Home Assignment-23 (CST-24) · 2020. 4. 23. · Home Assignment-23 (CST-24) (2) Complete Syllabus Test-24 6. In the figure given, the system is in equilibrium. The maximum value that

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INSTRUCTIONS :(i) Use ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle.(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing

material on Answer sheet.(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.(vii) Answers to be marked on OMR sheet only.

PHYSICS

1. A physical quantity x is given by3 32kx

m n . The

percentage error in the measurements of k, , mand n are 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively. Thepercentage error in measurement of x is(1) 8% (2) 10%(3) 14% (4) 7%

2. The dimension of2

04e

hc, where e, 0, h and c are

electric charge, electric permitivity, plank’s constantand velocity of light in vacuum respectively, is(1) [M°L°T°] (2) [ML°T°](3) [M°LT°] (4) [M°L°T]

3. A car starting from rest, accelerates at the rate fthrough a distance S, then continues at constantspeed for time t and then decelerates at the rate

2f

to come to rest. If the total distance traversed is

15s, then

(1) 212

S ft (2) 214

S ft

(3) 2172

S ft (4) 216

S ft

4. A large number of bullets are fired in all directionswith same speed v. Maximum area on the groundon which these bullets will spread is

(1)2v

g

(2)4

2v

g

(3)4

22

vg

(4)2

22

vg

5. Two fixed frictionless inclined planes making anangle 30° and 60° with the vertical are a shown inthe figure. Two blocks A and B are placed on thetwo planes. The relative vertical acceleration of Awith respect to B is

AB

60° 30°

(1) 4.9 m/s2 in vertical direction(2) 4.9 m/s2 in horizontal direction(3) 9.8 m/s2 in vertical direction(4) Zero

Maximum Marks : 720 Time : 3 Hrs.

CST-24Code-A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

Home Assignment-23 (CST-24)

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Complete Syllabus Test-24

6. In the figure given, the system is in equilibrium. Themaximum value that ‘W ’ can have if the frictionalforce on the 40 N block cannot exceed 12.0 N, is

40N30°

w(1) 3.45 N (2) 6.92 N(3) 10.35 N (4) 12.32 N

7. A particle of mass m is moving in a circular path ofconstant radius r such that centripetal acceleration,aC varying with time as aC = k2rt2, where k is aconstant. The power delivered to the particle by theforce acting on it is(1) 2mkr2t (2) mkr2t2

(3) mk2r2t (4) mk2rt2

8. An open knife edge of mass M dropped from aheight h on a wooden floor. If knife penetratesdistance s into the wood, the average resistanceoffered by the wood to the knife is

(1) Mg (2)hMgs

(3) 1 hMgs

(4)2

1 hMgs

9. Particles of mass m, 2m, 3m, _ _ _ , nm gram areplaced on the same line at distances , 2, 3, _ _ _,n cm from a fixed point. The distance of centre ofmass of the particles from the fixed point is

2 ( 1) 2 16

n n nn

(1) 2 1

3n

(2) 1n

(3) 2 1

2

n n (4) 2

21n n

10. The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc ismaximum about an axis perpendicular to the discand passing through

ABD

C

(1) B (2) C

(3) D (4) A

11. A solid sphere is rolling on a frictionless surface,as shown in figure with a translational velocityv m/s. If it is to climb the inclined surface, then vshould be [inclined plane is rough]

h

(1)107

gh (2) 2 gh

(3) 2gh (4)107

gh

12. A flywheel rotates about an axis. Due to friction atthe axis, it experiences an angular retardationproportional to its angular velocity. If its angularvelocity falls to half while it makes n rotations, howmany more rotations will it make before coming torest?(1) 2n (2) n

(3)2n

(4)3n

13. If the mass of moon is 81M

, where M is the mass of

earth, the distance of the point from the moon,where gravitational field due to earth and mooncancel each other is, given that distance betweenearth and moon is 60R, where R is the radius ofearth.(1) 4 R (2) 8 R(3) 2 R (4) 6 R

14. Figure shows a uniform rod of length 30 cm havinga mass of 3 kg. The rod is pulled by constant forcesof 20N and 32N. The force exerted by 20 cm partof the rod on the 10 cm part is [All surfaces aresmooth]

32N

F

20N

10 cm 20 cm (1) 36 N (2) 12 N(3) 64 N (4) 24 N

15. A soap bubble in vacuum has a radius 3 cm andanother soap bubble in vacuum has radius 4 cm. Iftwo bubbles coalesce under isothermal condition,then the radius of the new bubble will be(1) 7 cm (2) 5 cm(3) 4.5 cm (4) 2.3 cm

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16. A black body is heated to temperature 27°C and127°C. The ratio of the radiant powers at twotemperatures will be(1) 81 : 256 (2) 27 : 64(3) 9 : 16 (4) 3 : 4

17. A body cools from 80°C to 64°C in 5 min and samebody cools from 80°C to 52°C in 10 min. Thetemperature of the surrounding is(1) 24°C (2) 28°C(3) 22°C (4) 25°C

18. A gas expands adiabatically at constant pressure

such that its temperature 1TV

, the value of p

v

CC

of gas is(1) 1.30 (2) 1.50(3) 1.67 (4) 2.00

19. A carnot’s engine operating between the sourcetemperature 227°C and sink temperature 27°C,takes up 1 kJ of heat from the source in one cyclethen the work done by the engine is(1) 800 J (2) 600 J(3) 400 J (4) 200 J

20. A gaseous mixture consists of 2 moles of oxygenand 4 moles of helium at temperature T. Neglectingall vibrational modes, the total internal energy ofthe mixture is(1) 4 RT (2) 9 RT

(3) 15 RT (4) 11 RT

21. A car is moving towards a high cliff. The car driversounds a horn of frequency f. The reflected soundheard by the driver has frequency 2f. If v be thevelocity of sound, then the velocity of the car, in thesame velocity units, will be

(1) 2v

(2) 2v

(3) 3v

(4) 4v

22. The amplitude of a pendulum executing damped

simple harmonic motion falls to rd1

3

of the original

value after 100 oscillations. The amplitude falls toS times the original value after 200 oscillations,where S is

(1)19

(2)12

(3)23

(4)16

23. A particle of mass m is executing oscillation aboutthe origin on the x-axis. Its potential energy isU(x) = K |x|3, where k is a positive constant. If theamplitude of oscillation is a, then its time period T is

(1) Proportional to 1a

(2) Proportional to a

(3) Proportional 32a

(4) Independent of a24. Two pendulums of lengths 100 cm and 121 cm start

vibrating. At some instant the two are at the meanposition in the same phase. After how manyvibrations of the longer pendulum will the two be inthe same phase at the mean position again?(1) 10(2) 11(3) 20(4) 21

25. An observer moves towards a stationary source ofsound, with a speed one-fifth of the speed of sound.What is the percentage increase in the apparentfrequency?(1) 5%(2) 20%(3) Zero(4) 0.5%

26. Electrostatic f ield in a region is given by( ) V/mE yz i zx j xy k

, where x, y and z arecoordinates in m. If electric potential at origin is zero,then potential at (1m, 1m, 1m) is(1) –1V(2) 1V(3) –3V(4) 3V

27. The equivalent capacitance of the circuit as shownin figure between points A and B is

2µF

8µF8µF

24µF6µF8

5 µF

A

B

(1) 10 µF(2) 8 µF(3) 2 µF(4) 15 µF

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28. A non-conducting solid sphere of radius R, has auniform charge density. The graph representsvariation of magnitude of electric field (E) as afunction of distance (x) from the centre of the sphereis

(1)

R X

E

O

(2)

E

XRO

(3)

R X

E

O

(4)

E

XO R

29. The charge on the capacitor, at the instant as shownin the figure is

100V10A

2 4

104A

92A

62µF

(1) 32 µC (2) 20 µC

(3) 64 µC (4) 100 µC

30. The equivalent resistance across points A and B,in the circuit shown in the figure, is

2R

2R

2R2R

4R

4RA B

(1) 4 R (2) 2 R

(3) 3 R (4) R

31. A current i flows in a circular arc of wire whose radius

is R, which subtends an angle of 32

radian at itss

centre. The magnetic induction B at the centre is

i

R

(1) 0µ iR

(2) 02µ iR

(3) 02µ iR

(4) 038µ iR

32. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 20 F isbeing charged by a voltage source whose potentialis changing at the rate of 3 V/s. The conductioncurrent through connecting wires and thedisplacement current through the plates of thecapacitor, would be respectively(1) 30 A, zero (2) 60 A, zero(3) 60 A, 60 A (4) Zero, 60 A

33. The inductive reactance and resistance of asinusoidal series LR ac circuit are 3 ohm each. Thephase difference between applied voltage andcurrent is

(1) Zero (2)6

(3) 4

(4) 2

34. A uniform conducting wire ABC has a mass of 10 g.A current of 2A flows through it. The wire is kept ina uniform magnetic field B = 2T. The accelerationof the wire will be

××

××

××

× ×

×

×

× ×4 cm

5 cm

B

A C

(1) Zero (2) 12 m/s2

(3) 1.2 × 10–3 m/s2 (4) 0.6 × 103 m/s2

35. If the horizontal component of earths magnetic fieldis 4 × 10–4 T and angle of dip is 30°, then the verticalcomponent is(1) 3 × 10–4 T (2) 4 × 10–4 T(3) 2.3 × 10–4 T (4) 12.308 × 10–4 T

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36. Which logic gate is represented by the followingcombination of logic gates?

A

BY

(1) OR (2) NAND

(3) AND (4) NOR

37. In the following common emitter circuit, if = 100,VCE = 7V, VBE = Negligible, RC = 2 k, then B =

IB

RB

B E

RC

IC

C15 V

(1) 0.01mA (2) 0.04 mA

(3) 0.02 mA (4) 0.03 mA

38. Starting with a sample of pure 66Cu, 78

of it decays

into Zn in 15 minutes. The half life of Cu is

(1) 15 minutes (2) 3 minutes

(3)17 minutes2 (4) 5 minutes

39. The ratio of the speed of the electrons in the groundstate of hydrogen atom to the speed of light invacuum is

(1)12

(2)2

137

(3)1

137(4)

1237

40. Two photons having energies twice and five timesthe work function of metal are incident successivelyon the metal surface. The ratio of the maximumvelocity of the photoelectron emitted in the twocases will be

(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2

(3) 1 : 3 (4) 1 : 4

41. The critical angle of a certain medium is 1 3sin5

.

The polarising angle of the medium is

(1) 1 4sin5

(2) 1 5tan3

(3) 1 3tan4

(4) 1 4tan3

42. The slit width, when a light of wavelength 6500 Å isincident on a slit, if first minima for red light is at30°, is

(1) 1 × 10–6 m

(2) 5.2 × 10–6 m

(3) 1.3 × 10–6 m

(4) 2.6 × 10–6 m

43. A thin equiconvex lens is made of glass of refractiveindex 1.5 and its focal length is 0.2 m, if it acts as aconcave lens of focal length 0.5 m when dipped ina liquid, then the refractive index of the liquid is

(1)178 (2)

158

(3)138 (4)

98

44. Diameter of the objective lens of a telescope is200 cm. The resolving power of the telescope is

( = 5000 Å)

(1) 6.56 × 106

(2) 3.28 × 105

(3) 1 × 106

(4) 3.28 × 106

45. A fish rising vertically up towards the surface ofwater with speed 3 m/s observes a bird flyingvertically down towards the fish with speed 9 m/s.The actual velocity of bird is

Bird

Fish

(1) 4.5 m/s

(2) 5 m/s

(3) 3 m/s

(4) 3.4 m/s

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46. The positive quantity for solution with negativedeviation is(1) H (2) V(3) G (4) S

47. The solubility of a sparingly soluble salt AxBy inwater is “s” mole per litre. The solubility productof salt will be(1) s2 (2) xyyxsx+y

(3) xxyysx+y (4) sx+y

48. Two elements X (Atomic mass = 75) andY (Atomic mass = 16) combine to give acompound having 75.8% of X. The formula of thecompound is(1) XY (2) X2Y(3) X2Y2 (4) X2Y3

49. How many minutes are required to deliver3.21 106 coulombs using a current of 500 Aused in the commercial production of chlorine?(1) 8.3 (2) 5.3 104

(3) 6420 (4) 107

50. BX3+NH3 At room temperature BX3.NH3+ Heat

of adduct formation (H). The numerical value ofH is found to be maximum for(1) BF3 (2) BCl3(3) BBr3 (4) BI3

51. BCl3 on hydrolysis gives(1) H3BO3 (2) B2H6

(3) B2O3 (4) BH3·H2O52. Zn can displace

(1) Mg from its aqueous solution(2) Cu from its aqueous solution(3) Na from its aqueous solution(4) Al from aqueous solution

53. The size of particles in suspension, true solutionand colloidal solution varies in the order(1) Suspension > Colloidal > true solution(2) true solution > Suspension > Colloidal(3) Suspension > Colloidal = true solution(4) None of these

54. CH3–CH2–CH=CH2 has hybridisation of carbonatoms as(1) sp, sp, sp2, sp2 (2) sp3, sp3, sp2, sp(3) sp3, sp3, sp2, sp2 (4) sp3, sp2, sp2, sp

55. Which of the following is lewis acid?(1) BF3 (2) Cl–

(3) H2O (4) NH3

56. BeCl2 is not iso-structural with

(1) –2ICl (2) C2H2

(3) XeF2 (4) GeCl257. Select incorrect statement about alkaline earth

metals(1) Solubility of sulphate decreases down the

group(2) Solubility of hydroxides decreases down the

group(3) Thermal stability of carbonates increases

down the group(4) Basic nature increases down the group

58. In which of the following reactions, H2O2 is actingas reducing agent?(1) SO2+H2O2H2SO4

(2) 2KI+H2O22KOH+I2(3) PbS+4H2O2PbSO4+4H2O(4) Ag2O+H2O22Ag+H2O+O2

59. Which of the following overlap gives bond alongx-axis as internuclear axis?(1) px and px (2) s and pz

(3) s and py (4) 2 2 2x – y zd and d

60. The hybridization of the central atom in 2ICl is

(1) dsp2 (2) sp

(3) sp2 (4) sp3

61. Which of the follwing statement is correct about+3I and –

3I molecular ions?

(1) Number of lone pairs at central atoms samein both molecular ions

(2) Hybridization of central atoms in both ions aresame

(3) Both are polar species(4) Both are planar species

62. Identify the complex which are expected to becoloured(1) [Ti(NO3)4] (2) Na2[CdCl4](3) K3[VF6] (4) [Sc(H2O)6]3+

CHEMISTRY

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63. The gradual decrease in metall ic radius forlanthanoids is not obeyed by(1) Gd (2) Eu(3) Lu (4) Sm

64. For the complexes showing the square pyramidalstructure, the d-orbital involved in the hybridisationis(1) 2 2x – yd (2) 2zd

(3) dxy (4) dxz

65. The presence of unsaturation in organiccompounds can be tested with(1) Schiff’s reagent (2) Tollen’s reagent(3) Fehling’s reagent (4) Baeyer’s regent

66. Identify which functional group is not present inthe given following compound?

O

NH

OO

O(1) Ketone(2) Ester(3) Amide(4) Ether

67. Styrene is the monomer of(1) Buna–S(2) PTFE(3) Glyptal(4) Orlon

68. Which of the following is the strongest Bronstedbase?

(1)

NH2

(2)HN

HH

(3)N

H

(4)N

H

69. In the reaction,

CH3CC–CH3X

Zn/H O2

CH3–CO

–CO

–CH3

X is:(1) HNO3 (2) O2

(3) O3 (4) KMnO4

70.

OH

OBr ,CS2 2 A (major) : Product (A) is273 K

(1)

OH

Br

Br

(2)

OH

Br

Br

Br

(3)

OH

Br

(4)

OH

Br

71. D–glucose & D–fructose can be differentiated by(1) Fehling solution(2) Tollen’s reagent(3) Benedict test(4) Br2/H2O

72. The configuration of the chirality centres inD–threose (shown) are

CHOHO H

H OHCH OH2

(1) 2R, 3R(2) 2R, 3S(3) 2S, 3R(4) 2S, 3S

73. Which reaction will occur at the fastest rate?

(1) HBrBr

(2)HBr

Br

(3) HBrBr

(4)HBr

Br

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74. What is the final product (B) of this sequence?

CH3

Br 2

lightA

1. KCN

2. H O , heat2+ B

(1)

CH3CO H2

(2)

CO H2

(3)

CH3

CO H2

(4)

CH –CO H2 2

75. CH –C–3 –C–OH CH –CH– 3 –CH –OH2

O O OH

Above conversion can be done by(1) NaBH4

(2) LiAlH4

(3) PCC(4) KMnO4

76.NBS A (major)

CH d3 c

baH CH3

Bromination take place at(1) a (2) b(3) c (4) d

77. Which of the following has unstable enol form?

(1)

O O

(2)

O O

(3)

O

(4)

O

78. Among the following compounds, the most basiccompound is

(1)N

(2)NH

(3)O

(4)NH

79. Cl– –Br Na/Dry ether (A) (major)

Product (A) of above reaction is

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

80. The correct order of the strength of H-bonds is(1) H....F > H....O > H....N(2) H....N > H....O > H....F(3) H....O > H....N > H....F(4) H....F > H....N > H....O

81. How many Faradays are required to reduce0.25 gm of Nb(v) to the metal? (Atomic weight:Nb = 93 gm)(1) 2.7 × 10–3

(2) 1.3 × 10–2

(3) 2.7× 10–2

(4) 7.8× 10–3

82. Select the correct diagram for an endothermicreaction that proceeds through two steps, with thesecond step is rate determining

(1)PE

reactionco ordinate

(2)PE

reactionco ordinate

(3)PE

reactionco ordinate

(4) PE

co ordinate

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83. Gold sol is a negative sol. The amount of electrolyterequired to coagulate a certain amount of gold solis minimum in the case of(1) CaCl2 (2) NaCl(3) AlCl3 (4) Na2SO4

84. Resistance of a decimolar solution between twoelectrodes 0.02 meter apart and 0.0004 m2 in areawas found to be 50 ohm. Specific conductance is(1) 0.1 Sm–1 (2) 1 Sm–1

(3) 10 Sm–1 (4) 4 × 10–4 Sm–1

85. How many electrons can fit in the orbital for whichn = 3 and l = 1?(1) 6 (2) 10(3) 14 (4) 2

86. For a reaction to occur spontaneously(1) S must be negative(2) (H – TS) must be positive(3) H + TS must be negative(4) G must be negative

87. The Van’t Hoff factor(i) for a dilute aqueous solutionof the strong electrolyte barium hydroxide is

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 3 (4) 0

88. What is the molar solubil i ty of Fe(OH)2(Ksp = 8 × 10–16) at pH = 13?

(1) 8 × 10–18 (2) 8 × 10–15

(3) 8× 10–17 (4) 8× 10–14

89. Triclinic crystal has the following unit cell parameters

(1) a=b=c; ===90°

(2) abc; 90°

(3) a=bc; ===90°

(4) a=bc, ==90°;=120°

90. If Pt is used as cathode in the electrolysis of aq.NaClsolution, product of cathode is

(1) H2(g) (2) Na(s)

(3) O2(g) (4) H2O2(l)

BOTANY

91. Reproduction is synonymous with growth forwhich group of organisms?

(1) Multicellular filamentous organisms

(2) Colonial organisms

(3) Unicellular organisms

(4) All organisms

92. Match the following columnsColumn-I Column-II

(a) Ex-situ conservation (i) Herbarium(b) Quick source of (ii) Museum

reference

(c) Preserved animals (iii) Flora

(d) Actual account of (iv) Botanical Gardenplants of a given area

(1) (a)(ii), b(iii), (c)(iv), (d)(i)(2) (a)(i), b(iv), (c)(ii), (d)(iii)(3) (a)(iv), b(i), (c)(iii), (d)(ii)(4) (a)(iv), b(i), (c)(ii), (d)(iii)

93. The organisms which show the features of bothplants and animals are

(1) Amoeba, Paramecium and Chlamydomonas

(2) Spirogyra, Paramecium and Amoeba

(3) Euglena, Amoeba and Spirogyra

(4) Slime moulds and Euglena

94. Double stranded RNA is found in

(1) Reovirus (2) TMV

(3) Pox Virus (4) × 174

95. Who discovered an infectious agent that was tobe a free RNA causing potato spindle tuberdisease?

(1) Beijerinck (2) Diener

(3) Ivanowsky (4) Stanley

96. Trichodesmium erythraeum, which gives colur toRed Sea is

(1) Green algae (2) Blue green algae

(3) Red algae (4) Brown algae

97. Organisms which are fungus-like in one phase oftheir life cycle and Amoeba like in another phaseof their life cycle are

(1) Slime moulds (2) Diatoms

(3) Dinoflagellates (4) Euglenoids

98. Sphagnum is used as a packing material fortransporting living plants because of its

(1) Acidic nature

(2) Creeping habit

(3) Requirement water for fertilization

(4) Water retention capacity

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99. Most roots are positively geotropic. The negativelygeotropic root is(1) Prop roots of banyan(2) Floating roots of Jussiaea(3) Stilt roots of maize(4) Respiratory roots of Rhizophora

100. Which one of the following is incorrectly matched?(1) Corm – Crocus(2) Phylloclade – Opuntia(3) Offsets – Pistia(4) Bulbils – Euphorbia

101. Find out the incorrectly matched pair w.r.t. stamens(1) Epipetalous – Brinjal(2) Tetradynamous – Solanum(3) Monoadelphous – Hibiscus(4) Polyadelphous – Citrus

102. Type of placentation seen in Argemone is(1) Axile (2) Parietal(3) Marginal (4) Basal

103. Flowers are zygomorphic in(1) Tomato (2) Mustard(3) Datura (4) Bean

104. When we peel the skin of a potato tuber, we remove

(1) Periderm (2) Heartwood(3) Endodermis (4) Sapwood

105. Which of the following statements is correct?(1) The genetic material of prokaryotes is not

enclosed in a cell(2) Ribosomes were discovered by Palade in plant

cells(3) Ribosomes are DNA-protein complexes(4) Polytene chromosomes are found in salivary

glands of dipteran insects106. Match the following columns

Column-I Column-II(a) Leptotene (i) Terminalisation of chaisma(b) Zygotene (ii) Crossing over and

recombination(c) Pachytene (iii) Synapsis(d) Diakinesis (iv) Condensesation of

chromatin begins(1) (a)(i), b(ii), (c)(iii), (d)(iv)(2) (a)(iv), b(iii), (c)(ii), (d)(i)(3) (a)(iv), b(ii), (c)(iii), (d)(i)(4) (a)(i), b(iii), (c)(ii), (d)(iv)

107. During anaphase- of meiosis(1) Homologous chromosomes separate(2) Non-homologous chromosomes form pairs(3) Sister chromatids separate(4) Non-sister chromatids form pairs

108. Four plant cells are in contact as shown by thegiven diagram.

w = –6 bar

w = –12 bar

s = –12 bar= 4 barp

s = –8 bar= 4 barp

A

C D

B

Which of the following option shows the flow ofwater correctly?

(1) DA

C(2) B

A

DC

(3) CA

DB (4) A

B

CD

109. Stomata opens, when(1) Guard cells swell due to decrease in their

water potential(2) Guard cells swell by endosmosis due to influx

of hydrogen ions (protons)(3) Guard cells swell by endosmosis due to efflux

of potassium(4) Guard cells swell due to an increase in their

water potential110. Plants def icient in zinc, show reduced

biosynthesis of growth hormone(1) Cytokinin (2) Auxin(3) Ethylene (4) Abscissic acid

111. In photosystem-I, the first electron acceptor is(1) Ferredoxin(2) Cytochrome(3) Plastocyanin(4) Iron - sulphur protein

112. In alcoholic fermentation, the conversion ofpyruvate into acetaldehyde takes place in thepresence of(1) Maltase(2) Pyruvic acid decarboxylase(3) Amylase(4) Invertase

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113. Which of the following enzymes of Krebs cyclealso acts as one of the complexes of ETS?(1) Malate dehydrogenase(2) Succinate dehydrogenase(3) Fumarate dehydrogenase(4) Glutarate dehydrogenase

114. Avena curvature test is the bioassay forexamining the activity of(1) Gibberellin (2) Cytokinin(3) Auxin (4) ABA

115. Bolting hormone is(1) Auxin (2) Gibberellin(3) Cytokinin (4) Ethylene

116. Long day plants fail to flower by(1) Short dark period(2) Long light period(3) Long continuous dark period(4) Treating them with low temperature

117. Offsprings formed by sexual reproduction exhibitmore variation than those formed by asexualreproduction because(1) Sexual reproduction is a lengthy process(2) Gametes of parents have qualitatively different

genetic compositions(3) Genetic material comes from parents of two

different species(4) Greater amount of DNA is involved in sexual

reproduction118. The first cell of suspensor (towards micropyle) is

called(1) Hypophysis (2) Clumule(3) Radicle (4) Haustorium

119. In the process of artificial hybridisation programmeinvolving dioecious plants, which of the followingsteps would not be relevant?(1) Bagging of female flower(2) Dusting of pollen grains(3) Emasculation(4) Collection of pollen

120. Which one of the following statements is nottrue?(1) Pollen grains are released from anthers at

2-celled stage(2) Megaspore divides twice to form an eight

nucleate embryo sac

(3) Sporogenous cell of nucellus can directlybehaves as megaspore mother cell

(4) Egg and synergids always l ie near themicropylar end of ovule

121. In Mendelian dihybrid cross, if AAbb is crossedwith aaBB, then phenotypic ratio of its progenyin F2 generation will be(1) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 : 1(3) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (4) 4 : 1

122. Which one of the following chemicals works asmutagen on both replicating and non-replicatingDNA?(1) 5-bromouracil (2) Nitrous acid(3) 2-aminopurine (4) 5-methylcytosine

123. If a carrier woman is married with colour blindman, then calculate the percentage for colourblind children.(1) 0% (2) 25%(3) 50% (4) 75%

124. The number of glycosidic bonds in a linear dsDNAhaving 3.3 × 109 bp is(1) 6.6 × 109 (2) 4 × 6.6 × 109

(3) 3.3 × 109 (4) 13.2 × 109

125. Hallmark of the Watson and Crick B-DNA modelwas based on findings of(1) Mershey and Chase(2) Meselson and Stahl(3) Griffith(4) Erwin Chargaff

126. How many ATP molecules are required for theactivation of 20 amino acids during translation?(1) 30 (2) 10(3) 40 (4) 20

127. Select correct option w.r.t composition of biogas(1) 50% – 70% CH4

(2) 60% – 70% CO2

(3) 10% CO(4) 40% H2S

128. Statins are competitive inhibitor of(1) Cellulose (2) Streptokinase(3) HMG CoA reductase (4) Cyclosporin A

129. A stage of suspended development of manyzooplanktons is called(1) Hibernation (2) Diapause(3) Aestivation (4) Adaptation

(12)


ZOOLOGY

130. Which statement is incorrect out of given below?

(1) Allen’s rule is related with number ofvertebrae in mammals

(2) Jordan’s rule is related with size of fishes

(3) Bergmann’s rule is related with warm bloodedanimals

(4) Gause’s rule is related with competit iveexclusion phenomenon

131. Match the following columns and select thecorrect option.

Column-I Column-II(a) Endemic species (i) No living individual

on earth

(b) Vulnerable species (ii) Facing a high risk ofextinction in nearfuture

(c) Endangered species (iii) Exists only in onegeographical region

(d) Extinct species (iv) Species underthreat

(1) (a)(i), b(ii), (c)(iii), (d)(iv)

(2) (a)(i), b(ii), (c)(iv), (d)(iii)

(3) (a)(iii), b(iv), (c)(i), (d)(ii)

(4) (a)(iii), b(iv), (c)(ii), (d)(i)

132. The formula representing exponential growth is

(1) Nt – N0 = ert

(2) N0 = Nt·ert

(3) Nt = No·ert

(4) Nt = N0·er(K – N)t

133. Match the following columns and select the correctoption.

Column-I Column-II(a) Competition (i) Favourable non-

obligation relationshipbetween two species

(b) Amensalism (ii) Relationship betweentwo organisms in whichboth are benefitted

(c) Mutualism (iii) One species inhibitsthe growth of other

(d) Protocooperation (iv) Rivalry between two ormore organisms forsame resource

(1) (a)(i), b(ii), (c)(iii), (d)(iv)(2) (a)(iv), b(iii), (c)(ii), (d)(i)(3) (a)(iv), b(ii), (c)(i), (d)(iii)(4) (a)(i), b(ii), (c)(iv), (d)(iii)

134. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. speciesdiversity?(1) Fishes are more diverse than birds(2) Amphibians are less diverse than birds(3) Birds are less diverse than reptiles(4) Mammals are less diverse than fishes

135. Choose the incorrect statement(1) Montreal Protocol is associated with the control

of emission of ozone depleting substances(2) Methane and carbon dioxide are greenhouse

gases(3) Dobson unit is used to measure oxygen content

in water(4) Use of incinerators is crucial to disposal of

hospital wastes

136. Which of the following is not a protein?(1) GLUT - 4 (2) Collagen(3) nulin (4) Glucagon

137. Select the incorrect statement(1) Living state is non-equilibrium steady state to

be able to perform work(2) There is no uncatalysed metabolic conversion

in living system(3) Tertiary structure is absolutely necessary for

many biological activities of proteins(4) Cellulose contains complex helices where it

can hold iodine

138. The letter ‘R’ in the name of restrictionendonuclease; EcoRI denotes(1) Genus of source(2) Species of source(3) Strain of source(4) Order of discovery from source

139. Polysaccharides are broken down intodisaccharides by the action of(1) Trypsin(2) Amylase(3) Lipase(4) Pepsin

(13)


140. Which of the following is a direct method of genetransfer?(1) Plasmid vector(2) Electroporation(3) Bacterial artificial chromosome (BAC)(4) Bacteriophage

141. Succus entericus is another name for(1) Gastric juice (2) Pancreatic juice(3) Bile (4) Intestinal juice

142. Select the incorrect statement(1) Recombinant Hepatitis B vaccine is produced

from yeast episome(2) Antibodies produced in allergic reaction are

gD(3) Both bone marrow and thymus provide

microenv ironment for development andmaturation of T-lymphocytes

(4) Cell-mediated immunity is responsible for graftrejection

143. Vitamin which is commonly known asantihaemorrhagic factor is(1) Vit-A (2) Vit-C(3) Vit-K (4) Vit-B2

144. Which of the following hormone is secreted byGIT that stimulates the production of bicarbonatefrom pancreas?(1) GIP (2) Gastrin(3) Secretin (4) Duocrinin

145. Maximum amount of oxygen delivered to skeletalmuscles by one litre of blood in an adult humanduring heavy physical acivity is(1) 200 mL (2) 150 mL(3) 750 mL (4) 50 mL

146. After hyperventilation the person can hold hisbreath for sometime due to(1) Low pO2 in blood (2) High pCO2 in blood(3) High pO2 in blood (4) Low pCO2 in blood

147. Lymph contains(1) Blood - (Corpuscles + Fibrinogen)(2) Blood - Some proteins(3) Blood - RBCs(4) Lymph = Plasma - proteins

148. ECG showing depressed S-T segment indicates(1) Insufficient oxygen supply to heart muscle(2) Acute myocardial infarction(3) Rheumatic fever(4) Arteriosclerotic heart disease

149. The contractile protein of skeletal muscle posessingMg+2 dependent ATPase activity is(1) Troponin (2) Myosin(3) Actin (4) Tropomyosin

150. Which of the fol lowing does not describerheumatoid arthritis?(1) Affects larger joints first(2) Formation of rheumatoid factor (IgM)(3) Formation of pannus granules(4) It is an autoimmune disorder

151. Which part of brain plays role in maintaining balanceand also has flask shaped Purkinje cell?(1) Cerebrum (2) Cerebellum(3) Pons (4) Medulla Oblongata

152. Which of the following match is incorrect?(1) Frigidoreceptor – End bulb of Krause(2) Phonoreceptor – Organ of Corti(3) Thermoreceptor – Merkels disc(4) Rheoreceptor – Lateral line sense organ

in fishes153. Continued stimulation of neurons of the same part

will not cause perception by the nervous systemdue to the phenomenon of(1) Tetany(2) Saltatory conduction(3) Synaptic fatigue(4) Synaptic delay

154. Bronze like pigmentation of skin, low blood sugarlevel, high plasma K+ are related to(1) Conn’s syndrome(2) Addison’s disease(3) Cushing’s syndrome(4) Adrenal virilism

155. Choose the most common second messengersamongst the following(1) ATP (2) ADP(3) cAMP (4) Adenylcyclase

156. Which of the following is a local hormone?(1) Thyroxine (2) Growth hormone(3) Gastrin (4) Oxytocin

157. Which of the following options does not includeantagonistic hormones?(1) Insulin and glucagon(2) PTH and calcitonin(3) Epinephrine and norepinephrine(4) Cortisol and insulin

(14)


158. Which of the following sex hormones producestrongest anabolic effects on protein andcarbohydrate metabolism?

(1) Testosterone (2) Estrogen

(3) Progesterone (4) Relaxin159. Which of the following technique involves direct

injection of sperm into the ovum to form an in-vitroembryo?(a) ICSI (b) IUI(c) IUT (d) IVF(1) Only (a)(2) Only (a) and (b)(3) Only (a), (b) and (c)(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

160. MTPs are not ethically meant for(1) Female Foeticide(2) Removing unsustainable pregnancies(3) Unwanted pregnancy(4) Where pregnancy can be harmful or even

fatal to the mother or to the foetus or both161. Which of the following physiological changes is

not associated with RAAS pathway?(1) Increase in GFR(2) Increase in blood pressure(3) Increase in blood aldosterone level(4) Tubular secretion increases

162. Marine teleosts remove the nitrogenous wastemainly in the form of(1) Ammonia (2) TMAO(3) Urea (4) Uric acid

163. Match the following and choose the correctoption

Column I Column II(a) Non-medicated IUDs (i) LNG-20(b) Hormone releasing IUDs (ii) Multiload 375(c) Copper releasing IUDs (iii) Lippe’s loop(1) (a)(iii), (b)(i), (c)(ii)(2) (a)(iii), (b)(ii), (c)(i)(3) (a)(ii), (b)(i), (c)(iii)(4) (a)(i), (b)(ii), (c)(iii)

164. Which drug would preferably be used to induce anon-surgical abortion?(1) RU-486 (2) Ovral(3) Nonoxynol-9 (4) LNG-20

165. An ideal contraceptive should not be(1) Having effect on hormone levels(2) Easily available(3) Interfering with sexual drive(4) Effective in covering the risk of conception

166. Which of the following reasons could possibllycause abortion in 2nd month of pregnancy?(1) Rise in progesterone levels in blood(2) Increase in blood level of hCG(3) Maintenance of corpus luteum(4) Bilateral oophorectomy

167. The type of cell not found in Cnidaria is(1) Cnidoblast (2) Lasso cell(3) Mesogleal cells (4) Choanocyte

168. If the duration of menstrual cycle in a female is of41 days, what is the duration of luteal phase andthe day of ovulation?(1) 14, 27 (2) 27, 14(3) 19, 18 (4) 20, 21

169. Select the correct statement regarding colostrum(1) Rich in antigen(2) Rich in IgA(3) Produced upto 6 months(4) Its release is blocked by oxytocin

170. Inner cell mass gives rise to all of the followingexcept(1) Embryo (2) Chorion(3) Yolk sac (4) Allantois

171. Uricotelism is not found in(1) Cockroach (2) Snake(3) Dog fish (4) Parrot

172. Read the following statements and choose thecorrect optionStatement A : Genetic drift accentuatesspeciation.Statement B : Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium seemsto retard speciation.(1) Both the statements are correct(2) Both the statements are incorrect(3) Only statement A is correct(4) Only statement B is correct

173. Reproductive isolation in sympatric speciationdevelops without a(1) Geographic barrier(2) Barrier to gene flow(3) Change in chromosome number(4) Barrier to mating

(15)


174. The two critical steps in the evolution of humanswere(1) Evolution of bipedalism and brain

enlargement(2) Making of tools and its use(3) Using fire and making shelters(4) Exhibiting culture and communication skills

175. Cranial nerve which does not transmitparasympathetic fibres is(1) III (2) V(3) VII (4) IX

176. Hybridomas are fusion products of(1) Normal antibody producing B-cells with

myeloma cells(2) Abnormal antibody producing cells with

myeloma cells(3) Sex cells with myeloma(4) Bone cells with myeloma

177. Cholesterol is a precursor for each of the followingexcept(1) Bile salts (2) Vit - D(3) Insulin (4) Steroid hormones

q q q

178. Areolar connective tissue joins(1) Bones with bones(2) Fat body with muscles(3) Skin with muscles(4) Bones with muscles

179. Which of the following glands/structures is presentonly in female cockroach?(1) Anal style (2) Mushroom gland(3) Phallic gland (4) Colleterial gland

180. Which one of the following animals is correctlymatched with its one characteristic feature andthe taxon?

Animals Characteristic Taxonfeature

(1) Prawn Dorsal nerve Arthropodacord

(2) Duck billed Oviparous Mammaliaplatypus

(3) Silverfish Pectoral & ChordataPelvic fins

(4) Sea anemone Triploblastic Cnidaria

(16)


1. (3)2. (1)3. (3)4. (2)5. (1)6. (2)7. (3)8. (3)9. (1)10. (1)11. (1)12. (2)13. (4)14. (4)15. (2)16. (1)17. (1)18. (2)19. (3)20. (4)21. (3)22. (1)23. (1)24. (1)25. (2)26. (3)27. (2)28. (1)29. (3)30. (4)31. (4)32. (3)33. (3)34. (2)35. (3)36. (3)

37. (2)38. (4)39. (3)40. (2)41. (2)42. (3)43. (2)44. (4)45. (1)46. (4)47. (3)48. (4)49. (4)50. (4)51. (1)52. (2)53. (1)54. (3)55. (1)56. (4)57. (2)58. (4)59. (1)60. (4)61. (4)62. (3)63. (2)64. (1)65. (4)66. (4)67. (1)68. (4)69. (3)70. (3)71. (4)72. (3)

73. (4)74. (4)75. (2)76. (1)77. (3)78. (4)79. (2)80. (1)81. (2)82. (4)83. (3)84. (2)85. (4)86. (4)87. (3)88. (4)89. (2)90. (1)91. (3)92. (4)93. (4)94. (1)95. (2)96. (2)97. (1)98. (4)99. (4)100. (4)101. (2)102. (2)103. (4)104. (1)105. (4)106. (2)107. (1)108. (3)

109. (4)110. (2)111. (4)112. (2)113. (2)114. (3)115. (2)116. (3)117. (2)118. (4)119. (3)120. (2)121. (1)122. (2)123. (3)124. (1)125. (4)126. (4)127. (1)128. (3)129. (2)130. (1)131. (4)132. (3)133. (2)134. (3)135. (3)136. (3)137. (4)138. (3)139. (2)140. (2)141. (4)142. (2)143. (3)144. (3)

145. (2)146. (4)147. (3)148. (1)149. (2)150. (1)151. (2)152. (3)153. (3)154. (2)155. (3)156. (3)157. (3)158. (1)159. (1)160. (1)161. (4)162. (1)163. (1)164. (1)165. (3)166. (4)167. (4)168. (1)169. (2)170. (2)171. (3)172. (1)173. (1)174. (1)175. (2)176. (1)177. (3)178. (3)179. (4)180. (2)

ANSWERS

Maximum Marks : 720 Time : 3 Hrs.Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

COMPLETE SYLLABUS TEST - 24

(1)

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.: 011-47623456

HINTS

OF

Home Assignment-23 (CST-24)

CST-24

PHYSICS

1.x k m 1 n3 3

x k m 2 n

13(1) 3(2) 3 42

= 14%

2.

22 2 2 2

0 0 02 2

0

keke ML T M L T

4 hc h h ML T

3. v

tt

t1 2t1

2 2v 2fs v 2fs Þ

s 12s 2sf

12s t 2fs , 144s2 = t22fs, 21s ft72

4.2

maxvRg

, 4

2m 2

vA Rg

5.

gsin2q

90°qfsinq

arel = g(sin2q1 – sin2q2) = 9.8 (sin260° – sin230°)

23 19.8 4.9 m/s4 4

6.

T sin30°¢

T¢

T cos30°¢

w

T

T

µR

T¢sin 30° = w, T = T¢cos30°, 12 T¢cos30°

24T3

¢ , TT¢sin30° = w, 24 1w 6.92N23

7.2

2 2vae k rtr

, v = krt, 2 2 2 21 1w mv mk r t2 2

2 2dwp mk r tdt

(2)

Hints of Mock Test Paper Code-MTK/04

8.s

h

k = w, O – q = mg(h + s) – Fs

hF Mg 1s

9.1 1

cmm x m 2m 2 3m 3X

m m 2m 3m

2

n n 1 2n 1m 1 4 9 . . .n 2n 16

n n 1m 1 2 3 ...n 32

10. About centre 21 MR2

So, as the distance between the centre of massand the point increases, the MO increases, so maxis at print B.

11. Conservation of energy

2 21 1mv w mgh2 2

, 2

2 22

1 1 2 vmv mr mgh2 2 5 r

10 10v gh v gh7 7

Þ

12. = – k

kdq

q

w2

w

d kd q

k2 q ...(1)

0

w2

d k d q

1k2 q

q = q1 or 2n1 = 2nnn1 = n

13. 2 2

GMGM 81x 60R x

x = 54Rfrom moon 60R – 54R = 6R

14. a = 32 20

3

= 4 m/s2

For 10 cm partF – 20 = m × a = 1 × 4F = 24 NFor 20 cm part32 – F = 2 × 4F = 24N

15. r = 2 2 2 21 2r r 3 4 = 5 cm

16.44

1 14

2 2

E T 300 81E 400 256T

17.80 64 80 64 T

5 2

80 52 80 52 T10 2

T = 24°C

18. 11 y 2T V V

11 y2

y = 3 1.52

19. 1 2

1 1

W T TQ T

W 500 3001000 500

W = 400J

20. u = 2 5R T 4 3R T2 2

= 11RTT

21.c

vffV V

¢

c

c

V V2f f

V V

Þ 2V – 2VC = V + Vc Þ cV V3

(3)


22. After 100 oscillation amplitude fall to 13 times after

next 100 oscillation i.e. after 200 oscillation

amplitude falls to 21 1

3 9

times

23. V = 3k x

F = 2du 3k x

dx

–m2x = –3kx2

x , 1 1Tx a

24. 1

2

T 100 10T 121 11

1 211T 10T

10 vibration of longer pendulum.

25. 0V V 6f f f fV 5 ¢ ¢ Þ

Charge in frequency = 6f ff5 5

% charge = 20%

26. dv yzdx zxdy xydz

1,1,1v

0 0,0,0

dv dx cyz

v = –1v

27. From wheatstone bridge remove 8F.

8 F5 6µF

24µF

2µF

8µF

Cg = 8F

28.X RE X 2

X R1Er

Option (1)

29.100V

2 4

610V 80V 6A 56V 2 F

4A24V0V

q = 2× (56 – 24) = 2 × 32 = 64 e

30.R R

2R BA

2R

2R BA

Rq = R

31. iR

0 0 03i i 3 i2

2R 2 2R 2 8R

q

32. Area = 2 2

2 2 2a a2 a a a 12 2 2

12 ˆM 1 a k2

33. 0 0

22

0

IB 2 a 1:1IB

2 (2a)

¢

34.

3 cm

F = Bil = 2 × 2 × 3

100

G = Fm =

12 1000100 10

= 12 m/s2

(4)


35. tanq = BVBV Þ BV = BH tanq = 4 × 10–4 tan30°

= 2.3 ×10–4T

36. y = A B A B A B

37. V = VCE = ICRC Þ 15 = 7 + IC × 2 × 103

IC = 4mA

= C

BB

I 4II 100Þ = 0.04 mA

38. Undecayed N = 37 1 11

8 8 2

Number of half lives = 3

3 = 15T

T = 5 minutes

39.2

0

ev2 nh

, n = 1,

2

0

ev2 h

,

V 1C 137

40. 2w0– w0 =2

11mv2 , 5w0 – w0 = 2

21 mv2

21 1

222

V 1 V 14 V 2V

Þ

41.4

5 3

q

sinq = 1 Þ

1 5sin 3

q

qp = —1tan u = —1 5tan3

42. dsinq = n

n =1, = 6500Å

sin30° = 12

ndsin30

= 1.3 × 10–6 m

43.g

f a g 1 0.5 1.5 1f g 1 0.2 g 1

4 15g a5

Þ

44. RP = –70.2 2

1.22 1.22 5 10

= 3.28 ×106

45. g = 3 + 43

dydt

dy 4.5dt

m/s

CHEMISTRY

47. y xxs ys

AxBy(S) xA aq yB (aq)

Where ‘s’ is the solubility of AxBy in moles/L.

x yy xspK A B x yxs ys x y x yx y s

48. XaYaa 75% x 100 75.8

75a 16b

b 16% y 100 24.275a 16b

Formula = x2y3

49. Q = i.t

6Q 3.21 10 Ct 6240 seci 500A

=107 min

50. BI3 is the strongest Lewis acid

52. Zn is more positive than Cu

56. C2H2, 2ICl and XeF2 are all linear but GeCl2 hasone lone pair on central atom.

57. Solubility of hydroxides (and oxides) increasedown the group for Group-2.

58. Ag2O is reduced to Ag

59. Px + Px gives -bond when ‘X’ is the molecularaxis.

61. 3 is bent shaped where as 3

is linear..

62. In K3[VF6], V is in +3 state (d2) others are d10 ord0.

(5)


63. Metall ic Radius gradually decreases butexceptionally increases for Eu.

64. 2 2x yd is involved in octahedral, square pyramidal

and square planar structure.

65. Baeyer ’s reagent becomes colourless withunsaturated compound. The reagent is 1% coldalkaline KMno4.

68. It’s a secondary amine.

70. In CS2 medium, monobromination of phenol takesplace.

71. 2

2

BrH O oxidises D-glucose to D-gluconic acid but

D-fructose is not oxidised.

72.CHO

HO H

CH(OH)CH OH2

(1)

(2)

(4)

(3)

CH(OH)CHO

OHH

CH OH2

(4)

(2)

(1)

(3)

73. Participation of a tertiary carbocation lowers the

Ea and raises the rate. r

74. A =

CH 2 Br

B =CH 2 COOH

75. LiAIH4 can reduce both Ketone and ester.

76. Position ‘a’ will give allylic and tertiary radical

77.O OH

This is unstable as it becomes antiaromatic

78. It’s a secondary amine.

79. It’s an example of Wurtz reaction

80. Strength of H-Bonding

H .....F > H.....O > H.....N

81. For 93 gram, you require 5F

For 0.25 gram

you require 1.3 × 10–2F

82. The second hump should be steeper and productenthalpy must be higher than reactant enthalpy.

84. Specific conductance

1R a

1 0.02

50 0.0004 = 1 ohm–1.n–1

85. It means one orientation of 3p-orbital

88. 22

S 0.1MFe OH s Fe aq 2OH aq

At pH = 13, POH is 1

So [OH–] = 10–1M

If the solubil i ty of Fe2+ is ‘S’ moles/L.Then Ksp = [Fe2+] [OH–]2

8 × 10–16 = s(0.1)2

s = 8 × 10–14

BOTANY

91. For unicellular organisms like bacteria, Amoebagrowth takes place by increase in number of cellsthrough div ision of cel l. Hence growth andreproduction are mutually inclusive orsynonymous

92. Ex-situ conservation - Botanical garden[conservation outside the natural habitat]Quick referral system - HerbariumPreserved animals - MuseumActual account of plants of a given area - Flora

93. Euglena

Plant featureCan photosynthesize,Posses chl-a and Chl-b

Animal featureCell wall absent

Slime mould

Plant feature Animal feature[In unfavourable conditionproduces spores whichpossess cellulosic cell wall]

[In suitable favourable condition they grow andspread over several fitswithout cell wall]

(6)


94. dsRNA is found in Reo virus

95. Infections agent in form of free RNA causingpotato spindle tuber disease is Viroid [Discoveredby Diener]

96. Trichodesmium erythraeum is a blue-green algae(cyanobacteria) responsible for red colouration inred sea.

97. Slime mould

Fungi like feature Amoeba like feature[Spore formation] [Amoeboid plasmodial stage]

98. Sphagnum has water retention capacity99. Negatively geotropic roots are found in

Rhizophora. Such roots are calledPneumatophore.

100. Bulbil found in Agave.101. Tetradynamous stamen found in Brassicaceae

family, not in Solanum.102. Argemone Parietal placentation103. Zygomorphic flowers Bean104. Potato peel includes periderm105. Ribosomes are RNA-Protein complex. George

Palade discovered ribosome in animal cells.Polytene chromosome commonly found inDipteran insects like Drosophila and Chironomus.

106. Leptotene Condensation of chromatin beginsZygotene SynapsisPachytene Crossing over and recombinationDiakinesis Terminalisation of chiasma

107. During Anaphase I homologous chromosomesseparate. Sister chromatids of a chromosomeseparate in Anaphase II.

1

[1 and 1 are homologous chromosomes]¢

Metaphase

1¢

[Homologous chromosomes are present in two equatorial planes]

Anaphase 1¢[Separation of homologous chromosomes]

1

Metaphase [Chromosomes present insingle equatorial plane]

Anaphase [Separation of sisterchromatids of achromosome]

108. w s p

w[A] 6bar

w[B] ( 12) (4) 8bar

w[C] ( 8) (4) 4bar

w[D] 12bar

C has less negative water potential so direction ofwater flow will be

C

A

BD

109. Malic acid formed in vacuole of guard cell

Dissociation of malic acid into malate anion andH+

Influx of K+ into guard cell vacuole and efflux ofH+ from guard cell vacuole to subsidiary cell

K+ combines with malate to form K+ malate whichincreases w [more negative w]

Endosmosis

Stomata opens

110. Zinc is required for auxin synthesis

111. In PS I, primary e– acceptor Fe – S(Iron-Sulphur protein)

112. Alcoholic fermentation

2Pyruvate Decarboxylase

2MgPyruvic acid Acetaldehyde CO

113. Succinate Dehydrogenase attached to the innermembrane of mitochondria takes part in Krebs’cycle and ETS

114. Avena curvature test Auxin bioassay

115. Bolting (Internode elongation just prior toflowering) is a Gibberellin effect

(7)


116. For long day plants, continuous and uninterruptedlight period is important to induce flowering.Uninterrupted day light for long duration is criticalto induce flowering in LDP.

117. The variation formed in offsprings is sexualreproduction is due to involvement of twogenetically different gametes

118. During embryogenesis the zygote div idestransversely to form two unequal cells - a largesuspensor cell (towards micropyle) and a smallembryonal cell (towards chalaza). The suspensorcell undergoes series of transverse divisions toform 6 - 10 celled suspensor. The first cell of thesuspensor towards micropyle is called vesicular/haustorial cell.

119. Dioecious plants have unisexual flowers. Henceemasculation is not required. The female flowerbuds are bagged before the flowers open. Whenthe stigma becomes receptive, pollination iscarried out using the desired pollen and the floweris rebagged.

120. In 60% of Angiosperms (mainly in dicots) pollengrains are liberated in 2-celled stage.

Megaspore divides mitotically thrice to form 8nucleate embryo sac.

Megaspore mother cell is differenciated from thesporogenous cell of nucellus towards micropylarend.

Egg and synergid lie closely towards micropylarend of ovule form egg apparatus.

121. AAbb × aaBB . . . Parental generation

AaBb . . . . F1

selfing

AB Ab aB abAB AABB AABb AaBB AaBbAb AABb AAbb AaBb AabbaB AaBB AaBb aaBB aaBbab AaBb Aabb aaBb aabb

A – B – 9A – bb 3 FaaB – 3aabb 1

2 Phenotypic ratio in F2 9:3:3:1

122. Nitrous acid is a chemical mutagen which canconvert adenine into hypoxanthine and nitrousacid is mutagenic to both replicating and nonreplicating DNA.

123. Carrier woman for colourblindness Xc X

Colourblind man Xc Y

Xc X

Xc Xgametes

Xcx Y

YXc

Xc

Xc Xc Xc Xc Xcolourblinddaughter

carrierdaughter

Y Xc Y X Ycolourblindson

normalson

X

50% colourblind children

124. Number of glycosidic bond = number of N-base

In a linear DNA having 3.3 × 109 bp means(3.3 × 109) × 2 = 6.6 × 109 bases

Number of glycosidic bonds are 6.6 × 109

125. Watson-Cricks B-DNA model is based onchargaff’s rule

126. Each amino acid needs one ATP during initiationof translation where it binds with ATP and it’srespective enzyme to become activated. Hencefor 20 amino acids 20 ATP are required.

127. Biogas comprises of methane (60 - 70%); CO2(30-40%) H2S and H2 (10%)

128. Statins (produced by yeast monascus purpureus)are blood cholesterol lowering agent. It is acompetitive inhibitor of HMG Co-A reductasewhich is an enzyme responsible for cholesterolsynthesis.

129. Suspended development is the stage in life cyclewhere an organism changes its developmental,physiological, structural and biochemicalbehav iour to pass through unfavourableconditions. Diapause is a type of suspendeddevelopment is found in many zooplanktons inlakes and ponds.

130. Mammals from colder climate generally haveshorter ears and limbs to minimise heat loss -Allen’s rule.

131. Endemic species Conf ined only in onegeographical areaVulnerable species Facing high risk ofextinction in medium term future (Black Buck)Endangered species Facing high risk ofextinction in near future (one hour rhinoceros)Extinct species No liv ing individuals arerecorded on earth (Dodo)

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132. The integral form of exponential growth equation

Nt = Noert

Nt = Population density after t time

No = Population density at time zero

e = Base of natural logarithm (2.71828)

133. Competition is rivalry between two or moreorganisms for same resource. It’s a detrimentalinteraction for both the organisms.

Amensalism represents a condition where onespecies inhibits the growth of the other. Theinteraction is detrimental for one organism whereas it is neither detrimental, nor beneficial for theother.

Mutualism is a relationship where both organismsare benefitted and both of them can’t competetheir life cycle without each other (Ex - Lichen)

Protocooperation is a relationship where both theorganisms are benefitted but such organisms canlive equally well without each other also

134.

Fishes

Mammals

Birds

Reptiles

Amphibians

Figure Representing global biodiversity throughpie diagram (Page 69 RM-Mat 4)

135. Dobson unit is used to measure thickness ofozone layer in atmosphere.

136. Inulin is a homopolysaccharide of fructose.

139. In human GI system amylase is released fromsalivary glands and pancreas.

140. Electroporation or electropermeabilization is atechnique in which an electrical field is applied tocells to allow DNA to be introduced into the cell.

146. Hyperventilation decreases pCO2 of blood soinspiratory centre is not being activated.

148. Blockage of coronary arteries is one of theprimary cause of insuff icient O2 supply tomyocardium.

151. Purkinje cel ls are largest neurons of CNSpyramidal cells, stellate cells and spindle cells arepresent in cerebrum.

154. Addison’s disease is due to autoimmunedestruction of adrenal cortex.

155. Action of stress hormone adrenaline is primarilydependent on cAMP.

ZOOLOGY

156. Gastrin acts primarily on parietal cells of stomach.It also affects gastric motility.

157. Epinephrine and nor-epinephrine are very similarneurotransmitters w.r.t functions. They play a rolein body’s natural fight or fight response.

158. Testosterone is the primary male sex hormoneand is an anabolic steroid

167. Choanocyte is characteristic of Porifera, it hasflagella.

168. Luteal phase is of 14 days irrespective of thelength of menstrual cycle

171. Shark is ureotelic.

175. Parasympathetic system involves cranial nervepairs - III, VII, IX and X

177. Insulin in human body has three polypeptideschains (A, B and C) though chain A and chain Bform the functional hormone.

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