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© John Wiley & Sons Australia, Ltd 1
Geography Alive 10: Topic 2 test answers
Student name:…………………………….......….......…..............……Class:……....…... Marks: ............./40
1 Over 200 years ago, Thomas Malthus devised a theory that population growth would outstrip food
production and more people would die of disease and famine. True or false?
1
True
2 Is this quote true or false? ‘Understanding the interconnection between ecological services and
human action is important for creating unsustainable management of our resources’.
1
False. The quote should read ‘Understanding the interconnection between ecological services and
human action is important for creating sustainable management of our resources’.
3 If a country has a very high ecological footprint, then their level of resource use is considered to be
unsustainable. True or false?
1
True
4 The ‘enhanced greenhouse effect’ has come about through the actions of burning fossil fuels.
True or false?
1
True
5 The Kyoto Protocol was an international agreement decided upon in Kyoto, Japan. The aim of this
protocol was to set targets to reduce greenhouse gas emissions to zero levels. True or false?
1
False. The Protocol was designed so that individual countries could set their own targets.
6 Which of the following gases is NOT considered to be a major contributor to global warming?
A Methane
B Carbon dioxide
C Oxygen
D Nitrous oxide
1
Oxygen
7 Refer to the circular graph on the next page to answer the following question.
(Note: On the graph, the further out from the centre a point is, the higher the rating)
The graph represents Australia’s report card based on the Sustainable Society Index.
On which three items does Australia score poorly?
A Clean air, education and sufficient food
B Greenhouse gases, renewable energy, air quality
C Biodiversity, greenhouse gases, organic farming
D Organic farming, greenhouse gases, renewable farming
1
Topic 2 test answers
© John Wiley & Sons Australia, Ltd 2
Australia’s situation based on the Sustainable Society Index
Greenhouse gases, renewable energy, air quality
8 Which greenhouse gas is the by-product of rotting plant matter and animal flatulence?
A Methane
B Carbon dioxide
C Oxygen
D Nitrous oxide
1
Methane
9 Refer to the graphs below and answer the question that follows.
Australia’s primary energy consumption
Compared to 2012-13, the changes in Australia’s energy consumption in 2029-30 will show
1
Topic 2 test answers
© John Wiley & Sons Australia, Ltd 3
A an increased use of both fossil and non-renewable energy sources.
B an increased use of oil and coal.
C an increased use of oil and gas, but a lower use of coal.
D an increased use of all energy sources.
an increased use of oil and gas, but a lower use of coal.
10 To reduce greenhouse gas emissions from transport would require a number of different methods.
Which of the following would NOT be effective?
A Switching to more fuel efficient vehicles such as electric and hybrid
B Increasing the use of public transport as a preference to cars
C Increasing driving speeds to reduce travel times
D Promoting cycling and walking to work
1
Increase driving speeds to reduce travel times
11 Study the diagram below.
Interaction of environmental change with human wellbeing
Explain, with the use of an example, the interconnection between human-induced change, marine
environments and human wellbeing.
3
People may pollute the oceans by discarding waste, creating a change with declining water quality.
As a result, there may be a loss of marine creatures and people may be prevented from eating
seafood due to declining numbers or the threat of ingesting poisonous substances. Wellbeing may
be affected in terms of health or loss of income for fishermen.
12 Ecological services can be defined as ‘what nature provides for mankind.’ There are four main
ecological services. Classify the following examples according to the service that they provide.
8
Topic 2 test answers
© John Wiley & Sons Australia, Ltd 4
Place a tick () in the appropriate column for each item.
Example Supporting
service
Provisioning
service
Regulating
service
Cultural
service
Foods items (plants, meat)
Wetlands (purify water) Decomposition of dead plant
and animal matter
Beauty and enjoyment people
receive from nature
Water
Soil formation Ability of streams and soils to
hold water and regulate floods
Tropical rainforests providing
moisture for rain
13 Study the ecological debt map on the next page and answer the following questions.
a. Explain what is meant by the term ‘ecological footprint’. (1)
b. What is the purpose of an ecological footprint? (1)
c. Name one country in the northern hemisphere and one country in the southern hemisphere
where the biocapacity exceeds the ecological footprint by 150 per cent. (2)
d. Name two countries in the northern hemisphere where the ecological footprint exceeds the
biocapacity by over 150 per cent. (2)
a. The term ‘ecological footprint’ refers to the measurement of human demand on the Earth’s
natural systems and ecosystems. (1 mark)
b. An ecological footprint gives us a score that is a useful indicator of environmental
sustainability. (1 mark)
c. Examples in the northern hemisphere include Canada, Guyana, Suriname, Mongolia,
Liberia, Central African Republic and Mauritania. (1 mark)
In the southern hemisphere examples include Papua New Guinea, Angola, Zambia,
Malawi, Madagascar and most countries in South America. (1 mark)
d. Examples in the northern hemisphere include Egypt, Libya, England, Spain, Italy,
Belgium, Iraq, Japan and North and South Korea. (2 marks)
(Note: There are no examples in the southern hemisphere.)
Ecological debt map
6
Topic 2 test answers
© John Wiley & Sons Australia, Ltd 5
14 With the use of the diagram below, explain the concept of the greenhouse effect. (Use the space
alongside the diagram to write your answer.)
How the greenhouse effect works
3
The sun’s energy passes through the
atmosphere and heats the Earth. This
then heats the atmosphere. The heat is
literally ‘trapped’ by water vapour and
gases so that the atmosphere acts as a
lid helping to retain the heat. This is
similar to the glass/plastic in a
greenhouse, which effectively prevents
heat from escaping.
Topic 2 test answers
© John Wiley & Sons Australia, Ltd 6
15 Study the information provided in the graph below.
World electricity generation by fuel, 2005–30
a. Using data, describe the increase in world electricity generation from 2005 to 2030. (2)
b. Compare the sources of energy for the world’s electricity generation for 2015 and 2030.
Use data in your answer. (6)
c. Suggest two reasons as to why nuclear energy will remain only the fourth most important
fuel source. (2)
10
a. World electricity generation has increased from 17 trillion kilowatt hours in 2005 and is
expected to reach 33 trillion kilowatt hours by 2030. (2 marks)
b. In 2015 the largest fuel sources were coal (11 trillion kw), natural gas (6 trillion) and
renewable (5 trillion). In 2030 the same three energy sources will be the most important,
with all increasing with coal increasing the most. Coal 17 trillion, gas 9 trillion and
renewable at 6 trillion kilowatt hours. (6 marks)
c. The nuclear industry, since the Fukushima incident does not have all of its safety issues
under control and is perceived by the public to be a dangerous type of energy. It is a very
expensive form of power plant to construct and has a very short life span as within a few
years the reactors become too radioactive for repairs etc. (2 marks)
© John Wiley & Sons Australia, Ltd 1
Geography Alive 10: Topic 5 test answers
Student name:…………………………….......….......…..............……Class:……....…... Marks: ............./35
1 Changes that take place along a coastline are always short-term in their impacts. True or false? 1
False. Some changes can have long term impacts for example climate change is having a long term
impact on coastlines around the world.
2 The first people expected to be ‘climate refugees’ escaping rising sea levels will come from the
small Pacific Islands. True or false?
1
True
3 Globally, more than 41 per cent of the population lives within 100 kilometres of the coastline.
True or false?
1
True
4 Below is a transect or cross-section of a beach and series of sand dunes.
Transect showing the beach and stable and well-vegetated dunes
The type of vegetation responsible for stabilising the foredune (first dune) is grasses.
True or false?
1
True
5 The Twelve Apostles off the south-west coast of Victoria are coastal landforms known as stacks.
These are remnants of former cliffs. True or false? True
1
Topic 5 test answers
© John Wiley & Sons Australia, Ltd 2
6 Which of the following is NOT a landform that we associated with coastal places?
A Estuaries
B Seagrass beds
C Mangrove swamps
D Sand dunes
E None of the above
1
None of the above
7 Mangrove wetlands are very important coastal environments. Which of the following is NOT a
feature of mangrove wetlands?
A Their extensive root system helps trap sediment and build up coastal land.
B They act as a barrier to wave erosion.
C They provide a breeding ground and nursery for birds and fish.
D They provide ideal recreational spaces.
1
They provide ideal recreational spaces
8 Examine the photograph of a coastal arch below.
Tasman’s Arch, Tasmania
1
Wave erosion cuts a wave cut notch into the base of a headland. Over time this enlarges to form a
cave on each side of the headland. Over time the caves erode further cutting through the headland
forming an arch.
Which is the most correct description of the
formation of an arch?
A Wave erosion cuts a hole through the harder rock
of a headland.
B Wave erosion cuts a wave cut notch into the base
of a headland. Over time this enlarges to form a
cave on each side of the headland. Over time the
caves erode further cutting through the headland
forming an arch.
C Over time, the softer rock of a cliff is eroded by
wind and water cutting a hole from the surface
down towards the sea.
D Deposition over time creates a bridge from a
stack to a cliff top effectively creating a lid,
which forms a cave beneath.
Topic 5 test answers
© John Wiley & Sons Australia, Ltd 3
9 Locate Mitchies Beach on the topographic extract of Merimbula below.
Topographic map extract of Merimbula, New South Wales
For this sand spit to form Mitchies Beach, the predominant direction of longshore drift would have
to be from the
A north-west.
B north-east.
C south-west.
D south-east.
1
south-west.
10 What are the environmental requirements for the formation of a sandy beach?
A Sand supply, offshore winds, destructive waves, headland
B Sand supply, onshore winds, constructive waves, bay
C Sand supply, longshore drift, bay, destructive waves
D Sand supply, dune system, bay, constructive waves
1
Sand supply, onshore winds, constructive waves, bay
11 Describe four changes to the coastal environment that rising sea levels can bring. 4
Changes to the coastal environment from sea level rising include:
Increase in intensity and frequency of storm surges and coastal flooding
Increased coastal erosion
Flooding on low lying coastal communities
Loss of infrastructure e.g. roads, rails and ports
Loss of coastal wetlands, mangroves and coral reef ecosystems.
Topic 5 test answers
© John Wiley & Sons Australia, Ltd 4
12 Longshore drift is an important coastal process responsible for moving sand, as well as creating
and destroying beaches.
Longshore drift
Using the diagram, explain what happens to a pebble as it is moved along the coast in a longshore
drift current.
4
Waves approaching a beach at an angle break
The swash runs up the beach at the same angle pushing the pebble with it.
Backwash drags the pebble straight back down to the water’s edge
The next wave pushed it onto the beach at the same angle as the approaching wave. In this
way the pebble is moved along the beach in a zig-zag motion.
13 Bangladesh is a largely flat country prone to flooding and the changes brought on by rising sea
levels.
Study the diagram on the next page and then in the table below provide one example of a social,
environmental and economic factor that interconnect to cause large-scale flooding across the
country.
Factor How does this factor contribute to flooding?
Social Rising populations and the need to produce food contributes to clearing of
slopes in the Himalayan Mountains increasing soil erosion
A large percent of the population live in low lying regions, making them
vulnerable to floods (1 mark)
Environmental Annual monsoons creates heavy rain and snow falls in the Himalayas
increasing the volume of water in rivers flowing onto the floodplains and
delta
Increased sediment from erosion blocks river channels reducing their
ability to hold flood water (1 mark)
Economic Irrigation systems and dams have blocked the supply of silt to the rivers
downstream that would normally allow the floodplain and delta to build
up higher, protecting the land (1 mark)
3
Topic 5 test answers
© John Wiley & Sons Australia, Ltd 5
14 Coasts are very important environments.
a. List four ways in which people use the coastal region. (4)
b. Describe three human activities that have brought changes to coastal environments. (3)
c. Traditionally, has our management of coastal areas been sustainable? Explain. (1)
8
a. People use the coast for: settlement, transport, industry, agriculture, recreation,
conservation, waste disposal, a food source and tourism. (4 marks)
b. Examples of human activities that have brought changes to the coast:
construction of ports, sea walls etc affect the movement of sand along the coast and
alter wave patterns
building on sand dunes effectively blocks the natural sand supply to the beach and if
damaged by storms, requires expensive structures to protect properties, roads etc
clearing of wetlands and mangroves takes away natural shore protection and destroys
habitats for fish and seabirds
dumping of waste into the sea pollutes the water
long-term burning of fossil fuels is creating global warming and rises in sea levels (3
marks)
c. Management of coastal areas has been unsustainable and done with little thought to the
natural environment and the various processes at work along the coast. (1 mark)
Topic 5 test answers
© John Wiley & Sons Australia, Ltd 6
15 Below are three different methods used to protect coastlines and human infrastructure from coastal
erosion. Suggest an advantage and disadvantage to each method.
Method Advantage Disadvantage
Beach
nourishment
Keeps a natural look to the beach
Low environmental impact on
beach
Sand would have to be brought in from
another place.
Not a permanent solution and would need
ongoing maintenance
Sea wall
Prevents further erosion of
coastline behind the seawall
Wave attack at the base of the sea wall will
strip sand away from beach
Will need continual replenishing of beach
Visual eyesore
Expensive to construct and maintain
Purchase
property
Would allow the coastal area to be
reverted back to a natural
environment
Very expensive
People may not be in agreement with losing
their property
6
© John Wiley & Sons Australia, Ltd 1
Geography Alive 10: Topic 6 test answers
Student name:…………………………….......….......…..............……Class:……....…... Marks: ............./40
1 Currents in the ocean are similar to winds in the atmosphere as they help transfer heat.
True or false?
1
True
2 Micro-plastics are extremely small pieces of plastic that have gradually been worn down by the
action of wind, waves and sunlight. They usually enter the sea from being washed overboard from
ships. True or false?
1
False. Plastics generally enter the ocean after being washed from land surfaces into rivers and
drains that empty into the sea.
3 Look closely at the timeline for decomposition of marine litter.
Time periods for the decomposition of marine litter
Litter that is made up of natural-based materials tends to have a longer life in the ocean than
materials made up of plastics and aluminium. True or false?
1
False. Items such as nylon fishing line and aluminium cans can take several hundred years to
breakdown compared to natural items such as paper and wood, which may take weeks to several
years to break down.
4 Ghost nets refer to rafts of fishing nets that are used to catch sharks and other marine pests.
True or false?
1
False. Ghost nets are discarded or lost fishing nets that can accumulate in large ‘raft’-like
formations and float around in ocean currents for years.
5 Ghost nets are a form of marine pollution in many places around the world, including northern
Australia. Refer to the map on the next page, which shows the distribution of ghost net hot spots
around northern Australia.
For ghost nets to arrive on the beaches on the west coast of the Gulf of Carpentaria they must have
been swept in from both the north-west monsoon wind and the south-west trade wind. Is this true
or false? True
1
Topic 6 test answers
© John Wiley & Sons Australia, Ltd 2
Distribution of ghost net hot spots around northern Australia
6 Plastic is one of the most common types of marine debris. What are the characteristics of plastic
that make it such a problem in the oceans?
A It is light, cheap to produce and disposable.
B It is light, not biodegradable and can be mistaken for food by marine creatures.
C It is very cheap to produce and can be used to make thousands of different products.
D it can easily be moved by wind and water and is biodegradable.
1
It is light, not biodegradable and can be mistaken for food by marine creatures.
7 Examine the map on the next page, showing the top 10 sources of marine plastic waste.
Which two places are responsible for approximately 12 million tonnes of marine litter?
A China and Malaysia
B China and Indonesia
C Vietnam and the Philippines
D Indonesia and Vietnam
China and Indonesia
1
Topic 6 test answers
© John Wiley & Sons Australia, Ltd 3
Top 10 sources of marine plastic waste
8 The most effective scale with which to deal with marine pollution is
A at a local scale by reducing land-based sources in every community.
B at a national scale through new government laws that allow fines for people caught dumping
litter in the ocean.
C at a regional scale by having countries in the worst polluted areas working together to clean up
the oceans.
D at a global scale with the United Nations bringing in new regulations on how much plastic can
be dumped in the oceans.
1
at a local scale by reducing land-based sources in every community.
9 One of the problems with dealing with the issue of ghost nets in the Gulf of Carpentaria is the
isolation of the region. Why is this a problem?
A It is too expensive to collect the nets and move to a major city for destroying or recycling.
B It is too far away from the source countries, notably Indonesia.
C There is a need to find local people to collect and recycle the nets.
D There really isn’t a problem because no-one can see them.
1
It is too expensive to collect the nets and move to a major city for destroying or recycling.
10 Which type of environment would be most at risk from damaging oil spills?
A Sheltered coastlines with frequent storms
B Exposed coastlines exposed to strong wind and wave action
C Sheltered mangroves and salt marshes
D Sheltered coastlines with rocky shores
1
Sheltered mangroves and salt marshes
Topic 6 test answers
© John Wiley & Sons Australia, Ltd 4
11 The Global Ocean Conveyor Belt is a large-scale ocean current. Read the information on the
world map below and then choose from the options provided to complete the table with the correct
descriptions.
The Global Ocean Conveyor Belt and the five main ocean gyres
Water temperature: Warm Cold
Flow direction: North South East North-west North-east
Place on map Direction of flow Water temperature
A North-west Cold
B East Cold
C North Cold
D South Warm
E North-east Warm
10
Topic 6 test answers
© John Wiley & Sons Australia, Ltd 5
12 Marine pollution is any harmful substance that enters the ocean. Largely it is the result of human
activities ranging from raw sewage to chemicals, litter and even abandoned and sunken old ships.
How can pollution be deposited into oceans? Suggest two examples for each of the following
sources.
Marine Land Atmosphere
Oil spills Fertilisers washed off
farmland into rivers Traffic exhaust
Rubbish discarded by
shipping
Litter discarded on land
and washed into the sea
Atmospheric pollution
washed out by rain
(6 marks)
6
13 Different marine creatures can be affected by different types of debris.
TABLE 1 Numbers of wildlife found entangled in marine debris, from 25 years of data
Study the information in table 1 above and then complete the table on the next page, to show the
three main species most affected by the debris items listed.
Type of marine litter Three species most affected
Fishing lines Birds, fish, invertebrates
Fishing hooks Birds, fish, invertebrates
Rope Birds, fish, mammals
Plastic bags Birds, fish, invertebrates
Beverage bottles Invertebrates, fish, mammals
5
Topic 6 test answers
© John Wiley & Sons Australia, Ltd 6
14 a. What are the largest sources of oil in the ocean? (2)
b. Suggest two factors that might contribute to one marine oil spill becoming a large-scale
environmental disaster while another may only require minimal cleaning up. (2)
4
a. The largest sources of oil in the ocean come from drilling rigs and effluent, shipping spills
and tanker disasters. Oil can also seep naturally from the sea bed. (2 marks)
b. The factors that could contribute to an oil spill becoming a large-scale disaster include:
weather; windy weather would disperse the oil faster, warmer temperatures would
increase the rate of decomposition
waves; choppy seas would disperse faster than calm water
the size of the spill
time taken for emergency teams to arrive
distance from coastline would affect the scale of coastline affected. (2 marks)
15 a. Which of the two main methods of cleaning up oil spills is the more effective: remediation
(cleaning up) or preventative methods? Explain your answer. (2)
b. Describe three different methods used to clean up a marine oil spill: two methods that are
suitable for cleaning up oil at sea and one method for cleaning up oil that has washed onto
shore. (3)
5
a. Prevention is always better than a cure — preventative methods can prevent accidental oil
spills occurring in the first place. Better designs for ships, increased safety handling and
improved designs on oil rigs would all help. (2 marks)
b. Different methods of cleaning up a marine oil spill:
At sea
spraying chemical dispersants from either boats or planes
boats with booms can skim oil off the water surface
burning oil collected via booms
bioremediation using microorganisms and fertilisers (to encourage algae growth) to
break the oil down into less harmful components (2 marks)
On land
using absorbent material and mats to soak up
manually raking and removing oil from beaches with heavy equipment
natural processes – leaving the oil to break down naturally. (1 mark)
© John Wiley & Sons Australia, Ltd 1
Geography Alive 10: Topic 9 test answers
Student name:…………………………….......….......…..............……Class:……....…... Marks: ............./35
1 The notion of ‘wellbeing’ indicates a state of existence characterised by good health, happiness,
extreme wealth and welfare. Is this statement true or false?
1
False. Extreme wealth is not included in the definition, rather, prosperity is the correct term, i.e.,
having enough money to live comfortably.
2 This cartogram distorts the world to show countries where extreme poverty exists, that is, people
living on less than $US 1.25 per day. From the cartogram, itappears that the African region is the
most affected. True or false?
The proportion of the world’s population (shown as a cartogram) living on less than
$1.25 US per day
1
True
3 Aid is the transfer of assistance or resources from one country to another with the aim of
benefitting the donor country. Is this a true or false definition?
1
False. The aim is to improve conditions in the receiving country.
4 Human rights have their basis in many of the world’s religions including Buddhism, Islam and
Christianity. True or false?
1
True
5 In general, the Human Development Index for most countries in Sub-Saharan Africa has declined
since the 1990s. True or false?
True
1
Topic 9 test answers
© John Wiley & Sons Australia, Ltd 2
6 During the mid 20th century, levels of development were classified according to First, Second and
Third World countries. Which of the following are examples of ‘First World’ countries?
A USA, Australia, Japan and the countries of western Europe
B Brazil, Canada, China and the United Kingdom
C India, Egypt, Sudan and Chile
D Australia, China, USA, France and Brazil
1
USA, Australia, Japan and the countries of western Europe
7 The Human Development Index (HDI) was developed to measure wellbeing according to four key
indicators. These are:
A income, television ownership, number of children, type of government.
B life expectancy, infant mortality rate, life expectancy, number of doctors per 1000 population.
C average years of schooling, literacy rates, percentage of population with university degrees, age.
D life expectancy, literacy, education and income.
1
life expectancy, literacy, education and income.
8 The condition in which people do not have sufficient food or water to meet their daily needs is
known as
A the poverty line.
B absolute poverty.
C relative poverty.
D comparative poverty.
1
absolute poverty
9 Examine the pie graph on the next page, which shows undernourishment measured by protein
intake.
In total, Asia as a continent holds ............... million people who are undernourished compared to
the continent of Africa which has ............... million.
A 512 million, 224 million
B 426 million, 220 million
C 281 million, 224 million
D 206 million, 220 million
512 million, 224 million
1
Topic 9 test answers
© John Wiley & Sons Australia, Ltd 3
Undernourishment in 2014–16, by region (in millions)
10 Study the world map of political rights.
Political rights around the world, 2015
Which regions of the world generally do not have political freedom?
A All continents with the exception of Australia
B Most of Africa and Asia
C Much of Africa, the Middle East and Asia
D All of the less developed regions
1
Much of Africa, the Middle East and Asia.
Topic 9 test answers
© John Wiley & Sons Australia, Ltd 4
11 While it is easy to use indicators to measure a person’s wellbeing in terms of levels of wealth, it is
much harder to measure things such as levels of happiness and security.
a. Explain, with the use of examples, the difference between qualitative and quantitative
indicators to measure wellbeing. (2)
b. Can you measure wellbeing using just quantitative indicators? Explain. (2)
4
a. Quantitative indicators can easily be measured and stated using numbers, for example
income, life expectancy and the number of doctors in a place. Qualitative indicators usually
measure a quality of life not easily measured using numbers. For example people’s sense of
freedom or security. (2 marks).
b. Using quantitative indicators only gives a narrow perspective. A person’s income level, for
example, is irrelevant if they are not happy or do not feel safe or valued. (2 marks)
12 From the options provided, select the type of indicator that each of the examples below could
measure.
Political state Society Economic conditions
Technological advancement Environmental conditions
Example Type of indicator
Access to internet Technological advancement
Income levels Economic conditions
Literacy levels Society
Air quality Environmental conditions
Access to electricity Technological advancement
Percentage of population employed Economic conditions
CO2 emissions Environmental conditions
Fertility levels Society
Number of females in government Political state
Mobile phone or television ownership Technological advancement
Life expectancy Society
Percentage of population receiving financial assistance Economic conditions
Access to fresh water Environmental conditions
Government investment in education Political state
7
Topic 9 test answers
© John Wiley & Sons Australia, Ltd 5
13 The North–South divide (Brandt Line) was developed in 1980 and effectively divided the world
into ‘rich’ and ‘poor’. Refer to the world map below and answer the questions that follow.
World map showing various definitions of development
a. Is this line still accurate today? Give reasons for your answer. (2)
b. Would it be possible to draw a new line? Give reasons for your answer. (2)
4
a. The Brandt Line is no longer accurate as many countries once designated as being
undeveloped now have rapidly growing economies and a higher standard of living, for
example, Brazil, Argentina and Mexico. (2 marks)
b. It would be extremely difficult to draw a new line as firstly, the indicator of developed or
undeveloped is too simplistic and fails to take into account a wide range of qualitative
indicators. Secondly, it would not be very accurate – there would be difficulty in
determining which indicators you would use. (2 marks)
14 The Happy Planet Index (HPI) uses a combination of life expectancy, experienced wellbeing and
the ecological footprint of a country to create a six-colour traffic light HPI score.
Refer to the HPI map on the next page.
a. Describe the distribution of countries that have the lowest score. (2)
The majority of countries with the lowest score are mostly clustered in sub-Saharan Africa.
Three are located in Europe; two in the Middle East, and Mongolia and the USA are the
remaining countries. (2 marks)
(Note: question part b. is included on the next page, beneath the map.)
6
Topic 9 test answers
© John Wiley & Sons Australia, Ltd 6
The happiest countries in the world according to the Happy Planet Index
b. Indicate whether each of the following statements is true or false. (4)
i. Australia has one of the highest levels of happiness rating. False
ii. The USA has a higher happiness rating than Canada. False
iii. As a continent, Africa has the greatest number of countries with a ‘least happy’ rating.
True
iv. Countries on the South American continent tend to be happier than those on the North
American continent. True
i. Australia’s rating is the second-least happy.
ii. The USA’s happiness rating is ‘least happy’; Canada’s is in the second-least happy rating.
15 Choose the best word from the options provided to complete the sentences below.
Superseded Sustainable Social
Sustainable Worldwide Millennium
United Nations World Health Organization US Government
political social working
developed poor third world
developing disease prosperity
peace planet poverty
The ... Sustainable... Development Goals (SDGs) replace the now outdated ... Millennium...
Development Goals, a ... United Nations... plan to improve ... social... and economic conditions.
The SDGs apply to all countries, not just the ... developing... ones. The three main themes of the
SDGs are to end ... poverty..., protect the ... planet... and ensure ... prosperity... for everyone.
(8 x ½ = 4 marks)
4
© John Wiley & Sons Australia, Ltd 1
Geography Alive 10: Topic 10 test answers
Student name:…………………………….......….......…..............……Class:……....…... Marks: ............./40
1 In general, population density is not evenly distributed across the world. True or false? 1
True
2 There is a strong interconnection between the distribution of places with high population densities
and the distribution of megacities. Is this a true or false observation?
Global population density and the world’s largest cities
1
True
3 Infant mortality refers to the total number of children in a population that die between the ages
of 1–5 years. True or false?
1
False. Infant mortality refers to the death of infants under the age of 12 months.
4 In general, countries with developed economies tend to have low birth and death rates and low life
expectancy. True or false?
1
False. Countries with developed economies have high life expectancies as well as low birth and
death rates.
5 By 2025 it is expected that India’s population will exceed that of China. True or false? 1
True
Topic 10 test answers
© John Wiley & Sons Australia, Ltd 2
6 Look closely at the world map of population density.
Global population density and the world’s largest cities
Which of the following statements is the most accurate description of global population density of
over 100 people per square kilometre?
A Clustered mostly on the eastern side of all continents with the exception of Australia
B Randomly located across most of the USA, China, India, Japan and a few other places
C Mostly found in the northern hemisphere between the Tropic of Cancer and the Arctic Circle
D Scattered across all continents with the exception of Australia. Highest concentrations are
located in eastern USA, Europe, western Africa and southern and South-East Asia
1
Scattered across all continents with the exception of Australia. Highest concentrations are located in
eastern USA, Europe, western Africa and southern and South-East Asia
7 Which of the following factors would NOT explain the reason why life expectancy across the world
has been increasing since the mid 1700s?
A Improvements in health care, medicines and hygiene
B Improvements in diet
C Improvements in the range of employment opportunities for both men and women
D Improvements in food production and distribution
1
Improvements in the range of employment opportunities for both men and women
Topic 10 test answers
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8 A population which is neither expanding nor contracting has a fertility level at replacement rate.
What is the replacement rate?
A 2.0 babies born to every female in her reproductive years
B 2.1 babies born to every female in her reproductive years
C 3.0 babies born to every female in her reproductive years
D 1.0 babies born to every female in her reproductive years
1
2.1 babies born to every female in her reproductive years
9 Population growth rate is the difference between birth and death rates. A growth rate of 3 per cent
means that the population will double within approximately 23 years. Examine the population
change map below and answer the question that follows.
Population change
Which of the following is the most correct statement?
A Regions where populations are going to double in the next 23 years are found in Africa, the
Middle East and southern Asia.
B Generally, across the world, populations are only growing by 0–1 per cent.
C The region where population growth rate is the highest is Africa and the region with declining
populations is western Europe.
D The regions of the world showing declining populations are Europe and North America.
1
The region where population growth rate is the highest is Africa and the region with declining
populations is western Europe.
Topic 10 test answers
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10 Study the graph below showing the impact of AIDS on life expectancy.
Impact of AIDS on life expectancy
What is the general trend shown for Botswana on this graph?
A Life expectancy dropped from 65.1 to a low of 33.9 in 2010 but has since improved to 54.1 yrs.
B Life expectancy in general has shown a decline across all four countries but there have been
recent improvements.
C Botswana has the lowest life expectancy of 33.9 years in 2010.
D Life expectancy for Botswana is almost the same as for Zimbabwe, with similar increases and
decreases.
1
Life expectancy dropped from 65.1 to a low of 33.9 in 2010 but has since improved to 54.1 yrs.
11 The physical environment can influence population distribution in any one place. With the use of
examples, explain how the following can influence population distribution:
climate
landform.
6
Influence of climate:
Places with mild climates tend to support higher populations than places with extreme
climate such as deserts and polar regions. For example, higher populations can be found
in the countries around the north coast of the Mediterranean Sea but fewer in countries
along the southern coastline where arid conditions are found in Egypt and Libya. Places
with reliable rainfall to support farming also support higher populations for example
Indonesia where in some areas up to three rice crops per year can be grown. (3 marks)
Influence of landform:
Places with flat fertile valleys are generally highly populated as soils tend to be fertile
alluvial soils, fresh water is available and the land is flat and suitable for urban growth.
River Valleys such as the Ganges, Mississippi and Nile and examples. Regions that are
mountainous have poor soil quality, or lack sufficient surface or groundwater are less
populated. For example, the Andes and Himalayas. (3 marks)
Topic 10 test answers
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12 Life expectancy figures vary across the world. Refer to the map below and answer the questions
that follow.
Global life expectancy
a. Identify the average life expectancy for the following places. (4)
Country Life expectancy
China Over 75
India 65–70
South Africa Less than 60
Brazil 70–75
b. List two reasons why a country may have a low life expectancy. (2)
6
Reasons why a country may have a low life expectancy include:
low level of medical care
poverty
poor diet
poor water quality
low levels of education (2 marks)
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13 Examine the graph below and answer the questions that follow.
Changing global fertility rates
a. Which region of the world has shown the greatest decline in fertility rates from 1960–2015?
Use data in your answer. (2)
b. Suggest three reasons why a country’s fertility rate might decline. (3)
5
a. The greatest decline in fertility rate has been seen in Latin America and the Caribbean, with
the rate decreasing by 3.6; from around 5.7 in 1960 to 2.1 in 2015. (2 marks)
b. Reasons for a decline in fertility could include:
improved education, especially for females
government incentives to reduce birth rates
increased number of women in the workforce
improved health care and declining birth rates
increased access to birth control (3 marks)
14 There is considerable variation in wellbeing across India in most quantitative indicators. The map
on the next page shows variation in literacy. Study the map and answer the questions that follow.
5
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Literacy rates (percentage) in India, 2011
a. Circle the correct option to complete each of the following statements:
i. The national average effective literacy rate is 74 per cent. A number of states have
literacy rates below this national average. These include
A Rajasthan, Assam and Maharashtra.
B Gujarat, Madhya Pradseh and Orissa.
C Arunchal Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan.
D Jammu and Kasmir, Haryana and Rajasthan.
ii. The state with the highest literacy rate is
A Tamil Nadu.
B Himachal Pradesh.
C Goa.
D Kerala.
E Maharashtra.
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iii. In general, the states with the lowest literacy levels are found
A across the northern regions of the country.
B in the far south of the country.
C in the country’s coastal regions.
D in the country’s west.
b. Suggest another indicator of wellbeing that might show a similar distribution pattern to the
literacy map.
c. What is the interconnection between literacy rates and wellbeing?
a. i. Arunchal Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan.
ii. Kerala.
iii. across the northern regions of the country.
b. Other indicators that might show a similar distribution map could be:
the percentage of females in school
the infant mortality rate
poverty levels. ( 1 mark)
c. As people become more literate and educated they have better opportunities for employment
and further education, which can help improve their income and living conditions. (This is
especially true for females who, once educated tend to delay marriage and childbirth thus
helping to reduce birth rates.) (1 mark)
15 The graph on the next page shows changes in Australia’s population from 1900 to 2015.
Study the graph and answer the following questions.
a. Indicate whether each of the following statements is true or false. (4)
i. In 1946, total population change was significantly higher than it was in 1950. T/F
ii. In 1946 nearly all Australian population growth was due to natural change but in
1950 more than half the growth was due to migration. T/F
iii. In 2006, natural increase was around 125 000, which was significantly higher than
migrant increase at that time. T/F
iv. The highest level of natural increase occurred in the 1970s. T/F
b. Identify one political and one economic factor to explain a change in population growth.
Use data to support your points. (4)
8
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Australia’s changing population growth
a. i. False – Population change was significantly higher in 1950 than it was in 1946 (more than
250 000 in 1950, compared with around 100 000 in 1946).
ii. True
iii. False – Natural increase in 2006 was 125 000 but migrant increased was higher (around
175 000).
iv. True (4 x 1 mark)
b. An economic factor was the Great depression in the 1930s which caused a significant drop
in birth rates. By 1936 Australia’s population growth was only 50 000 – the lowest figure for
the entire time period shown in the graph. (2 marks)
A political factor was the government offering financial assistance to migrants coming to
Australia, which saw the growth rate increase to 260 000 in 1950. World War II was another
political factor which saw growth rates drop to 55 000 in 1940 and then after the war, a post
war baby boom. (2 marks)
© John Wiley & Sons Australia, Ltd 1
Geography Alive 10: Topic 11 test answers
Student name:…………………………….......….......…..............……Class:……....…... Marks: ............./40
1 Study the graph below and answer the question that follows.
Reproductive health indicators, 1990–2015
From 1990 to 2015 the use of contraception on a global scale has increased by 12 per cent.
True or false?
1
True
2 People living in ‘extreme poverty’, by definition means that they have to survive on less than
$US1.30 per day. Is this a true or false definition?
1
True
3 Levels of wellbeing can vary from place to place. Variations can exist at the local, regional and
national scale for any country. True or false?
1
True
4 Look at the map on the next page, which depicts the affordability of houses in Melbourne.
In general, housing affordability in Melbourne decreases with increased distance from the centre of
the city. True or false?
False. The map shows that housing affordability increases with increased distance from the centre
of the city.
1
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Affordability of houses in Melbourne, 2013
5 Study the graph below and answer the question that follows on the next page.
Teenage fertility rates
1
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The number of births per 1000 girls aged 15–19 in the USA is twice the rate found in Japan.
True or false?
False. The number of births in Japan is a little over 5 per 1000 compared to the USA, where the
rate is 36 per 1000 girls.
6 Rates of maternal mortality (the death of a woman while pregnant or within 42 days of termination
of pregnancy) are high throughout many developing countries. Which of the following would NOT
be a contributing factor?
A Low levels of female education
B Difficulty in accessing information on health and contraception
C High levels of health and nutrition amongst pregnant women
D Acute poverty
1
High levels of health and nutrition amongst pregnant women
7 Safe drinking water and access to basic sanitation is of critical importance to human health,
especially for children. This is because
A millions of people worldwide do not have access to these basic requirements.
B water-related diseases are the most common cause of death amongst the poor in developing
countries.
C contaminated drinking water tastes awful and many people cannot afford to buy bottled water.
D governments do not spend enough money on providing these services.
1
water-related diseases are the most common cause of death amongst the poor in developing
countries.
8 The Australian Government in conjunction with other agencies has initiated the Closing the Gap
program, aimed at reducing inequalities and improving some of the socioeconomic problems
facing Australia’s Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander population.
The program focuses on six main targets to be achieved.
Which of the following is NOT one of the targets?
A Improve life expectancy
B Improve public transport in isolated communities
C Improve employment opportunities
D Improve education levels
Improve public transport in isolated communities
1
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9 Study the map of maternal mortality below.
Global scale distribution of maternal mortality
Two regions of the world where maternal mortality is greater than 300 maternal deaths per 100 000
live births are
A sub-Saharan Africa and South Asia.
B sub-Saharan Africa and South America.
C South-East Asia and Africa.
D Africa and the Caribbean/Central America.
1
sub-Saharan Africa and South Asia.
10 The number of teenage pregnancies in the United States is amongst the highest in the developed
world. One in ten babies is born to a teenage mother. When the distribution of teenage pregnancies
is mapped there is a strong interconnection between places where teenage pregnancies are high
and which other places?
A Places where there are fewer schools
B Places where there is a range of employment opportunities
C Places where poverty is high
D Places where there are high rates of attendance at universities
1
Places where poverty is high
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11 The map below shows the distribution of sex ratios in India. That is, the difference between the
number of male and female children in a population. Study the map and then answer the questions
that follow.
Variation in sex ratio within India
7
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a. Describe the distribution of states where the ratio is less than 925 girls to every 1000 boys.
(2)
b. Circle the correct option to complete this sentence: (1)
The states with the highest ratio of girls to boys tend to be located
in the west.
in the north-west.
in the south and south-east.
in the central regions.
c. Explain how two social factors could contribute to an uneven sex ratio. (2)
d. Outline one short-term and one long-term potential consequence of such an imbalance in
the sexes. (2)
a. The distribution is clustered in the north and north-west of the country. Exceptions are the
states of Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh to the north-east, and the Andaman and Nicobar
Islands, in the Bay of Bengal. (2 marks)
b. in the south and south-east (1mark)
c. Two social factors that could contribute to an uneven sex ratio:
The preference for male children over female as the males carry on the family name and are
seen as the ‘bread winners’, whereas females are seen as an economic burden
The illegal practice of female infanticide where ultrasounds are used to determine the sex of
unborn babies and female foetuses are aborted (sex-selective abortion). (2 marks)
d. In the short term, there is more pressure on women to keep having pregnancies until they
have the required male child, thus increasing the risk of maternal mortality.
In the long term they may be a shortage of eligible females to marry as the males
outnumber the females. (This has been the case in China as a result of their One Child
Policy.) (2 marks)
12 Many people around the world live in slums, or bustees or favelas, as they are known in Brazil.
These slums develop over time as people who cannot afford housing create their own shelters on
any available free land.
a. Describe three problems that would exist for people living in illegal favelas in Rio de
Janeiro. (3)
b. In general, where have the people come from who end up in the favelas, and why do they
come? (2)
c. What is the Brazilian Government doing to improve the wellbeing of people living in
favelas? (2)
(Note: There is space at the top of the next page for you to write your answers.)
7
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a. Problems that would exist include: (any 3 points for 3 marks)
substandard housing
a lack of infrastructure such as plumbed water, sewerage and electricity
vulnerability to fire, landslides and extreme weather as housing in often on steep
slopes
a lack of public transport and access with often one main road and a series of laneways
and stairs for moving around
high crime rate
social issues associated with unemployment, low incomes and low levels of education.
b. Up to 65 per cent of the population growth is due to people migrating in from rural areas.
They come in search of employment and an opportunity for a better life. (2 marks)
c. The government is actively trying to: (any 2 points for 2 marks)
reduce the crime rate in the favelas with special police groups
replace the favelas with low income housing
construct cable cars as public transport to help move people around.
13 There is large-scale disparity in wellbeing for Indigenous and non-Indigenous people within
Australia. Study the graph below and answer the questions that follow on the next page.
Indicators of Indigenous wellbeing
7
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a. Compare the indicators of life expectancy and percentage of people in the workforce for
both groups of people. Complete the table below with figures from the graph. (3)
Indicator Indigenous people Non-Indigenous people
Life expectancy males 70 yrs 80 yrs
Life expectancy females 74 yrs 84 yrs
Percentage aged 15–64 in workforce 48% 70%
(3 marks)
b. What conclusions can you draw for your summary table? (2)
c. These are all quantitative indicators. What qualitative indicators, specific to the Aboriginal
culture, could be used and would they give a different perspective on wellbeing? (2)
b. Conclusions drawn: Indigenous people have issues with health contributing to lower life
expectancy for both males and females and there is a high degree of unemployment
amongst Indigenous populations compared to the non-Indigenous population. (2 marks)
c. Indicators such as degree of happiness, the importance of family and community, the
connection to land and the passing down of traditional knowledge are all important aspects
of Aboriginal wellbeing, but are extremely difficult to measure or assess. They could also
give a quite different viewpoint on wellbeing in an Indigenous community. (2 marks)
14 a. Many Indigenous communities do not have the same living conditions and benefits that
non-Indigenous people experience. Suggest three reasons for this difference. (3)
b. Often, Indigenous people live in remote communities, some distance from large cities. How
would living in remote places disadvantage people and affect wellbeing? Provide three
examples. (3)
a. Differences may be due to discrimination, the dispossession of land and the displacement of
people. (3 marks)
b. People living in remote locations may be disadvantaged in terms of:
access to medical services
access to education and employment opportunities
lack of available and affordable fresh, healthy food (3 marks)
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15 Study the map below.
Australia’s population by remoteness classification
a. How would this map compare to a rainfall distribution map of Australia? Justify your
answer. (1)
b. How might living in isolated places benefit peoples’ wellbeing? Suggest two points. (2)
3
a. The two maps would be similar, much of inland Australia has low rainfall and is classified
as arid and semi arid. These places do not support large populations. (1 mark)
b. Benefits to wellbeing include:
enjoyment of the rural lifestyle
less stress without traffic, congestion etc. related to large cities
high degree of interconnection within the local community
sense of safety. (2 marks for any 2 points)