these

17. Statements: Some days are nights. Some nights are weeks. All weeks are months. All months are years. Conclusions: I. Some years are nights. II. Some years are days. III. Some months are rights. IV Some years are weeks. a) Only I, II and III follow b) Only I, III and IV follow c) Only II, III and IV follow d) All follow e) None of these

18. Statements: Some doors are handles. All handles are pins. Some pins are threads. All threads are clothes. Conclusions: I. Some clothes are pins. II. Some pins are doors. III. Some clothes are handles.


41

IV. Some clothes are doors. a) Only I, II and III follow b) Only I, II and IV follow c) Only II, III and IV follow d) All follow e) None of these

19. Statements: Some papers are lamps. Some lamps are bulbs. Some bulbs are tubes. Some tubes are walls. Conclusions: I. Some walls are lamps: II. Some bulbs are papers. III. Some tubes are lamps. IV. Some walls are papers. a) Only I and II follow b) Only III and IV follow c) Only I, II and III follow d) All follow e) None of these

20. Statements: All roads are cars. No car is tree. Some trees are jungles. All jungles are rivers. Conclusions: I. Some rivers are roads. II. Some jungles are roads. III. Some cars are roads. IV. No jungle is road. a) None follows b) Only either II or IV follows c) Only either II or IV and III follow d) Only III and IV follow e) Only either II or IV and I and III follow

Directions (21-25) : In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digits/symbols numbered a), b), c) and d). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the following coding system and the conditions that follow and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly represents the' group of letters, mark e) i.e. 'None of these' as your answer. Letter: M J R A D B W Z P E I H G U K Digit/Symbol Code: 8 4 @ 9 © 1 2 S 3 # 5 6 % 7 * Conditions: (i) If both the first and the last letters are vowels, their codes are to be interchanged (ii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, both are to be coded as the code for the vowel. (iii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant; both are to be coded as the code for the consonant.

21. RPDAEK a) '@3©9#* b) ~3©9$@ c) *3©9#* d) *3©9#@ e) None of these

22. AMZGUB a) 98$%71


42

b) 98$%79 c) 18$%79 d) 18$%71 e) None of these

23. IBHJRE a) #614@5 b) 5164@# c) #164@5 d) #164@# e) None of these

24. GDWZMI a) %@2$85 b) 52©$85 c) 5%©2$8 d) %©2$8% e) None of these

25. EUBKJA a) #71*4# b) 971*4# c) 917*4# d) 971*49 e) None of these

Directions (26-30) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing in the center. B is third to the right of F and third to the

left of H. C is fourth to the left of A who is not an immediate neighbor of F or B. E is not an immediate neighbour of B. G is second to the right of D. 26. Who is to the immediate left of B? a) D b) G c) D or G d) Data inadequate e) None of these

27. Who is to the immediate right of H? a) A b) E c) F d) Data inadequate e) None of these

28. Which of the following pairs represents the immediate' neighbors of F? a) CH b) ED c) HD d) CE e) None of these

29. In which of the following pairs is the first person sitting to the immediate right of the second person? a) BG


43

b) GA c) AH d) HE e) CF

30. Who is third to the left of E? a) A b) C c) G d) Data inadequate e) None of these

Directions (31-35) : In the following questions, the symbols *, $, #, 8 and % are used with the following meaning as illustrated below: 'P $ Q' means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q'. 'P δ Q' means' P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'. 'P % Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'. 'P * Q' means 'P is not smaller than Q'. 'P # Q' means 'P is not greater than Q'. Now in each of the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusions I, II, III and IV given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.

31. Statements: D * K, K % T, T δ R, R # M Conclusions: I. M % T II. D %T III.R% K IV.M#D a) Only I is true b) Only His true c) Only I and II are true d) Only II and III are true e) None of these

32. Statements: F δ W, W $ V, V % B, B δ D Conclusions: I. F δ B II. D δ V III. V % F IV.W%D a) Only I is true b) Only I, II and III are true c) Only I, II and IV are true d) Only II, III and IV are true e) None of these

33. Statements: Z % N, N # K, K $ M, M δ R Conclusions: I. M $ N II. M % N III.R % N IV. Z % M a) Only either I or II is true


44

b) Only either I or II and III are true c) Only either I or II and III and IV are true d) Only III is true e) None of these

34. Statements: F # K, K $ T, d % T, V * D Conclusions: I. T * F II. D% K III. D% F IV. V%K a) Only I and II are true b) Only I, II and III are true c) Only II and III are true d) Only II, III and IV are true e) All are true

35. Statements: H $ J, J δ Y, Y * K, K # W Conclusions: I. W % Y II. K δ J III. K # H IV.H δ W a) None is true b) Only I is true c) Only II is true d) Only III is true e) Only IV is true

Directions (36-40) : In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Give answer a) if only Assumption I is implicit. Give answer b) if only Assumption II is implicit. Give answer c) if either Assumption I or II is implicit. Give answer d) if neither Assumption I nor II is implicit Give answer e) if both Assumptions I and II are implicit.

36. Statement: Mohan requested his mother to arrange for food for about thirty persons as he invited all his friends to celebrate his birthday. Assumptions: I. Most of Mohna's friends may come to his house on his birthday. II. There may not be more than thirty who may attend Mohan's birthday party.

37. Statement: A very large number of aspiring students applied for admission to the professional courses run by the renowned college in town. Assumptions: I. All the applicants may be able to get admission to the college. II. The admission process adopted by the renowned college may be fair to all the applicants.

38. Statement: The state administration banned gathering of more than fifty people at any place during the visit of foreign dignitaries to the city. Assumptions: I. People may avoid gathering at any place in the city during the period of visit of foreign dignitaries. II. Many people may ignore the prohibitory orders mid gather to get a glimpse of the dignitaries.


45

39. Statement The Govt. decided to levy toll tax of Rs. 100/-. for every vehicle using the super highway connecting the two big cities of the state. Assumptions: I. Majority of the vehicles travelling between these two cities may not use the super highway. II. Govt. may not be able to recover the cost incurred for constructing the super highway from the toll tax collection.

40. Statement: The teachers of all the degree colleges went on an indefinite strike in protest against the Govt.'s decision for postponing pay revision to next year. Assumptions: I. The Govt. may suspend all the striking teachers. II. The Govt. may revise the pay of the college teachers in the current year.

Directions (41-50) : In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?

PROBLEM FIGURES ANSWER FIGURES 41.

a) b) c) d) e) 42.

a) b) c) d) e)

43.

a) b) c) d) e)

44.

a) b) c) d) e)

45.

a) b) c) d) e)

46.

a) b) c) d) e) 47.

a) b) c) d) e)


46

48.

a) b) c) d) e)

49.

a) b) c) d) e)

50.

a) b) c) d) e)

Quantitative Aptitude

Directions (51-55) : What should come in place of question mark n) in the following questions?

51. 58.621 - 13.829 - 7.302 - 1.214 = ? a) 37.281 b) 35.272 c) 36.276 d) 31.254 e) None of these

52. 450 of ? % + 285 of 46% = 257.1 a) 34 b) 32 c) 21 d) 28 e) None of these

53. (81)4 ÷ (9)5 = ? a) 6561 b) 729 c) 81 d) 9 e) None of these

54. 618 + 62 x 0.50 – 29 = ? a) 625 b) 660 c) 640 d) 655 e) None of these

55. 282 X 82 X 0.2 = ? a) 4624.8 b) 4734.6 c) 4604.4 d) 4324.2 e) None of these


47

Directions (56-66) : In the following number series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number. 56. 3 7 16 35 72 153 312 a) 7 b) 153 c) 35 d) 72 e) 16

57. 18 20 23 32 48 73 109 a) 20 b) 23 c) 32 d) 48 e) 73 58. 7 4 5 9 20 51 160.5 a) 4 b) 5 c) 9 d) 20 e) 51

59. 6 10 14 34 66 130 258 a) 10 b) 14 c) 34 d) 66 e) 130

60. 2 7 30 138 524 1557 3102 a) 7 b) 30 c) 138 d) 524 e) 1557

61. What is 45% of 25% of th of 850?

a) 67.5 b) 83.5 c) 69.5 d) 76.5 e) None of these

62. Prabha started a business investing Rs. 32,000/-. After 5 months Amit joined her with a capital of Rs. 22,000/-. At the end of the year the total profit was Rs. 16.409/-. What is Prabha's share of the profit? a) Rs. 5,284/- b) Rs. 11,712/- c) Rs. 10,182/- d) Rs. 4,697/- e) None of these


48

63. The simple interest accrued on an amount of Rs. 16,500/- at the end of three years is Rs. 5,940/- What would be the compound interest accrued on the same amount at the same rate in the same period ? (rounded off to two digits after decimal) a) Rs. 6681.31 b) Rs. 6218.27 c) Rs. 6754.82 d) Rs. 6537.74 e) None of these

64. The sum of four consecutive even numbers is 44. What is the sum of the squares of these numbers? a) 288 b) 502 c) 696 d) 920 e) None of these

65. Which number should replace both the question marks in the following equation?

=

a) 124 b) 56 c) 48 d) 32 e) None of these

66. Prerna decided to donate 15% of her salary to an orphanage. On the day of donation she changed her mind and donated Rs. 1,896/- which was 80% of what she had decided earlier. How much is Prerna's salary? a) Rs. 18,500/- b) Rs. 10,250/- c) Rs. 15,800/- d) Cannot be determined e) None of these

67. If 3 is subtracted from 9, 9 and the difference is multiplied by 450, what is the final answer?

a) 2,250 b) 2,045 c) 2,540 d) Cannot be determined e) None of these

68. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 600% and the denominator is increased by 200% .

The resultant fraction is 2 . What was the original fraction?

a)

b)

c)

d)

e) None of these

69. By how much is th of 845 greater than 3rd of 333?

a) 175 b) 285


49

c) 238 d) 209 e) None of these

70. The ages of Trisha and Shalini are in the ratio of 7 : 6 respectively. After 8 years the ratio of their ages will be 9 : 8 What is the difference in their ages? a) 4 years b) 8 years c) 10years d) 12years e) None of these

Directions (71-75) What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions? (Note: You are not expected to calculate thy exact value.)

71. 839.999 ÷ 48.007 = ? a) 9.5 b) 23.5 c) 11.5 d) 28.5 e) 17.5

72. =? a) 76 b) 89 c) 65 d) 97 e) 58

73. 18.001 X 22.999 X 9.998 = ? a) 4560 b) 6290 c) 4140 d) 5920 e) 5080

74. 99999 ÷ 99 ÷ 9 = ? a) 112 b) 211 c) 121 d) 221 e) 222

75. 7984.986 + 2541.005 + 127.996 =? a) 11280 b) 15600 c) 14650 d) 10650 e) 16500

Directions (76-80) : Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions. Number of Candidates Appearing for an Entrance Test from Various Cities (Number in Lakhs)


50

76. What is the respective ratio of the number of candidates appearing for the Entrance Test from city A and city D in the year 2008? a) 11 : 12 b) 13 : 11 c) 12 : 11 d) 11 : 13 e) None of these

77. What is the approximate average number of candidates appearing for the Entrance Test from all the cities together in the year 2007? a) 2800000 b) 2901000 c) 2755000 d) 2795000 e) 2917000

78. The number of candidates appearing for the Entrance test from city B in the year 2008 is approximately what percent of the number of candidates appearing for the Entrance test from city C in the same year? a) 75 b) 112 c) 124 d) 133 e) 97

79. What is the respective ratio of the number of students appearing for the Entrance Test from cities A, B and C together in the year 2007 to the number of students appearing for the Entrance Test from cities D, E and F together from the same year? a) 18: 17 b) 13:14 c) 17:18 d) 17 : 13 e) None of these

80. The number of candidates appearing for the Entrance Test from city E in the year 2008 is what percent of the total number of candidates appearing for the Entrance Test from all the cities together in that year (rounded off to two digits after decimal)?

0

5

10

15

20

25

30

35

40

A B C D E F

Nu

mb

er o

f C

and

idat

es

City

2007

2008


51

a) 17.14 b) 15.43 c) 20.31 d) 14.49 e) None of these

Directions (81-85) : Study the information carefully to answer the following questions. An urn contains 5 red, 3 green, 2 blue and 4 yellow marbles.

81. If two marbles are picked at random, what is the probability that both are blue?

a)

b)

c)

d)

e) None of these

82. If three marbles are picked at random, what is the probability that one is green and two are yellow?

a)

b)

c)

d)

e) None of these

83. If three marbles are picked at random, what is the probability-that either both are red or both are green

a)

b)

c)

d)

e) None of these

84. If four marbles are picked at random, what is the probability that at least one is red?

a)

b)

c)

d)

e) None of these

85. If three marbles are picked at random, what is the probability that at least one is yellow?

a)

b)

c)

d)

e) None of these

Directions (86-90) : Study the following table carefully to answer the questions that follow. Number of Students Appeared (A) and Failed (F) in Five Classes of a School over the Years


52

Year Classes

VI VII VIII IX X

A F A F A F A F A F

2002 68 12 67 09 75 11 84 07 78 09

2003 65 19 70 11 63 08 69 05 79 12

2004 75 06 62 13 69 07 70 06 65 17

2005 79 12 76 10 67 13 81 05 74 08

2006 63 10 87 14 82 12 64 16 63 12

2007 72 15 66 04 74 15 70 07 82 04

2008 60 05 60 07 77 05 71 06 75 06

86. What is the total number of failed students from class VIII for the given years? a) 77 b) 83 c) 68 d) 71 e) None of these

87. What is the ratio of the total number of passed students to total number of failed students for the year 2005? a) 139 : 24 b) 239 : 48 c) 90 : 11 d) 325 : 42 e) None of these

88. Which of the following class has the minimum number of failed students over the years? a) VI b) VII c) VIII d) IX e) X

89. What if the number of passed students, for all the classes together, in the year 2007? a) 319 b) 337 c) 350 d) 326 e) None of these

90. What is the overall percentage of passed students over appeared of class IX from all the years together (rounded off to two digits after decimal)? a) 75.95 b) 81.36 c) 79.53 d) 86.94 e) 89.78

Directions (91-95) : Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow. Total number of 24500 people who are engaged in given professions and (of these)

Percentage of females and males


53

Professions Percentage of People

Percentage of Females

Percentage of Males

Medical 11 60 40

Engineering 18 30 70

Law 24 45 55

Teaching 21 80 20

Banking 16 35 65

Management 10 44 56

91. What is the respective ratio of the total males in Medical and Te aching profession together to the total number of females in the same professions together? a) 117 : 43 b) 29 : 183 c) 183:29 d) 43 : 117 e) None of these

92. The total number of people in Teaching profession is what percent of the total number of people in law profession? a) 87.5 b) 93 c) 68 d) 79.5 e) None of these

93. What is the total number of males from all the professions together? a) 11472 b) 12784 c) 12348 d) 12453 e) None of these

94. Females in Engineering profession are what percent of the males in Management profession? (Rounded off to two digits after decimal) a) 71.71 b) 96.43 c) 83.16 d) 68.54 e) None of these

95. What is the respective ratio of the number of males in Banking profession to the number of males in Engineering profession? a) 17: 7 b) 28.: 25 c) 7 : 11 d) 63 : 52 e) None of these

Directions (96-100) : Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions that follow. Total Number of Males and Females in Five Different Organizations


54

96. What is the average number of females from all the Organizations together? a) 3800 b) 3550 c) 3300 d) 3150 e) None of these

97. The number of males from Organization A is approximately what percent of the total number of males front all the Organizations together? a) 18 b) 28 c) 11 d) 31 e) 36

98. What is the difference between the total number of females and the total number of males from all the Organizations together? a) 1500 b) 1750 c) 1800 d) 2050 e) None of these

99. What is the respective ratio of number of females from Organization C to the number of females from Organization E? a) 14 : 17 b) 17 : 14 c) 14 : 15 d) 15 : 14 e) None of these

100. The total numbers of males from Organizations A & B together are approximately what percent of the total number of males from Organizations C, D and E together? a) 58 b) 75 c) 69

0

500

1000

1500

2000

2500

3000

3500

4000

4500

A B C D E

Nu

mb

er o

f P

eo

ple

Males

Females


55

d) 83 e) 52

General Awareness 101. Which of the following is NOT a measure to control Inflation adopted by the Government and/or RBI? a) Monetary Policy b) Fiscal Policy c) Financial Inclusion d) Price Control e) Bank Rate Policy

102. As we all know the Wholesale Price Index is divided in five main commodity groups. Which of the following is NOT considered separately as a group while calculating Wholesale Price Index (WPI)? a) Services and/or Production by Public Sector Units b) Agriculture c) Import & Exports d) Mining e) Manufacturing

103. In terms of the economics, the total value of the output (goods and services) produce a and income received in a year by domestic residents of a country put together is called- a) Net National Product b) Gross National Product c) Gross National Income d) National Income e) None of these

104. As per the reports in various newspapers/magazines India could not achieve the target of industrial growth fixed in tenth five year plan. What was the target fixed for the same? a) 12% b) 115 c) 10% d) 8% e) None of these

105. Which of the following schemes was launched a few years back to provide wage employment to the rural people in India (The programme is being run successfully in addition to NREGA)? a) Indra Awas Yojana b) Accelerated Rural Water Supply Programme c) Total Sanitation Campaing d) Sampoorna Gramnen Rozgar Yojana e) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana.

106. Which of the following is TRUE about the Rajiv Gandhi National Drinking Water Mission? (A) To provide safe drinking water in urban slums (B) To provide sustainable safe drinking water in rural areas (C) To provide sustainable and safe drinking water in those parts of the country where ample water is not available like coastal areas and desert areas a) Only A b) Only B c) Only C d) All A, B & C e) None of these


56

107. The minimum support price of which of the following was announced as Rs. 1,080/- a quintal for current year's Rabi Crops (2008-09)? a) Gram b) Paddy c) Wheal d) Sugarcane e) None of these

108. Which of the following is TRUE about the India-USA agreement on developing gas resources? (A) Both the nations will cooperate in exploiting gas hydrates in Krishna, Godavari and Mahanadi basins and deep sea of Andaman. (B) USA will help in establishment of an IIT exclusively for research and training in the areas of gas technology (C) India will send its experts to find out more gas reserves in various parts of USA particularly in deep sea of Alaska as they have special training in the same. a) Only A b) Only B c) Only C d) All A, B & C e) None of these

109. As per the news reports in various news papers/magazines which of the following sectors of the Indian economy has slipped into Negative Growth during the last quarter of 2008- 09? a) Services Sector b) Agriculture Sector c) Industrial sector d) Energy Sector e) None of these

110. Rural sanitation programme of the Central Govt. is a very popular programme in India. Which of the following was/were the objectives of the same? (A) To provide home sanitation (B) To provide disposal of garbage (C) To provide wage employment to poor of society in rural areas a) Only A b) Only B c) Only C d) Both A & B e) All A, B & C

111. Which of the following is/are true about the economy of China? (A) China as a country is rich but Chinese are not so. (B) China's growth strategy has been based mainly on exports. (C) Despite attaining rapid growth and Also bringing millions of people out of poverty, China remains a poor country. a) Only A b) Only B c) Only C d) Both A & B e) All A, B & C

112. How much growth rate per annum India needs if it has to eradicate its poverty in next 25 years? a) 6% b) 9%


57

c) 8% d) 7% e) 10%

113. The energy policy of India says that energy security can be ensured by augmenting the domestic energy resource base and by maintaining reserves equivalent to the oil imports sufficient for a) 15 days b) 90 days c) 60 days d) 30 days e) one year

114. Who amongst 'the following is the author of the book "What I require from Life"? a) J.B.S. Haldane b) Nirupam Sen c) Sonal Shah d) Sonia Gandhi e) Manmohan Singh

115. Which of the following is/are major reforms the Govt. has introduced in Banking Sector? (A) Dismantling the complex system of interest rate controls. (B) Eliminating prior approval of the RBI for large loans. (C) Introduction of capital adequacy norms and few other prudential norms a) Only A b) Only B c) Only C d) All A, B & C e) None of these

116. Which of the following is/are recent trends noticed in Indian economy that have raised concern about food security, farmer's income and poverty? (A) Slowdown in growth in agriculture sector (B) Widening economic disparities between irrigated and rain fed areas (C) Increased non-agricultural demand for land and water as a result of fast urbanization a) Only A b) Only B c) Only C d) All A, B & C e) None of these

117. As per the report in various news papers/magazines etc. the agricultural productivity in India is low in comparison to other countries. What are the main reasons of the same? (A) Lack of credit and marketing facilities (B) Uneconomic holdings (C) Outdated agricultural techniques a) Only A b) Only B c) Only C d) Both A e) All A, B & C

118. An insurance scheme for the agriculture sector was introduced by the Govt. of India. Which of the following represents the name of the same?


58

a) NAIS b) RIDF c) AICIL d) CACP e) None of these

119. Which of the following ministries lays down the policies and programmes for the development and regulation of the country's water resources? a) Ministry of Rural Development b) Ministry of Agriculture c) Ministry of Environment and Forests d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs e) Ministry of Water Resources

120. Which of the following phenomenon is also-known as climatic Migration? a) White Revolution b) Green Revolution c) Global Warming d) Urbanization e) None of these

121. The G-20 is grouping of world's most powerful 20 countries. In terms of economic representation, what percentage of world's economy is represented by G-20 nations? a) 50% b) 60% c) 85% d) 70% e) None of these

122. The Prime Minister of which of the following countries - of Indian subcontinent had to face a very serious threat to democracy and to his/her own life by the mutiny staged by the paramilitary forces and other such organization of the country recently? a) Nepal b) Pakistan c) Myanmar d) Bangladesh e) None of these

123. Which of the following countries suffers from chronic fo0d shortage and having people on the brink of starvation refused to have food aid from USA as it wants to be a self reliant nation? a) North Korea b) Sudan c) Uganda d) Brazil e) India

124. India is a permanent Member of which of the following organizations? a) NATO b) Non Aligned Movement c) G-8 d) OPEC e) None of these


59

125. Which of the following organizations has brought a report on World development with the theme "Reshaping Economic Geography"? a) World Trade Organization b) World Bank c) United Nations Organization d) Asian Development Bank e) None of these

126. Which of the following commission is formed in order to guard against predatory and collusive behavior of the business organizations and protect the interest of business organizations in order to promote economic efficiency in the country? a) Knowledge Commission b) Farmers Commission c) Administrative Reforms Commission d) Labour Commission e) Competition Commission

127. Which of the following is correct about the Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana? (A) The scheme was launched in few backward states only. (B) The aim of the scheme was to provide electricity to all villages having a population of 5000 and above. (C) The scheme achieved its target in less than 10 years time. a) Only A b) Only B c) Only C d) All A, B &C e) None of these

128. Who amongst the following is the author of the book "The score of my Life"? a) A. P. J. Abdul Kalam b) Javed Akhtar c) Deepa Narayan d) Zubin Mehta e) None of these

129. The decade 2001 -2010 is being observed as decade of which of the following by the SAARC? a) Rights of the women b) Rights of the children c) Rights of the Senior citizens d) Rights of the Animals e) None of these

130. Which of the· following states won the 17th Senior National Women's Football Championship play in 2009? a) West Bengal b) Orissa c) Manipur d) Karnataka e) Tamil Nadu

131. Players in which · of the following games/sports are taking special training for the Asian Cups 2011 in India as they wish to make it a big success? a) Cricket b) Hockey c) Football


60

d) Badminton e) None of these

132. Gigabyte Communications has launched its business in India in a big way by bringing G Smart touch screen mobile phones./ Gigabyte is a- a) Chinese firm b) US firm c) British firm d) Japanese firm e) Taiwanese firm

133. Some agro processing units make an advance agreement with the farmers and decide to purchase the entire production of certain fruits, vegetables and medicinal plants on an agreed upon cost/price. This type of arrangement is known as __ a) Import farming b) Crop farming c) Adoptive farming d) Loan farming e) Contract farming

134. Who amongst the following is the winner of the Phalke Ratna Award given away on the occasion of the 140th Birth Anniversary of Dadasahab Phalke? a) Manoj Kumar b) Shashi Kapoor c) Ashok Kumar (Posthumously) d) Amitabh Bachchan e) None of these

135. Who amongst the following is the author of the book "If cricket is a Religion, Sachin is God"? a) Rajdeep Sardesai b) Rajeev Shukla c) Chinnappa Reddy d) Khushwant Singh e) None of these

136. General Rookmangud Katawal whose name was in the news is from which of the following countries? a) Ghana b) Pakistan c) Myanmar d) Nepal e) None of these

137. Which of the following agreements have taken place between Russia and India in recent past? (A) Both countries conducted joint defense exercises. (B) India has sent around 3000 bio/agri engineers to redevelop a 300 sq. kms. desert area in Russia. (C) Russia is supplying nuclear fuel for India's Koodankoolam Nuclear plant. a) Only A b) Only B c) Only C d) Both A & C only e) Both A & B only


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138. US President Barack Obama has made an appeal to the people of which of the following countries asking them to shift away from decades of confrontation and start a new era of friendship? a) Iran b) Pakistan c) Russia d) China e) None of these

139. India's first fully dedicated University for Humanities is established in a) Lucknow b) Delhi c) Jaipur d) Mumbai e) Hyderabad

140. Thousands--of Indians-were migrated to which of the following countries under its Highly Skilled Migrant Programme (HSMP) which was in news recently? a) Britain b) Australia c) New Zealand d) Canada e) None of these

141. Who amongst the following won the Barcelona Open Tennis Title Finals which were held in April 2009? a) Leyton Hewitt b) Novak Djokovic c) Rafael Nadal d) David Ferrer e) None of these

142. Which of the following countries won the Azlan Shah Hockey Cup after a gap of 13 years? a) India b) Malaysia c) South Korea d) Iran e) Pakistan

143. National Food Security Management scheme was launched by the Govt. of India to achieve which of the following? (A) Demonstration of improved production technology (B) Distribution of high yield variety seeds (C) To distribute fertilizer subsidy to farmers directly in cash a) Only A b) Only B c) Only C d) Both A & B e) All A, B & C

144. What is the full form of CFSA as used in financial sectors? a) Corporation of Farmers and Subsidiary Allocation b) Committee on Financial Sector Assessment c) Committee on Farming Sector and Agronomy d) Commission to Float Scientific Agriculture e) None of these


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145. Govt. of India is planning to impose safeguard duty on the goods imported from - a) China c) Brazil b) USA d) Pakistan e) Japan

146. DGM Trophy is associated with the game of - a) Hockey b) Cricket c) Badminton d) Golf e) Football

147. Which of the following terms is NOT used in cricket? a) Hoops b) Maiden over c) Stumped d) Hattrick e) Gulleys

148. Who is the author of the book "To a Hunger Free World”? a) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam b) Sonia Gandhi c) L.K. Advani d) M.S. Swaminathan e) None of these

149. China's efforts to divert which of the following rivers have created an atmosphere of concerns in India and Bangladesh? a) Padma b) Brahmaputra c) Ravi d) Satlej e) None of these

150. India recently signed an agreement in the field of energy with a country, which is considered world leader in the field of "renewable energy". Which is that country? a) Britain b) China c) Japan d) Italy e) Spain

English Language Directions (151-165) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering-some of the questions.

Crude oil has had a long history, and an interesting one. It is probably one single natural resource that has been instrumental in producing maximum conflicts and wars during the last century. With such a track record, it is surprising that in the given environment, wherein oil prices are breaking all records, and has become the biggest cause of concern across the globe, why is it that there is silence from some parts of the world? It is intriguing especially when some have been paying a much higher price on fuel, as compared to their poorer counterparts. It is surprising, more so, when one


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realizes that the number of oil producing nations is only a handful as compared to the number of oil consuming nations. While a proactive action from the mighty and powerful can bring in a huge respite for the world, why is it that they choose to be silent? Also, keeping in mind the fact that a few nations- both powerful and weak have some of the largest unused oil reserves, their silence and lack of any serous action look all the more aberrant. Looking at the manner things are shaping up, it just cannot be ruled out that possibly these nations have a definite interest in the increasing prices of oil. The question then is what could their underlying interest be?

In all probability, what we are seeing right now is just a precursor to the larger picture, well laid out by them may be for the good. With rising prices, the OPEC might be delighted right now, but perhaps they are unable to see what is going to hit them. For this unprecedented rise in oil is creating a most demanding environment for alternative fuels. As ad when the reserves deplete arid demand really grows, more than anyone else, it is OPEC that would be badly hit, much to the glee of some nations having unused reserves which have the most to gain by 'using blackmailing tactics. Eventually, the countries at the receiving end would be forced to create an enabling environment for alternative energy. This trend is already visible, with India showing the way with its nuclear deal and other countries dangling the corrot of complete conversion to natural gas towards other countries in order to boost their own business. By doing so they are creating tactical pressure on countries. As they know that the further the oil prices get pushed, the more the globe would become attracted and ready for alternative and non-conventional fuel. Moreover, for many of the countries, it might become more expensive to invest in newer technologies -to conform to the emission norms that to shift to alternative sources, making the market even more attractive. And it is then that the organizations which have already invested billions of dollars in alternate fuels would mop up the global energy market completely.

The second possible reason why some nations of the world are not too enthusiastic to mitigate the price of oil is because the rising oil price is perhaps one of the major deterrents to growth of other countries. Perhaps they were hand in glove in the mechanism to raise the oil price and knowing well that this would make these nations feel the -pinch. And now, the rising oil prices have put these nations in a fix. As the pressure of inflationary tendencies increases these countries cannot afford either to sit back and remain entrapped in the larger conspiracy. No wonder then that these are frantically loosing around the globe especially Africa-for newer reserves! As it is said, oil has a long history and the legacy continues.

151. What, according to the passage, is the step that the nations are likely to take with an intolerable rise in oil prices? a) Shift to alternate forms of energy b) Come to a state of war with other nations c) Put tactical pressure on countries having oil reserves d) Formulate more stringent emission norms and apply these across the globe e) None of these

152. Why is the author surprised with the stance which various nations have taken pertaining to the current global oil crisis? a) The stance is leading to way among the nations for control over oil fields b) Powerful nations have been selling oil at a very inflated rate to under developed nations c) Many nations have shifted to alternate forms of energy boycotting the use of oil due to inflated prices d) Even though oil has been a matter of conflict among the nations earlier, many nations have a kept a silence on the current crisis e) None of these

153. Which nations does the author refer to in the phrase 'these nations have a definite interest ill the increasing prices of oil'? a) The mighty and powerful nations b) Nations having unused oil reserves c) Nations which have exhausted their oil reserves d) The nations which have shifted to non-conventional fuels e) None of these

154. Which of the following is not true in context of the passage? a) Some nations have kept a silence upon the rising oil price in order to inhibit the growth of other nations


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b) It is more cost effective to shift to alternate forms of energy than to invest in technology for conforming to the emission norms c) Some nations have unused oil reserves which would earn these nations heavy profits once the oil reserves elsewhere deplete d) India has had a nuclear deal for its energy needs e) All are true

155. What does the author mean by 'dangling the corrot' in the passage? a) Some countries, are stringently opposing the conversion to alternate forms of fuel. b) Some countries have been luring other countries to change over to alternate fuels in order to boost their own business. c) Some countries are making the effort to save environment by using natural gas instead of oil as a fuel d) Both a) and b) e) None of these.

156. Which of the following is intended in the given passage? a) To highlight the plight of OPEC with rising fuel prices b) To urge to the government to shift from oil to natural gas since it is more environment friendly c) To highlight the vested interest of some nations in maintaining the indifference to rising oil prices d) To urge to save the environment by conforming to the emission norms and using alternate energy sources e) None of these

157. Why, according to the author, OPEC though delighted currently, would be in a difficult situation later? a) All the oil reserves on the earth will soon be exhausted b) Powerful nations will try and dominate OPEC later on c) As the oil reserves which are being used currently deplete in the time to come, nations having unused oil reserves would arm-twist OPEC d) Nations will lose faith in OPEC owing to very high fuel prices e) None of these

158. What, according to the author, makes the market of alternate sources very attractive? a) Many countries have already made a substantial profit in the industry of alternate fuel b) Such measure do not cause harm to the environment c) Only a few countries of the world will have the access to alternate forms of fuel d) The use of alternate sources has been forced upon certain countries by powerful countries e) None of these

159. Which of the following can be the most appropriate title for the given passage? a) Reasons behind silence on increase in oil prices b) Nuclear power as an alternate source of energy c) The monopoly of oil reserves by powerful countries d) The repercussion of shifting to alternate forms of energy e) Oil reserves as deterrent for growth of the nations.

Directions (1.60-162) : Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

160. INSTRUMENTAL a) Non-vocal b) Reasonable c) Creditable d) Responsible e) Liable


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161. ABERRANT a) Curious b) Abnormal c) Spoilt d) Inferior e) Nonfunctional

162. PUSHED a) Dominated b) Pressed c) Diverted d) Thrown e) Increased

Directions (163-165) : Choose the word/ group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in boldas used in the passage. 163. PROACTIVE a) Quick b) Over powered c) Dormant d) Delicate e) Brittle

164. GLEE a) Disappointment b) Dishonor c) Appreciation d) Disillusion e) Defeat

165. MITIGATE a) Fright b) Decline c) Degeneration d) Worsen e) Deprivation

Directions (166-175) : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence, the number of that part will be the answer. If there is no error, mark e) as the answer. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

166. The merchant counted/a) the number of pearls/b) to make sure that/c) none of them were missing/d) No error/e).

167. When deep sea diving/a) one should always take care/b) that oxygen cylinder is/c) tied to the back tightly/d) No error/e).

168. As the salary/a) did not match/b) his expectations, he did not/c) accept the job/d) No error/e).

169. The reason behind his success/a) in the recent past/b) is due to hard-work/c) and presence of mind/d) No error/e).

170. No sooner did the students/a) seen the principal approach/b) than they ran/c) from the playground/d) No error/e).


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171. My elder sister and I am/a) interested in painting/b) and therefore have joined/c)the coaching classes/d) No error/e).

172. Only after a lot of persuasion/a) the illiterate villager allowed/b) himself girl child/c) to study in the school/d) No error/e).

173. The need for alternate/a) sources of energy are/b) essential to conserve/c) the environment/d) No error/e).

174. I have being working/a) in that organization for five years/b) but now I work/c) for a different company/d) No error/e).

175. There is no argument against/a) the fact that/b) humans are the most intelligent/c) of all other species/d) No error/e).

Directions (176-180) : Which of the phrases a), b), c) and d) given below each statement should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and 'No correction is required', mark e) as the answer.

176. Many students waits anxiously at the college gate to know their results. a) student waited anxiously b) students waiting anxiously c) students waited anxiously d) students waited anxious e) No correction required

177. Through a fortuitous circumstance Rakhi met her childhood friend on the bus in which she was travelling. a) she was travelled b) she did travel c) she has travelling d) she were travelling e) No correction required

178. The opposition party has alleged that the prices of essential commodities are soaring like never before on the lastthree decades. a) before on the next b) before in the last c) before at the last d) previously in the next e) No correction required

179. The salaries and the perks of the employees in this institution are not in according with the rest of the industry. a) are not in accordance b) is not in accordance c) are not according d) is not on accordance e) No correction required

180. The soldiers deployed in the town were instructed to exercising restraint and handle the situation peacefully. a) was instructed to exercising b) were instructed for exercise c) were instructed to exercise d) was instructing to exercising e) No Correction required


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Directions (181-185) : Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) to make a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions which follow: (A) The only way in which this problem can he solved is by making artificial blood which has remained a distant dream for science. (B) Donation of blood is considered to be the most noble of all the charities. (C) If they succeed, it would be noted as one of the most important inventions in the history of mankind. (D) This is because this donated magic potion can give life to another person in an emergency. (E) A group of scientists, however, has dedicated themselves towards making this a reality. (F) A growing problem however is that the requirement for safe blood is increasing whereas the number of donors is decreasing.

181. Which of the following sentence should be the FIRST after rearrangement? a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E

182. Which of the· following sentence should be the SECOND after rearrangement? a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E

183. Which of the following sentence should be the THIRD after rearrangement? a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E

184. Which of the following sentence should be the FIFTH after rearrangement? a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E

185. Which of the following sentence should be the SIXTH (LAST) after rearrangement? a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E

Directions (186-190) : Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been · omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

186. One of the TV cameramen was ______ in the leg by a bullet when he was _______ in the middle of a gun fight between two gangs. a) hurt, entered


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b) shot, caught c) injured, came d) stabbed, trapped e) beaten, engulfed

187. Although the fire was very small everyone _______ and reshed out of the cinema hall ______ complete chaos. a) shouted, leading b) died, producing c) injured, resulting d) scared, making e) panicked, causing

188. The _____ of pesticides and fertilizers while growing the vegetables and fruits is one of the greatest ______ to the health these days. a) production, dangers b) consumption, problem c) overuse, threats d) application, rewards e) amount, injury

189. The group's mission is to _______ peace between the nations and help different people _______ each other better. a) maintain, understand b) remain, address c) keep, interact d) advise, find e) communicate, friendly

190. History_______ the kings and influential leaders whereas the real 'battle was _______ by the soldiers who remain little known and celebrated in the texts. a) remembers, played b) highlights, underwent c) biased, lead d) glorifies, fought e) writes, done

Directions (191-200) : In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Without doubt there is one thing (191) to all of us-We have played a game at some time in our lives. Most of us play to relax or have fun, but for many playing a game or a sport is a way to (192) poverty behind. In fact, in many African countries, playing a sport professionally can (193) the lives of a person's entire family.

For example, in the small town of Bekoji, in Ethiopia (194) than a hundred boys and girls can be seen running at dawn every day. Each of these youth is (195) and serious and their coach is (196) that one of them will be a world champion. This seems like an idle (197) but it is virtually a guarantee in this small community (198) mainly farmers. Many of the fastest male and female distance runners in the world hail from this small town. A small hand-painted sign which greets visitors outside Bekoji (199) “Welcome to the village of Athletes". Children here start running at an early age, (200) great distances to fetch water and firewood or to reach school. At the Olympics runners from this small town are likely to win more medals than those from developed countries. 'It will give their families a way out of poverty.

191. a) accepted b) common


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c) alike d) similar e) popular

192. a) alleviate b) forgot c) prevent d) reduce e) leave

193. a) changes b) arrange c) control d) transform e) shift

194. a) further b) more c) greater d) over e) larger

195. a) concentrated b) rival c) focused d) playful e) performed

196. a) convince b) optimist c) intended d) privilege e) confident

197. a) boast b) suspicion c) risk d) worship e) precaution

198. a) existing b) that c) comprising d) consisting e) for


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199. a) warn b) inform c) notices d) reads e) wish

200. a) covering b) driving c) measuring d) following e) competing

ANSWERS

Q.1 E

Q.2 B

Q.3 E

Q.4 A

Q.5 C

Q.6 B

Q.7 C

Q.8 C

Q.9 D

Q.10 D

Q.11 E

Q.12 C

Q.13 B

Q.14 D

Q.15 E

Q.16 D

Q.17 B

Q.18 E

Q.19 E

Q.20 C

Q.21 A

Q.22 D

Q.23 C

Q.24 E

Q.25 B

Q.26 A

Q.27 B

Q.28 D

Q.29 E

Q.30 C

Q.31 C

Q.32 D

Q.33 B

Q.34 E

Q.35 A

Q.36 E

Q.37 B

Q.38 A

Q.39 B

Q.40 B

Q.41 C

Q.42 D

Q.43 D

Q.44 B

Q.45 E

Q.46 C

Q.47 B

Q.48 A

Q.49 B

Q.50 C

Q.51 C

Q.52 D

Q.53 B

Q.54 E

Q.55 A

Q.56 D

Q.57 A

Q.58 E

Q.59 B

Q.60 C

Q.61 D

Q.62 B

Q.63 A

Q.64 E

Q.65 C

Q.66 C

Q.67 E

Q.68 D

Q.69 B

Q.70 A

Q.71 E

Q.72 B

Q.73 C

Q.74 A

Q.75 D

Q.76 B

Q.77 E

Q.78 D

Q.79 C

Q.80 A

Q.81 E

Q.82 C

Q.83 C

Q.84 A

Q.85 D

Q.86 D

Q.87 B

Q.88 D

Q.89 A

Q.90 E

Q.91 D

Q.92 A

Q.93 C

Q.94 B

Q.95 E

Q.96 E

Q.97 A

Q.98 B

Q.99 B

Q.100 C

Q.101 C

Q.102 A

Q.103 B

Q.104 C

Q.105 E

Q.106 B

Q.107 C

Q.108 A

Q.109 B

Q.110 E

Q.111 B

Q.112 B

Q.113 B

Q.114 C

Q.115 D

Q.116 D

Q.117 E

Q.118 E

Q.119 E

Q.120 C

Q.121 C

Q.122 D

Q.123 A

Q.124 B


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Q.125 B

Q.126 E

Q.127 E

Q.128 D

Q.129 B

Q.130 C

Q.131 C

Q.132 E

Q.133 E

Q.134 A

Q.135 E

Q.136 D

Q.137 D

Q.138 A

Q.139 B

Q.140 A

Q.141 C

Q.142 A

Q.143 D

Q.144 B

Q.145 A

Q.146 E

Q.147 A

Q.148 D

Q.149 B

Q.150 E

Q.151 A

Q.152 D

Q.153 B

Q.154 B

Q.155 B

Q.156 C

Q.157 C

Q.158 C

Q.159 A

Q.160 D

Q.161 B

Q.162 E

Q.163 C

Q.164 A

Q.165 D

Q.166 B

Q.167 A

Q.168 E

Q.169 C

Q.170 B

Q.171 A

Q.172 C

Q.173 B

Q.174 A

Q.175 D

Q.176 C

Q.177 E

Q.178 B

Q.179 A

Q.180 C

Q.181 B

Q.182 D

Q.183 E

Q.184 D

Q.185 C

Q.186 B

Q.187 E

Q.188 C

Q.189 A

Q.190 D

Q.191 B

Q.192 E

Q.193 D

Q.194 B

Q.195 C

Q.196 E

Q.197 A

Q.198 C

Q.199 D

Q.200 A


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IBPS PO EXAM SOLVED QUESTION PAPER (BANK OF ......IBPS PO EXAM SOLVED QUESTION PAPER (BANK OF MAHARASHTRA) • TEST OF REASONING • QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE • ENGLISH LANGUAGE •