Funda

50 item Pharmacology Exam

1. A client with myasthenia gravis reports the occurrence of difficulty chewing. The physician prescribes pyridostigmine bromide (Mestinon) to increase muscle strength for this activity. The nurse instructs the client to take the medication at what time, in relation to meals?

a. after dinner daily when most fatiguedb. before breakfast dailyc. as soon as arising in the morningd. thirty minutes before each meal

2. A client is advised to take senna (Senokot) for the treatment of constipation asks the nurse how this medication works. The nurse responds knowing that it:

a. accumulates water in the stool and increases peristalsisb. stimulates the vagus nervec. coats the bowel walld. adds fiber and bulk to the stool

3. A client is receiving heparin sodium by continuous intravenous infusion. The nurse monitors the client for which adverse effect of this therapy?

a. decreased blood pressureb. increased pulse ratec. ecchymosesd. tinnitus

4. A client is being treated for acute congestive heart failure (CHF) and the client’s vital signs are as follows: BP 85/50 mm Hg; pulse, 96 bpm; respirations, 26 cpm. The physician prescribes digoxin (Lanoxin). To evaluate a therapeutic effectiveness of this medication, the nurse would expect which of the following changes in the client’s vital signs?

a. BP 85/50 mm Hg, pulse 60 bpm, respirations 26 cpmb. BP 98/60 mm Hg, pulse 80 bpm, respirations 24 cpmc. BP 130/70 mm Hg, pulse 104 bpm, respirations 20 cpmd. BP 110/40 mm Hg, 110 bpm, respirations 20 cpm

5. Diazepam (Valium) is prescribed for a client with anxiety. The nurse instructs the client to expect which side effect?

a. incoordinationb. coughc. tinnitusd. hypertension

6. A client receives oxytocin (Pitocin) to induce labor. During the administration of the oxytocin, it is most important for the nurse to monitor:

a. urinary outputb. fetal heart ratec. central venous pressured. maternal blood glucose

7. A clinic nurse is performing assessment on a client who is being seen in the clinic for the first time. When asking about the client’s medication history, the client tells the nurse that he takes nateglinide (Starlix). The nurse then questions the client about the presence of which disorder that is treated with this medication?

a. hypothyroidismb. insomniac. type 2 diabetes mellitusd. renal failure

8. A client who is taking rifampin (Rifadin) as part of the medication regimen for the treatment of tuberculosis calls the clinic nurse and reports that her urine is a red-orange color. The nurse tells the client to:

a. come to the clinic to provide a urine sampleb. stop the medication until further instructions are given by the physicianc. take the medication dose with an antacid to prevent this adverse effectd. expect a red-orange color in urine, feces, sweat, sputum, and tears as a harmless side effect

9. A nurse is caring for a client with a tracheostomy that has been diagnosed with a respiratory infection. The client is receiving vancomycin hydrochloride (Vancocin) 500 mg intravenously every 12 hours. Which of the following would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of the medication?

a. decreased hearing acuityb. photophobiac. hypotensiond. bradycardia

10. A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of metastatic breast carcinoma who is receiving tamoxifen citrate (Nolvadex) 10 mg orally twice daily. Which of the following would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing a side effect related to the medication?

a. hypetensionb. diarrheac. nose bleedsd. vaginal bleeding

11. A client has just been given a prescription for diphenoxylate with atropine (Lomotil). The nurse teaches the client which of the following about the use of this medication?

a. drooling may occur while taking this medicationb. irritability may occur while taking this medicationc. this medication contains a habit-forming ingredientd. take the medication with a laxative of choice

12. A nurse is gathering data from client about the client’s medication history and notes that the client is taking tolterodine tartrate (Detrol LA). The nurse determines that the client is taking the medication to treat which disorder?

a. glaucomab. renal insufficiencyc. pyloric stenosisd. urinary frequency and urgency

13. A client has an order to receive psyllium (Metamucil) daily. The nurse administers this medication with:

a. a multivitamin and mineral supplement

b. a dose of an antacidc. applesauced. eight ounces of liquid

14. A nurse is teaching a client taking cyclosporine (Sandimmune) after renal transplant about medication information. The nurse tells the client to be especially alert for:

a. signs of infectionb. hypotensionc. weight lossd. hair loss

15. A nurse reinforces dietary instruction for the client receiving spironolactone (Aldactone). Which food would the nurse instruct the client to avoid while taking this medication?

a. crackersb. shrimpc. apricotsd. popcorn

16. Oral lactulose (Chronulac) is prescribed for the client with a hepatic disorder and the nurse provides instructions to the client regarding this medication. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instructions?

a. “I need to take the medication with water’”b. “ I need to increase fluid intake while taking the medication”c. “ I need to increase fiber in the diet”d. “I need to notify the physician of nausea occurs”

17. A home care nurse provides instructions to a client taking digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg daily. Which statement by the client indcates a need for further instructions?

a. “I will take my prescribed antacid if I become nauseated”b. “It is important to have my blood drawn when prescribed”c. “I will check my pulse before I take my medication”d. “I will carry a medication identification card with me”

18. A client with anxiety disorder is taking buspirone (BuSpar) and tells the nurse that it is difficult to swallow the tablets. The nurse tells the client to:

a. dissolve the tablet in a cup of coffeeb. crush the tablet before taking itc. call the physician for a change in medicationd. mix the tablet uncrushed in custard

19. A nurse is caring for a child with CHF provides instructions to the parents regarding the administration of digoxin (Lanoxin). Which statement by the mother indicates a need for further instructions?

a. “If my child vomits after I give the medication, I will not repeat the dose”b. “I will check my child’s pulse before giving the medication”c. “I will check the dose of the medication with my husband before I give the medication”d. “I will mix the medication with food”

20. A nurse provides instructions to a client who will begin an oral contraceptives. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further instructions?

a. “I will take one pill daily at the same time every day”b. “I will not need to use an additional birth control method once I start these pills”c. “If I miss a pill I need to take it as soon as I remember”d. “If I miss two pills I will take them both as soon as I remember and I will take two pills the next day also”

21. A nurse provides instructions to a client taking clorazepate (Tranxene) for management of an anxiety disorder. The nurse tells the client that:

a. drowsiness is a side effect that usually disappears with continued therapyb. if dizziness occurs, call the physicianc. smoking increases the effectiveness of the medicationd. if gastrointestinal disturbances occur, discontinue the medication

22. A client with Parkinson’s disease has begun therapy with levodopa (L-dopa). The nurse determines that the client understands the action of the medication if the client verbalizes that results may not be apparent for:

a. 24 hoursb. Two to three daysc. One weekd. Two to three weeks

23. A nurse in a physician’s office is reviewing the results of a client’s phenytoin (Dilantin) level drawn that morning. The nurse determines that the client has a therapeutic drug level if the client’s result was:

a. 3 mcg/mlb. 8 mcg/mlc. 15 mcg/mld. 24mcg/ml

24. A nurse is caring for a client with a genitourinary tract infection receiving amoxicillin (Augmentin) 500 mg every 8 hours. Which of the following would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect related to the medication?

a. hypertensionb. nauseac. headached. watery diarrhea

25. A nurse is caring for a client with glaucoma who receives a daily dose of acetazolamide (Diamox). Which of the following would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of the medication?

a. constipationb. difficulty swallowingc. dark-colored urine and stoolsd. irritability

26. A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of meningitis who is receiving amphotericin B (Fungizone) intravenously. Which of the following would indicate to the

nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect related to the medication?

a. nauseab. decreased urinary outputc. muscle weaknessd. confusion

27. A nurse has formulated a nursing diagnosis of Disturbed Body Image for a client who is taking spironolactone (Aldactone). The nurse based this diagnosis on assessment of which side effect of the medication?

a. edemab. weight gainc. excitabilityd. decreased libido

28. A nurse is caring for the client with a history of mild heart failure who is receiving diltiazem hydrochloride (Cardizem) for hypertension. The nurse would assess the client for:

a. bradycardiab. wheezingc. peripheral edema and weight gaind. apical pulse rate lower than baseline

29. The wound of a client with an extensive burn injury is being treated with the application of silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene). Which symptom would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing a side effect related to systemic absorption?

a. pain at the wound siteb. burning and itching at the wound sitec. a localized rashd. photosensitivity

30. A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis who is receiving sulindac (Clinoril) 150 mg po twice daily. Which finding would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing a side effect related to the medication?

a. diarrheab. photophobiac. feverd. tingling in the extremities

31. The nurse notes that the client is receiving filgrastim (Neupogen). The nurse checks which of the following to determine medication effectiveness?

a. neutrophil countb. platelet countc. blood urea nitrogend. creatinine level

32. A nurse is monitoring a client who is taking fluphenazine decanoate (Prolixin) for signs of leucopenia. Which finding indicates a sign of this blood dyscrasia?

a. blurred visionb. constipationc. sore throat

d. dry mouth

33. A nurse is administering amphotericin B (Fungizone) to a client intravenously to treat a fungal infection. The nurse monitors the result of which electrolyte study during therapy with this medication?

a. sodiumb. potassiumc. calciumd. chloride

34. A clinic nurse asks a client with diabetes mellitus being seen in the clinic for the first time to list the medications that she is taking. Which combination of medications taken by the client should the nurse report to the physician?

a. Acetohexamide (Dymelor) and trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)b. Chlorpropamide (Diabenase) and amitriptyline (Elavil)c. Glyburide (DiaBeta) and Lanoxin (Digoxin)d. Tolbutamide (Orinase) and amoxicillin (Amoxil)

35. A nurse is caring for a client receiving streptogramin (Synercid) by intravenous intermittent infusion for the treatment of a bone infection develops diarrhea. Which nursing action would the nurse implement?

a. administer an antidiarrheal agentb. notify the physicianc. discontinue the medicationd. monitor the client’s temperature

36. A client has been taking fosinopril (Monopril) for 2 months. The nurse determines that the client is having the intended effects of therapy if the nurse notes which of the following?

a. lowered BPb. lowered pulse ratec. increased WBCd. increased monocyte count

37. A client is taking labetalol (Normodyne). The nurse monitors the client for which frequent side effect of the medication?

a. tachycardiab. impotencec. increased energy leveld. night blindness

38. An older client has been using cascara sagrada on a long-term basis. The nurse determines that which laboratory result is a result of the side effects of this medication?

a. sodium 135 mEq/Lb. sodium 145 mEq/Lc. potassium 3.1 mEq/Ld. potassium 5.0 mEq/L

39. A client has an order to begin short-term therapy with enoxaparin (Lovenox). The nurse explains to the client that this medication is being ordered to:

a. dissolve urinary calculi

b. reduce the risk of deep vein thrombosisc. relieve migraine headachesd. stop progression of multiple sclerosis

40. Quinidine gluconate (Dura Quin) is prescribed for a client. The nurse reviews the client’s medical record, knowing that which of the following is a contraindication in the use of this medication?

a. complete atrioventricular (AV) blockb. muscle weaknessc. asthmad. infection

41. A client has been taking benzonatate (Tessalon) as ordered. The nurse tells the client that this medication should do which of the following?

a. take away nausea and vomitingb. calm the persistent coughc. decrease anxiety leveld. increase comfort level

42. Auranofin (Ridaura) is prescribed for a client with rheumatoid arthritis, and the nurse monitors the client for signs of an adverse effect related to the medication. Which of the following indicates an adverse effect?

a. nauseab. diarrheac. anorexiad. proteinuria

43. A nurse is providing instructions to a client regarding quinapril hydrochloride (Accupril). The nurse tells the client:

a. to take the medication with food onlyb. to rise slowly from a lying to a sitting positionc. to discontinue the medication if nausea occursd. that a therapeutic effect will be noted immediatedly

44. A female client tells the clinic nurse that her skin is very dry and irritated. Which product would the nurse suggest that the client apply to the dry skin?

a. glycerin emollientb. aspercreamec. myoflexd. acetic acid solution

45. A client with advanced cirrhosis of the liver is not tolerating protein well, as eveidenced by abnormal laboratory values. The nurse anticipates that which of the following medications will be prescribed for the client?

a. lactulose (Chronulac)b. ethacrynic acid (Edecrin)c. folic acid (Folvite)d. thiamine (Vitamin B1)

46. A nurse is planning dietary counseling for the client taking triamterene (Dyrenium). The nurse plans to include which of the following in a list of foods that are acceptable?

a. baked potato

b. bananasc. orangesd. pears canned in water

47. A client is taking famotidine (Pepcid) asks the home care nurse what would be the best medication to take for a headache. The nurse tells the client that it would be best to take:

a. aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid, ASA)b. ibuprofen (Motrin)c. acetaminophen (Tylenol)d. naproxen (Naprosyn)

48. A nurse has taught a client taking a xanthine bronchodilator about beverages to avoid. The nurse determines that the client understands the information if the client chooses which of the following beverages from the dietary menu?

a. chocolate milkb. cranberry juicec. coffeed. cola

49. A client with histoplasmosis has an order for ketoconazole (Nizoral). The nurse teaches the client to do which of the following while taking this medication?

a. take the medication on an empty stomachb. take the medication with an antacidc. avoid exposure to sunlightd. limit alcohol to 2 ounces per day

50. A nurse is preparing the client’s morning NPH insulin dose and notices a clumpy precipitate inside the insulin vial. The nurse should:

a. draw up and administer the doseb. shake the vial in an attempt to disperse the clumpsc. draw the dose from a new viald. warm the bottle under running water to dissolve the clump

COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING EXAMINATION PART I

Outline :

I. EpidemiologyII. Vital StatisticsIII. FHSISIV. COPARV. Health Education

SITUATION : Epidemiology and Vital statistics is a very important tool that a nurse could use in controlling the spread of disease in the community and at the same time, surveying the impact of the disease on the population and prevent it’s future occurrence.

1. It is concerned with the study of factors that influence the occurrence and distribution of diseases, defects, disability or death which occurs in groups or aggregation of individuals.

A. EpidemiologyB. DemographicsC. Vital StatisticsD. Health Statistics

2. Which of the following is the backbone in disease prevention?


3. Which of the following type of research could show how community expectations can result in the actual provision of services?

A. Basic ResearchB. Operational ResearchC. Action ResearchD. Applied Research

4. An outbreak of measles has been reported in Community A. As a nurse, which of the following is your first action for an Epidemiological investigation?

A. Classify if the outbreak of measles is epidemic or just sporadicB. Report the incidence into the RHUC. Determine the first day when the outbreak occurredD. Identify if it is the disease which it is reported to be

5. After the epidemiological investigation produced final conclusions, which of the following is your initial step in your operational procedure during disease outbreak?

A. Coordinate personnel from Municipal to the National levelB. Collect pertinent laboratory specimen to confirm disease causationC. Immunize nearby communities with MeaslesD. Educate the community in future prevention of similar outbreaks

6. The main concern of a public health nurse is the

prevention of disease, prolonging of life and promoting physical health and efficiency through which of the following?

A. Use of epidemiological tools and vital health statisticsB. Determine the spread and occurrence of the diseaseC. Political empowerment and Socio Economic AssistanceD. Organized Community Efforts

7. In order to control a disease effectively, which of the following must first be known?

1. The conditions surrounding its occurrence2. Factors that do not favor its development3. The condition that do not surround its occurrence4. Factors that favors its development

A. 1 and 3B. 1 and 4C. 2 and 3D. 2 and 4

8. All of the following are uses of epidemiology except:

A. To study the history of health population and the rise and fall of diseaseB. To diagnose the health of the community and the condition of the peopleC. To provide summary data on health service deliveryD. To identify groups needing special attention

9. Before reporting the fact of presence of an epidemic, which of the following is of most importance to determine?

A. Are the facts complete?B. Is the disease real?C. Is the disease tangible?D. Is it epidemic or endemic?

10. An unknown epidemic has just been reported in Barangay Dekbudekbu. People said that affected person demonstrates hemorrhagic type of fever. You are designated now to plan for epidemiological investigation. Arrange the sequence of events in accordance with the correct outline plan for epidemiological investigation.

1. Report the presence of dengue2. Summarize data and conclude the final picture of epidemic3. Relate the occurrence to the population group, facilities, food supply and carriers4. Determine if the disease is factual or real5. Determine any unusual prevalence of the disease and its nature; is it epidemic, sporadic, endemic or pandemic?6. Determine onset and the geographical limitation of the disease.

A. 4,1,3,5,2,6B. 4,1,5,6,3,2C. 5,4,6,2,1,3D. 5,4,6,1,2,3E. 1,2,3,4,5,6

11. In the occurrence of SARS and other pandemics, which of the following is the most vital role of a nurse in epidemiology?

A. Health promotionB. Disease preventionC. SurveillanceD. Casefinding

12. Measles outbreak has been reported in Barangay Bahay Toro, After conducting an epidemiological investigation you have confirmed that the outbreak is factual. You are tasked to lead a team of medical workers for operational procedure in disease outbreak. Arrange the correct sequence of events that you must do to effectively contain the disease

1. Create a final report and recommendation2. Perform nasopharyngeal swabbing to infected individuals3. Perform mass measles immunization to vulnerable groups4. Perform an environmental sanitation survey on the immediate environment5. Organize your team and Coordinate the personnels6. Educate the community on disease transmission

A. 1,2,3,4,5,6B. 6,5,4,3,2,1C. 5,6,4,2,3,1D. 5,2,3,4,6,1

13. All of the following are function of Nurse Budek in epidemiology except

A. Laboratory DiagnosisB. Surveillance of disease occurrenceC. Follow up cases and contactsD. Refer cases to hospitals if necessaryE. Isolate cases of communicable disease

14. All of the following are performed in team organization except

A. Orientation and demonstration of methodology to be employedB. Area assignments of team membersC. Check team’s equipments and paraphernaliaD. Active case finding and Surveillance

15. Which of the following is the final output of data reporting in epidemiological operational procedure?

A. RecommendationB. EvaluationC. Final ReportD. Preliminary report

16. The office in charge with registering vital facts in the Philippines is none other than the

A. PCSOB PAGCORC. DOHD. NSO

17. The following are possible sources of Data except:

A. ExperienceB. CensusC. SurveysD. Research

18. This refers to systematic study of vital events such as births, illnesses, marriages, divorces and deaths


19. In case of clerical errors in your birth certificate, Where should you go to have it corrected?

A. NSOB. Court of AppealsC. Municipal Trial CourtD. Local Civil Registrar

20. Acasia just gave birth to Lestat, A healthy baby boy. Who are going to report the birth of Baby Lestat?

A. NurseB. MidwifeC. OB GyneD. Birth Attendant

21. In reporting the birth of Baby Lestat, where will he be registered?

A. At the Local Civil RegistrarB. In the National Statistics OfficeC. In the City Health DepartmentD. In the Field Health Services and Information System Main Office

22. Deejay, The birth attendant noticed that Lestat has low set of ears, Micrognathia, Microcephaly and a typical cat like cry. What should Deejay do?

A. Bring Lestat immediately to the nearest hospitalB. Ask his assistant to call the nearby pediatricianC. Bring Lestat to the nearest pediatric clinicD. Call a Taxi and together with Acasia, Bring Lestat to the nearest hospital

23. Deejay would suspect which disorder?

A. Trisomy 21B. Turners SyndromeC. Cri Du ChatD. Klinefelters Syndrome

24. Deejay could expect which of the following congenital anomaly that would accompany this disorder?

A. AVSDB. PDAC. TOFD. TOGV

26. Which presidential decree orders reporting of births within 30 days after its occurrence?

A. 651B. 541C. 996D. 825

25. These rates are referred to the total living population, It must be presumed that the total population was exposed to the risk of occurrence of the event.

A. RateB. RatioC. Crude/General RatesD. Specific Rate

26. These are used to describe the relationship between two numerical quantities or measures of events without taking particular considerations to the time or place.

A. RateB. RatiosC. Crude/General RateD. Specific Rate

27. This is the most sensitive index in determining the general health condition of a community since it reflects the changes in the environment and medical conditions of a community

A. Crude death rateB. Infant mortality rateC. Maternal mortality rateD. Fetal death rate

28. According to the WHO, which of the following is the most frequent cause of death in children underfive worldwide in the 2003 WHO Survey?

A. NeonatalB. PneumoniaC. DiarrheaD. HIV/AIDS

29. In the Philippines, what is the most common cause of death of infants according to the latest survey?

A. PneumoniaB. DiarrheaC. Other perinatal conditionD. Respiratory condition of fetus and newborn

30. The major cause of mortality from 1999 up to 2002 in the Philippines are

A. Diseases of the heartB. Diseases of the vascular systemC. PneumoniasD. Tuberculosis

31. Alicia, a 9 year old child asked you “ What is the common cause of death in my age group here in the Philippines? “ The nurse is correct if he will answer

A. Pneumonia is the top leading cause of death in children age 5 to 9B. Malignant neoplasm if common in your age groupC. Probability wise, You might die due to accidentsD. Diseases of the respiratory system is the most common cause of death in children

32. In children 1 to 4 years old, which is the most common

cause of death?

A. DiarrheaB. AccidentsC. PneumoniaD. Diseases of the heart

33. Working in the community as a PHN for almost 10 years, Aida knew the fluctuation in vital statistics. She knew that the most common cause of morbidity among the Filipinos is

A. Diseases of the heartB. DiarrheaC. PneumoniaD. Vascular system diseases

34. Nurse Aida also knew that most maternal deaths are caused by

A. HemorrhageB. Other Complications related to pregnancy occurring in the course of labor, delivery and puerperiumC. Hypertension complicating pregnancy, childbirth and puerperiumD. Abortion

SITUATION : Barangay PinoyBSN has the following data in year 2006

1. July 1 population : 254,3162. Livebirths : 2,2893. Deaths from maternal cause : 154. Death from CVD : 3,0295. Deaths under 1 year of age : 236. Fetal deaths : 87. Deaths under 28 days : 88. Death due to rabies : 459. Registered cases of rabies : 4510. People with pneumonia : 7911. People exposed with pneumonia : 2,59312. Total number of deaths from all causes : 10,998

The following questions refer to these data

35. What is the crude birth rate of Barangay PinoyBSN?

A. 90/100,000B. 9/100C. 90/1000D. 9/1000

36. What is the cause specific death rate from cardiovascular diseases?

A. 27/100B. 1191/100,000C. 27/100,000D. 1.1/1000

37. What is the Maternal Mortality rate of this barangay?

A. 6.55/1000B. 5.89/1000C. 1.36/1000D. 3.67/1000

38. What is the fetal death rate?

A. 3.49/1000B. 10.04/1000C. 3.14/1000D. 3.14/100,000

39. What is the attack rate of pneumonia?

A. 3.04/1000B. 7.18/1000C. 32.82/100D. 3.04/100

40. Determine the Case fatality ratio of rabies in this Barangay

A. 1/100B. 100%C. 1%D. 100/1000

41. The following are all functions of the nurse in vital statistics, which of the following is not?

A. Consolidate DataB. Collects DataC. Analyze DataD. Tabulate Data

42. The following are Notifiable diseases that needs to have a tally sheet in data reporting, Which one is not?

A. HypertensionB. BronchiolitisC. Chemical PoisoningD. Accidents

43. Which of the following requires reporting within 24 hours?

A. Neonatal tetanusB. MeaslesC. HypertensionD. Tetanus

44. Which Act declared that all communicable disease be reported to the nearest health station?

A. 1082B. 1891C. 3573D. 6675

45. In the RHU Team, Which professional is directly responsible in caring a sick person who is homebound?

A. MidwifeB. NurseC. BHWD. Physician

46. During epidemics, which of the following epidemiological function will you have to perform first?

A. Teaching the community on disease preventionB. Assessment on suspected casesC. Monitor the condition of people affectedD. Determining the source and nature of the epidemic

47. Which of the following is a POINT SOURCE epidemic?

A. Dengue H.FB. MalariaC. Contaminated Water SourceD. Tuberculosis

48. All but one is a characteristic of a point source epidemic, which one is not?

A. The spread of the disease is caused by a common vehicleB. The disease is usually caused by contaminated foodC. There is a gradual increase of casesD. Epidemic is usually sudden

49. The only Microorganism monitored in cases of contaminated water is

A. Vibrio CholeraB. Escherichia ColiC. Entamoeba HistolyticaD. Coliform Test

50. Dengue increase in number during June, July and August. This pattern is called

A. EpidemicB. EndemicC. CyclicalD. Secular

SITUATION : Field health services and information system provides summary data on health service delivery and selected program from the barangay level up to the national level. As a nurse, you should know the process on how these information became processed and consolidated.

51. All of the following are objectives of FHSIS Except

A. To complete the clinical picture of chronic disease and describe their natural historyB. To provide standardized, facility level data base which can be accessed for more in depth studiesC. To minimize recording and reporting burden allowing more time for patient care and promotive activitiesD. To ensure that data reported are useful and accurate and are disseminated in a timely and easy to use fashion

52. What is the fundamental block or foundation of the field health service information system?

A. Family treatment recordB. Target Client listC. Reporting formsD. Output record

53. What is the primary advantage of having a target client list?

A. Nurses need not to go back to FTR to monitor treatment

and services to beneficiaries thus saving time and effortB. Help monitor service rendered to clients in generalC. Facilitate monitoring and supervision of servicesD. Facilitates easier reporting

54. Which of the following is used to monitor particular groups that are qualified as eligible to a certain program of the DOH?


55. In using the tally sheet, what is the recommended frequency in tallying activities and services?

A. DailyB. WeeklyC. MonthlyD. Quarterly

56. When is the counting of the tally sheet done?

A. At the end of the dayB. At the end of the weekC. At the end of the monthD. At the end of the year

57. Target client list will be transmitted to the next facility in the form of


58. All but one of the following are eligible target client list

A. Leprosy casesB. TB casesC. Prenatal careD. Diarrhea cases

59. This is the only mechanism through which data are routinely transmitted from once facility to another


60. FHSIS/Q-3 Or the report for environmental health activities is prepared how frequently?

A. DailyB. WeeklyC. QuarterlyD. Yearly

61. Nurse Budek is preparing the reporting form for weekly notifiable diseases. He knew that he will code the report form as

A. FHSIS/E-1B. FHSIS/E-2

C. FHSIS/E-3D. FHSIS/M-1

62. In preparing the maternal death report, which of the following correctly codes this occurrence?

A. FHSIS/E-1B. FHSIS/E-2C. FHSIS/E-3D. FHSIS/M-1

63. Where should Nurse Budek bring the reporting forms if he is in the BHU Facility?

A. Rural health officeB. FHSIS Main officeC. Provincial health officeD. Regional health office

64. After bringing the reporting forms in the right facility for processing, Nurse Budek knew that the output reports are solely produced by what office?


65. Mang Raul entered the health center complaining of fatigue and frequent syncope. You assessed Mang Raul and found out that he is severely malnourished and anemic. What record should you get first to document these findings?


66. The information about Mang Raul’s address, full name, age, symptoms and diagnosis is recorded in


67. Another entry is to be made for Mang Raul because he is in the target client’s list, In what TCL should Mang Raul’s entry be documented?

A. TCL Eligible PopulationB. TCL Family PlanningC. TCL NutritionD. TCL Pre Natal

68. The nurse uses the FHSIS Record system incorrectly when she found out that

A. She go to the individual or FTR for entry confirmation in the Tally/Report SummaryB. She refer to other sources for completing monthly and quarterly reportsC. She records diarrhea in the Tally sheet/Report form with a code FHSIS/M-1D. She records a Child who have frequent diarrhea in TCL :

Under Five

69. The BHS Is the lowest level of reporting unit in FHSIS. A BHS can be considered a reporting unit if all of the following are met except

A. It renders service to 3 barangaysB. There is a midwife the regularly renders service to the areaC. The BHS Have no mother BHSD. It should be a satellite BHS

70. Data submitted to the PHO is processed using what type of technology?

A. InternetB. MicrocomputerC. SupercomputerD. Server Interlink Connections

SITUATION : Community organizing is a process by which people, health services and agencies of the community are brought together to act and solve their own problems.

71. Mang ambo approaches you for counseling. You are an effective counselor if you

A. Give good advice to Mang AmboB. Identify Mang Ambo’s problemsC. Convince Mang Ambo to follow your adviceD. Help Mang Ambo identify his problems

72. As a newly appointed PHN instructed to organize Barangay Baritan, Which of the following is your initial step in organizing the community for initial action?

A. Study the Barangay Health statistics and recordsB. Make a courtesy call to the Barangay CaptainC. Meet with the Barangay Captain to make plansD. Make a courtesy call to the Municipal Mayor

73. Preparatory phase is the first phase in organizing the community. Which of the following is the initial step in the preparatory phase?

A. Area selectionB. Community profilingC. Entry in the communityD. Integration with the people

74. the most important factor in determining the proper area for community organizing is that this area should

A. Be already adopted by another organizationB. Be able to finance the projectsC. Have problems and needs assistanceD. Have people with expertise to be developed as leaders

75. Which of the following dwelling place should the Nurse choose when integrating with the people?

A. A simple house in the border of Barangay Baritan and San PabloB. A simple house with fencing and gate located in the center of Barangay BaritanC. A modest dwelling place where people will not hesitate

to enterD. A modest dwelling place where people will not hesitate to enter located in the center of the community

76. In choosing a leader in the community during the Organizational phase, Which among these people will you choose?

A. Miguel Zobel, 50 years old, Rich and FamousB. Rustom, 27 years old, ActorC. Mang Ambo, 70, Willing to work for the desired changeD. Ricky, 30 years old, Influential and Willing to work for the desired change

77. Which type of leadership style should the leaders of the community practice?

A. AutocraticB. DemocraticC. Laissez FaireD. Consultative

78. Setting up Committee on Education and Training is in what phase of COPAR?

A. PreparatoryB. OrganizationalC. Education and TrainingD. Intersectoral CollaborationE. Phase out

79. Community diagnosis is done to come up with a profile of local health situation that will serve as basis of health programs and services. This is done in what phase of COPAR?


80. The people named the community health workers based on the collective decision in accordance with the set criteria. Before they can be trained by the Nurse, The Nurse must first

A. Make a lesson planB. Set learning goals and objectiveC. Assess their learning needsD. Review materials needed for training

81. Nurse Budek wrote a letter to PCSO asking them for assistance in their feeding programs for the community’s nutrition and health projects. PCSO then approved the request and gave Budek 50,000 Pesos and a truckload of rice, fruits and vegetables. Which phase of COPAR did Budek utilized?


82. Ideally, How many years should the Nurse stay in the

community before he can phase out and be assured of a Self Reliant community?

A. 5 yearsB. 10 yearsC. 1 yearD. 6 months

83. Major discussion in community organization are made by

A. The nurseB. The leaders of each committeeC. The entire groupD. Collaborating Agencies

84. The nurse should know that Organizational plan best succeeds when

1. People sees its values2. People think its antagonistic professionally3. It is incompatible with their personal beliefs4. It is compatible with their personal beliefs


85. Nurse Budek made a proposal that people should turn their backyard into small farming lots to plant vegetables and fruits. He specified that the objective is to save money in buying vegetables and fruits that tend to have a fluctuating and cyclical price. Which step in Community organizing process did he utilized?

A. Fact findingB. Determination of needsC. Program formationD. Education and Interpretation

86. One of the critical steps in COPAR is becoming one with the people and understanding their culture and lifestyle. Which critical step in COPAR will the Nurse try to immerse himself in the community?

A. IntegrationB. Social MobilizationC. Ground WorkD. Mobilization

87. The Actual exercise of people power occurs during when?


88. Which steps in COPAR trains indigenous and informal leaders?

A. Ground WorkB. MobilizationC. Core Group formationD. Integration

89. As a PHN, One of your role is to organize the community. Nurse Budek knows that the purposes of community organizing are

1. Move the community to act on their own problems2. Make people aware of their own problems3. Enable the nurse to solve the community problems4. Offer people means of solving their own problems

A. 1,2,3B. 1,2,3,4C. 1,2D. 1,2,4

90. This is considered the first act of integrating with the people. This gives an in depth participation in community health problems and needs.

A. Residing in the area of assignmentB. Listing down the name of person to contact for courtesy callC. Gathering initial information about the communityD. Preparing Agenda for the first meeting

SITUATION : Health education is the process whereby knowledge, attitude and practice of people are changed to improve individual, family and community health.

91. Which of the following is the correct sequence in health education?

1. Information2. Communication3. Education

A. 1,2,3B. 3,2,1C. 1,3,2D. 3,1,2

92. The health status of the people is greatly affected and determined by which of the following?

A. Behavioral factorsB. Socioeconomic factorsC. Political factorsD. Psychological factors

93. Nurse Budek is conducting a health teaching to Agnesia, 50 year old breast cancer survivor needing rehabilitative measures. He knows that health education is effective when

A. Agnesia recites the procedure and instructions perfectlyB. Agnesia’s behavior and outlook in life was changed positivelyC. Agnesia gave feedback to Budek saying that she understood the instructionD. Agnesia requested a written instruction from Budek

94. Which of the following is true about health education?

A. It helps people attain their health through the nurse’s sole effortsB. It should not be flexibleC. It is a fast and mushroom like process

D. It is a slow and continuous process

95. Which of the following factors least influence the learning readiness of an adult learner?

A. The individuals stage of developmentB. Ability to concentrate on information to be learnedC. The individual’s psychosocial adaptation to his illnessD. The internal impulses that drive the person to take action

96. Which of the following is the most important condition for diabetic patients to learn how to control their diet?

A. Use of pamphlets and other materials during instructionsB. Motivation to be symptom freeC. Ability of the patient to understand teaching instructionD. Language used by the nurse

97. An important skill that a primigravida has to acquire is the ability to bathe her newborn baby and clean her breast if she decides to breastfeed her baby, Which of the following learning domain will you classify the above goals?

A. PsychomotorB. CognitiveC. AffectiveD. Attitudinal

98. When you prepare your teaching plan for a group of hypertensive patients, you first formulate your learning objectives. Which of the following steps in the nursing process corresponds to the writing of the learning objectives?

A. PlanningB. ImplementingC. EvaluationC. Assessment

99. Rose, 50 years old and newly diagnosed diabetic patient must learn how to inject insulin. Which of the following physical attribute is not in anyway related to her ability to administer insulin?

A. StrengthB. CoordinationC. DexterityD. Muscle Built

100. Appearance and disposition of clients are best observed initially during which of the following situation?

A. Taking V/SB. InterviewC. Implementation of the initial careD. Actual Physical examination

COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING EXAMINATION PART I Answer Key

Outline :

I. EpidemiologyII. Vital StatisticsIII. FHSISIV. COPARV. Health Education

SITUATION : Epidemiology and Vital statistics is a very important tool that a nurse could use in controlling the spread of disease in the community and at the same time, surveying the impact of the disease on the population and prevent it’s future occurrence.

1. It is concerned with the study of factors that influence the occurrence and distribution of diseases, defects, disability or death which occurs in groups or aggregation of individuals.


2. Which of the following is the backbone in disease prevention?


3. Which of the following type of research could show how community expectations can result in the actual provision of services?

A. Basic ResearchB. Operational ResearchC. Action ResearchD. Applied Research

4. An outbreak of measles has been reported in Community A. As a nurse, which of the following is your first action for an Epidemiological investigation?

A. Classify if the outbreak of measles is epidemic or just sporadicB. Report the incidence into the RHUC. Determine the first day when the outbreak occurredD. Identify if it is the disease which it is reported to be

5. After the epidemiological investigation produced final conclusions, which of the following is your initial step in your operational procedure during disease outbreak?

A. Coordinate personnel from Municipal to the National levelB. Collect pertinent laboratory specimen to confirm disease causationC. Immunize nearby communities with MeaslesD. Educate the community in future prevention of similar outbreaks

6. The main concern of a public health nurse is the prevention of disease, prolonging of life and promoting physical health and efficiency through which of the following?

A. Use of epidemiological tools and vital health statisticsB. Determine the spread and occurrence of the diseaseC. Political empowerment and Socio Economic AssistanceD. Organized Community Efforts

7. In order to control a disease effectively, which of the following must first be known?

1. The conditions surrounding its occurrence2. Factors that do not favor its development3. The condition that do not surround its occurrence4. Factors that favors its development


8. All of the following are uses of epidemiology except:

A. To study the history of health population and the rise and fall of diseaseB. To diagnose the health of the community and the condition of the peopleC. To provide summary data on health service deliveryD. To identify groups needing special attention

9. Before reporting the fact of presence of an epidemic, which of the following is of most importance to determine?

A. Are the facts complete?B. Is the disease real?C. Is the disease tangible?D. Is it epidemic or endemic?

10. An unknown epidemic has just been reported in Barangay Dekbudekbu. People said that affected person demonstrates hemorrhagic type of fever. You are designated now to plan for epidemiological investigation. Arrange the sequence of events in accordance with the correct outline plan for epidemiological investigation.

1. Report the presence of dengue2. Summarize data and conclude the final picture of epidemic3. Relate the occurrence to the population group, facilities, food supply and carriers4. Determine if the disease is factual or real5. Determine any unusual prevalence of the disease and its nature; is it epidemic, sporadic, endemic or pandemic?6. Determine onset and the geographical limitation of the disease.

A. 4,1,3,5,2,6B. 4,1,5,6,3,2C. 5,4,6,2,1,3D. 5,4,6,1,2,3E. 1,2,3,4,5,6

11. In the occurrence of SARS and other pandemics, which

of the following is the most vital role of a nurse in epidemiology?

A. Health promotionB. Disease preventionC. SurveillanceD. Casefinding

12. Measles outbreak has been reported in Barangay Bahay Toro, After conducting an epidemiological investigation you have confirmed that the outbreak is factual. You are tasked to lead a team of medical workers for operational procedure in disease outbreak. Arrange the correct sequence of events that you must do to effectively contain the disease

1. Create a final report and recommendation2. Perform nasopharyngeal swabbing to infected individuals3. Perform mass measles immunization to vulnerable groups4. Perform an environmental sanitation survey on the immediate environment5. Organize your team and Coordinate the personnels6. Educate the community on disease transmission

A. 1,2,3,4,5,6B. 6,5,4,3,2,1C. 5,6,4,2,3,1D. 5,2,3,4,6,1

13. All of the following are function of Nurse Budek in epidemiology except

A. Laboratory DiagnosisB. Surveillance of disease occurrenceC. Follow up cases and contactsD. Refer cases to hospitals if necessaryE. Isolate cases of communicable disease

14. All of the following are performed in team organization except

A. Orientation and demonstration of methodology to be employedB. Area assignments of team membersC. Check team’s equipments and paraphernaliaD. Active case finding and Surveillance

15. Which of the following is the final output of data reporting in epidemiological operational procedure?

A. RecommendationB. EvaluationC. Final ReportD. Preliminary report

16. The office in charge with registering vital facts in the Philippines is none other than the

A. PCSOB PAGCORC. DOHD. NSO

17. The following are possible sources of Data except:

A. ExperienceB. Census

C. SurveysD. Research

18. This refers to systematic study of vital events such as births, illnesses, marriages, divorces and deaths


19. In case of clerical errors in your birth certificate, Where should you go to have it corrected?

A. NSOB. Court of AppealsC. Municipal Trial CourtD. Local Civil Registrar

20. Acasia just gave birth to Lestat, A healthy baby boy. Who are going to report the birth of Baby Lestat?

A. NurseB. MidwifeC. OB GyneD. Birth Attendant

21. In reporting the birth of Baby Lestat, where will he be registered?

A. At the Local Civil RegistrarB. In the National Statistics OfficeC. In the City Health DepartmentD. In the Field Health Services and Information System Main Office

22. Deejay, The birth attendant noticed that Lestat has low set of ears, Micrognathia, Microcephaly and a typical cat like cry. What should Deejay do?

A. Bring Lestat immediately to the nearest hospitalB. Ask his assistant to call the nearby pediatricianC. Bring Lestat to the nearest pediatric clinicD. Call a Taxi and together with Acasia, Bring Lestat to the nearest hospital

23. Deejay would suspect which disorder?

A. Trisomy 21B. Turners SyndromeC. Cri Du ChatD. Klinefelters Syndrome

24. Deejay could expect which of the following congenital anomaly that would accompany this disorder?

A. AVSDB. PDAC. TOFD. TOGV

26. Which presidential decree orders reporting of births within 30 days after its occurrence?

A. 651B. 541

C. 996D. 825

25. These rates are referred to the total living population, It must be presumed that the total population was exposed to the risk of occurrence of the event.

A. RateB. RatioC. Crude/General RatesD. Specific Rate

26. These are used to describe the relationship between two numerical quantities or measures of events without taking particular considerations to the time or place.

A. RateB. RatiosC. Crude/General RateD. Specific Rate

27. This is the most sensitive index in determining the general health condition of a community since it reflects the changes in the environment and medical conditions of a community

A. Crude death rateB. Infant mortality rateC. Maternal mortality rateD. Fetal death rate

28. According to the WHO, which of the following is the most frequent cause of death in children underfive worldwide in the 2003 WHO Survey?

A. NeonatalB. PneumoniaC. DiarrheaD. HIV/AIDS

29. In the Philippines, what is the most common cause of death of infants according to the latest survey?

A. PneumoniaB. DiarrheaC. Other perinatal conditionD. Respiratory condition of fetus and newborn

30. The major cause of mortality from 1999 up to 2002 in the Philippines are

A. Diseases of the heartB. Diseases of the vascular systemC. PneumoniasD. Tuberculosis

31. Alicia, a 9 year old child asked you “ What is the common cause of death in my age group here in the Philippines? “ The nurse is correct if he will answer

A. Pneumonia is the top leading cause of death in children age 5 to 9B. Malignant neoplasm if common in your age groupC. Probability wise, You might die due to accidentsD. Diseases of the respiratory system is the most common cause of death in children

32. In children 1 to 4 years old, which is the most common cause of death?

A. DiarrheaB. AccidentsC. PneumoniaD. Diseases of the heart

33. Working in the community as a PHN for almost 10 years, Aida knew the fluctuation in vital statistics. She knew that the most common cause of morbidity among the Filipinos is

A. Diseases of the heartB. DiarrheaC. PneumoniaD. Vascular system diseases

34. Nurse Aida also knew that most maternal deaths are caused by

A. HemorrhageB. Other Complications related to pregnancy occurring in the course of labor, delivery and puerperiumC. Hypertension complicating pregnancy, childbirth and puerperiumD. Abortion

SITUATION : Barangay PinoyBSN has the following data in year 2006

1. July 1 population : 254,3162. Livebirths : 2,2893. Deaths from maternal cause : 154. Death from CVD : 3,0295. Deaths under 1 year of age : 236. Fetal deaths : 87. Deaths under 28 days : 88. Death due to rabies : 459. Registered cases of rabies : 4510. People with pneumonia : 7911. People exposed with pneumonia : 2,59312. Total number of deaths from all causes : 10,998

The following questions refer to these data

35. What is the crude birth rate of Barangay PinoyBSN?

A. 90/100,000B. 9/100C. 90/1000D. 9/1000

36. What is the cause specific death rate from cardiovascular diseases?

A. 27/100B. 1191/100,000C. 27/100,000D. 1.1/1000

37. What is the Maternal Mortality rate of this barangay?

A. 6.55/1000B. 5.89/1000

C. 1.36/1000D. 3.67/1000

38. What is the fetal death rate?

A. 3.49/1000B. 10.04/1000C. 3.14/1000D. 3.14/100,000

39. What is the attack rate of pneumonia?

A. 3.04/1000B. 7.18/1000C. 32.82/100D. 3.04/100

40. Determine the Case fatality ratio of rabies in this Barangay

A. 1/100B. 100%C. 1%D. 100/1000

41. The following are all functions of the nurse in vital statistics, which of the following is not?

A. Consolidate DataB. Collects DataC. Analyze DataD. Tabulate Data

42. The following are Notifiable diseases that needs to have a tally sheet in data reporting, Which one is not?

A. HypertensionB. BronchiolitisC. Chemical PoisoningD. Accidents

43. Which of the following requires reporting within 24 hours?

A. Neonatal tetanusB. MeaslesC. HypertensionD. Tetanus

44. Which Act declared that all communicable disease be reported to the nearest health station?

A. 1082B. 1891C. 3573D. 6675

45. In the RHU Team, Which professional is directly responsible in caring a sick person who is homebound?

A. MidwifeB. NurseC. BHWD. Physician

46. During epidemics, which of the following

epidemiological function will you have to perform first?

A. Teaching the community on disease preventionB. Assessment on suspected casesC. Monitor the condition of people affectedD. Determining the source and nature of the epidemic

47. Which of the following is a POINT SOURCE epidemic?

A. Dengue H.FB. MalariaC. Contaminated Water SourceD. Tuberculosis

48. All but one is a characteristic of a point source epidemic, which one is not?

A. The spread of the disease is caused by a common vehicleB. The disease is usually caused by contaminated foodC. There is a gradual increase of casesD. Epidemic is usually sudden

49. The only Microorganism monitored in cases of contaminated water is

A. Vibrio CholeraB. Escherichia ColiC. Entamoeba HistolyticaD. Coliform Test

50. Dengue increase in number during June, July and August. This pattern is called

A. EpidemicB. EndemicC. CyclicalD. Secular

SITUATION : Field health services and information system provides summary data on health service delivery and selected program from the barangay level up to the national level. As a nurse, you should know the process on how these information became processed and consolidated.

51. All of the following are objectives of FHSIS Except

A. To complete the clinical picture of chronic disease and describe their natural historyB. To provide standardized, facility level data base which can be accessed for more in depth studiesC. To minimize recording and reporting burden allowing more time for patient care and promotive activitiesD. To ensure that data reported are useful and accurate and are disseminated in a timely and easy to use fashion

52. What is the fundamental block or foundation of the field health service information system?


53. What is the primary advantage of having a target client list?

A. Nurses need not to go back to FTR to monitor treatment and services to beneficiaries thus saving time and effortB. Help monitor service rendered to clients in generalC. Facilitate monitoring and supervision of servicesD. Facilitates easier reporting

54. Which of the following is used to monitor particular groups that are qualified as eligible to a certain program of the DOH?


55. In using the tally sheet, what is the recommended frequency in tallying activities and services?

A. DailyB. WeeklyC. MonthlyD. Quarterly

56. When is the counting of the tally sheet done?

A. At the end of the dayB. At the end of the weekC. At the end of the monthD. At the end of the year

57. Target client list will be transmitted to the next facility in the form of


58. All but one of the following are eligible target client list

A. Leprosy casesB. TB casesC. Prenatal careD. Diarrhea cases

59. This is the only mechanism through which data are routinely transmitted from once facility to another


60. FHSIS/Q-3 Or the report for environmental health activities is prepared how frequently?

A. DailyB. WeeklyC. QuarterlyD. Yearly

61. Nurse Budek is preparing the reporting form for weekly notifiable diseases. He knew that he will code the report form as


62. In preparing the maternal death report, which of the following correctly codes this occurrence?


63. Where should Nurse Budek bring the reporting forms if he is in the BHU Facility?


64. After bringing the reporting forms in the right facility for processing, Nurse Budek knew that the output reports are solely produced by what office?


65. Mang Raul entered the health center complaining of fatigue and frequent syncope. You assessed Mang Raul and found out that he is severely malnourished and anemic. What record should you get first to document these findings?


66. The information about Mang Raul’s address, full name, age, symptoms and diagnosis is recorded in


67. Another entry is to be made for Mang Raul because he is in the target client’s list, In what TCL should Mang Raul’s entry be documented?

A. TCL Eligible PopulationB. TCL Family PlanningC. TCL NutritionD. TCL Pre Natal

68. The nurse uses the FHSIS Record system incorrectly when she found out that

A. She go to the individual or FTR for entry confirmation in the Tally/Report SummaryB. She refer to other sources for completing monthly and quarterly reports

C. She records diarrhea in the Tally sheet/Report form with a code FHSIS/M-1D. She records a Child who have frequent diarrhea in TCL : Under Five

69. The BHS Is the lowest level of reporting unit in FHSIS. A BHS can be considered a reporting unit if all of the following are met except

A. It renders service to 3 barangaysB. There is a midwife the regularly renders service to the areaC. The BHS Have no mother BHSD. It should be a satellite BHS

70. Data submitted to the PHO is processed using what type of technology?

A. InternetB. MicrocomputerC. SupercomputerD. Server Interlink Connections

SITUATION : Community organizing is a process by which people, health services and agencies of the community are brought together to act and solve their own problems.

71. Mang ambo approaches you for counseling. You are an effective counselor if you

A. Give good advice to Mang AmboB. Identify Mang Ambo’s problemsC. Convince Mang Ambo to follow your adviceD. Help Mang Ambo identify his problems

72. As a newly appointed PHN instructed to organize Barangay Baritan, Which of the following is your initial step in organizing the community for initial action?

A. Study the Barangay Health statistics and recordsB. Make a courtesy call to the Barangay CaptainC. Meet with the Barangay Captain to make plansD. Make a courtesy call to the Municipal Mayor

73. Preparatory phase is the first phase in organizing the community. Which of the following is the initial step in the preparatory phase?

A. Area selectionB. Community profilingC. Entry in the communityD. Integration with the people

74. the most important factor in determining the proper area for community organizing is that this area should

A. Be already adopted by another organizationB. Be able to finance the projectsC. Have problems and needs assistanceD. Have people with expertise to be developed as leaders

75. Which of the following dwelling place should the Nurse choose when integrating with the people?

A. A simple house in the border of Barangay Baritan and San Pablo

B. A simple house with fencing and gate located in the center of Barangay BaritanC. A modest dwelling place where people will not hesitate to enterD. A modest dwelling place where people will not hesitate to enter located in the center of the community

76. In choosing a leader in the community during the Organizational phase, Which among these people will you choose?

A. Miguel Zobel, 50 years old, Rich and FamousB. Rustom, 27 years old, ActorC. Mang Ambo, 70, Willing to work for the desired changeD. Ricky, 30 years old, Influential and Willing to work for the desired change

77. Which type of leadership style should the leaders of the community practice?

A. AutocraticB. DemocraticC. Laissez FaireD. Consultative

78. Setting up Committee on Education and Training is in what phase of COPAR?


79. Community diagnosis is done to come up with a profile of local health situation that will serve as basis of health programs and services. This is done in what phase of COPAR?


80. The people named the community health workers based on the collective decision in accordance with the set criteria. Before they can be trained by the Nurse, The Nurse must first

A. Make a lesson planB. Set learning goals and objectiveC. Assess their learning needsD. Review materials needed for training

81. Nurse Budek wrote a letter to PCSO asking them for assistance in their feeding programs for the community’s nutrition and health projects. PCSO then approved the request and gave Budek 50,000 Pesos and a truckload of rice, fruits and vegetables. Which phase of COPAR did Budek utilized?

A. PreparatoryB. OrganizationalC. Education and TrainingD. Intersectoral Collaboration

E. Phase out

82. Ideally, How many years should the Nurse stay in the community before he can phase out and be assured of a Self Reliant community?

A. 5 yearsB. 10 yearsC. 1 yearD. 6 months

83. Major discussion in community organization are made by

A. The nurseB. The leaders of each committeeC. The entire groupD. Collaborating Agencies

84. The nurse should know that Organizational plan best succeeds when

1. People sees its values2. People think its antagonistic professionally3. It is incompatible with their personal beliefs4. It is compatible with their personal beliefs


85. Nurse Budek made a proposal that people should turn their backyard into small farming lots to plant vegetables and fruits. He specified that the objective is to save money in buying vegetables and fruits that tend to have a fluctuating and cyclical price. Which step in Community organizing process did he utilized?

A. Fact findingB. Determination of needsC. Program formationD. Education and Interpretation

86. One of the critical steps in COPAR is becoming one with the people and understanding their culture and lifestyle. Which critical step in COPAR will the Nurse try to immerse himself in the community?


87. The Actual exercise of people power occurs during when?


88. Which steps in COPAR trains indigenous and informal leaders?

A. Ground Work

B. MobilizationC. Core Group formationD. Integration

89. As a PHN, One of your role is to organize the community. Nurse Budek knows that the purposes of community organizing are

1. Move the community to act on their own problems2. Make people aware of their own problems3. Enable the nurse to solve the community problems4. Offer people means of solving their own problems

A. 1,2,3B. 1,2,3,4C. 1,2D. 1,2,4

90. This is considered the first act of integrating with the people. This gives an in depth participation in community health problems and needs.

A. Residing in the area of assignmentB. Listing down the name of person to contact for courtesy callC. Gathering initial information about the communityD. Preparing Agenda for the first meeting

SITUATION : Health education is the process whereby knowledge, attitude and practice of people are changed to improve individual, family and community health.

91. Which of the following is the correct sequence in health education?

1. Information2. Communication3. Education

A. 1,2,3B. 3,2,1C. 1,3,2D. 3,1,2

92. The health status of the people is greatly affected and determined by which of the following?

A. Behavioral factorsB. Socioeconomic factorsC. Political factorsD. Psychological factors

93. Nurse Budek is conducting a health teaching to Agnesia, 50 year old breast cancer survivor needing rehabilitative measures. He knows that health education is effective when

A. Agnesia recites the procedure and instructions perfectlyB. Agnesia’s behavior and outlook in life was changed positivelyC. Agnesia gave feedback to Budek saying that she understood the instructionD. Agnesia requested a written instruction from Budek

94. Which of the following is true about health education?

A. It helps people attain their health through the nurse’s sole

effortsB. It should not be flexibleC. It is a fast and mushroom like processD. It is a slow and continuous process

95. Which of the following factors least influence the learning readiness of an adult learner?

A. The individuals stage of developmentB. Ability to concentrate on information to be learnedC. The individual’s psychosocial adaptation to his illnessD. The internal impulses that drive the person to take action

96. Which of the following is the most important condition for diabetic patients to learn how to control their diet?

A. Use of pamphlets and other materials during instructionsB. Motivation to be symptom freeC. Ability of the patient to understand teaching instructionD. Language used by the nurse

97. An important skill that a primigravida has to acquire is the ability to bathe her newborn baby and clean her breast if she decides to breastfeed her baby, Which of the following learning domain will you classify the above goals?

A. PsychomotorB. CognitiveC. AffectiveD. Attitudinal

98. When you prepare your teaching plan for a group of hypertensive patients, you first formulate your learning objectives. Which of the following steps in the nursing process corresponds to the writing of the learning objectives?

A. PlanningB. ImplementingC. EvaluationC. Assessment

99. Rose, 50 years old and newly diagnosed diabetic patient must learn how to inject insulin. Which of the following physical attribute is not in anyway related to her ability to administer insulin?

A. StrengthB. CoordinationC. DexterityD. Muscle Built

100. Appearance and disposition of clients are best observed initially during which of the following situation?

A. Taking V/SB. InterviewC. Implementation of the initial careD. Actual Physical examination

FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING TEST I

Content Outline

1. Professional NursingA. Historical perspectives in nursingB. Nursing as a professionC. Theories in nursingD. Health care delivery system

1. The four major concepts in nursing theory are the

A. Person, Environment, Nurse, HealthB. Nurse, Person, Environment, CureC. Promotive, Preventive, Curative, RehabilitativeD. Person, Environment, Nursing, Health

2. The act of utilizing the environment of the patient to assist him in his recovery is theorized by

A. NightingaleB. BennerC. SwansonD. King

3. For her, Nursing is a theoretical system of knowledge that prescribes a process of analysis and action related to care of the ill person

A. KingB. HendersonC. RoyD. Leininger

4. According to her, Nursing is a helping or assistive profession to persons who are wholly or partly dependent or when those who are supposedly caring for them are no longer able to give care.

A. HendersonB. OremC. SwansonD. Neuman

5. Nursing is a unique profession, Concerned with all the variables affecting an individual’s response to stressors, which are intra, inter and extra personal in nature.

A. NeumanB. JohnsonC. WatsonD. Parse

6. The unique function of the nurse is to assist the individual, sick or well, in the performance of those activities contributing to health that he would perform unaided if he has the necessary strength, will and knowledge, and do this in such a way as to help him gain independence as rapidly as possible.

A. HendersonB. AbdellahC. LevinD. Peplau

7. Caring is the essence and central unifying, a dominant domain that distinguishes nursing from other health disciplines. Care is an essential human need.

A. BennerB. WatsonC. LeiningerD. Swanson

8. Caring involves 5 processes, KNOWING, BEING WITH, DOING FOR, ENABLING and MAINTAINING BELIEF.


9. Caring is healing, it is communicated through the consciousness of the nurse to the individual being cared for. It allows access to higher human spirit.


10. Caring means that person, events, projects and things matter to people. It reveals stress and coping options. Caring creates responsibility. It is an inherent feature of nursing practice. It helps the nurse assist clients to recover in the face of the illness.


11. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about profession according to Marie Jahoda?

A. A profession is an organization of an occupational group based on the application of special knowledgeB. It serves specific interest of a groupC. It is altruisticD. Quality of work is of greater importance than the rewards

12. Which of the following is NOT an attribute of a professional?

A. Concerned with quantityB. Self directedC. Committed to spirit of inquiryD. Independent

13. The most unique characteristic of nursing as a profession is

A. EducationB. TheoryC. CaringD. Autonomy

14. This is the distinctive individual qualities that differentiate a person to another

A. PhilosophyB. PersonalityC. CharmD. Character

15. Refers to the moral values and beliefs that are used as guides to personal behavior and actions


16. As a nurse manager, which of the following best describes this function?

A. Initiate modification on client’s lifestyleB. Protect client’s rightC. Coordinates the activities of other members of the health team in managing patient careD. Provide in service education programs, Use accurate nursing audit, formulate philosophy and vision of the institution.

17. What best describes nurses as a care provider?

A. Determine client’s needB. Provide direct nursing careC. Help client recognize and cope with stressful psychological situationD. Works in combined effort with all those involved in patient’s care

18. The nurse questions a doctors order of Morphine sulfate 50 mg, IM for a client with pancreatitis. Which role best fit that statement?

A. Change agentB. Client advocateC. Case managerD. Collaborator

19. These are nursing intervention that requires knowledge, skills and expertise of multiple health professionals.

A. DependentB. IndependentC. InterdependentD. Intradependent20. What type of patient care model is the most common for student nurses and private duty nurses?

A. Total patient careB. Team nursingC. Primary NursingD. Case management

21. This is the best patient care model when there are many nurses but few patients.

A. Functional nursingB. Team nursingC. Primary nursingD. Total patient care

22. This patient care model works best when there are plenty

of patient but few nurses


23. RN assumes 24 hour responsibility for the client to maintain continuity of care across shifts, days or visits.


24. Who developed the first theory of nursing?

A. HammurabiB. AlexanderC. FabiolaD. Nightingale

25. She introduces the NATURE OF NURSING MODEL.

A. HendersonB. NightingaleC. ParseD. Orlando

26. She described the four conservation principle.

A. LevinB. LeiningerC. OrlandoD. Parse

27. Proposed the HEALTH CARE SYSTEM MODEL.

A. HendersonB. OremC. ParseD. Neuman

28. Conceptualized the BEHAVIORAL SYSTEM MODEL

A. OremB. JohnsonC. HendersonD. Parse

29. Developed the CLINICAL NURSING – A HELPING ART MODEL

A. SwansonB. HallC. WeidenbachD. Zderad

30. Developed the ROLE MODELING and MODELING theory

A. Erickson,Tomlin,SwainB. NeumanC. NewmanD. Benner and Wrubel

31. Proposed the GRAND THEORY OF NURSING AS CARING

A. Erickson, Tomlin, SwainB. Peterson,ZderadC. Bnner,WrubelD. Boykin,Schoenhofer

32. Postulated the INTERPERSONAL ASPECT OF NURSING

A. TravelbeeB. SwansonC. ZderadD. Peplau

33. He proposed the theory of morality that is based on MUTUAL TRUST

A. FreudB. EriksonC. KohlbergD. Peters

34. He proposed the theory of morality based on PRINCIPLESA. FreudB. EriksonC. KohlbergD. Peters

35. Freud postulated that child adopts parental standards and traits through

A. ImitationB. IntrojectionC. IdentificationD. Regression

36. According to them, Morality is measured of how people treat human being and that a moral child strives to be kind and just

A. Zderad and PetersonB. Benner and WrubelC. Fowler and WesterhoffD. Schulman and Mekler

37. Postulated that FAITH is the way of behaving. He developed four theories of faith and development based on his experience.

A. GiliganB. WesterhoffC. FowlerD. Freud

38. He described the development of faith. He suggested that faith is a spiritual dimension that gives meaning to a persons life. Faith according to him, is a relational phenomenon.

A. GiliganB. WesterhoffC. Fowler

D. Freud

39. Established in 1906 by the Baptist foreign mission society of America. Miss rose nicolet, was it’s first superintendent.

A. St. Paul Hospital School of nursingB. Iloilo Mission Hospital School of nursingC. Philippine General Hospital School of nursingD. St. Luke’s Hospital School of nursing

40. Anastacia Giron-Tupas was the first Filipino nurse to occupy the position of chief nurse in this hospital.

A. St. Paul HospitalB. Iloilo Mission HospitalC. Philippine General HospitalD. St. Luke’s Hospital

41. She was the daughter of Hungarian kings, who feed 300-900 people everyday in their gate, builds hospitals, and care of the poor and sick herself.

A. ElizabethB. CatherineC. NightingaleD. Sairey Gamp

42. She dies of yellow fever in her search for truth to prove that yellow fever is carried by a mosquitoes.

A. Clara louise MaasB. Pearl TuckerC. Isabel Hampton RobbD. Caroline Hampton Robb

43. He was called the father of sanitation.

A. AbrahamB. HippocratesC. MosesD. Willam Halstead

44. The country where SHUSHURUTU originated

A. ChinaB. EgyptC. IndiaD. Babylonia

45. They put girls clothes on male infants to drive evil forces away

A. ChineseB. EgyptianC. IndianD. Babylonian

46. In what period of nursing does people believe in TREPHINING to drive evil forces away?

A. Dark periodB. Intuitive periodC. Contemporary periodD. Educative period

47. This period ended when Pastor Fliedner, build Kaiserwerth institute for the training of Deaconesses

A. Apprentice periodB. Dark periodC. Contemporary periodD. Educative period

48. Period of nursing where religious Christian orders emerged to take care of the sick


49. Founded the second order of St. Francis of Assisi

A. St. CatherineB. St. AnneC. St. ClareD. St. Elizabeth

50. This period marked the religious upheaval of Luther, Who questions the Christian faith.


51. According to the Biopsychosocial and spiritual theory of Sister Callista Roy, Man, As a SOCIAL being is

A. Like all other menB. Like some other menC. Like no other menD. Like men

52. She conceptualized that man, as an Open system is in constant interaction and transaction with a changing environment.

A. RoyB. LevinC. NeumanD. Newman

53. In a CLOSED system, which of the following is true?

A. Affected by matterB. A sole island in vast oceanC. Allows inputD. Constantly affected by matter, energy, information

54. Who postulated the WHOLISTIC concept that the totality is greater than sum of its parts?

A. RoyB. RogersC. HendersonD. Johnson

55. She theorized that man is composed of sub and supra systems. Subsystems are cells, tissues, organs and systems while the suprasystems are family, society and community.


56. Which of the following is not true about the human needs?

A. Certain needs are common to all peopleB. Needs should be followed exactly in accordance with their hierarchyC. Needs are stimulated by internal factorsD. Needs are stimulated by external factors

57. Which of the following is TRUE about the human needs?

A. May not be deferredB. Are not interrelatedC. Met in exact and rigid wayD. Priorities are alterable

58. According to Maslow, which of the following is NOT TRUE about a self actualized person?

A. Understands poetry, music, philosophy, science etc.B. Desires privacy, autonomousC. Follows the decision of the majority, uphold justice and truthD. Problem centered

59. According to Maslow, which of the following is TRUE about a self actualized person?

A. Makes decision contrary to public opinionB. Do not predict eventsC. Self centeredD. Maximum degree of self conflict

60. This is the essence of mental health

A. Self awarenessB. Self actualizationC. Self esteemD. Self worth

61. Florence nightingale is born in

A. GermanyB. BritainC. FranceD. Italy

62. Which is unlikely of Florence Nightingale?

A. Born May 12, 1840B. Built St. Thomas school of nursing when she was 40 years oldC. Notes in nursingD. Notes in hospital

63. What country did Florence Nightingale train in nursing?

A. BelgiumB. US

C. GermanyD. England64. Which of the following is recognized for developing the concept of HIGH LEVEL WELLNESS?

A. EriksonB. MadawC. PeplauD. Dunn

65. One of the expectations is for nurses to join professional association primarily because of

A. Promotes advancement and professional growth among its membersB. Works for raising funds for nurse’s benefitC. Facilitate and establishes acquaintancesD. Assist them and securing jobs abroad

66. Founder of the PNA

A. Julita SotejoB. Anastacia Giron TupasC. Eufemia OctavianoD. Anesia Dionisio

67. Which of the following provides that nurses must be a member of a national nurse organization?

A. R.A 877B. 1981 Code of ethics approved by the house of delegates and the PNAC. Board resolution No. 1955 Promulgated by the BOND. RA 7164

68. Which of the following best describes the action of a nurse who documents her nursing diagnosis?

A. She documents it and charts it whenever necessaryB. She can be accused of malpracticeC. She does it regularly as an important responsibilityD. She charts it only when the patient is acutely ill

69. Which of the following does not govern nursing practice?

A. RA 7164B. RA 9173C. BON Res. Code Of EthicsD. BON Res. Scope of Nursing Practice

70. A nurse who is maintaining a private clinic in the community renders service on maternal and child health among the neighborhood for a fee is:

A. Primary care nurseB. Independent nurse practitionerC. Nurse-MidwifeD. Nurse specialist

71. When was the PNA founded?

A. September 22, 1922B. September 02, 1920C. October 21, 1922D. September 02, 1922

72. Who was the first president of the PNA ?

A. Anastacia Giron-TupasB. Loreto TupasC. Rosario MontenegroD. Ricarda Mendoza

73. Defines health as the ability to maintain internal milieu. Illness according to him/her/them is the failure to maintain internal environment.

A. CannonB. BernardC. Leddy and PepperD. Roy

74. Postulated that health is a state and process of being and becoming an integrated and whole person.

A. CannonB. BernardC. DunnD. Roy

75. What regulates HOMEOSTASIS according to the theory of Walter Cannon?

A. Positive feedbackB. Negative feedbackC. Buffer systemD. Various mechanisms

76. Stated that health is WELLNESS. A termed define by the culture or an individual.

A. RoyB. HendersonC. RogersD. King

77. Defined health as a dynamic state in the life cycle, and Illness as interference in the life cycle.


78. She defined health as the soundness and wholness of developed human structure and bodily mental functioning.

A. OremB. HendersonC. NeumanD. Clark

79. According to her, Wellness is a condition in which all parts and subparts of an individual are in harmony with the whole system.

A. OremB. HendersonC. NeumanD. Johnson

80. Postulated that health is reflected by the organization, interaction, interdependence and integration of the subsystem of the behavioral system.


81. According to them, Well being is a subjective perception of BALANCE, HARMONY and VITALITY

A. Leavell and ClarkB. Peterson and ZderadC. Benner and WruberD. Leddy and Pepper

82. He describes the WELLNESS-ILLNESS Continuum as interaction of the environment with well being and illness.

A. CannonB. BernardC. DunnD. Clark

83. An integrated method of functioning that is oriented towards maximizing one’s potential within the limitation of the environment.

A. Well beingB. HealthC. Low level WellnessD. High level Wellness

84. What kind of illness precursor, according to DUNN is cigarette smoking?

A. HeredityB. SocialC. BehavioralD. Environmental

85. According to DUNN, Overcrowding is what type of illness precursor?


86. Health belief model was formulated in 1975 by who?

A. BeckerB. SmithC. DunnD. Leavell and Clark

87. In health belief model, Individual perception matters. Which of the following is highly UNLIKELY to influence preventive behavior?

A. Perceived susceptibility to an illnessB. Perceived seriousness of an illnessC. Perceived threat of an illnessD. Perceived curability of an illness

88. Which of the following is not a PERCEIVED BARRIER in preventive action?

A. Difficulty adhering to the lifestyleB. Economic factorsC. Accessibility of health care facilitiesD. Increase adherence to medical therapies

89. Conceptualizes that health is a condition of actualization or realization of person’s potential. Avers that the highest aspiration of people is fulfillment and complete development actualization.

A. Clinical ModelB. Role performance ModelC. Adaptive ModelD. Eudaemonistic Model

90. Views people as physiologic system and Absence of sign and symptoms equates health.


91. Knowledge about the disease and prior contact with it is what type of VARIABLE according to the health belief model?

A. DemographicB. SociopsychologicC. StructuralD. Cues to action

92. It includes internal and external factors that leads the individual to seek help


93. Influence from peers and social pressure is included in what variable of HBM?


94. Age, Sex, Race etc. is included in what variable of HBM?


95. According to Leavell and Clark’s ecologic model, All of this are factors that affects health and illness except

A. ReservoirB. AgentC. Environment

D. Host

96. Is a multi dimensional model developed by PENDER that describes the nature of persons as they interact within the environment to pursue health

A. Ecologic ModelB. Health Belief ModelC. Health Promotion ModelD. Health Prevention Model

97. Defined by Pender as all activities directed toward increasing the level of well being and self actualization.

A. Health preventionB. Health promotionC. Health teachingD. Self actualization

98. Defined as an alteration in normal function resulting in reduction of capacities and shortening of life span.

A. IllnessB. DiseaseC. HealthD. Wellness

99. Personal state in which a person feels unhealthy


100. According to her, Caring is defined as a nurturant way of responding to a valued client towards whom the nurse feels a sense of commitment and responsibility.

A. Benner B. Watson C. Leininger D. Swanson

FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING TEST I

Content Outline

1. Professional NursingA. Historical perspectives in nursingB. Nursing as a professionC. Theories in nursingD. Health care delivery system

1. The four major concepts in nursing theory are the

A. Person, Environment, Nurse, HealthB. Nurse, Person, Environment, CureC. Promotive, Preventive, Curative, RehabilitativeD. Person, Environment, Nursing, Health

* This is an actual board exam question and is a common board question. Theorist always describes The nursing profession by first defining what is NURSING, followed by the PERSON, ENVIRONMENT and HEALTH CONCEPT. The most popular theory was perhaps Nightingale’s. She defined nursing as the utilization of the persons environment to assist him towards recovery. She defined the person as somebody who has a reparative capabilities mediated and enhanced by factors in his environment. She describes the environment as something that would facilitate the person’s reparative process and identified different factors like sanitation, noise, etc. that affects a person’s reparative state.

2. The act of utilizing the environment of the patient to assist him in his recovery is theorized by

A. NightingaleB. BennerC. SwansonD. King

* Florence nightingale do not believe in the germ theory, and perhaps this was her biggest mistake. Yet, her theory was the first in nursing. She believed that manipulation of environment that includes appropriate noise, nutrition, hygiene, light, comfort, sanitation etc. could provide the client’s body the nurturance it needs for repair and recovery.

3. For her, Nursing is a theoretical system of knowledge that prescribes a process of analysis and action related to care of the ill person

A. KingB. HendersonC. RoyD. Leininger

* Remember the word “ THEOROYTICAL “ For Callista Roy, Nursing is a theoretical body of knowledge that prescribes analysis and action to care for an ill person. She introduced the ADAPTATION MODEL and viewed person as a BIOSPSYCHOSOCIAL BEING. She believed that by adaptation, Man can maintain homeostasis.

4. According to her, Nursing is a helping or assistive profession to persons who are wholly or partly dependent or when those who are supposedly caring for them are no

longer able to give care.

A. HendersonB. OremC. SwansonD. Neuman

* In self care deficit theory, Nursing is defined as A helping or assistive profession to person who are wholly or partly dependent or when people who are to give care to them are no longer available. Self care, are the activities that a person do for himself to maintain health, life and well being.

5. Nursing is a unique profession, Concerned with all the variables affecting an individual’s response to stressors, which are intra, inter and extra personal in nature.

A. NeumanB. JohnsonC. WatsonD. Parse

* Neuman divided stressors as either intra, inter and extra personal in nature. She said that NURSING is concerned with eliminating these stressors to obtain a maximum level of wellness. The nurse helps the client through PRIMARY, SECONDARY AND TERTIARY prevention modes. Please do not confuse this with LEAVELL and CLARK’S level of prevention.

6. The unique function of the nurse is to assist the individual, sick or well, in the performance of those activities contributing to health that he would perform unaided if he has the necessary strength, will and knowledge, and do this in such a way as to help him gain independence as rapidly as possible.

A. HendersonB. AbdellahC. LevinD. Peplau

* This was an actual board question. Remember this definition and associate it with Virginia Henderson. Henderson also describes the NATURE OF NURSING theory. She identified 14 basic needs of the client. She describes nursing roles as SUBSTITUTIVE : Doing everything for the client, SUPPLEMENTARY : Helping the client and COMPLEMENTARY : Working with the client. Breathing normally, Eliminating waste, Eating and drinking adquately, Worship and Play are some of the basic needs according to her.

7. Caring is the essence and central unifying, a dominant domain that distinguishes nursing from other health disciplines. Care is an essential human need.


* There are many theorist that describes nursing as CARE. The most popular was JEAN WATSON'S Human Caring Model. But this question pertains to Leininger's definition of caring. CUD I LIE IN GER? [ Could I Lie In There ] Is the

Mnemonics I am using not to get confused. C stands for CENTRAL , U stands for UNIFYING, D stands for DOMINANT DOMAIN. I emphasize on this matter due to feedback on the last June 2006 batch about a question about CARING.

8. Caring involves 5 processes, KNOWING, BEING WITH, DOING FOR, ENABLING and MAINTAINING BELIEF.


* Caring according to Swanson involves 5 processes. Knowing means understanding the client. Being with emphasizes the Physical presence of the nurse for the patient. Doing for means doing things for the patient when he is incapable of doing it for himself. Enabling means helping client transcend maturational and developmental stressors in life while Maintaining belief is the ability of the Nurse to inculcate meaning to these events.

9. Caring is healing, it is communicated through the consciousness of the nurse to the individual being cared for. It allows access to higher human spirit.


* The deepest and spiritual definition of Caring came from Jean watson. For her, Caring expands the limits of openess and allows access to higher human spirit.

10. Caring means that person, events, projects and things matter to people. It reveals stress and coping options. Caring creates responsibility. It is an inherent feature of nursing practice. It helps the nurse assist clients to recover in the face of the illness.


* I think of CARE BEAR to facilitate retainment of BENNER. As in, Care Benner. For her, Caring means being CONNECTED or making things matter to people. Caring according to Benner give meaning to illness and re establish connection.

11. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about profession according to Marie Jahoda?

A. A profession is an organization of an occupational group based on the application of special knowledgeB. It serves specific interest of a groupC. It is altruisticD. Quality of work is of greater importance than the rewards

* Believe it or not, you should know the definition of profession according to Jahoda because it is asked in the Local boards. A profession should serve the WHOLE

COMMUNITY and not just a specific intrest of a group. Everything else, are correct.

12. Which of the following is NOT an attribute of a professional?

A. Concerned with quantityB. Self directedC. Committed to spirit of inquiryD. Independent

* A professional is concerned with QUALITY and not QUANTITY. In nursing, We have methods of quality assurance and control to evaluate the effectiveness of nursing care. Nurses, are never concerned with QUANTITY of care provided.

13. The most unique characteristic of nursing as a profession is

A. EducationB. TheoryC. CaringD. Autonomy

* Caring and caring alone, is the most unique quality of the Nursing Profession. It is the one the delineate Nursing from other professions.

14. This is the distinctive individual qualities that differentiate a person to another


* Personality are qualities that make us different from each other. These are impressions that we made, or the footprints that we leave behind. This is the result of the integration of one's talents, behavior, appearance, mood, character, morals and impulses into one harmonious whole. Philosophy is the basic truth that fuel our soul and give our life a purpose, it shapes the facets of a person's character. Charm is to attract other people to be a change agent. Character is our moral values and belief that guides our actions in life.

15. Refers to the moral values and beliefs that are used as guides to personal behavior and actions


* Refer to number 14

16. As a nurse manager, which of the following best describes this function?

A. Initiate modification on client’s lifestyleB. Protect client’s rightC. Coordinates the activities of other members of the health team in managing patient careD. Provide in service education programs, Use accurate

nursing audit, formulate philosophy and vision of the institution

* A refers to being a change agent. B is a role of a patient advocate. C is a case manager while D basically summarized functions of a nurse manager. If you haven't read Lydia Venzon's Book : NURSING MANAGEMENT TOWARDS QUALITY CARE, I suggest reading it in advance for your management subjects in the graduate school. Formulating philosophy and vision is in PLANNING. Nursing Audit is in CONTROLLING, In service education programs are included in DIRECTING. These are the processes of Nursing Management, I just forgot to add ORGANIZING which includes formulating an organizational structure and plans, Staffing and developing qualifications and job descriptions.

17. What best describes nurses as a care provider?

A. Determine client’s needB. Provide direct nursing careC. Help client recognize and cope with stressful psychological situationD. Works in combined effort with all those involved in patient’s care

* You can never provide nursing care if you don't know what are the needs of the client. How can you provide an effective postural drainage if you do not know where is the bulk of the client's secretion. Therefore, the best description of a care provider is the accurate and prompt determination of the client's need to be able to render an appropriate nursing care.

18. The nurse questions a doctors order of Morphine sulfate 50 mg, IM for a client with pancreatitis. Which role best fit that statement?

A. Change agentB. Client advocateC. Case managerD. Collaborator

* As a client's advocate, Nurses are to protect the client's right and promotes what is best for the client. Knowing that Morphine causes spasm of the sphincter of Oddi and will lead to further increase in the client's pain, The nurse knew that the best treatment option for the client was not provided and intervene to provide the best possible care.

19. These are nursing intervention that requires knowledge, skills and expertise of multiple health professionals.

A. DependentB. IndependentC. InterdependentD. Intradependent

* Interdependent functions are those that needs expertise and skills of multiple health professionals. Example is when A child was diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome and the doctor ordered a high protein diet, Budek then work together with the dietician about the age appropriate high protein foods that can be given to the child, Including the preparation to entice the child into eating the food. NOTE :

It is still debated if the diet in NS is low, moderate or high protein, In the U.S, Protein is never restricted and can be taken in moderate amount. As far as the local examination is concerned, answer LOW PROTEIN HIGH CALORIC DIET.

20. What type of patient care model is the most common for student nurses and private duty nurses?

A. Total patient careB. Team nursingC. Primary NursingD. Case management

* This is also known as case nursing. It is a method of nursing care wherein, one nurse is assigned to one patient for the delivery of total care. These are the method use by Nursing students, Private duty nurses and those in critical or isolation units.

21. This is the best patient care model when there are many nurses but few patients.


* Total patient care works best if there are many nurses but few patients.

22. This patient care model works best when there are plenty of patient but few nurses


* Functional nursing is task oriented, One nurse is assigned on a particular task leading to task expertise and efficiency. The nurse will work fast because the procedures are repetitive leading to task mastery. This care is not recommended as this leads fragmented nursing care.

23. RN assumes 24 hour responsibility for the client to maintain continuity of care across shifts, days or visits.


* Your keyword in Primary nursing is the 24 hours. This does not necessarily means the nurse is awake for 24 hours, She can have a SECONDARY NURSES that will take care of the patient in shifts where she is not arround.

24. Who developed the first theory of nursing?

A. HammurabiB. AlexanderC. FabiolaD. Nightingale

* Refer to question # 2. Hammurabi is the king of babylon that introduces the LEX TALIONES law, If you kill me, you should be killed... If you rob me, You should be robbed, An eye for an eye and a tooth for a tooth. Alexander the great was the son of King Philip II and is from macedonia but he ruled Greece including Persia and Egypt. He is known to use a hammer to pierce a dying soldier's medulla towards speedy death when he thinks that the soldier will die anyway, just to relieve their suffering. Fabiola was a beautiful roman matron who converted her house into a hospital.

25. She introduces the NATURE OF NURSING MODEL.

A. HendersonB. NightingaleC. ParseD. Orlando

* Refer to question # 6.

26. She described the four conservation principle.

A. LevinB. LeiningerC. OrlandoD. Parse

* Myra Levin described the 4 Conservation principles which are concerned with the Unity and Integrity of an individual. These are ENERGY : Our output to facilitate meeting of our needs. STRUCTURAL INTEGRITY : We mus maintain the integrity of our organs, tissues and systems to be able to function and prevent harmful agents entering our body. PERSONAL INTEGRITY : These refers to our self esteem, self worth, self concept, identify and personality. SOCIAL INTEGRITY : Reflects our societal roles to our society, community, family, friends and fellow individuals.

27. Proposed the HEALTH CARE SYSTEM MODEL.

A. HendersonB. OremC. ParseD. Neuman

* Betty Neuman asserted that nursing is a unique profession and is concerned with all the variables affecting the individual's response to stressors. These are INTRA or within ourselves, EXTRA or outside the individual, INTER means between two or more people. She proposed the HEALTH CARE SYSTEM MODEL which states that by PRIMARY, SECONDARY and TERTIARY prevention, The nurse can help the client maintain stability against these stressors.

28. Conceptualized the BEHAVIORAL SYSTEM MODEL

A. OremB. JohnsonC. HendersonD. Parse

* According to Dorothy Johnson, Each person is a behavioral system that is composed of 7 subsystems. Man

adjust or adapt to stressors by a using a LEARNED PATTERN OF RESPONSE. Man uses his behavior to meet the demands of the environment, and is able to modified his behavior to support these demands.

29. Developed the CLINICAL NURSING – A HELPING ART MODEL

A. SwansonB. HallC. WeidenbachD. Zderad

* Just remember ERNESTINE WEIDENBACHLINICAL.

30. Developed the ROLE MODELING and MODELING theory

A. Erickson,Tomlin,SwainB. NeumanC. NewmanD. Benner and Wrubel

31. Proposed the GRAND THEORY OF NURSING AS CARING

A. Erickson, Tomlin, SwainB. Peterson,ZderadC. Bnner,WrubelD. Boykin,Schoenhofer

* This theory was called GRAND THEORY because boykin and schoenofer thinks that ALL MAN ARE CARING, And that nursing is a response to this unique call. According to them, CARING IS A MORAL IMPERATIVE, meaning, ALL PEOPLE will tend to help a man who fell down the stairs even if he is not trained to do so.

32. Postulated the INTERPERSONAL ASPECT OF NURSING

A. TravelbeeB. SwansonC. ZderadD. Peplau

* Travelbee's theory was referred to as INTERPERSONAL theory because she postulated that NURSING is to assist the individual and all people that affects this individual to cope with illness, recover and FIND MEANING to this experience. For her, Nursing is a HUMAN TO HUMAN relationship that is formed during illness. To her, an individual is a UNIQUE and irreplaceable being in continuous process of becoming, evolving and changing. PLEASE do remember, that it is PARSE who postulated the theory of HUMAN BECOMING and not TRAVELBEE, for I read books that say it was TRAVELBEE and not PARSE.

33. He proposed the theory of morality that is based on MUTUAL TRUST


* Kohlber states that relationships are based on mutual trust. He postulated the levels of morality development. At the first stage called the PREMORAL or preconventional, A child do things and label them as BAD or GOOD depending on the PUNISHMENT or REWARD they get. They have no concept of justice, fairness and equity, for them, If I punch this kid and mom gets mad, thats WRONG. But if I dance and sing, mama smiles and give me a new toy, then I am doing something good. In the Conventional level, The individual actuates his act based on the response of the people around him. He will follow the rules, regulations, laws and morality the society upholds. If the law states that I should not resuscitate this man with a DNR order, then I would not. However, in the Post conventional level or the AUTONOMOUS level, the individual still follows the rules but can make a rule or bend part of these rules according to his own MORALITY. He can change the rules if he thinks that it is needed to be changed. Example is that, A nurse still continue resuscitating the client even if the client has a DNR order because he believes that the client can still recover and his mission is to save lives, not watch patients die.

34. He proposed the theory of morality based on PRINCIPLES


* Remember PETERS for PRINCIPLES. P is to P. He believes that morality has 3 components : EMOTION or how one feels, JUDGEMENT or how one reason and BEHAVIOR or how one actuates his EMOTION and JUDGEMENT. He believes that MORALITY evolves with the development of PRINCPLES or the person's vitrue and traits. He also believes in AUTOMATICITY of virtues or he calls HABIT, like kindness, charity, honesty, sincerity and thirft which are innate to a person and therfore, will be performed automatically.

35. Freud postulated that child adopts parental standards and traits through

A. ImitationB. IntrojectionC. IdentificationD. Regression

* A child, according to Freud adopts parental standards, traits, habits and norms through identication. A good example is the corned beef commercial " WALK LIKE A MAN, TALK LIKE A MAN " Where the child identifies with his father by wearing the same clothes and doing the same thing.

36. According to them, Morality is measured of how people treat human being and that a moral child strives to be kind and just

A. Zderad and PetersonB. Benner and WrubelC. Fowler and WesterhoffD. Schulman and Mekler

* According to Schulman and Mekler, there are 2 components that makes an action MORAL : The intention should be good and the Act must be just. A good example is ROBIN HOOD, His intention is GOOD but the act is UNJUST, which makes his action IMMORAL.

37. Postulated that FAITH is the way of behaving. He developed four theories of faith and development based on his experience.


* There are only 2 theorist of FAITH that might be asked in the board examinations. Fowler and Westerhoff. What differs them is that, FAITH of fowler is defined abstractly, Fowler defines faith as a FORCE that gives a meaning to a person's life while Westerhoff defines faith as a behavior that continuously develops through time.

38. He described the development of faith. He suggested that faith is a spiritual dimension that gives meaning to a persons life. Faith according to him, is a relational phenomenon.


* Refer to # 37

39. Established in 1906 by the Baptist foreign mission society of America. Miss rose nicolet, was it’s first superintendent.

A. St. Paul Hospital School of nursingB. Iloilo Mission Hospital School of nursingC. Philippine General Hospital School of nursingD. St. Luke’s Hospital School of nursing

40. Anastacia Giron-Tupas was the first Filipino nurse to occupy the position of chief nurse in this hospital.

A. St. Paul HospitalB. Iloilo Mission HospitalC. Philippine General HospitalD. St. Luke’s Hospital

41. She was the daughter of Hungarian kings, who feed 300-900 people everyday in their gate, builds hospitals, and care of the poor and sick herself.

A. ElizabethB. CatherineC. NightingaleD. Sairey Gamp

* Saint Elizabeth of Hungary was a daughter of a King and is the patron saint of nurses. She build hospitals and feed hungry people everyday using the kingdom's money. She is a princess, but devoted her life in feeding the hungry and serving the sick.

42. She dies of yellow fever in her search for truth to prove that yellow fever is carried by a mosquitoes.

A. Clara louise MaasB. Pearl TuckerC. Isabel Hampton RobbD. Caroline Hampton Robb

* Clara Louise Maas sacrificed her life in research of YELLOW FEVER. People during her time do not believe that yellow fever was brought by mosquitoes. To prove that they are wrong, She allowed herself to be bitten by the vector and after days, She died.

43. He was called the father of sanitation.

A. AbrahamB. HippocratesC. MosesD. Willam Halstead

44. The country where SHUSHURUTU originated

A. ChinaB. EgyptC. IndiaD. Babylonia

45. They put girls clothes on male infants to drive evil forces away

A. ChineseB. EgyptianC. IndianD. Babylonian

* Chinese believes that male newborns are demon magnets. To fool those demons, they put female clothes to their male newborn.

46. In what period of nursing does people believe in TREPHINING to drive evil forces away?

A. Dark periodB. Intuitive periodC. Contemporary periodD. Educative period

* Egyptians believe that a sick person is someone with an evil force or demon that is inside their heads. To release these evil spirits, They would tend to drill holes on the patient's skull and it is called TREPHINING.

47. This period ended when Pastor Fliedner, build Kaiserwerth institute for the training of Deaconesses


* What dilineates apprentice period among others is that, it ENDED when formal schools were established. During the apprentice period, There is no formal educational institution for nurses. Most of them receive training inside the convent

or church. Some of them are trained just for the purpose of nursing the wounded soldiers. But almost all of them are influenced by the christian faith to serve and nurse the sick. When Fliedner build the first formal school for nurses, It marked the end of the APPRENTICESHIP period.

48. Period of nursing where religious Christian orders emerged to take care of the sick


* Apprentice period is marked by the emergence of religious orders the are devoted to religious life and the practice of nursing.

49. Founded the second order of St. Francis of Assisi

A. St. CatherineB. St. AnneC. St. ClareD. St. Elizabeth

* The poor clares, is the second order of St. Francis of assisi. The first order was founded by St. Francis himself. St. Catherine of Siena was the first lady with the lamp. St. Anne is the mother of mama mary. St. Elizabeth is the patron saint of Nursing.

50. This period marked the religious upheaval of Luther, Who questions the Christian faith.


* Protestantism emerged with Martin Luther questions the Pope and Christianity. This started the Dark period of nursing when the christian faith was smeared by controversies. These leads to closure of some hospital and schools run by the church. Nursing became the work of prostitutes, slaves, mother and least desirable of women.

51. According to the Biopsychosocial and spiritual theory of Sister Callista Roy, Man, As a SOCIAL being is

A. Like all other menB. Like some other menC. Like no other menD. Like men

* According to ROY, Man as a social being is like some other man. As a spiritual being and Biologic being, Man are all alike. As a psychologic being, No man thinks alike. This basically summarized her BIOPSYHOSOCIAL theory which is included in our licensure exam coverage.

52. She conceptualized that man, as an Open system is in constant interaction and transaction with a changing environment.

A. Roy

B. LevinC. NeumanD. Newman

* OPEN system theory is ROY. As an open system, man continuously allows input from the environment. Example is when you tell me Im good looking, I will be happy the entire day, Because I am an open system and continuously interact and transact with my environment. A close system is best exemplified by a CANDLE. When you cover the candle with a glass, it will die because it will eventually use all the oxygen it needs inside the glass for combustion. A closed system do not allow inputs and output in its environment.

53. In a CLOSED system, which of the following is true?

A. Affected by matterB. A sole island in vast oceanC. Allows inputD. Constantly affected by matter, energy, information

54. Who postulated the WHOLISTIC concept that the totality is greater than sum of its parts?


* The wholistic theory by Martha Rogers states that MAN is greater than the sum of all its parts and that his dignity and worth will not be lessen even if one of this part is missing. A good example is ANNE BOLEYN, The mother of Queen Elizabeth and the wife of King Henry VIII. She was beheaded because Henry wants to mary another wife and that his divorce was not approved by the pope. Outraged, He insisted on the separation of the Church and State and divorce Anne himself by making everyone believe that Anne is having an affair to another man. Anne was beheaded while her lips is still saying a prayer. Even without her head, People still gave respect to her diseased body and a separate head. She was still remembered as Anne boleyn, Mother of Elizabeth who lead england to their GOLDEN AGE.

55. She theorized that man is composed of sub and supra systems. Subsystems are cells, tissues, organs and systems while the suprasystems are family, society and community.


* According to Martha Rogers, Man is composed of 2 systems : SUB which includes cells, tissues, organs and system and SUPRA which includes our famly, community and society. She stated that when any of these systems are affected, it will affect the entire individual.

56. Which of the following is not true about the human needs?

A. Certain needs are common to all peopleB. Needs should be followed exactly in accordance with their hierarchy

C. Needs are stimulated by internal factorsD. Needs are stimulated by external factors

* Needs can be deferred. I can urinate later as not to miss the part of the movie's climax. I can save my money that are supposedly for my lunch to watch my idols in concert. The physiologic needs can be meet later for some other needs and need not be strictly followed according to their hierarchy.

57. Which of the following is TRUE about the human needs?

A. May not be deferredB. Are not interrelatedC. Met in exact and rigid wayD. Priorities are alterable


58. According to Maslow, which of the following is NOT TRUE about a self actualized person?

A. Understands poetry, music, philosophy, science etc.B. Desires privacy, autonomousC. Follows the decision of the majority, uphold justice and truthD. Problem centered

* A,B and D are all qualities of a self actualized person. A self actualized person do not follow the decision of majority but is self directed and can make decisions contrary to a popular opinion.

59. According to Maslow, which of the following is TRUE about a self actualized person?

A. Makes decision contrary to public opinionB. Do not predict eventsC. Self centeredD. Maximum degree of self conflict


60. This is the essence of mental health

A. Self awarenessB. Self actualizationC. Self esteemD. Self worth

* The peak of maslow's hierarchy is the essence of mental health.

61. Florence nightingale is born in

A. GermanyB. BritainC. FranceD. Italy

* Florence Nightingale was born in Florence, Italy, May 12, 1820. Studied in Germany and Practiced in England.

62. Which is unlikely of Florence Nightingale?

A. Born May 12, 1840B. Built St. Thomas school of nursing when she was 40 years oldC. Notes in nursingD. Notes in hospital

63. What country did Florence Nightingale train in nursing?

A. BelgiumB. USC. GermanyD. England

64. Which of the following is recognized for developing the concept of HIGH LEVEL WELLNESS?

A. EriksonB. MadawC. PeplauD. Dunn

* According to Dunn, High level wellness is the ability of an individual to maximize his full potential with the limitations imposed by his environment. According to him, An individual can be healthy or ill in both favorable and unfavorable environment.

65. One of the expectations is for nurses to join professional association primarily because of

A. Promotes advancement and professional growth among its membersB. Works for raising funds for nurse’s benefitC. Facilitate and establishes acquaintancesD. Assist them and securing jobs abroad

66. Founder of the PNA

A. Julita SotejoB. Anastacia Giron TupasC. Eufemia OctavianoD. Anesia Dionisio

67. Which of the following provides that nurses must be a member of a national nurse organization?

A. R.A 877B. 1981 Code of ethics approved by the house of delegates and the PNAC. Board resolution No. 1955 Promulgated by the BOND. RA 7164

* This is an old board resolution. The new Board resolution is No. 220 series of 2004 also known as the Nursing Code Of ethics which states that [ SECTION 17, A ] A nurse should be a member of an accredited professional organization which is the PNA.

68. Which of the following best describes the action of a nurse who documents her nursing diagnosis?

A. She documents it and charts it whenever necessaryB. She can be accused of malpracticeC. She does it regularly as an important responsibilityD. She charts it only when the patient is acutely ill

69. Which of the following does not govern nursing practice?

A. RA 7164B. RA 9173C. BON Res. Code Of EthicsD. BON Res. Scope of Nursing Practice

* 7164 is an old law. This is the 1991 Nursing Law which was repealed by the newer 9173.

70. A nurse who is maintaining a private clinic in the community renders service on maternal and child health among the neighborhood for a fee is:

A. Primary care nurseB. Independent nurse practitionerC. Nurse-MidwifeD. Nurse specialist

71. When was the PNA founded?

A. September 22, 1922B. September 02, 1920C. October 21, 1922D. September 02, 1922

* According to the official PNA website, they are founded September 02, 1922.

72. Who was the first president of the PNA ?

A. Anastacia Giron-TupasB. Loreto TupasC. Rosario MontenegroD. Ricarda Mendoza

* Anastacia Giron Tupas founded the FNA, the former name of the PNA but the first President was Rosario Montenegro.

73. Defines health as the ability to maintain internal milieu. Illness according to him/her/them is the failure to maintain internal environment.

A. CannonB. BernardC. Leddy and PepperD. Roy

* According to Bernard, Health is the ability to maintain and Internal Milieu and Illness is the failure to maintain the internal environment.

74. Postulated that health is a state and process of being and becoming an integrated and whole person.

A. CannonB. BernardC. DunnD. Roy

* According to ROY, Health is a state and process of becoming a WHOLE AND INTEGRATED Person.

75. What regulates HOMEOSTASIS according to the theory of Walter Cannon?

A. Positive feedbackB. Negative feedbackC. Buffer systemD. Various mechanisms

* The theory of Health as the ability to maintain homeostasis was postulated by Walter Cannon. According to him, There are certain FEEDBACK Mechanism that regulates our Homeostasis. A good example is that when we overuse our arm, it will produce pain. PAIN is a negative feedback that signals us that our arm needs a rest.

76. Stated that health is WELLNESS. A termed define by the culture or an individual.


* Martha Rogers states that HEALTH is synonymous with WELLNESS and that HEALTH and WELLNESS is subjective depending on the definition of one's culture.

77. Defined health as a dynamic state in the life cycle, and Illness as interference in the life cycle.


* Emogene King states that health is a state in the life cycle and Illness is any interference on this cycle. I enjoyed the Movie LION KING and like what Mufasa said that they are all part of the CIRCLE OF LIFE, or the Life cycle.

78. She defined health as the soundness and wholness of developed human structure and bodily mental functioning.

A. OremB. HendersonC. NeumanD. Clark

* Orem defined health as the SOUNDNESS and WHOLENESS of developed human structure and of bodily and mental functioning.

79. According to her, Wellness is a condition in which all parts and subparts of an individual are in harmony with the whole system.


* Neuman believe that man is composed of subparts and when this subparts are in harmony with the whole system, Wellness results. Please do not confuse this with the SUB and SUPRA systems of martha rogers.

80. Postulated that health is reflected by the organization,

interaction, interdependence and integration of the subsystem of the behavioral system.


* Once you see the phrase BEHAVIORAL SYSTEM, answer Dorothy Johnson.

81. According to them, Well being is a subjective perception of BALANCE, HARMONY and VITALITY

A. Leavell and ClarkB. Peterson and ZderadC. Benner and WruberD. Leddy and Pepper

* According to Leddy and Pepper, Wellness is subjective and depends on an individuals perception of balance, harmony and vitality. Leavell and Clark postulared the ecologic model of health and illness or the AGENT-HOST-ENVIRONMENT model. Peterson and Zderad developed the HUMANISTIC NURSING PRACTICE theory while Benner and Wruber postulate the PRIMACY OF CARING MODEL.

82. He describes the WELLNESS-ILLNESS Continuum as interaction of the environment with well being and illness.

A. CannonB. BernardC. DunnD. Clark

83. An integrated method of functioning that is oriented towards maximizing one’s potential within the limitation of the environment.

A. Well beingB. HealthC. Low level WellnessD. High level Wellness

84. What kind of illness precursor, according to DUNN is cigarette smoking?


* Behavioral precursors includes smoking, alcoholism, high fat intake and other lifestyle choices. Environmental factors involved poor sanitation and over crowding. Heridity includes congenital and diseases acquired through the genes. There are no social precursors according to DUNN.

85. According to DUNN, Overcrowding is what type of illness precursor?


86. Health belief model was formulated in 1975 by who?

A. BeckerB. SmithC. DunnD. Leavell and Clark

* According to Becker, The belief of an individual greatly affects his behavior. If a man believes that he is susceptible to an illness, He will alter his behavior in order to prevent its occurence. For example, If a man thinks that diabetes is acquired through high intake of sugar and simple carbohydrates, then he will limit the intake of foods rich in these components.

87. In health belief model, Individual perception matters. Which of the following is highly UNLIKELY to influence preventive behavior?

A. Perceived susceptibility to an illnessB. Perceived seriousness of an illnessC. Perceived threat of an illnessD. Perceived curability of an illness

* If a man think he is susceptibe to a certain disease, thinks that the disease is serious and it is a threat to his life and functions, he will use preventive behaviors to avoid the occurence of this threat.

88. Which of the following is not a PERCEIVED BARRIER in preventive action?

A. Difficulty adhering to the lifestyleB. Economic factorsC. Accessibility of health care facilitiesD. Increase adherence to medical therapies

* Perceived barriers are those factors that affects the individual's health preventive actions. Both A and B can affect the individual's ability to prevent the occurence of diseases. C and D are called Preventive Health Behaviors which enhances the individual's preventive capabilities.

89. Conceptualizes that health is a condition of actualization or realization of person’s potential. Avers that the highest aspiration of people is fulfillment and complete development actualization.


* Smith formulated 5 models of health. Clinical model simply states that when people experience sign and symptoms, they would think that they are unhealthy therefore, Health is the absence of clinical sign and symptoms of a disease. Role performance model states that when a person does his role and activities without deficits, he is healthy and the inability to perform usual roles means that the person is ill. Adaptive Model states that if a person adapts well with his environment, he is healthy and maladaptation equates illness. Eudaemonistic Model of health according to smith is the actualization of a person's

fullest potential. If a person functions optimally and develop self actualization, then, no doubt that person is healthy.

90. Views people as physiologic system and Absence of sign and symptoms equates health.



91. Knowledge about the disease and prior contact with it is what type of VARIABLE according to the health belief model?


* Modifying variables in Becker's health belief model includes DEMOGRAPHIC : Age, sex, race etc. SOCIOPSYCHOLOGIC : Social and Peer influence. STRUCTURAL : Knowledge about the disease and prior contact with it and CUES TO ACTION : Which are the sign and symptoms of the disease or advice from friends, mass media and others that forces or makes the individual seek help.

92. It includes internal and external factors that leads the individual to seek help



93. Influence from peers and social pressure is included in what variable of HBM?



94. Age, Sex, Race etc. is included in what variable of HBM?



95. According to Leavell and Clark’s ecologic model, All of this are factors that affects health and illness except

A. ReservoirB. AgentC. EnvironmentD. Host

* According to L&C's Ecologic model, there are 3 factors that affect health and illness. These are the AGENT or the factor the leads to illness, either a bacteria or an event in life. HOST are persons that may or may not be affected by these agents. ENVIRONMENT are factors external to the host that may or may not predispose him to the AGENT.

96. Is a multi dimensional model developed by PENDER that describes the nature of persons as they interact within the environment to pursue health

A. Ecologic ModelB. Health Belief ModelC. Health Promotion ModelD. Health Prevention Model

* Pender developed the concept of HEALTH PROMOTION MODEL which postulated that an individual engages in health promotion activities to increase well being and attain self actualization. These includes exercise, immunization, healthy lifestyle, good food, self responsibility and all other factors that minimize if not totally eradicate risks and threats of health.

97. Defined by Pender as all activities directed toward increasing the level of well being and self actualization.

A. Health preventionB. Health promotionC. Health teachingD. Self actualization


98. Defined as an alteration in normal function resulting in reduction of capacities and shortening of life span.


* Disease are alteration in body functions resulting in reduction of capabilities or shortening of life span.

99. Personal state in which a person feels unhealthy


* Illness is something PERSONAL. Unlike disease, Illness are personal state in which person feels unhealthy. An old person might think he is ILL but in fact, he is not due, to diminishing functions and capabilities, people might think they are ILL. Disease however, is something with tangible basis like lab results, X ray films or clinical sign and symptoms.

100. According to her, Caring is defined as a nurturant way of responding to a valued client towards whom the nurse feels a sense of commitment and responsibility.


* This is Jean Watson's definition of Nursing as caring. This was asked word per word last June 06' NLE. Benner defines caring as something that matters to people. She postulated the responsibility created by Caring in nursing. She was also responsible for the PRIMACY OF CARING MODEL. Leininger defind the 4 conservation principle while Swanson introduced the 5 processes of caring.

FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING TEST II

CONTENT OUTLINE

1. Illness2. Infection and Asepsis3. Basic concept of Stress and Adaptation

1. When the General adaptation syndrome is activated, FLIGHT OR FIGHT response sets in. Sympathetic nervous system releases norepinephrine while the adrenal medulla secretes epinephrine. Which of the following is true with regards to that statement?

A. Pupils will constrictB. Client will be lethargicC. Lungs will bronchodilateD. Gastric motility will increase

2. Which of the following response is not expected to a person whose GAS is activated and the FIGHT OR FLIGHT response sets in?

A. The client will not urinate due to relaxation of the detrusor muscleB. The client will be restless and alertC. Clients BP will increase, there will be vasodilationD. There will be increase glycogenolysis, Pancrease will decrease insulin secretion

3. State in which a person’s physical, emotional, intellectual and social development or spiritual functioning is diminished or impaired compared with a previous experience.


4. This is the first stage of illness wherein, the person starts to believe that something is wrong. Also known as the transition phase from wellness to illness.

A. Symptom ExperienceB. Assumption of sick roleC. Medical care contactD. Dependent patient role

5. In this stage of illness, the person accepts or rejects a professionals suggestion. The person also becomes passive and may regress to an earlier stage.


6. In this stage of illness, The person learns to accept the illness.


7. In this stage, the person tries to find answers for his illness. He wants his illness to be validated, his symptoms explained and the outcome reassured or predicted


8. The following are true with regards to aspect of the sick role except

A. One should be held responsible for his conditionB. One is excused from his societal roleC. One is obliged to get well as soon as possibleD. One is obliged to seek competent help

9. Refers to conditions that increases vulnerability of individual or group to illness or accident

A. Predisposing factorB. EtiologyC. Risk factorD. Modifiable Risks

10. Refers to the degree of resistance the potential host has against a certain pathogen

A. SusceptibilityB. ImmunityC. VirulenceD. Etiology

11. A group of symptoms that sums up or constitute a disease

A. SyndromeB. SymptomsC. SignsD. Etiology

12. A woman undergoing radiation therapy developed redness and burning of the skin around the best. This is best classified as what type of disease?

A. NeoplasticB. TraumaticC. NosocomialD. Iatrogenic

13. The classification of CANCER according to its etiology Is best described as

1. Nosocomial2. Idiopathic3. Neoplastic4. Traumatic5. Congenital6. Degenrative

A. 5 and 2

B. 2 and 3C. 3 and 4D. 3 and 5

14. Term to describe the reactiviation and recurrence of pronounced symptoms of a disease

A. RemissionB. EmissionC. ExacerbationD. Sub acute

15. A type of illness characterized by periods of remission and exacerbation

A. ChronicB. AcuteC. Sub acuteD. Sub chronic

16. Diseases that results from changes in the normal structure, from recognizable anatomical changes in an organ or body tissue is termed as

A. FunctionalB. OccupationalC. InorganicD. Organic

17. It is the science of organism as affected by factors in their environment. It deals with the relationship between disease and geographical environment.

A. EpidemiologyB. EcologyC. StatisticsD. Geography

18. This is the study of the patterns of health and disease. Its occurrence and distribution in man, for the purpose of control and prevention of disease.


19. Refers to diseases that produced no anatomic changes but as a result from abnormal response to a stimuli.


20. In what level of prevention according to Leavell and Clark does the nurse support the client in obtaining OPTIMAL HEALTH STATUS after a disease or injury?

A. PrimaryB. SecondaryC. TertiaryD. None of the above

21. In what level of prevention does the nurse encourage optimal health and increases person’s susceptibility to

illness?


22. Also known as HEALTH MAINTENANCE prevention.


23. PPD In occupational health nursing is what type of prevention?


24. BCG in community health nursing is what type of prevention?


25. A regular pap smear for woman every 3 years after establishing normal pap smear for 3 consecutive years Is advocated. What level of prevention does this belongs?


26. Self monitoring of blood glucose for diabetic clients is on what level of prevention?


27. Which is the best way to disseminate information to the public?

A. NewspaperB. School bulletinsC. Community bill boardsD. Radio and Television

28. Who conceptualized health as integration of parts and subparts of an individual?

A. NewmanB. NeumanC. WatsonD. Rogers

29. The following are concept of health:

1. Health is a state of complete physical, mental and social wellbeing and not merely an absence of disease or infirmity.2. Health is the ability to maintain balance3. Health is the ability to maintain internal milieu4. Health is integration of all parts and subparts of an individual

A. 1,2,3B. 1,3,4C. 2,3,4D. 1,2,3,4

30. The theorist the advocated that health is the ability to maintain dynamic equilibrium is

A. BernardB. SelyeC. CannonD. Rogers

31. Excessive alcohol intake is what type of risk factor?

A. GeneticsB. AgeC. EnvironmentD. Lifestyle

32. Osteoporosis and degenerative diseases like Osteoarthritis belongs to what type of risk factor?


33. Also known as STERILE TECHNIQUE

A. Surgical AsepsisB. Medical AsepsisC. SepsisD. Asepsis

34. This is a person or animal, who is without signs of illness but harbors pathogen within his body and can be transferred to another

A. HostB. AgentC. EnvironmentD. Carrier

35. Refers to a person or animal, known or believed to have been exposed to a disease.

A. CarrierB. ContactC. AgentD. Host

36. A substance usually intended for use on inanimate objects, that destroys pathogens but not the spores.

A. SterilizationB. DisinfectantC. AntisepticD. Autoclave

37. This is a process of removing pathogens but not their spores

A. SterilizationB. Auto clavingC. DisinfectionD. Medical asepsis

38. The third period of infectious processes characterized by development of specific signs and symptoms

A. Incubation periodB. Prodromal periodC. Illness periodD. Convalescent period

39. A child with measles developed fever and general weakness after being exposed to another child with rubella. In what stage of infectious process does this child belongs?


40. A 50 year old mailman carried a mail with anthrax powder in it. A minute after exposure, he still hasn’t developed any signs and symptoms of anthrax. In what stage of infectious process does this man belongs?


41. Considered as the WEAKEST LINK in the chain of infection that nurses can manipulate to prevent spread of infection and diseases

A. Etiologic/Infectious agentB. Portal of EntryC. Susceptible hostD. Mode of transmission

42. Which of the following is the exact order of the infection chain?

1. Susceptible host2. Portal of entry3. Portal of exit4. Etiologic agent5. Reservoir6. Mode of transmission

A. 1,2,3,4,5,6B. 5,4,2,3,6,1C. 4,5,3,6,2,1D. 6,5,4,3,2,1

43. Markee, A 15 year old high school student asked you. What is the mode of transmission of Lyme disease. You correctly answered him that Lyme disease is transmitted via

A. Direct contact transmissionB. Vehicle borne transmission

C. Air borne transmissionD. Vector borne transmission

44. The ability of the infectious agent to cause a disease primarily depends on all of the following except

A. PathogenicityB. VirulenceC. InvasivenessD. Non Specificity

45. Contact transmission of infectious organism in the hospital is usually cause by

A. Urinary catheterizationB. Spread from patient to patientC. Spread by cross contamination via hands of caregiverD. Cause by unclean instruments used by doctors and nurses

46. Transmission occurs when an infected person sneezes, coughs or laugh that is usually projected at a distance of 3 feet.

A. Droplet transmissionB. Airborne transmissionC. Vehicle transmissionD. Vector borne transmission

47. Considered as the first line of defense of the body against infection

A. SkinB. WBCC. LeukocytesD. Immunization

48. All of the following contributes to host susceptibility except

A. CreedB. ImmunizationC. Current medication being takenD. Color of the skin

49. Graciel has been injected TT5, her last dosed for tetanus toxoid immunization. Graciel asked you, what type of immunity is TT Injections? You correctly answer her by saying Tetanus toxoid immunization is a/an

A. Natural active immunityB. Natural passive immunityC. Artificial active immunityD. Artificial passive immunity

50. Agatha, was hacked and slashed by a psychotic man while she was crossing the railway. She suffered multiple injuries and was injected Tetanus toxoid Immunoglobulin. Agatha asked you, What immunity does TTIg provides? You best answered her by saying TTIg provides


51. This is the single most important procedure that prevents

cross contamination and infection

A. CleaningB. DisinfectingC. SterilizingD. Handwashing

52. This is considered as the most important aspect of handwashing

A. TimeB. FrictionC. WaterD. Soap

53. In handwashing by medical asepsis, Hands are held ….

A. Above the elbow, The hands must always be above the waistB. Above the elbow, The hands are cleaner than the elbowC. Below the elbow, Medical asepsis do not require hands to be above the waistD. Below the elbow, Hands are dirtier than the lower arms

54. The suggested time per hand on handwashing using the time method is

A. 5 to 10 seconds each handB. 10 to 15 seconds each handC. 15 to 30 seconds each handD. 30 to 60 seconds each hand

55. The minimum time in washing each hand should never be below

A. 5 secondsB. 10 secondsC. 15 secondsD. 30 seconds

56. How many ml of liquid soap is recommended for handwashing procedure?

A. 1-2 mlB. 2-3 mlC. 2-4 mlD. 5-10 ml

57. Which of the following is not true about sterilization, cleaning and disinfection?

A. Equipment with small lumen are easier to cleanB. Sterilization is the complete destruction of all viable microorganism including sporesC. Some organism are easily destroyed, while other, with coagulated protein requires longer timeD. The number of organism is directly proportional to the length of time required for sterilization

58. Karlita asked you, How long should she boil her glass baby bottle in water? You correctly answered her by saying

A. The minimum time for boiling articles is 5 minutesB. Boil the glass baby bottler and other articles for atleast 10 minutesC. For boiling to be effective, a minimum of 15 minutes is

requiredD. It doesn’t matter how long you boil the articles, as long as the water reached 100 degree Celsius

59. This type of disinfection is best done in sterilizing drugs, foods and other things that are required to be sterilized before taken in by the human body

A. Boiling WaterB. Gas sterilizationC. Steam under pressureD. Radiation

60. A TB patient was discharged in the hospital. A UV Lamp was placed in the room where he stayed for a week. What type of disinfection is this?

A. Concurrent disinfectionB. Terminal disinfectionC. Regular disinfectionD. Routine disinfection

61. Which of the following is not true in implementing medical asepsis

A. Wash hand before and after patient contactB. Keep soiled linens from touching the clothingsC. Shake the linens to remove dustD. Practice good hygiene

62. Which of the following is true about autoclaving or steam under pressure?

A. All kinds of microorganism and their spores are destroyed by autoclave machineB. The autoclaved instruments can be used for 1 month considering the bags are still intactC. The instruments are put into unlocked position, on their hinge, during the autoclaveD. Autoclaving different kinds of metals at one time is advisable

63. Which of the following is true about masks?

A. Mask should only cover the noseB. Mask functions better if they are wet with alcoholC. Masks can provide durable protection even when worn for a long time and after each and every patient careD. N95 Mask or particulate masks can filter organism as mall as 1 micromillimeter

64. Where should you put a wet adult diaper?

A. Green trashcanB. Black trashcanC. Orange trashcanD. Yellow trashcan

65. Needles, scalpels, broken glass and lancets are considered as injurious wastes. As a nurse, it is correct to put them at disposal via a/an

A. Puncture proof containerB. Reused PET BottlesC. Black trashcanD. Yellow trashcan with a tag “INJURIOUS WASTES”

66. Miranda Priestly, An executive of RAMP magazine, was diagnosed with cancer of the cervix. You noticed that the radioactive internal implant protrudes to her vagina where supposedly, it should be in her cervix. What should be your initial action?

A. Using a long forceps, Push it back towards the cervix then call the physicianB. Wear gloves, remove it gently and place it on a lead containerC. Using a long forceps, Remove it and place it on a lead containerD. Call the physician, You are not allowed to touch, re insert or remove it

67. After leech therapy, Where should you put the leeches?

A. In specially marked BIO HAZARD ContainersB. Yellow trashcanC. Black trashcanD. Leeches are brought back to the culture room, they are not thrown away for they are reusable

68. Which of the following should the nurse AVOID doing in preventing spread of infection?

A. Recapping the needle before disposal to prevent injuriesB. Never pointing a needle towards a body partC. Using only Standard precaution to AIDS PatientsD. Do not give fresh and uncooked fruits and vegetables to Mr. Gatchie, with Neutropenia

69. Where should you put Mr. Alejar, with Category II TB?

A. In a room with positive air pressure and atleast 3 air exchanges an hourB. In a room with positive air pressure and atleast 6 air exchanges an hourC. In a room with negative air pressure and atleast 3 air exchanges an hourD. In a room with negative air pressure and atleast 6 air exchanges an hour

70. A client has been diagnosed with RUBELLA. What precaution is used for this patient?

A. Standard precautionB. Airborne precautionC. Droplet precautionD. Contact precaution

71. A client has been diagnosed with MEASLES. What precaution is used for this patient?


72. A client has been diagnosed with IMPETIGO. What precaution is used for this patient?

A. Standard precautionB. Airborne precautionC. Droplet precaution

D. Contact precaution

73. The nurse is to insert an NG Tube when suddenly, she accidentally dip the end of the tube in the client’s glass containing distilled drinking water which is definitely not sterile. As a nurse, what should you do?

A. Don’t mind the incident, continue to insert the NG TubeB. Obtain a new NG Tube for the clientC. Disinfect the NG Tube before reinserting it againD. Ask your senior nurse what to do

74. All of the following are principle of SURGICAL ASEPSIS except

A. Microorganism travels to moist surfaces faster than with dry surfacesB. When in doubt about the sterility of an object, consider it not sterileC. Once the skin has been sterilized, considered it sterileD. If you can reach the object by overreaching, just move around the sterile field to pick it rather than reaching for it

75. Which of the following is true in SURGICAL ASEPSIS?

A. Autoclaved linens and gowns are considered sterile for about 4 months as long as the bagging is intactB. Surgical technique is a sole effort of each nurseC. Sterile conscience, is the best method to enhance sterile techniqueD. If a scrubbed person leaves the area of the sterile field, He/she must do handwashing and gloving again, but the gown need not be changed.

76. In putting sterile gloves, Which should be gloved first?

A. The dominant handB. The non dominant handC. The left handD. No specific order, Its up to the nurse for her own convenience

77. As the scrubbed nurse, when should you apply the goggles, shoe cap and mask prior to the operation?

A. Immediately after entering the sterile fieldB. After surgical hand scrubC. Before surgical hand scrubD. Before entering the sterile field

78. Which of the following should the nurse do when applying gloves prior to a surgical procedure?

A. Slipping gloved hand with all fingers when picking up the second gloveB. Grasping the first glove by inserting four fingers, with thumbs up underneath the cuffC. Putting the gloves into the dominant hand firstD. Adjust only the fitting of the gloves after both gloves are on

79. Which gloves should you remove first?

A. The glove of the non dominant handB. The glove of the dominant hand

C. The glove of the left handD. Order in removing the gloves Is unnecessary

80. Before a surgical procedure, Give the sequence on applying the protective items listed below

1. Eye wear or goggles2. Cap3. Mask4. Gloves5. Gown

A. 3,2,1,5,4B. 3,2,1,4,5C. 2,3,1,5,4D. 2,3,1,4,5

81. In removing protective devices, which should be the exact sequence?


A. 4,3,5,1,2B. 2,3,1,5,4C. 5,4,3,2,1D. 1,2,3,4,5

82. In pouring a plain NSS into a receptacle located in a sterile field, how high should the nurse hold the bottle above the receptacle?

A. 1 inchB. 3 inchesC. 6 inchesD. 10 inches

83. The tip of the sterile forceps is considered sterile. It is used to manipulate the objects in the sterile field using the non sterile hands. How should the nurse hold a sterile forceps?

A. The tip should always be lower than the handleB. The tip should always be above the handleC. The handle and the tip should be at the same levelD. The handle should point downward and the tip, always upward

84. The nurse enters the room of the client on airborne precaution due to tuberculosis. Which of the following are appropriate actions by the nurse?

1. She wears mask, covering the nose and mouth2. She washes her hands before and after removing gloves, after suctioning the client’s secretion3. She removes gloves and hands before leaving the client’s room4. She discards contaminated suction catheter tip in trashcan found in the clients room

A. 1,2B. 1,2,3C. 1,2,3,4

D. 1,3

85. When performing surgical hand scrub, which of the following nursing action is required to prevent contamination?

1. Keep fingernail short, clean and with nail polish2. Open faucet with knee or foot control3. Keep hands above the elbow when washing and rinsing4. Wear cap, mask, shoe cover after you scrubbed

A. 1,2B. 2,3C. 1,2,3D. 2,3,4

86. When removing gloves, which of the following is an inappropriate nursing action?

A. Wash gloved hand firstB. Peel off gloves inside outC. Use glove to glove skin to skin techniqueD. Remove mask and gown before removing gloves

87. Which of the following is TRUE in the concept of stress?

A. Stress is not always present in diseases and illnessesB. Stress are only psychological and manifests psychological symptomsC. All stressors evoke common adaptive responseD. Hemostasis refers to the dynamic state of equilibrium

88. According to this theorist, in his modern stress theory, Stress is the non specific response of the body to any demand made upon it.

A. Hans SelyeB. Walter CannonC. Claude BernardD. Martha Rogers

89. Which of the following is NOT TRUE with regards to the concept of Modern Stress Theory?

A. Stress is not a nervous energyB. Man, whenever he encounters stresses, always adapts to itC. Stress is not always something to be avoidedD. Stress does not always lead to distress

90. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to the concept of Modern Stress Theory?

A. Stress is essentialB. Man does not encounter stress if he is asleepC. A single stress can cause a diseaseD. Stress always leads to distress

91. Which of the following is TRUE in the stage of alarm of general adaptation syndrome?

A. Results from the prolonged exposure to stressB. Levels or resistance is increasedC. Characterized by adaptationD. Death can ensue

92. The stage of GAS where the adaptation mechanism begins

A. Stage of AlarmB. Stage of ResistanceC. Stage of HomeostasisD. Stage of Exhaustion

93. Stage of GAS Characterized by adaptation


94. Stage of GAS wherein, the Level of resistance are decreased


95. Where in stages of GAS does a person moves back into HOMEOSTASIS?


96. Stage of GAS that results from prolonged exposure to stress. Here, death will ensue unless extra adaptive mechanisms are utilized


97. All but one is a characteristic of adaptive response

A. This is an attempt to maintain homeostasisB. There is a totality of responseC. Adaptive response is immediately mobilized, doesn’t require timeD. Response varies from person to person

98. Andy, a newly hired nurse, starts to learn the new technology and electronic devices at the hospital. Which of the following mode of adaptation is Andy experiencing?

A. Biologic/Physiologic adaptive modeB. Psychologic adaptive modeC. Sociocultural adaptive modeD. Technological adaptive mode

99. Andy is not yet fluent in French, but he works in Quebec where majority speaks French. He is starting to learn the language of the people. What type of adaptation is Andy experiencing?

A. Biologic/Physiologic adaptive modeB. Psychologic adaptive modeC. Sociocultural adaptive mode

D. Technological adaptive mode

100. Andy made an error and his senior nurse issued a written warning. Andy arrived in his house mad and kicked the door hard to shut it off. What adaptation mode is this?


FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING TEST II

CONTENT OUTLINE

1. Illness2. Infection and Asepsis3. Basic concept of Stress and Adaptation

1. When the General adaptation syndrome is activated, FLIGHT OR FIGHT response sets in. Sympathetic nervous system releases norepinephrine while the adrenal medulla secretes epinephrine. Which of the following is true with regards to that statement?

A. Pupils will constrictB. Client will be lethargicC. Lungs will bronchodilateD. Gastric motility will increase

* To better understand the concept : The autonomic nervous system is composed of SYMPATHETIC and PARASYMPATHETIC Nervous system. It is called AUTONOMIC Because it is Involuntary and stimuli based. You cannot tell your heart to kindly beat for 60 per minute, Nor, Tell your blood vessels, Please constrict, because you need to wear skirt today and your varicosities are bulging. Sympathetic Nervous system is the FIGHT or FLIGHT mechanism. When people FIGHT or RUN, we tend to stimulate the ANS and dominate over SNS. Just Imagine a person FIGHTING and RUNNING to get the idea on the signs of SNS Domination. Imagine a resting and digesting person to get a picture of PNS Domination. A person RUNNING or FIGHTING Needs to bronchodilate, because the oxygen need is increased due to higher demand of the body. Pupils will DILATE to be able to see the enemy clearly. Client will be fully alert to dodge attacks and leap through obstacles during running. The client's gastric motility will DECREASE Because you cannot afford to urinate or defecate during fighting nor running.

2. Which of the following response is not expected to a person whose GAS is activated and the FIGHT OR FLIGHT response sets in?

A. The client will not urinate due to relaxation of the detrusor muscleB. The client will be restless and alertC. Clients BP will increase, there will be vasodilationD. There will be increase glycogenolysis, Pancrease will decrease insulin secretion

* If vasodilation will occur, The BP will not increase but decrease. It is true that Blood pressure increases during SNS Stimulation due to the fact that we need more BLOOD to

circulate during the FIGHT or FLIGHT Response because the oxygen demand has increased, but this is facilitated by vasoconstriction and not vasodilation. A,B and D are all correct. The liver will increase glycogenolysis or glycogen store utilization due to a heightened demand for energy. Pancrease will decrease insulin secretion because almost every aspect of digestion that is controlled by Parasympathetic nervous system is inhibited when the SNS dominates.

3. State in which a person’s physical, emotional, intellectual and social development or spiritual functioning is diminished or impaired compared with a previous experience.


* Disease is a PROVEN FACT based on a medical theory, standards, diagnosis and clinical feature while ILLNESS Is a subjective state of not feeling well based on subjective appraisal, previous experience, peer advice etc.

4. This is the first stage of illness wherein, the person starts to believe that something is wrong. Also known as the transition phase from wellness to illness.


* A favorite board question are Stages of Illness. When a person starts to believe something is wrong, that person is experiencing signs and symptoms of an illness. The patient will then ASSUME that he is sick. This is called assumption of the sick role where the patient accepts he is Ill and try to give up some activities. Since the client only ASSUMES his illness, he will try to ask someone to validate if what he is experiencing is a disease, This is now called as MEDICAL CARE CONTACT. The client seeks professional advice for validation, reassurance, clarification and explanation of the symptoms he is experiencing. client will then start his dependent patient role of receiving care from the health care providers. The last stage of Illness is the RECOVERY stage where the patient gives up the sick role and assumes the previous normal gunctions.

5. In this stage of illness, the person accepts or rejects a professionals suggestion. The person also becomes passive and may regress to an earlier stage.


* In the dependent patient role stage, Client needs professionals for help. They have a choice either to accept or reject the professional's decisions but patients are usually passive and accepting. Regression tends to occur more in this period.

6. In this stage of illness, The person learns to accept the

illness.


* Acceptance of illness occurs in the Assumption of sick role phase of illness.

7. In this stage, the person tries to find answers for his illness. He wants his illness to be validated, his symptoms explained and the outcome reassured or predicted


* At this stage, The patient seeks for validation of his symptom experience. He wants to find out if what he feels are normal or not normal. He wants someone to explain why is he feeling these signs and symptoms and wants to know the probable outcome of this experience.

8. The following are true with regards to aspect of the sick role except

A. One should be held responsible for his conditionB. One is excused from his societal roleC. One is obliged to get well as soon as possibleD. One is obliged to seek competent help

* The nurse should not judge the patient and not view the patient as the cause or someone responsible for his illness. A sick client is excused from his societal roles, Oblige to get well as soon as possible and Obliged to seek competent help.

9. Refers to conditions that increases vulnerability of individual or group to illness or accident

A. Predisposing factorB. EtiologyC. Risk factorD. Modifiable Risks

10. Refers to the degree of resistance the potential host has against a certain pathogen

A. SusceptibilityB. ImmunityC. VirulenceD. Etiology

* Immunity is the ABSOLUTE Resistance to a pathogen considering that person has an INTACT IMMUNITY while susceptibility is the DEGREE of resistance. Degree of resistance means how well would the individual combat the pathogens and repel infection or invasion of these disease causing organisms. A susceptible person is someone who has a very low degree of resistance to combat pathogens. An Immune person is someone that can easily repel specific pathogens. However, Remember that even if a person is IMMUNE [ Vaccination ] Immunity can always be impaired in cases of chemotherapy, HIV, Burns, etc.

11. A group of symptoms that sums up or constitute a disease

A. SyndromeB. SymptomsC. SignsD. Etiology

* Symptoms are individual manifestation of a certain disease. For example, In Tourette syndrome, patient will manifest TICS, but this alone is not enough to diagnose the patient as other diseases has the same tic manifestation. Syndrome means COLLECTION of these symptoms that occurs together to characterize a certain disease. Tics with coprolalia, echolalia, palilalia, choreas or other movement disorders are characteristics of TOURETTE SYNDROME.

12. A woman undergoing radiation therapy developed redness and burning of the skin around the best. This is best classified as what type of disease?

A. NeoplasticB. TraumaticC. NosocomialD. Iatrogenic

* Iatrogenic diseases refers to those that resulted from treatment of a certain disease. For example, A child frequently exposed to the X-RAY Machine develops redness and partial thickness burns over the chest area. Neoplastic are malignant diseases cause by proliferation of abnormally growing cells. Traumatic are brought about by injuries like Motor vehicular accidents. Nosocomial are infections that acquired INSIDE the hospital. Example is UTI Because of catheterization, This is commonly caused by E.Coli.

13. The classification of CANCER according to its etiology Is best described as

1. Nosocomial2. Idiopathic3. Neoplastic4. Traumatic5. Congenital6. Degenrative


* Aside from being NEOPLASTIC, Cancer is considered as IDIOPATHIC because the cause is UNKNOWN.

14. Term to describe the reactiviation and recurrence of pronounced symptoms of a disease

A. RemissionB. EmissionC. ExacerbationD. Sub acute

15. A type of illness characterized by periods of remission and exacerbation

A. ChronicB. AcuteC. Sub acuteD. Sub chronic

* A good example is Multiple sclerosis that characterized by periods of remissions and exacerbation and it is a CHRONIC Disease. An acute and sub acute diseases occurs too short to manifest remissions. Chronic diseases persists longer than 6 months that is why remissions and exacerbation are observable.

16. Diseases that results from changes in the normal structure, from recognizable anatomical changes in an organ or body tissue is termed as


* As the word implies, ORGANIC Diseases are those that causes a CHANGE in the structure of the organs and systems. Inorganic diseases is synonymous with FUNCTIONAL diseases wherein, There is no evident structural, anatomical or physical change in the structure of the organ or system but function is altered due to other causes, which is usually due to abnormal response of the organ to stressors. Therefore, ORGANIC BRAIN SYNDROME are anatomic and physiologic change in the BRAIN that is NON PROGRESSIVE BUT IRREVERSIBLE caused by alteration in structure of the brain and it's supporting structure which manifests different sign and symptoms of neurological, physiologic and psychologic alterations. Mental disorders manifesting symptoms of psychoses without any evident organic or structural damage are termed as INORGANIC PSYCHOSES while alteration in the organ structures that causes symptoms of bizaare pyschotic behavior is termed as ORGANIC PSYCHOSES.

17. It is the science of organism as affected by factors in their environment. It deals with the relationship between disease and geographical environment.


* Ecology is the science that deals with the ECOSYSTEM and its effects on living things in the biosphere. It deals with diseases in relationship with the environment. Epidimiology is simply the Study of diseases and its occurence and distribution in man for the purpose of controlling and preventing diseases. This was asked during the previous boards.

18. This is the study of the patterns of health and disease. Its occurrence and distribution in man, for the purpose of control and prevention of disease.


* Refer to number 17.

19. Refers to diseases that produced no anatomic changes but as a result from abnormal response to a stimuli.


* Refer to number 16.

20. In what level of prevention according to Leavell and Clark does the nurse support the client in obtaining OPTIMAL HEALTH STATUS after a disease or injury?


* Perhaps one of the easiest concept but asked frequently in the NLE. Primary refers to preventions that aims in preventing the disease. Examples are healthy lifestyle, good nutrition, knowledge seeking behaviors etc. Secondary prevention are those that deals with early diagnostics, case finding and treatments. Examples are monthly breast self exam, Chest X-RAY, Antibiotic treatment to cure infection, Iron therapy to treat anemia etc. Tertiary prevention aims on maintaining optimum level of functioning during or after the impact of a disease that threatens to alter the normal body functioning. Examples are prosthetis fitting for an amputated leg after an accident, Self monitoring of glucose among diabetics, TPA Therapy after stroke etc.

The confusing part is between the treatment in secondary and treatment in tertiary. To best differentiate the two, A client with ANEMIA that is being treated with ferrous sulfate is considered being in the SECONDARY PREVENTION because ANEMIA once treated, will move the client on PRE ILLNESS STATE again. However, In cases of ASPIRING Therapy in cases of stroke, ASPIRING no longer cure the patient or PUT HIM IN THE PRE ILLNESS STATE. ASA therapy is done in order to prevent coagulation of the blood that can lead to thrombus formation and a another possible stroke. You might wonder why I spelled ASPIRIN as ASPIRING, Its side effect is OTOTOXICITY [ CN VIII ] that leads to TINNITUS or ringing of the ears.

21. In what level of prevention does the nurse encourage optimal health and increases person’s susceptibility to illness?


* The nurse never increases the person's susceptibility to illness but rather, LESSEN the person's susceptibility to illness.

22. Also known as HEALTH MAINTENANCE prevention.


* Secondary prevention is also known as HEALTH MAINTENANCE Prevention. Here, The person feels signs and symptoms and seeks Diagnosis and treatment in order to prevent deblitating complications. Even if the person feels healthy, We are required to MAINTAIN our health by monthly check ups, Physical examinations, Diagnostics etc.

23. PPD In occupational health nursing is what type of prevention?


* PPD or PERSONAL PROTECTIVE DEVICES are worn by the workes in a hazardous environment to protect them from injuries and hazards. This is considered as a PRIMARY prevention because the nurse prevents occurence of diseases and injuries.

24. BCG in community health nursing is what type of prevention?


25. A regular pap smear for woman every 3 years after establishing normal pap smear for 3 consecutive years Is advocated. What level of prevention does this belongs?


26. Self monitoring of blood glucose for diabetic clients is on what level of prevention?


27. Which is the best way to disseminate information to the public?

A. NewspaperB. School bulletinsC. Community bill boardsD. Radio and Television

* An actual board question, The best way to disseminate information to the public is by TELEVISION followed by RADIO. This is how the DOH establish its IEC Programs other than publising posters, leaflets and brochures. An emerging new way to disseminate is through the internet.

28. Who conceptualized health as integration of parts and

subparts of an individual?

A. NewmanB. NeumanC. WatsonD. Rogers

* The supra and subsystems are theories of Martha Rogers but the parts and subparts are Betty Neuman's. She stated that HEALTH is a state where in all parts and subparts of an individual are in harmony with the whole system. Margarex Newman defined health as an EXPANDING CONSCIOUSNESS. Her name is Margaret not Margarex, I just used that to help you remember her theory of health.

29. The following are concept of health:

1. Health is a state of complete physical, mental and social wellbeing and not merely an absence of disease or infirmity.2. Health is the ability to maintain balance3. Health is the ability to maintain internal milieu4. Health is integration of all parts and subparts of an individual

A. 1,2,3B. 1,3,4C. 2,3,4D. 1,2,3,4

* All of the following are correct statement about health. The first one is the definition by WHO, The second one is from Walter Cannon's homeostasis theory. Third one is from Claude Bernard's concept of Health as Internal Milieu and the last one is Neuman's Theory.

30. The theorist the advocated that health is the ability to maintain dynamic equilibrium is

A. BernardB. SelyeC. CannonD. Rogers

* Walter Cannon advocated health as HOMEOSTASIS or the ability to maintain dynamic equilibrium. Hans Selye postulated Concepts about Stress and Adaptation. Bernard defined health as the ability to maintain internal milieu and Rogers defined Health as Wellness that is influenced by individual's culture.

31. Excessive alcohol intake is what type of risk factor?


32. Osteoporosis and degenerative diseases like Osteoarthritis belongs to what type of risk factor?


33. Also known as STERILE TECHNIQUE

A. Surgical AsepsisB. Medical AsepsisC. SepsisD. Asepsis

* Surgical Asepsis is also known as STERILE TECHNIQUE while Medical Asepsis is synonymous with CLEAN TECHNIQUE.

34. This is a person or animal, who is without signs of illness but harbors pathogen within his body and can be transferred to another

A. HostB. AgentC. EnvironmentD. Carrier

35. Refers to a person or animal, known or believed to have been exposed to a disease.

A. CarrierB. ContactC. AgentD. Host

36. A substance usually intended for use on inanimate objects, that destroys pathogens but not the spores.

A. SterilizationB. DisinfectantC. AntisepticD. Autoclave

* Disinfectants are used on inanimate objects while Antiseptics are intended for use on persons and other living things. Both can kill and inhibit growth of microorganism but cannot kill their spores. That is when autoclaving or steam under pressure gets in, Autoclaving can kill almost ALL type of microoganism including their spores.

37. This is a process of removing pathogens but not their spores

A. SterilizationB. Auto clavingC. DisinfectionD. Medical asepsis

* Both A and B are capable on killing spores. Autoclaving is a form of Sterilization. Medical Asepsis is a PRACTICE designed to minimize or reduce the transfer of pathogens, also known as your CLEAN TECHNIQUE. Disinfection is the PROCESS of removing pathogens but not their spores.

38. The third period of infectious processes characterized by development of specific signs and symptoms


* In incubation period, The disease has been introduced to the body but no sign and symptom appear because the

pathogen is not yet strong enough to cause it and may still need to multiply. The second period is called prodromal period. This is when the appearance of non specific signs and symptoms sets in, This is when the sign and symptoms starts to appear. Illness period is characterized by the appearance of specific signs and symptoms or refer tp as time with the greatest symptom experience. Acme is the PEAK of illness intensity while the convalescent period is characterized by the abatement of the disease process or it's gradual disappearance.

39. A child with measles developed fever and general weakness after being exposed to another child with rubella. In what stage of infectious process does this child belongs?


* To be able to categorize MEASLES in the Illness period, the specific signs of Fever, Koplik's Spot and Rashes must appear. In the situation above, Only general signs and symptoms appeared and the Specific signs and symptoms is yet to appear, therefore, the illness is still in the Prodromal period. Signs and symptoms of measles during the prodromal phase are Fever, fatigue, runny nose, cough and conjunctivitis. Koplik's spot heralds the Illness period and cough is the last symptom to disappear. All of this processes take place in 10 days that is why, Measles is also known as 10 day measles.

40. A 50 year old mailman carried a mail with anthrax powder in it. A minute after exposure, he still hasn’t developed any signs and symptoms of anthrax. In what stage of infectious process does this man belongs?


* Anthrax can have an incubation period of hours to 7 days with an average of 48 hours. Since the question stated exposure, we can now assume that the mailman is in the incubation period.

41. Considered as the WEAKEST LINK in the chain of infection that nurses can manipulate to prevent spread of infection and diseases

A. Etiologic/Infectious agentB. Portal of EntryC. Susceptible hostD. Mode of transmission

* Mode of transmission is the weakest link in the chain of infection. It is easily manipulated by the Nurses using the tiers of prevention, either by instituting transmission based precautions, Universal precaution or Isolation techniques.

42. Which of the following is the exact order of the infection chain?

1. Susceptible host2. Portal of entry

3. Portal of exit4. Etiologic agent5. Reservoir6. Mode of transmission

A. 1,2,3,4,5,6B. 5,4,2,3,6,1C. 4,5,3,6,2,1D. 6,5,4,3,2,1

* Chain of infection starts with the SOURCE : The etiologic agent itself. It will first proliferate on a RESERVOIR and will need a PORTAL OF EXIT to be able to TRANSMIT irslef using a PORTAL OF ENTRY to a SUSCEPTIBLE HOST. A simple way to understand the process is by looking at the lives of a young queen ant that is starting to build her colony. Imagine the QUEEN ANT as a SOURCE or the ETIOLOGIC AGENT. She first need to build a COLONY, OR the RESERVOIR where she will start to lay the first eggs to be able to produce her worker ants and soldier ants to be able to defend and sustain the new colony. They need to EXIT [PORTAL OF EXIT] their colony and crawl [MODE OF TRANSMISSION] in search of foods by ENTERING / INVADING [PORTAL OF ENTRY] our HOUSE [SUSCEPTIBLE HOST]. By imagining the Ant's life cycle, we can easily arrange the chain of infection.

43. Markee, A 15 year old high school student asked you. What is the mode of transmission of Lyme disease. You correctly answered him that Lyme disease is transmitted via

A. Direct contact transmissionB. Vehicle borne transmissionC. Air borne transmissionD. Vector borne transmission

* Lyme disease is caused by Borrelia Burdorferi and is transmitted by a TICK BITE.

44. The ability of the infectious agent to cause a disease primarily depends on all of the following except

A. PathogenicityB. VirulenceC. InvasivenessD. Non Specificity

* To be able to cause a disease, A pathogen should have a TARGET ORGAN/S. The pathogen should be specific to these organs to cause an infection. Mycobacterium Avium is NON SPECIFIC to human organs and therefore, not infective to humans but deadly to birds. An immunocompromised individual, specially AIDS Patient, could be infected with these NON SPECIFIC diseases due to impaired immune system.

45. Contact transmission of infectious organism in the hospital is usually cause by

A. Urinary catheterizationB. Spread from patient to patientC. Spread by cross contamination via hands of caregiverD. Cause by unclean instruments used by doctors and nurses

* The hands of the caregiver like nurses, is the main cause of cross contamination in hospital setting. That is why

HANDWASHING is the single most important procedure to prevent the occurence of cross contamination and nosocomial infection. D refers to Nosocomial infection and UTI is the most common noscomial infection in the hospital caused by urinary catheterization. E.Coli seems to be the major cause of this incident. B best fits Cross Contamination, It is the spread of microogranisms from patient o patient.

46. Transmission occurs when an infected person sneezes, coughs or laugh that is usually projected at a distance of 3 feet.

A. Droplet transmissionB. Airborne transmissionC. Vehicle transmissionD. Vector borne transmission

47. Considered as the first line of defense of the body against infection

A. SkinB. WBCC. LeukocytesD. Immunization

* Remember that intact skin and mucus membrane is our first line of defense against infection.

48. All of the following contributes to host susceptibility except

A. CreedB. ImmunizationC. Current medication being takenD. Color of the skin

* Creed, Faith or religious belief do not affect person's susceptibility to illness. Medication like corticosteroids could supress a person's immune system that will lead to increase susceptibility. Color of the skin could affect person's susceptibility to certain skin diseases. A dark skinned person has lower risk of skin cancer than a fair skinned person. Fair skinned person also has a higher risk for cholecystitis and cholelithiasis.

49. Graciel has been injected TT5, her last dosed for tetanus toxoid immunization. Graciel asked you, what type of immunity is TT Injections? You correctly answer her by saying Tetanus toxoid immunization is a/an


* TT1 ti TT2 are considered the primary dose, while TT3 to TT5 are the booster dose. A woman with completed immunization of DPT need not receive TT1 and TT2. Tetanus toxoid is the actual toxin produce by clostridium tetani but on its WEAK and INACTIVATED form. It is Artificial because it did not occur in the course of actual illness or infection, it is Active because what has been passed is an actual toxin and not a ready made immunoglobulin.

50. Agatha, was hacked and slashed by a psychotic man while she was crossing the railway. She suffered multiple injuries and was injected Tetanus toxoid Immunoglobulin. Agatha asked you, What immunity does TTIg provides? You best answered her by saying TTIg provides


* In this scenario, Agatha was already wounded and has injuries. Giving the toxin [TT Vaccine] itself would not help Agatha because it will take time before the immune system produce antitoxin. What agatha needs now is a ready made anti toxin in the form of ATS or TTIg. This is artificial, because the body of agatha did not produce it. It is passive because her immune system is not stimulated but rather, a ready made Immune globulin is given to immediately supress the invasion.

51. This is the single most important procedure that prevents cross contamination and infection

A. CleaningB. DisinfectingC. SterilizingD. Handwashing

* When you see the word HANDWASHING as one of the options, 90% Chance it is the correct answer in the local board. Or should I say, 100% because I have yet to see question from 1988 to 2005 board questions that has option HANDWASHING on it but is not the correct answer.

52. This is considered as the most important aspect of handwashing

A. TimeB. FrictionC. WaterD. Soap

* The most important aspect of handwashing is FRICTION. The rest, will just enhance friction. The use of soap lowers the surface tension thereby increasing the effectiveness of friction. Water helps remove transient bacteria by working with soap to create the lather that reduces surface tension. Time is of essence but friction is the most essential aspect of handwashing.

53. In handwashing by medical asepsis, Hands are held ….

A. Above the elbow, The hands must always be above the waistB. Above the elbow, The hands are cleaner than the elbowC. Below the elbow, Medical asepsis do not require hands to be above the waistD. Below the elbow, Hands are dirtier than the lower arms

* Hands are held BELOW the elbow in medical asepsis in contrast with surgical asepsis, wherein, nurses are required to keep the hands above the waist. The rationale is because in medical asepsis, Hands are considered dirtier than the elbow and therefore, to limit contamination of the lower

arm, The hands should always be below the elbow.

54. The suggested time per hand on handwashing using the time method is

A. 5 to 10 seconds each handB. 10 to 15 seconds each handC. 15 to 30 seconds each handD. 30 to 60 seconds each hand

* Each hands requires atleast 15 to 30 seconds of handwashing to effectively remove transient microorganisms.

55. The minimum time in washing each hand should never be below

A. 5 secondsB. 10 secondsC. 15 secondsD. 30 seconds

* According to Kozier, The minimum time required for watching each hands is 10 seconds and should not be lower than that. The recommended time, again, is 15 to 30 seconds.

56. How many ml of liquid soap is recommended for handwashing procedure?

A. 1-2 mlB. 2-3 mlC. 2-4 mlD. 5-10 ml

* If a liquid soap is to be used, 1 tsp [ 5ml ] of liquid soap is recommended for handwashing procedure.57. Which of the following is not true about sterilization, cleaning and disinfection?

A. Equipment with small lumen are easier to cleanB. Sterilization is the complete destruction of all viable microorganism including sporesC. Some organism are easily destroyed, while other, with coagulated protein requires longer timeD. The number of organism is directly proportional to the length of time required for sterilization

* Equipments with LARGE LUMEN are easier to clean than those with small lumen. B C and D are all correct.

58. Karlita asked you, How long should she boil her glass baby bottle in water? You correctly answered her by saying

A. The minimum time for boiling articles is 5 minutesB. Boil the glass baby bottler and other articles for atleast 10 minutesC. For boiling to be effective, a minimum of 15 minutes is requiredD. It doesn’t matter how long you boil the articles, as long as the water reached 100 degree Celsius

* Boiling is the most common and least expensive method of sterilization used in home. For it to be effective, you should boil articles for atleast 15 minutes.

59. This type of disinfection is best done in sterilizing drugs, foods and other things that are required to be sterilized before taken in by the human body

A. Boiling WaterB. Gas sterilizationC. Steam under pressureD. Radiation

* Imagine foods and drugs that are being sterilized by a boiling water, ethylene oxide gas and autoclave or steam under pressure, They will be inactivated by these methods. Ethylene oxide gas used in gas sterlization is TOXIC to humans. Boiling the food will alter its consistency and nutrients. Autoclaving the food is never performed. Radiation using microwave oven or Ionizing radiation penetrates to foods and drugs thus, sterilizing them.

60. A TB patient was discharged in the hospital. A UV Lamp was placed in the room where he stayed for a week. What type of disinfection is this?

A. Concurrent disinfectionB. Terminal disinfectionC. Regular disinfectionD. Routine disinfection

* Terminal disinfection refers to practices to remove pathogens that stayed in the belongings or immediate environemnt of an infected client who has been discharged. An example would be Killing airborne TB Bacilli using UV Light. Concurrent disinfection refers to ongoing efforts implented during the client's stay to remove or limit pathogens in his supplies, belongings, immediate environment in order to control the spread of the disease. An example is cleaning the bedside commode of a client with radium implant on her cervix with a bleach disinfectant after each voiding.

61. Which of the following is not true in implementing medical asepsis

A. Wash hand before and after patient contactB. Keep soiled linens from touching the clothingsC. Shake the linens to remove dustD. Practice good hygiene

* NEVER shake the linens. Once soiled, fold it inwards clean surface out. Shaking the linen will further spread pathogens that has been harbored by the fabric.

62. Which of the following is true about autoclaving or steam under pressure?

A. All kinds of microorganism and their spores are destroyed by autoclave machineB. The autoclaved instruments can be used for 1 month considering the bags are still intactC. The instruments are put into unlocked position, on their hinge, during the autoclaveD. Autoclaving different kinds of metals at one time is advisable

* Only C is correct. Metals with locks, like clamps and scissors should be UNLOCKED in order to minimize stiffening caused by autoclave to the hinges of these metals.

NOT ALL microorganism are destroyed by autoclaving. There are recently discovered microorganism that is invulnarable to extreme heat. Autoclaved instruments are to be used within 2 weeks. Only the same type of metals should be autoclaved as this will alteration in plating of these metals.

63. Which of the following is true about masks?

A. Mask should only cover the noseB. Mask functions better if they are wet with alcoholC. Masks can provide durable protection even when worn for a long time and after each and every patient careD. N95 Mask or particulate masks can filter organism as mall as 1 micromillimeter

* only D is correct. Mask should cover both nose and mouth. Masks will not function optimally when wet. Masks should be worn not greater than 4 hours, as it will lose effectiveness after 4 hours. N95 mask or particulate mask can filter organism as small as 1 micromillimeter.

64. Where should you put a wet adult diaper?

A. Green trashcanB. Black trashcanC. Orange trashcanD. Yellow trashcan

* Infectious waste like blood and blood products, wet diapers and dressings are thrown in yellow trashcans.65. Needles, scalpels, broken glass and lancets are considered as injurious wastes. As a nurse, it is correct to put them at disposal via a/an

A. Puncture proof containerB. Reused PET BottlesC. Black trashcanD. Yellow trashcan with a tag “INJURIOUS WASTES”

* Needles, scalpels and other sharps are to be disposed in a puncture proof container.

66. Miranda Priestly, An executive of RAMP magazine, was diagnosed with cancer of the cervix. You noticed that the radioactive internal implant protrudes to her vagina where supposedly, it should be in her cervix. What should be your initial action?

A. Using a long forceps, Push it back towards the cervix then call the physicianB. Wear gloves, remove it gently and place it on a lead containerC. Using a long forceps, Remove it and place it on a lead containerD. Call the physician, You are not allowed to touch, re insert or remove it

* A dislodged radioactive cervical implant in brachytherapy are to be picked by a LONG FORCEP and stored in a LEAD CONTAINER in order to prevent damage on the client's normal tissue. Calling the physician is the second most appropriate action among the choices. A nurse should never attempt to put it back nor, touch it with her bare hands.

67. After leech therapy, Where should you put the leeches?

A. In specially marked BIO HAZARD ContainersB. Yellow trashcanC. Black trashcanD. Leeches are brought back to the culture room, they are not thrown away for they are reusable

* Leeches, in leech therapy or LEECH PHLEBOTOMY are to be disposed on a BIO HAZARD container. They are never re used as this could cause transfer of infection. These leeches are hospital grown and not the usual leeches found in swamps.

68. Which of the following should the nurse AVOID doing in preventing spread of infection?

A. Recapping the needle before disposal to prevent injuriesB. Never pointing a needle towards a body partC. Using only Standard precaution to AIDS PatientsD. Do not give fresh and uncooked fruits and vegetables to Mr. Gatchie, with Neutropenia

* Never recap needles. They are directly disposed in a puncture proof container after used. Recapping the needles could cause injury to the nurse and spread of infection. B C and D are all appropriate. Standard precaution is sufficient for an HIV patient. A client with neutropenia are not given fresh and uncooked fruits and vegetables for even the non infective organisms found in these foods could cause severe infection on an immunocompromised patients.

69. Where should you put Mr. Alejar, with Category II TB?

A. In a room with positive air pressure and atleast 3 air exchanges an hourB. In a room with positive air pressure and atleast 6 air exchanges an hourC. In a room with negative air pressure and atleast 3 air exchanges an hourD. In a room with negative air pressure and atleast 6 air exchanges an hour

* TB patients should have a private room with negative air pressure and atleast 6 to 12 air exhanges per hour. Negative pressure room will prevent air inside the room from escaping. Air exchanges are necessary since the client's room do not allow air to get out of the room.

70. A client has been diagnosed with RUBELLA. What precaution is used for this patient?


* Droplet precaution is sufficient on client's with RUBELLA or german measles.

71. A client has been diagnosed with MEASLES. What precaution is used for this patient?

A. Standard precautionB. Airborne precaution

C. Droplet precautionD. Contact precaution

* Measles is highly communicable and more contagious than Rubella, It requires airborne precaution as it is spread by small particle droplets that remains suspended in air and disperesed by air movements.

72. A client has been diagnosed with IMPETIGO. What precaution is used for this patient?


* Impetigo causes blisters or sores in the skin. It is generally caused by GABS or Staph Aureaus. It is spread by skin to skin contact or by scratching the lesions and touching another person's skin.

73. The nurse is to insert an NG Tube when suddenly, she accidentally dip the end of the tube in the client’s glass containing distilled drinking water which is definitely not sterile. As a nurse, what should you do?

A. Don’t mind the incident, continue to insert the NG TubeB. Obtain a new NG Tube for the clientC. Disinfect the NG Tube before reinserting it againD. Ask your senior nurse what to do

* The digestive tract is not sterile, and therefore, simple errors like this would not cause harm to the patient. NGT tube need not be sterile, and so is colostomy and rectal tubes. Clean technique is sufficient during NGT and colostomy care.

74. All of the following are principle of SURGICAL ASEPSIS except

A. Microorganism travels to moist surfaces faster than with dry surfacesB. When in doubt about the sterility of an object, consider it not sterileC. Once the skin has been sterilized, considered it sterileD. If you can reach the object by overreaching, just move around the sterile field to pick it rather than reaching for it

* Human skin is impossible to be sterilized. It contains normal flora of microorganism. A B and D are all correct.

75. Which of the following is true in SURGICAL ASEPSIS?

A. Autoclaved linens and gowns are considered sterile for about 4 months as long as the bagging is intactB. Surgical technique is a sole effort of each nurseC. Sterile conscience, is the best method to enhance sterile techniqueD. If a scrubbed person leaves the area of the sterile field, He/she must do handwashing and gloving again, but the gown need not be changed.

* Sterile conscience, or the moral imperative of a nurse to be honest in practicing sterile technique, is the best method to

enhance sterile technique. Autoclaved linens are considered sterile only within 2 weeks even if the bagging is intact. Surgical technique is a team effort of each nurse. If a scrubbed person leave the sterile field and area, he must do the process all over again.

76. In putting sterile gloves, Which should be gloved first?

A. The dominant handB. The non dominant handC. The left handD. No specific order, Its up to the nurse for her own convenience

* Gloves are put on the non dominant hands first and then, the dominant hand. The rationale is simply because humans tend to use the dominant hand first before the non dominant hand. Out of 10 humans that will put on their sterile gloves, 8 of them will put the gloves on their non dominant hands first.

77. As the scrubbed nurse, when should you apply the goggles, shoe cap and mask prior to the operation?

A. Immediately after entering the sterile fieldB. After surgical hand scrubC. Before surgical hand scrubD. Before entering the sterile field

* The nurse should put his goggles, cap and mask prior to washing the hands. If he wash his hands prior to putting all these equipments, he must wash his hands again as these equipments are said to be UNSTERILE.

78. Which of the following should the nurse do when applying gloves prior to a surgical procedure?

A. Slipping gloved hand with all fingers when picking up the second gloveB. Grasping the first glove by inserting four fingers, with thumbs up underneath the cuffC. Putting the gloves into the dominant hand firstD. Adjust only the fitting of the gloves after both gloves are on

* The nurse should only adjust fitting of the gloves when they are both on the hands. Not doing so will break the sterile technique. Only 4 gingers are slipped when picking up the second gloves. You cannot slip all of your fingers as the cuff is limited and the thumb would not be able to enter the cuff. The first glove is grasp by simply picking it up with the first 2 fingers and a thumb in a pinching motion. Gloves are put on the non dominant hands first.

79. Which gloves should you remove first?

A. The glove of the non dominant handB. The glove of the dominant handC. The glove of the left handD. Order in removing the gloves Is unnecessary

* Gloves are worn in the non dominant hand first, and is removed also from the non dominant hand first. Rationale is simply because in 10 people removing gloves, 8 of them will use the dominant hand first and remove the gloves of the non dominant hand.

80. Before a surgical procedure, Give the sequence on applying the protective items listed below


A. 3,2,1,5,4B. 3,2,1,4,5C. 2,3,1,5,4D. 2,3,1,4,5

* The nurse should use CaMEy Hand and Body Lotion in moisturizing his hand before surgical procedure and after handwashing. Ca stands for CAP, M stands for MASK, Ey stands for eye goggles. The nurse will do handwashing and then [HAND], Don the gloves first and wear the Gown [BODY]. I created this mnemonic and I advise you use it because you can never forget Camey hand and body lotion. [ Yes, I know it is spelled as CAMAY ]]

81. In removing protective devices, which should be the exact sequence?


A. 4,3,5,1,2B. 2,3,1,5,4C. 5,4,3,2,1D. 1,2,3,4,5

* When the nurse is about to remove his protective devices, The nurse will remove the GLOVES first followed by the MASK and GOWN then, other devices like cap, shoe cover, etc. This is to prevent contamination of hair, neck and face area.

82. In pouring a plain NSS into a receptacle located in a sterile field, how high should the nurse hold the bottle above the receptacle?

A. 1 inchB. 3 inchesC. 6 inchesD. 10 inches

* Even if you do not know the answer to this question, you can answer it correctly by imagining. If you pour the NSS into a receptacle 1 to 3 inch above it, Chances are, The mouth of the NSS bottle would dip into the receptacle as you fill it, making it contaminated. If you pour the NSS bottle into a receptacle 10 inches above it, that is too high, chances are, as you pour the NSS, most will spill out because the force will be too much for the buoyant force to handle. It will also be difficult to pour something precisely into a receptacle as the height increases between the receptacle and the bottle. 6 inches is the correct answer. It is not to low nor too high.

83. The tip of the sterile forceps is considered sterile. It is used to manipulate the objects in the sterile field using the non sterile hands. How should the nurse hold a sterile forceps?

A. The tip should always be lower than the handleB. The tip should always be above the handleC. The handle and the tip should be at the same levelD. The handle should point downward and the tip, always upward

* A sterile forcep is usually dipped into a disinfectant or germicidal solution. Imagine, if the tip is HIGHER than the handle, the solution will go into the handle and into your hands and as you use the forcep, you will eventually lower its tip making the solution in your hand go BACK into the tip thus contaminating the sterile area of the forcep. To prevent this, the tip should always be lower than the handle. In situation questions like this, IMAGINATION is very important.84. The nurse enters the room of the client on airborne precaution due to tuberculosis. Which of the following are appropriate actions by the nurse?

1. She wears mask, covering the nose and mouth2. She washes her hands before and after removing gloves, after suctioning the client’s secretion3. She removes gloves and hands before leaving the client’s room4. She discards contaminated suction catheter tip in trashcan found in the clients room

A. 1,2B. 1,2,3C. 1,2,3,4D. 1,3

* All soiled equipments use in an infectious client are disposed INSIDE the client's room to prevent contamination outside the client's room. The nurse is correct in using Mask the covers both nose and mouth. Hands are washed before and after removing the gloves and before and after you enter the client's room. Gloves and contaminated suction tip are thrown in trashcan found in the clients room.

85. When performing surgical hand scrub, which of the following nursing action is required to prevent contamination?

1. Keep fingernail short, clean and with nail polish2. Open faucet with knee or foot control3. Keep hands above the elbow when washing and rinsing4. Wear cap, mask, shoe cover after you scrubbed

A. 1,2B. 2,3C. 1,2,3D. 2,3,4

* Cap, mask and shoe cover are worn BEFORE scrubbing.

86. When removing gloves, which of the following is an inappropriate nursing action?

A. Wash gloved hand firstB. Peel off gloves inside out

C. Use glove to glove skin to skin techniqueD. Remove mask and gown before removing gloves

* Gloves are the dirtiest protective item nurses are wearing and therefore, the first to be removed to prevent spread of microorganism as you remove the mask and gown.

87. Which of the following is TRUE in the concept of stress?

A. Stress is not always present in diseases and illnessesB. Stress are only psychological and manifests psychological symptomsC. All stressors evoke common adaptive responseD. Hemostasis refers to the dynamic state of equilibrium

* All stressors evoke common adaptive response. A psychologic fear like nightmare and a real fear or real perceive threat evokes common manifestation like tachycardia, tachypnea, sweating, increase muscle tension etc. ALL diseases and illness causes stress. Stress can be both REAL or IMAGINARY. Hemostasis refers to the ARREST of blood flowing abnormally through a damage vessel. Homeostasis is the one that refers to dynamic state of equilibrium according to Walter Cannon.

88. According to this theorist, in his modern stress theory, Stress is the non specific response of the body to any demand made upon it.

A. Hans SelyeB. Walter CannonC. Claude BernardD. Martha Rogers

* Hans Selye is the only theorist who proposed an intriguing theory about stress that has been widely used and accepted by professionals today. He conceptualized two types of human response to stress, The GAS or general adaptation syndrome which is characterized by stages of ALARM, RESISTANCE and EXHAUSTION. The Local adaptation syndrome controls stress through a particular body part. Example is when you have been wounded in your finger, it will produce PAIN to let you know that you should protect that particular damaged area, it will also produce inflammation to limit and control the spread of injury and facilitate healing process. Another example is when you are frequently lifting heavy objects, eventually, you arm, back and leg muscles hypertorphies to adapt to the stress of heavy lifting.

89. Which of the following is NOT TRUE with regards to the concept of Modern Stress Theory?

A. Stress is not a nervous energyB. Man, whenever he encounters stresses, always adapts to itC. Stress is not always something to be avoidedD. Stress does not always lead to distress

* Man, do not always adapt to stress. Sometimes, stress can lead to exhaustion and eventually, death. A,C and D are all correct.

90. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to the concept of Modern Stress Theory?

A. Stress is essentialB. Man does not encounter stress if he is asleepC. A single stress can cause a diseaseD. Stress always leads to distress

* Stress is ESSENTIAL. No man can live normally without stress. It is essential because it is evoked by the body's normal pattern of response and leads to a favorable adaptive mechanism that are utilized in the future when more stressors are encountered by the body. Man can encounter stress even while asleep, example is nightmare. Disease are multifactorial, No diseases are caused by a single stressors. Stress are sometimes favorable and are not always a cause for distress. An example of favorable stress is when a carpenter meets the demand and stress of everyday work. He then develops calluses on the hand to lessen the pressure of the hammer against the tissues of his hand. He also develop larger muscle and more dense bones in the arm, thus, a stress will lead to adaptations to decrease that particular stress.

91. Which of the following is TRUE in the stage of alarm of general adaptation syndrome?

A. Results from the prolonged exposure to stressB. Levels or resistance is increasedC. Characterized by adaptationD. Death can ensue

* Death can ensue as early as the stage of alarm. Exhaustion results to a prolonged exposure to stress. Resistance is when the levels of resistance increases and characterized by being able to adapt.

92. The stage of GAS where the adaptation mechanism begins


* Adaptation mechanisms begin in the stage of alarm. This is when the adaptive mechanism are mobilized. When someone shouts SUNOG!!! your heart will begin to beat faster, you vessels constricted and bp increased.

93. Stage of GAS Characterized by adaptation


94. Stage of GAS wherein, the Level of resistance are decreased


* Resistance are decreased in the stage of alarm. Resistance is absent in the stage of exhaustion. Resistance is increased in the stage of resistance.

95. Where in stages of GAS does a person moves back into HOMEOSTASIS?


96. Stage of GAS that results from prolonged exposure to stress. Here, death will ensue unless extra adaptive mechanisms are utilized


97. All but one is a characteristic of adaptive response

A. This is an attempt to maintain homeostasisB. There is a totality of responseC. Adaptive response is immediately mobilized, doesn’t require timeD. Response varies from person to person

* Aside from having limits that leads to exhaustion. Adaptive response requires time for it to act. It requires energy, physical and psychological taxes that needs time for our body to mobilize and utilize.

98. Andy, a newly hired nurse, starts to learn the new technology and electronic devices at the hospital. Which of the following mode of adaptation is Andy experiencing?


99. Andy is not yet fluent in French, but he works in Quebec where majority speaks French. He is starting to learn the language of the people. What type of adaptation is Andy experiencing?


* Sociocultural adaptive modes include language, communication, dressing, acting and socializing in line with the social and cultural standard of the people around the adapting individual.

100. Andy made an error and his senior nurse issued a written warning. Andy arrived in his house mad and kicked the door hard to shut it off. What adaptation mode is this?


* Andy uses a defense mechanism called

DISPLACEMENT. All DMs are categorized as PSYCHOLOGIC ADAPTIVE RESPONSE to stressors.

FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING TEST III

Content Outline

1. Physical response to stress2. Psychological response to stress3. Spiritual response to stress4. Stress management5. Crisis and Crisis intervention6. Communication7. Recording8. Documentation9. Learning

1. The coronary vessels, unlike any other blood vessels in the body, respond to sympathetic stimulation by

A. VasoconstrictionB. VasodilatationC. Decreases force of contractilityD. Decreases cardiac output

2. What stress response can you expect from a patient with blood sugar of 50 mg / dl?

A. Body will try to decrease the glucose levelB. There will be a halt in release of sex hormonesC. Client will appear restlessD. Blood pressure will increase

3. All of the following are purpose of inflammation except

A. Increase heat, thereby produce abatement of phagocytosisB. Localized tissue injury by increasing capillary permeabilityC. Protect the issue from injury by producing painD. Prepare for tissue repair

4. The initial response of tissue after injury is

A. Immediate VasodilationB. Transient VasoconstrictionC. Immediate VasoconstrictionD. Transient Vasodilation

5. The last expected process in the stages of inflammation is characterized by

A. There will be sudden redness of the affected partB. Heat will increase on the affected partC. The affected part will loss its normal functionD. Exudates will flow from the injured site

6. What kind of exudates is expected when there is an antibody-antigen reaction as a result of microorganism infection?

A. SerousB. SerosanguinousC. PurulentD. Sanguinous

7. The first manifestation of inflammation is

A. Redness on the affected areaB. Swelling of the affected areaC. Pain, which causes guarding of the areaD. Increase heat due to transient vasodilation

8. The client has a chronic tissue injury. Upon examining the client’s antibody for a particular cellular response, Which of the following WBC component is responsible for phagocytosis in chronic tissue injury?

A. NeutrophilsB. BasophilsC. EosinophilsD. Monocytes

9. Which of the following WBC component proliferates in cases of Anaphylaxis?


10. Icheanne, ask you, her Nurse, about WBC Components. She got an injury yesterday after she twisted her ankle accidentally at her gymnastic class. She asked you, which WBC Component is responsible for proliferation at the injured site immediately following an injury. You answer:


11. Icheanne then asked you, what is the first process that occurs in the inflammatory response after injury, You tell her:

A. PhagocytosisB. EmigrationC. PavementationD. Chemotaxis

12. Icheanne asked you again, What is that term that describes the magnetic attraction of injured tissue to bring phagocytes to the site of injury?

A. Icheanne, you better sleep now, you asked a lot of questionsB. It is DiapedesisC. We call that EmigrationD. I don’t know the answer, perhaps I can tell you after I find it out later

13. This type of healing occurs when there is a delayed surgical closure of infected wound

A. First intentionB. Second intentionC. Third intentionD. Fourth intention14. Type of healing when scars are minimal due to careful surgical incision and good healing

A. First intentionB. Second intentionC. Third intentionD. Fourth intention

15. Imelda, was slashed and hacked by an unknown suspects. She suffered massive tissue loss and laceration on her arms and elbow in an attempt to evade the criminal. As a nurse, you know that the type of healing that will most likely occur to Miss Imelda is


16. Imelda is in the recovery stage after the incident. As a nurse, you know that the diet that will be prescribed to Miss Imelda is

A. Low calorie, High protein with Vitamin A and C rich foodsB. High protein, High calorie with Vitamin A and C rich foodsC. High calorie, Low protein with Vitamin A and C rich foodsD. Low calorie, Low protein with Vitamin A and C rich foods

17. Miss Imelda asked you, What is WET TO DRY Dressing method? Your best response is

A. It is a type of mechanical debridement using Wet dressing that is applied and left to dry to remove dead tissuesB. It is a type of surgical debridement with the use of Wet dressing to remove the necrotic tissuesC. It is a type of dressing where in, The wound is covered with Wet or Dry dressing to prevent contaminationD. It is a type of dressing where in, A cellophane or plastic is placed on the wound over a wet dressing to stimulate healing of the wound in a wet medium

18. The primary cause of pain in inflammation is

A. Release of pain mediatorsB. Injury to the nerve endingsC. Compression of the local nerve endings by the edema fluidsD. Circulation is lessen, Supply of oxygen is insufficient

19. The client is in stress because he was told by the physician he needs to undergo surgery for removal of tumor in his bladder. Which of the following are effects of sympatho-adreno-medullary response by the client?

1. Constipation2. Urinary frequency3. Hyperglycemia4. Increased blood pressure

A. 3,4B. 1,3,4C.1,2,4D.1,4

20. The client is on NPO post midnight. Which of the following, if done by the client, is sufficient to cancel the operation in the morning?

A. Eat a full meal at 10:00 P.MB. Drink fluids at 11:50 P.MC. Brush his teeth the morning before operationD. Smoke cigarette around 3:00 A.M

21. The client place on NPO for preparation of the blood test. Adreno-cortical response is activated and which of the following below is an expected response?

A. Low BPB. Decrease Urine outputC. Warm, flushed, dry skinD. Low serum sodium levels

22. Which of the following is true about therapeutic relationship?

A. Directed towards helping an individual both physically and emotionallyB. Bases on friendship and mutual trustC. Goals are set by the solely nurseD. Maintained even after the client doesn’t need anymore of the Nurse’s help

23. According to her, A nurse patient relationship is composed of 4 stages : Orientation, Identification, Exploitation and Resolution

A. RoyB. PeplauC. RogersD. Travelbee

24. In what phase of Nurse patient relationship does a nurse review the client’s medical records thereby learning as much as possible about the client?

A. Pre OrientationB. OrientationC. WorkingD. Termination

25. Nurse Aida has seen her patient, Roger for the first time. She establish a contract about the frequency of meeting and introduce to Roger the expected termination. She started taking baseline assessment and set interventions and outcomes. On what phase of NPR Does Nurse Aida and Roger belong?


26. Roger has been seen agitated, shouting and running. As Nurse Aida approaches, he shouts and swear, calling Aida names. Nurse Aida told Roger “That is an unacceptable behavior Roger, Stop and go to your room now.” The situation is most likely in what phase of NPR?

A. Pre Orientation

B. OrientationC. WorkingD. Termination

27. Nurse Aida, in spite of the incident, still consider Roger as worthwhile simply because he is a human being. What major ingredient of a therapeutic communication is Nurse Aida using?

A. EmpathyB. Positive regardC. Comfortable sense of selfD. Self awareness

28. Nurse Irma saw Roger and told Nurse Aida “ Oh look at that psychotic patient “ Nurse Aida should intervene and correct Nurse Irma because her statement shows that she is lacking?


29. Which of the following statement is not true about stress?

A. It is a nervous energyB. It is an essential aspect of existenceC. It has been always a part of human experienceD. It is something each person has to cope

30. Martina, a Tennis champ was devastated after many new competitors outpaced her in the Wimbledon event.She became depressed and always seen crying. Martina is clearly on what kind of situation?

A. Martina is just stressed outB. Martina is AnxiousC. Martina is in the exhaustion stage of GASD. Martina is in Crisis

31. Which of the following statement is not true with regards to anxiety?

A. It has physiologic componentB. It has psychologic componentC. The source of dread or uneasiness is from an unrecognized entityD. The source of dread or uneasiness is from a recognized entity

32. Lorraine, a 27 year old executive was brought to the ER for an unknown reason. She is starting to speak but her speech is disorganized and cannot be understood. On what level of anxiety does this features belongs?

A. MildB. ModerateC. SeverD. Panic

33. Elton, 21 year old nursing student is taking the board examination. She is sweating profusely, has decreased awareness of his environment and is purely focused on the exam questions characterized by his selective attentiveness.

What anxiety level is Elton exemplifying?

A. MildB. ModerateC. SeverD. Panic

34. You noticed the patient chart : ANXIETY +3 What will you expect to see in this client?

A. An optimal time for learning, Hearing and perception is greatly increasedB. Dilated pupilsC. Unable to communicateD. Uses palliative coping mechanism

35. When should the nurse starts giving XANAX?

A. When anxiety is +1B. When the client starts to have a narrow perceptual field and selective inattentivenessC. When problem solving is not possibleD. When the client is immobile and disorganized

36. Which of the following behavior is not a sign or a symptom of Anxiety?

A. Frequent hand movementB. SomatizationC. The client asks a questionD. The client is acting out

37. Which of the following intervention is inappropriate for client’s with anxiety?

A. Offer choicesB. Provide a quiet and calm environmentC. Provide detailed explanation on each and every procedures and equipmentsD. Bring anxiety down to a controllable level

38. Which of the following statement, if made by the nurse, is considered not therapeutic?

A. “How did you deal with your anxiety before?”B. “It must be awful to feel anxious.”C. “How does it feel to be anxious?”D. “What makes you feel anxious?”

39. Marissa Salva, Uses Benson’s relaxation. How is it done?

A. Systematically tensing muscle groups from top to bottom for 5 seconds, and then releasing themB. Concentrating on breathing without tensing the muscle, Letting go and repeating a word or sound after each exhalationC. Using a strong positive, feeling-rich statement about a desired changeD. Exercise combined with meditation to foster relaxation and mental alacrity

40. What type of relaxation technique does Lyza uses if a machine is showing her pulse rate, temperature and muscle tension which she can visualize and assess?

A. BiofeedbackB. MassageC. Autogenic trainingD. Visualization and Imagery

41. This is also known as Self-suggestion or Self-hypnosis

A. BiofeedbackB. MeditationC. Autogenic trainingD. Visualization and Imagery

42. Which among these drugs is NOT an anxiolytic?

A. ValiumB. AtivanC. MilltownD. Luvox

43. Kenneth, 25 year old diagnosed with HIV felt that he had not lived up with God’s expectation. He fears that in the course of his illness, God will be punitive and not be supportive. What kind of spiritual crisis is Kenneth experiencing?

1. Spiritual Pain2. Spiritual Anxiety3. Spiritual Guilt4. Spiritual Despair

A. 1,2B. 2,3C. 3,4D. 1,4

44. Grace, believes that her relationship with God is broken. She tried to go to church to ask forgiveness everyday to remedy her feelings. What kind of spiritual distress is Grace experiencing?

A. Spiritual PanB. Spiritual AlienationC. Spiritual GuiltD. Spiritual Despair

45. Remedios felt “EMPTY” She felt that she has already lost God’s favor and love because of her sins. This is a type of what spiritual crisis?

A. Spiritual AngerB. Spiritual LossC. Spiritual DespairD. Spiritual Anxiety

46. Budek is working with a schizophrenic patient. He noticed that the client is agitated, pacing back and forth, restless and experiencing Anxiety +3. Budek said “You appear restless” What therapeutic technique did Budek used?

A. Offering general leadsB. Seeking clarificationC. Making observationD. Encouraging description of perception

47. Rommel told Budek “ I SEE DEAD PEOPLE “ Budek

responded “You see dead people?” This Is an example of therapeutic communication technique?

A. ReflectingB. RestatingC. ExploringD. Seeking clarification

48. Rommel told Budek, “Do you think Im crazy?” Budek responded, “Do you think your crazy?” Budek uses what example of therapeutic communication?


49. Myra, 21 year old nursing student has difficulty sleeping. She told Nurse Budek “I really think a lot about my x boyfriend recently” Budek told Myra “And that causes you difficulty sleeping?” Which therapeutic technique is used in this situation?


50. Myra told Budek “I cannot sleep, I stay away all night” Budek told her “You have difficulty sleeping” This is what type of therapeutic communication technique?


51. Myra said “I saw my dead grandmother here at my bedside a while ago” Budek responded “Really? That is hard to believe, How do you feel about it?” What technique did Budek used?

A. DisprovingB. DisagreeingC. Voicing DoubtD. Presenting Reality

52. Which of the following is a therapeutic communication in response to “I am a GOD, bow before me Or ill summon the dreaded thunder to burn you and purge you to pieces!”

A. “You are not a GOD, you are Professor Tadle and you are a PE Teacher, not a Nurse. I am Glen, Your nurse.”B. “Oh hail GOD Tadle, everyone bow or face his wrath!”C. “Hello Mr. Tadle, You are here in the hospital, I am your nurse and you are a patient here”D. “How can you be a GOD Mr. Tadle? Can you tell me more about it?”

53. Erik John Senna, Told Nurse Budek “ I don’t want to that, I don’t want that thing.. that’s too painful!” Which of the following response is NON THERAPEUTIC

A. “ This must be difficult for you, But I need to inject you this for your own good”

B. “ You sound afraid”C. “Are you telling me you don’t want this injection?”D. “Why are you so anxious? Please tell me more about your feelings Erik”

54. Legrande De Salvaje Y Cobrador La Jueteng, was caught by the bacolod police because of his illegal activities. When he got home after paying for the bail, He shouted at his son. What defense mechanism did Mr. La Jueteng used?

A. RestitutionB. ProjectionC. DisplacementD. Undoing

55. Later that day, he bought his son ice cream and food. What defense mechanism is Legrande unconsciously doing?

A. RestitutionB. ConversionC. RedoingD. Reaction formation

56. Crisis is a sudden event in ones life that disturbs a person’s homeostasis. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in crisis?

A. The person experiences heightened feeling of stressB. Inability to function in the usual organized mannerC. Lasts for 4 monthsD. Indicates unpleasant emotional feelings

57. Which of the following is a characteristic of crisis?

A. Lasts for an unlimited period of timeB. There is a triggering eventC. Situation is not dangerous to the personD. Person totality is not involved

58. Levito Devin, The Italian prime minister, is due to retire next week. He feels depressed due to the enormous loss of influence, power, fame and fortune. What type of crisis is Devin experiencing?

A. SituationalB. MaturationalC. SocialD. Phenomenal

59. Estrada, The Philippine president, has been unexpectedly impeached and was out of office before the end of his term. He is in what type of crisis?


60. The tsunami in Thailand and Indonesia took thousands of people and change million lives. The people affected by the Tsunami are saddened and do not know how to start all over again. What type of crisis is this?

A. SituationalB. MaturationalC. Social

D. Phenomenal

61. Which of the following is the BEST goal for crisis intervention?

A. Bring back the client in the pre crisis stateB. Make sure that the client becomes betterC. Achieve independenceD. Provide alternate coping mechanism

62. What is the best intervention when the client has just experienced the crisis and still at the first phase of the crisis?

A. Behavior therapyB. Gestalt therapyC. Cognitive therapyD. Milieu Therapy

63. Therapeutic nurse client relationship is describes as follows

1. Based on friendship and mutual interest2. It is a professional relationship3. It is focused on helping the patient solve problems and achieve health-related goals4. Maintained only as long as the patient requires professional help

A. 1,2,3B. 1,2,4C. 2,3,4D. 1,3,4

64. The client is scheduled to have surgical removal of the tumor on her left breast. Which of the following manifestation indicates that she is experiencing Mild Anxiety?

A. She has increased awareness of her environmental detailsB. She focused on selected aspect of her illnessC. She experiences incongruence of action, thoughts and feelingsD. She experiences random motor activities

65. Which of the following nursing intervention would least likely be effective when dealing with a client with aggressive behavior?

A. Approach him in a calm mannerB. Provide opportunities to express feelingsC. Maintain eye contact with the clientD. Isolate the client from others

66. Whitney, a patient of nurse Budek, verbalizes… “I have nothing, nothing… nothing! Don't make me close one more door, I don't wanna hurt anymore!” Which of the following is the most appropriate response by Budek?

A. Why are you singing?B. What makes you say that?C. Ofcourse you are everything!D. What is that you said?

67. Whitney verbalizes that she is anxious that the diagnostic test might reveal laryngeal cancer. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing intervention?

A. Tell the client not to worry until the results are inB. Ask the client to express feelings and concernC. Reassure the client everything will be alrightD. Advice the client to divert his attention by watching television and reading newspapers

68. Considered as the most accurate expression of person’s thought and feelings

A. Verbal communicationB. Non verbal communicationC. Written communicationD. Oral communication

69. Represents inner feeling that a person do not like talking about.

A. Overt communicationB. Covert communicationC. Verbal communicationD. Non verbal communication

70. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an effective Nurse-Client relationship?

A. Focused on the patientB. Based on mutual trustC. Conveys acceptanceD. Discourages emotional bond

71. A type of record wherein , each person or department makes notation in separate records. A nurse will use the nursing notes, The doctor will use the Physician’s order sheet etc. Data is arranged according to information source.

A. POMRB. PORC. TraditionalD. Resource oriented

72. Type of recording that integrates all data about the problem, gathered by members of the health team.

A. POMRB. TraditionalC. Resource orientedD. Source oriented

73. These are data that are monitored by using graphic charts or graphs that indicated the progression or fluctuation of client’s Temperature and Blood pressure.

A. Progress notesB. KardexC. Flow chartD. Flow sheet

74. Provides a concise method of organizing and recording data about the client. It is a series of flip cards kept in portable file used in change of shift reports.

A. KardexB. Progress NotesC. SOAPIED. Change of shift report

75. You are about to write an information on the Kardex. There are 4 available writing instruments to use. Which of the following should you use?

A. Mongol #2B. Permanent InkC. A felt or fountain penD. Pilot Pentel Pen marker

76. The client has an allergy to Iodine based dye. Where should you put this vital information in the client’s chart?

A. In the first page of the client’s chartB. At the last page of the client’s chartC. At the front metal plate of the chartD. In the Kardex

77. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the Kardex

A. It provides readily available informationB. It is a tool of end of shift reportsC. The primary basis of endorsementD. Where Allergies information are written

78. Which of the following, if seen on the Nurses notes, violates characteristic of good recording?

A. The client has a blood pressure of 120/80, Temperature of 36.6 C Pulse rate of 120 and Respiratory rate of 22B. Ate 50% of food servedC. Refused administration of betaxololD. Visited and seen By Dr. Santiago

79. The physician ordered : Mannerix a.c , what does a.c means?

A. As desiredB. Before mealsC. After mealsD. Before bed time

80. The physician ordered, Maalox, 2 hours p.c, what does p.c means?A. As desiredB. Before mealsC. After mealsD. Before bed time

81. The physician ordered, Maxitrol, Od. What does Od means?

A. Left eyeB. Right eyeC. Both eyeD. Once a day

82. The physician orderd, Magnesium Hydroxide cc Aluminum Hydroxide. What does cc means?

A. withoutB. withC. one halfD. With one half dose

83. Physician ordered, Paracetamol tablet ss. What does ss

means?


84. Which of the following indicates that learning has been achieved?

A. Matuts starts exercising every morning and eating a balance diet after you taught her mag HL tayo programB. Donya Delilah has been able to repeat the steps of insulin administration after you taught it to herC. Marsha said “ I understand “ after you a health teaching about family planningD. John rated 100% on your given quiz about smoking and alcoholism

85. In his theory of learning as a BEHAVIORISM, he stated that transfer of knowledge occurs if a new situation closely resembles an old one.

A. BloomB. LewinC. ThorndikeD. Skinner

86. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to learning?

A. Start from complex to simpleB. Goals should be hard to achieve so patient can strive to attain unrealistic goalsC. Visual learning is the best for every individualD. Do not teach a client when he is in pain

87. According to Bloom, there are 3 domains in learning. Which of these domains is responsible for the ability of Donya Delilah to inject insulin?

A. CognitiveB. AffectiveC. PsychomotorD. Motivative

88. Which domains of learning is responsible for making John and Marsha understand the different kinds of family planning methods?


89. Which of the following statement clearly defines therapeutic communication?

A. Therapeutic communication is an interaction process which is primarily directed by the nurseB. It conveys feeling of warmth, acceptance and empathy from the nurse to a patient in relaxed atmosphereC. Therapeutic communication is a reciprocal interaction based on trust and aimed at identifying patient needs and developing mutual goalsD. Therapeutic communication is an assessment component

of the nursing process

90. Which of the following concept is most important in establishing a therapeutic nurse patient relationship?

A. The nurse must fully understand the patient’s feelings, perception and reactions before goals can be establishedB. The nurse must be a role model for health fostering behaviorC. The nurse must recognize that the patient may manifest maladaptive behavior after illnessD. The nurse should understand that patients might test her before trust is established

91. Which of the following communication skill is most effective in dealing with covert communication?

A. ValidationB. ListeningC. EvaluationD. Clarification

92. Which of the following are qualities of a good recording?

1. Brevity2. Completeness and chronology3. Appropriateness4. Accuracy

A. 1,2B. 3,4C. 1,2,3D. 1,2,3,4

93. All of the following chart entries are correct exceptA. V/S 36.8 C,80,16,120/80B. Complained of chest painC. Seems agitatedD. Able to ambulate without assistance

94. Which of the following teaching method is effective in client who needs to be educated about self injection of insulin?

A. Detailed explanationB. DemonstrationC. Use of pamphletsD. Film showing

95. What is the most important characteristic of a nurse patient relationship?

A. It is growth facilitatingB. Based on mutual understandingC. Fosters hope and confidenceD. Involves primarily emotional bond

96. Which of the following nursing intervention is needed before teaching a client post spleenectomy deep breathing and coughing exercises?

A. Tell the patient that deep breathing and coughing exercises is needed to promote good breathing, circulation and prevent complicationB. Tell the client that deep breathing and coughing exercises

is needed to prevent Thrombophlebitis, hydrostatic pneumonia and atelectasisC. Medicate client for painD. Tell client that cooperation is vital to improve recovery

97. The client has an allergy with penicillin. What is the best way to communicate this information?

A. Place an allergy alert in the KardexB. Notify the attending physicianC. Write it on the patient’s chartD. Take note when giving medications

98. An adult client is on extreme pain. He is moaning and grimacing. What is the best way to assess the client’s pain?

A. Perform physical assessmentB. Have the client rate his pain on the smiley pain rating scaleC. Active listening on what the patient saysD. Observe the client’s behavior

99. Therapeutic communication begins with?

A. Knowing your clientB. Knowing yourselfC. Showing empathyD. Encoding

100. The PCS gave new guidelines including leaflets to educate cancer patients. As a nurse, When using materials like this, what is your responsibility?

A. Read it for the patientB. Give it for the patient to read himselfC. Let the family member read the material for the patientD. Read it yourself then, Have the client read the material

FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING TEST III

Content Outline

1. Physical response to stress2. Psychological response to stress3. Spiritual response to stress4. Stress management5. Crisis and Crisis intervention6. Communication7. Recording8. Documentation9. Learning

1. The coronary vessels, unlike any other blood vessels in the body, respond to sympathetic stimulation by

A. VasoconstrictionB. VasodilatationC. Decreases force of contractilityD. Decreases cardiac output

2. What stress response can you expect from a patient with blood sugar of 50 mg / dl?

A. Body will try to decrease the glucose levelB. There will be a halt in release of sex hormonesC. Client will appear restless

D. Blood pressure will increase

3. All of the following are purpose of inflammation except

A. Increase heat, thereby produce abatement of phagocytosisB. Localized tissue injury by increasing capillary permeabilityC. Protect the issue from injury by producing painD. Prepare for tissue repair

4. The initial response of tissue after injury is

A. Immediate VasodilationB. Transient VasoconstrictionC. Immediate VasoconstrictionD. Transient Vasodilation

5. The last expected process in the stages of inflammation is characterized by

A. There will be sudden redness of the affected partB. Heat will increase on the affected partC. The affected part will loss its normal functionD. Exudates will flow from the injured site

6. What kind of exudates is expected when there is an antibody-antigen reaction as a result of microorganism infection?

A. SerousB. SerosanguinousC. PurulentD. Sanguinous

7. The first manifestation of inflammation is

A. Redness on the affected areaB. Swelling of the affected areaC. Pain, which causes guarding of the areaD. Increase heat due to transient vasodilation

8. The client has a chronic tissue injury. Upon examining the client’s antibody for a particular cellular response, Which of the following WBC component is responsible for phagocytosis in chronic tissue injury?


9. Which of the following WBC component proliferates in cases of Anaphylaxis?

A. NeutrophilsB. BasophilsC. EosinophilD. Monocytes

10. Icheanne, ask you, her Nurse, about WBC Components. She got an injury yesterday after she twisted her ankle accidentally at her gymnastic class. She asked you, which WBC Component is responsible for proliferation at the injured site immediately following an injury. You answer:


11. Icheanne then asked you, what is the first process that occurs in the inflammatory response after injury, You tell her:

A. PhagocytosisB. EmigrationC. PavementationD. Chemotaxis

12. Icheanne asked you again, What is that term that describes the magnetic attraction of injured tissue to bring phagocytes to the site of injury?

A. Icheanne, you better sleep now, you asked a lot of questionsB. It is DiapedesisC. We call that EmigrationD. I don’t know the answer, perhaps I can tell you after I find it out later

13. This type of healing occurs when there is a delayed surgical closure of infected wound


14. Type of healing when scars are minimal due to careful surgical incision and good healing


15. Imelda, was slashed and hacked by an unknown suspects. She suffered massive tissue loss and laceration on her arms and elbow in an attempt to evade the criminal. As a nurse, you know that the type of healing that will most likely occur to Miss Imelda is


16. Imelda is in the recovery stage after the incident. As a nurse, you know that the diet that will be prescribed to Miss Imelda is

A. Low calorie, High protein with Vitamin A and C rich foodsB. High protein, High calorie with Vitamin A and C rich foodsC. High calorie, Low protein with Vitamin A and C rich foodsD. Low calorie, Low protein with Vitamin A and C rich foods

17. Miss Imelda asked you, What is WET TO DRY

Dressing method? Your best response is

A. It is a type of mechanical debridement using Wet dressing that is applied and left to dry to remove dead tissuesB. It is a type of surgical debridement with the use of Wet dressing to remove the necrotic tissuesC. It is a type of dressing where in, The wound is covered with Wet or Dry dressing to prevent contaminationD. It is a type of dressing where in, A cellophane or plastic is placed on the wound over a wet dressing to stimulate healing of the wound in a wet medium

18. The primary cause of pain in inflammation is

A. Release of pain mediatorsB. Injury to the nerve endingsC. Compression of the local nerve endings by the edema fluidsD. Circulation is lessen, Supply of oxygen is insufficient

19. The client is in stress because he was told by the physician he needs to undergo surgery for removal of tumor in his bladder. Which of the following are effects of sympatho-adreno-medullary response by the client?

1. Constipation2. Urinary frequency3. Hyperglycemia4. Increased blood pressure

A. 3,4B. 1,3,4C.1,2,4D.1,4

20. The client is on NPO post midnight. Which of the following, if done by the client, is sufficient to cancel the operation in the morning?

A. Eat a full meal at 10:00 P.MB. Drink fluids at 11:50 P.MC. Brush his teeth the morning before operationD. Smoke cigarette around 3:00 A.M

21. The client place on NPO for preparation of the blood test. Adreno-cortical response is activated and which of the following below is an expected response?

A. Low BPB. Decrease Urine outputC. Warm, flushed, dry skinD. Low serum sodium levels

22. Which of the following is true about therapeutic relationship?

A. Directed towards helping an individual both physically and emotionallyB. Bases on friendship and mutual trustC. Goals are set by the solely nurseD. Maintained even after the client doesn’t need anymore of the Nurse’s help

23. According to her, A nurse patient relationship is composed of 4 stages : Orientation, Identification,

Exploitation and Resolution

A. RoyB. PeplauC. RogersD. Travelbee

24. In what phase of Nurse patient relationship does a nurse review the client’s medical records thereby learning as much as possible about the client?


25. Nurse Aida has seen her patient, Roger for the first time. She establish a contract about the frequency of meeting and introduce to Roger the expected termination. She started taking baseline assessment and set interventions and outcomes. On what phase of NPR Does Nurse Aida and Roger belong?


26. Roger has been seen agitated, shouting and running. As Nurse Aida approaches, he shouts and swear, calling Aida names. Nurse Aida told Roger “That is an unacceptable behavior Roger, Stop and go to your room now.” The situation is most likely in what phase of NPR?


27. Nurse Aida, in spite of the incident, still consider Roger as worthwhile simply because he is a human being. What major ingredient of a therapeutic communication is Nurse Aida using?


28. Nurse Irma saw Roger and told Nurse Aida “ Oh look at that psychotic patient “ Nurse Aida should intervene and correct Nurse Irma because her statement shows that she is lacking?


29. Which of the following statement is not true about stress?

A. It is a nervous energyB. It is an essential aspect of existenceC. It has been always a part of human experienceD. It is something each person has to cope

30. Martina, a Tennis champ was devastated after many new competitors outpaced her in the Wimbledon event.She became depressed and always seen crying. Martina is clearly on what kind of situation?

A. Martina is just stressed outB. Martina is AnxiousC. Martina is in the exhaustion stage of GASD. Martina is in Crisis

31. Which of the following statement is not true with regards to anxiety?

A. It has physiologic componentB. It has psychologic componentC. The source of dread or uneasiness is from an unrecognized entityD. The source of dread or uneasiness is from a recognized entity

32. Lorraine, a 27 year old executive was brought to the ER for an unknown reason. She is starting to speak but her speech is disorganized and cannot be understood. On what level of anxiety does this features belongs?

A. MildB. ModerateC. SevereD. Panic

33. Elton, 21 year old nursing student is taking the board examination. She is sweating profusely, has decreased awareness of his environment and is purely focused on the exam questions characterized by his selective attentiveness. What anxiety level is Elton exemplifying?

A. MildB. ModerateC. SevereD. Panic

34. You noticed the patient chart : ANXIETY +3 What will you expect to see in this client?

A. An optimal time for learning, Hearing and perception is greatly increasedB. Dilated pupilsC. Unable to communicateD. Palliative Coping Mechanism

35. When should the nurse starts giving XANAX?

A. When anxiety is +1B. When the client starts to have a narrow perceptual field and selective inattentivenessC. When problem solving is not possibleD. When the client is immobile and disorganized

36. Which of the following behavior is not a sign or a symptom of Anxiety?

A. Frequent hand movementB. SomatizationC. The client asks a questionD. The client is acting out

37. Which of the following intervention is inappropriate for client’s with anxiety?

A. Offer choicesB. Provide a quiet and calm environmentC. Provide detailed explanation on each and every procedures and equipmentsD. Bring anxiety down to a controllable level

38. Which of the following statement, if made by the nurse, is considered not therapeutic?

A. “How did you deal with your anxiety before?”B. “It must be awful to feel anxious.”C. “How does it feel to be anxious?”D. “What makes you feel anxious?”

39. Marissa Salva, Uses Benson’s relaxation. How is it done?

A. Systematically tensing muscle groups from top to bottom for 5 seconds, and then releasing themB. Concentrating on breathing without tensing the muscle, Letting go and repeating a word or sound after each exhalationC. Using a strong positive, feeling-rich statement about a desired changeD. Exercise combined with meditation to foster relaxation and mental alacrity

40. What type of relaxation technique does Lyza uses if a machine is showing her pulse rate, temperature and muscle tension which she can visualize and assess?

A. BiofeedbackB. MassageC. Autogenic trainingD. Visualization and Imagery

41. This is also known as Self-suggestion or Self-hypnosis

A. BiofeedbackB. MeditationC. Autogenic trainingD. Visualization and Imagery

42. Which among these drugs is NOT an anxiolytic?

A. ValiumB. AtivanC. MilltownD. Luvox

43. Kenneth, 25 year old diagnosed with HIV felt that he had not lived up with God’s expectation. He fears that in the course of his illness, God will be punitive and not be supportive. What kind of spiritual crisis is Kenneth experiencing?

1. Spiritual Pain2. Spiritual Anxiety3. Spiritual Guilt4. Spiritual Despair

A. 1,2

B. 2,3C. 3,4D. 1,4

44. Grace, believes that her relationship with God is broken. She tried to go to church to ask forgiveness everyday to remedy her feelings. What kind of spiritual distress is Grace experiencing?

A. Spiritual PanB. Spiritual AlienationC. Spiritual GuiltD. Spiritual Despair

45. Remedios felt “EMPTY” She felt that she has already lost God’s favor and love because of her sins. This is a type of what spiritual crisis?

A. Spiritual AngerB. Spiritual LossC. Spiritual DespairD. Spiritual Anxiety

46. Budek is working with a schizophrenic patient. He noticed that the client is agitated, pacing back and forth, restless and experiencing Anxiety +3. Budek said “You appear restless” What therapeutic technique did Budek used?

A. Offering general leadsB. Seeking clarificationC. Making observationD. Encouraging description of perception

47. Rommel told Budek “ I SEE DEAD PEOPLE “ Budek responded “You see dead people?” This Is an example of therapeutic communication technique?


48. Rommel told Budek, “Do you think Im crazy?” Budek responded, “Do you think your crazy?” Budek uses what example of therapeutic communication?


49. Myra, 21 year old nursing student has difficulty sleeping. She told Nurse Budek “I really think a lot about my x boyfriend recently” Budek told Myra “And that causes you difficulty sleeping?” Which therapeutic technique is used in this situation?


50. Myra told Budek “I cannot sleep, I stay away all night” Budek told her “You have difficulty sleeping” This is what type of therapeutic communication technique?


51. Myra said “I saw my dead grandmother here at my bedside a while ago” Budek responded “Really? That is hard to believe, How do you feel about it?” What technique did Budek used?

A. DisprovingB. DisagreeingC. Voicing DoubtD. Presenting Reality

52. Which of the following is a therapeutic communication in response to “I am a GOD, bow before me Or ill summon the dreaded thunder to burn you and purge you to pieces!”

A. “You are not a GOD, you are Professor Tadle and you are a PE Teacher, not a Nurse. I am Glen, Your nurse.”B. “Oh hail GOD Tadle, everyone bow or face his wrath!”C. “Hello Mr. Tadle, You are here in the hospital, I am your nurse and you are a patient here”D. “How can you be a GOD Mr. Tadle? Can you tell me more about it?”

53. Erik John Senna, Told Nurse Budek “ I don’t want to that, I don’t want that thing.. that’s too painful!” Which of the following response is NON THERAPEUTIC

A. “ This must be difficult for you, But I need to inject you this for your own good”B. “ You sound afraid”C. “Are you telling me you don’t want this injection?”D. “Why are you so anxious? Please tell me more about your feelings Erik”

54. Legrande De Salvaje Y Cobrador La Jueteng, was caught by the bacolod police because of his illegal activities. When he got home after paying for the bail, He shouted at his son. What defense mechanism did Mr. La Jueteng used?

A. RestitutionB. ProjectionC. DisplacementD. Undoing

55. Later that day, he bought his son ice cream and food. What defense mechanism is Legrande unconsciously doing?

A. RestitutionB. ConversionC. RedoingD. Reaction formation

56. Crisis is a sudden event in ones life that disturbs a person’s homeostasis. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in crisis?

A. The person experiences heightened feeling of stressB. Inability to function in the usual organized mannerC. Lasts for 4 monthsD. Indicates unpleasant emotional feelings

57. Which of the following is a characteristic of crisis?

A. Lasts for an unlimited period of timeB. There is a triggering eventC. Situation is not dangerous to the personD. Person totality is not involved

58. Levito Devin, The Italian prime minister, is due to retire next week. He feels depressed due to the enormous loss of influence, power, fame and fortune. What type of crisis is Devin experiencing?


59. Estrada, The Philippine president, has been unexpectedly impeached and was out of office before the end of his term. He is in what type of crisis?


60. The tsunami in Thailand and Indonesia took thousands of people and change million lives. The people affected by the Tsunami are saddened and do not know how to start all over again. What type of crisis is this?


61. Which of the following is the BEST goal for crisis intervention?

A. Bring back the client in the pre crisis stateB. Make sure that the client becomes betterC. Achieve independenceD. Provide alternate coping mechanism

62. What is the best intervention when the client has just experienced the crisis and still at the first phase of the crisis?

A. Behavior therapyB. Gestalt therapyC. Cognitive therapyD. Milieu Therapy

63. Therapeutic nurse client relationship is describes as follows

1. Based on friendship and mutual interest2. It is a professional relationship3. It is focused on helping the patient solve problems and achieve health-related goals4. Maintained only as long as the patient requires professional help

A. 1,2,3B. 1,2,4C. 2,3,4D. 1,3,4

64. The client is scheduled to have surgical removal of the tumor on her left breast. Which of the following manifestation indicates that she is experiencing Mild Anxiety?

A. She has increased awareness of her environmental detailsB. She focused on selected aspect of her illnessC. She experiences incongruence of action, thoughts and feelingsD. She experiences random motor activities

65. Which of the following nursing intervention would least likely be effective when dealing with a client with aggressive behavior?

A. Approach him in a calm mannerB. Provide opportunities to express feelingsC. Maintain eye contact with the clientD. Isolate the client from others

66. Whitney, a patient of nurse Budek, verbalizes… “I have nothing, nothing… nothing! Don't make me close one more door, I don't wanna hurt anymore!” Which of the following is the most appropriate response by Budek?

A. Why are you singing?B. What makes you say that?C. Ofcourse you are everything!D. What is that you said?

67. Whitney verbalizes that she is anxious that the diagnostic test might reveal laryngeal cancer. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing intervention?

A. Tell the client not to worry until the results are inB. Ask the client to express feelings and concernC. Reassure the client everything will be alrightD. Advice the client to divert his attention by watching television and reading newspapers

68. Considered as the most accurate expression of person’s thought and feelings

A. Verbal communicationB. Non verbal communication C. Written communicationD. Oral communication

69. Represents inner feeling that a person do not like talking about.

A. Overt communicationB. Covert communicationC. Verbal communicationD. Non verbal communication

70. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an effective Nurse-Client relationship?

A. Focused on the patientB. Based on mutual trustC. Conveys acceptanceD. Discourages emotional bond

71. A type of record wherein , each person or department makes notation in separate records. A nurse will use the nursing notes, The doctor will use the Physician’s order sheet etc. Data is arranged according to information source.

A. POMRB. PORC. TraditionalD. Resource oriented

72. Type of recording that integrates all data about the problem, gathered by members of the health team.

A. POMRB. TraditionalC. Resource orientedD. Source oriented

73. These are data that are monitored by using graphic charts or graphs that indicated the progression or fluctuation of client’s Temperature and Blood pressure.

A. Progress notesB. KardexC. Flow chartD. Flow sheet

74. Provides a concise method of organizing and recording data about the client. It is a series of flip cards kept in portable file used in change of shift reports.

A. KardexB. Progress NotesC. SOAPIED. Change of shift report

75. You are about to write an information on the Kardex. There are 4 available writing instruments to use. Which of the following should you use?

A. Mongol #2B. Permanent InkC. A felt or fountain penD. Pilot Pentel Pen marker

76. The client has an allergy to Iodine based dye. Where should you put this vital information in the client’s chart?

A. In the first page of the client’s chartB. At the last page of the client’s chartC. At the front metal plate of the chartD. In the Kardex

77. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the Kardex

A. It provides readily available informationB. It is a tool of end of shift reportsC. The primary basis of endorsementD. Where Allergies information are written

78. Which of the following, if seen on the Nurses notes, violates characteristic of good recording?

A. The client has a blood pressure of 120/80, Temperature of 36.6 C Pulse rate of 120 and Respiratory rate of 22

B. Ate 50% of food servedC. Refused administration of betaxololD. Visited and seen By Dr. Santiago

79. The physician ordered : Mannerix a.c , what does a.c means?

A. As desiredB. Before mealsC. After mealsD. Before bed time

80. The physician ordered, Maalox, 2 hours p.c, what does p.c means?A. As desiredB. Before mealsC. After mealsD. Before bed time

81. The physician ordered, Maxitrol, Od. What does Od means?

A. Left eyeB. Right eyeC. Both eyeD. Once a day

82. The physician orderd, Magnesium Hydroxide cc Aluminum Hydroxide. What does cc means?


83. Physician ordered, Paracetamol tablet ss. What does ss means?


84. Which of the following indicates that learning has been achieved?

A. Matuts starts exercising every morning and eating a balance diet after you taught her mag HL tayo programB. Donya Delilah has been able to repeat the steps of insulin administration after you taught it to herC. Marsha said “ I understand “ after you a health teaching about family planningD. John rated 100% on your given quiz about smoking and alcoholism

85. In his theory of learning as a BEHAVIORISM, he stated that transfer of knowledge occurs if a new situation closely resembles an old one.

A. BloomB. LewinC. ThorndikeD. Skinner

86. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to learning?

A. Start from complex to simpleB. Goals should be hard to achieve so patient can strive to attain unrealistic goalsC. Visual learning is the best for every individualD. Do not teach a client when he is in pain

87. According to Bloom, there are 3 domains in learning. Which of these domains is responsible for the ability of Donya Delilah to inject insulin?


88. Which domains of learning is responsible for making John and Marsha understand the different kinds of family planning methods?


89. Which of the following statement clearly defines therapeutic communication?

A. Therapeutic communication is an interaction process which is primarily directed by the nurseB. It conveys feeling of warmth, acceptance and empathy from the nurse to a patient in relaxed atmosphereC. Therapeutic communication is a reciprocal interaction based on trust and aimed at identifying patient needs and developing mutual goalsD. Therapeutic communication is an assessment component of the nursing process

90. Which of the following concept is most important in establishing a therapeutic nurse patient relationship?

A. The nurse must fully understand the patient’s feelings, perception and reactions before goals can be establishedB. The nurse must be a role model for health fostering behaviorC. The nurse must recognize that the patient may manifest maladaptive behavior after illnessD. The nurse should understand that patients might test her before trust is established

91. Which of the following communication skill is most effective in dealing with covert communication?

A. ValidationB. ListeningC. EvaluationD. Clarification

92. Which of the following are qualities of a good recording?

1. Brevity2. Completeness and chronology3. Appropriateness4. Accuracy

A. 1,2B. 3,4C. 1,2,3D. 1,2,3,4

93. All of the following chart entries are correct except

A. V/S 36.8 C,80,16,120/80B. Complained of chest painC. Seems agitatedD. Able to ambulate without assistance

94. Which of the following teaching method is effective in client who needs to be educated about self injection of insulin?

A. Detailed explanationB. DemonstrationC. Use of pamphletsD. Film showing

95. What is the most important characteristic of a nurse patient relationship?

A. It is growth facilitatingB. Based on mutual understandingC. Fosters hope and confidenceD. Involves primarily emotional bond

96. Which of the following nursing intervention is needed before teaching a client post spleenectomy deep breathing and coughing exercises?

A. Tell the patient that deep breathing and coughing exercises is needed to promote good breathing, circulation and prevent complicationB. Tell the client that deep breathing and coughing exercises is needed to prevent Thrombophlebitis, hydrostatic pneumonia and atelectasisC. Medicate client for painD. Tell client that cooperation is vital to improve recovery

97. The client has an allergy with penicillin. What is the best way to communicate this information?

A. Place an allergy alert in the KardexB. Notify the attending physicianC. Write it on the patient’s chartD. Take note when giving medications

98. An adult client is on extreme pain. He is moaning and grimacing. What is the best way to assess the client’s pain?

A. Perform physical assessmentB. Have the client rate his pain on the smiley pain rating scaleC. Active listening on what the patient saysD. Observe the client’s behavior

99. Therapeutic communication begins with?

A. Knowing your clientB. Knowing yourselfC. Showing empathyD. Encoding

100. The PCS gave new guidelines including leaflets to educate cancer patients. As a nurse, When using materials like this, what is your responsibility?

A. Read it for the patientB. Give it for the patient to read himselfC. Let the family member read the material for the patientD. Read it yourself then, Have the client read the material

FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING TEST IV

Content Outline

1. The nursing process2. Physical Assessment3. Health Assessment3.a Temperature3.b Pulse3.c Respiration3.d Blood pressure4. Routine Procedures4.a Urinalysis specimen collection4.b Sputum specimen collection4.c Urine examination4.d Positioning pre-procedure4.e Stool specimen collection

1. She is the first one to coin the term “NURSING PROCESS” She introduced 3 steps of nursing process which are Observation, Ministration and Validation.

A. NightingaleB. JohnsonC. RogersD. Hall

2. The American Nurses association formulated an innovation of the Nursing process. Today, how many distinct steps are there in the nursing process?

A. APIE – 4B. ADPIE – 5C. ADOPIE – 6D. ADOPIER – 7

3. They are the first one to suggest a 4 step nursing process which are : APIE , or assessment, planning, implementation and evaluation.

1. Yura2. Walsh3. Roy4. Knowles

A. 1,2B. 1,3C. 3,4D. 2,3

4. Which characteristic of nursing process is responsible for proper utilization of human resources, time and cost resources?

A. Organized and SystematicB. HumanisticC. EfficientD. Effective

5. Which characteristic of nursing process addresses the INDIVIDUALIZED care a client must receive?

A. Organized and SystematicB. Humanistic

C. EfficientD. Effective

6. A characteristic of the nursing process that is essential to promote client satisfaction and progress. The care should also be relevant with the client’s needs.


7. Rhina, who has Menieres disease, said that her environment is moving. Which of the following is a valid assessment?

1. Rhina is giving an objective data2. Rhina is giving a subjective data3. The source of the data is primary4. The source of the data is secondary

A. 1,3B. 2,3C. 2.4D. 1,4

8. Nurse Angela, observe Joel who is very apprehensive over the impending operation. The client is experiencing dyspnea, diaphoresis and asks lots of questions. Angela made a diagnosis of ANXIETY R/T INTRUSIVE PROCEDURE. This is what type of Nursing Diagnosis?

A. ActualB. ProbableC. PossibleD. Risk

9. Nurse Angela diagnosed Mrs. Delgado, who have undergone a BKA. Her diagnosis is SELF ESTEEM DISTURBANCE R/T CHANGE IN BODY IMAGE. Although the client has not yet seen her lost leg, Angela already anticipated the diagnosis. This is what type of Diagnosis?


10. Nurse Angela is about to make a diagnosis but very unsure because the S/S the client is experiencing is not specific with her diagnosis of POWERLESSNESS R/T DIFFICULTY ACCEPTING LOSS OF LOVED ONE. She then focus on gathering data to refute or prove her diagnosis but her plans and interventions are already ongoing for the diagnosis. Which type of Diagnosis is this?

A. ActualB. ProbableC. PossibleD. Risk11. Nurse Angela knew that Stephen Lee Mu Chin, has just undergone an operation with an incision near the diaphragm. She knew that this will contribute to some complications later on. She then should develop what type of Nursing diagnosis?


12. Which of the following Nursing diagnosis is INCORRECT?

A. Fluid volume deficit R/T DiarrheaB. High risk for injury R/T Absence of side railsC. Possible ineffective coping R/T Loss of loved oneD. Self esteem disturbance R/T Effects of surgical removal of the leg

13. Among the following statements, which should be given the HIGHEST priority?

A. Client is in extreme painB. Client’s blood pressure is 60/40C. Client’s temperature is 40 deg. CentigradeD. Client is cyanotic

14. Which of the following need is given a higher priority among others?

A. The client has attempted suicide and safety precaution is neededB. The client has disturbance in his body image because of the recent operationC. The client is depressed because her boyfriend left her all aloneD. The client is thirsty and dehydrated

15. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to Client Goals?

A. They are specific, measurable, attainable and time boundedB. They are general and broadly statedC. They should answer for WHO, WHAT ACTIONS, WHAT CIRCUMSTANCES, HOW WELL and WHEN.D. Example is : After discharge planning, Client demonstrated the proper psychomotor skills for insulin injection.

16. Which of the following is a NOT a correct statement of an Outcome criteria?

A. Ambulates 30 feet with a cane before dischargeB. Discusses fears and concerns regarding the surgical procedureC. Demonstrates proper coughing and breathing technique after a teaching sessionD. Reestablishes a normal pattern of elimination

17. Which of the following is a OBJECTIVE data?

A. DizzinessB. Chest painC. AnxietyD. Blue nails

18. A patient’s chart is what type of data source?

A. Primary

B. SecondaryC. TertiaryD. Can be A and B

19. All of the following are characteristic of the Nursing process except

A. DynamicB. CyclicalC. UniversalD. Intrapersonal

20. Which of the following is true about the NURSING CARE PLAN?

A. It is nursing centeredB. Rationales are supported by interventionsC. VerbalD. Atleast 2 goals are needed for every nursing diagnosis

21. A framework for health assessment that evaluates the effects of stressors to the mind, body and environment in relation with the ability of the client to perform ADL.

A. Functional health frameworkB. Head to toe frameworkC. Body system frameworkD. Cephalocaudal framework

22. Client has undergone Upper GI and Lower GI series. Which type of health assessment framework is used in this situation?


23. Which of the following statement is true regarding temperature?

A. Oral temperature is more accurate than rectal temperatureB. The bulb used in Rectal temperature reading is pear shaped or roundC. The older the person, the higher his BMRD. When the client is swimming, BMR Decreases

24. A type of heat loss that occurs when the heat is dissipated by air current

A. ConvectionB. ConductionC. RadiationD. Evaporation

25. Which of the following is TRUE about temperature?

A. The highest temperature usually occurs later in a day, around 8 P.M to 12 M.NB. The lowest temperature is usually in the Afternoon, Around 12 P.MC. Thyroxin decreases body temperatureD. Elderly people are risk for hyperthermia due to the absence of fats, Decreased thermoregulatory control and

sedentary lifestyle.

26. Hyperpyrexia is a condition in which the temperature is greater than

A. 40 degree CelsiusB. 39 degree CelsiusC. 100 degree FahrenheitD. 105.8 degree Fahrenheit

27. Tympanic temperature is taken from John, A client who was brought recently into the ER due to frequent barking cough. The temperature reads 37.9 Degrees Celsius. As a nurse, you conclude that this temperature is

A. HighB. LowC. At the low end of the normal rangeD. At the high end of the normal range

28. John has a fever of 38.5 Deg. Celsius. It surges at around 40 Degrees and go back to 38.5 degrees 6 times today in a typical pattern. What kind of fever is John having?

A. RelapsingB. IntermittentC. RemittentD. Constant

29. John has a fever of 39.5 degrees 2 days ago, But yesterday, he has a normal temperature of 36.5 degrees. Today, his temperature surges to 40 degrees. What type of fever is John having?


30. John’s temperature 10 hours ago is a normal 36.5 degrees. 4 hours ago, He has a fever with a temperature of 38.9 Degrees. Right now, his temperature is back to normal. Which of the following best describe the fever john is having?


31. The characteristic fever in Dengue Virus is characterized as:

A. TricyclicB. BicyclicC. BiphasicD. Triphasic

32. When John has been given paracetamol, his fever was brought down dramatically from 40 degrees Celsius to 36.7 degrees in a matter of 10 minutes. The nurse would assess this event as:

A. The goal of reducing john’s fever has been met with full satisfaction of the outcome criteria

B. The desired goal has been partially metC. The goal is not completely metD. The goal has been met but not with the desired outcome criteria

33. What can you expect from Marianne, who is currently at the ONSET stage of fever?

A. Hot, flushed skinB. Increase thirstC. ConvulsionD. Pale,cold skin

34. Marianne is now at the Defervescence stage of the fever, which of the following is expected?

A. DeliriumB. Goose fleshC. Cyanotic nail bedsD. Sweating

35. Considered as the most accessible and convenient method for temperature taking

A. OralB. RectalC. TympanicD. Axillary

36. Considered as Safest and most non invasive method of temperature taking


37. Which of the following is NOT a contraindication in taking ORAL temperature?

A. QuadriplegicB. Presence of NGTC. DyspneaD. Nausea and Vomitting

38. Which of the following is a contraindication in taking RECTAL temperature?

A. UnconsciousB. NeutropenicC. NPOD. Very young children

39. How long should the Rectal Thermometer be inserted to the clients anus?

A. 1 to 2 inchesB. .5 to 1.5 inchesC. 3 to 5 inchesD. 2 to 3 inches

40. In cleaning the thermometer after use, The direction of the cleaning to follow Medical Asepsis is :

A. From bulb to stemB. From stem to bulb

C. From stem to stemD. From bulb to bulb

41. How long should the thermometer stay in the Client’s Axilla?

A. 3 minutesB. 4 minutesC. 7 minutesD. 10 minutes

42. Which of the following statement is TRUE about pulse?

A. Young person have higher pulse than older personsB. Males have higher pulse rate than females after pubertyC. Digitalis has a positive chronotropic effectD. In lying position, Pulse rate is higher

43. The following are correct actions when taking radial pulse except:

A. Put the palms downwardB. Use the thumb to palpate the arteryC. Use two or three fingers to palpate the pulse at the inner wristD. Assess the pulse rate, rhythm, volume and bilateral quality

44. The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure is termed as

A. Apical rateB. Cardiac rateC. Pulse deficitD. Pulse pressure

45. Which of the following completely describes PULSUS PARADOXICUS?

A. A greater-than-normal increase in systolic blood pressure with inspirationB. A greater-than-normal decrease in systolic blood pressure with inspirationC. Pulse is paradoxically low when client is in standing position and high when supine.D. Pulse is paradoxically high when client is in standing position and low when supine.

46. Which of the following is TRUE about respiration?

A. I:E 2:1B. I:E : 4:3C I:E 1:1D. I:E 1:2

47. Contains the pneumotaxic and the apneutic centers

A. Medulla oblongataB. PonsC. Carotid bodiesD. Aortic bodies

48. Which of the following is responsible for deep and prolonged inspiration

A. Medulla oblongata

B. PonsC. Carotid bodiesD. Aortic bodies

49. Which of the following is responsible for the rhythm and quality of breathing?


50. The primary respiratory center


51. Which of the following is TRUE about the mechanism of action of the Aortic and Carotid bodies?

A. If the BP is elevated, the RR increasesB. If the BP is elevated, the RR decreasesC. Elevated BP leads to Metabolic alkalosisD. Low BP leads to Metabolic acidosis

52. All of the following factors correctly influence respiration except one. Which of the following is incorrect?

A. Hydrocodone decreases RRB. Stress increases RRC. Increase temperature of the environment, Increase RRD. Increase altitude, Increase RR

53. When does the heart receives blood from the coronary artery?

A. SystoleB. DiastoleC. When the valves opensD. When the valves closes

54. Which of the following is more life threatening?

A. BP = 180/100B. BP = 160/120C. BP = 90/60D. BP = 80/50

55. Refers to the pressure when the ventricles are at rest

A. DiastoleB. SystoleC. PreloadD. Pulse pressure

56. Which of the following is TRUE about the blood pressure determinants?

A. Hypervolemia lowers BPB. Hypervolemia increases GFRC. HCT of 70% might decrease or increase BPD. Epinephrine decreases BP

57. Which of the following do not correctly correlates the increase BP of Ms. Aida, a 70 year old diabetic?

A. Females, after the age 65 tends to have lower BP than malesB. Disease process like Diabetes increase BPC. BP is highest in the morning, and lowest during the nightD. Africans, have a greater risk of hypertension than Caucasian and Asians.

58. How many minutes are allowed to pass if the client had engaged in strenuous activities, smoked or ingested caffeine before taking his/her BP?

A. 5B. 10C. 15D. 30

59. Too narrow cuff will cause what change in the Client’s BP?

A. True high readingB. True low readingC. False high readingD. False low reading

60. Which is a preferable arm for BP taking?

A. An arm with the most contraptionsB. The left arm of the client with a CVA affecting the right brainC. The right armD. The left arm

61. Which of the following is INCORRECT in assessing client’s BP?

A. Read the mercury at the upper meniscus, preferably at the eye level to prevent error of parallaxB. Inflate and deflate slowly, 2-3 mmHg at a timeC. The sound heard during taking BP is known as KOROTKOFF soundD. If the BP is taken on the left leg using the popliteal artery pressure, a BP of 160/80 is normal.

62. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of the ERROR OF PARALLAX

A. If the eye level is higher than the level of the meniscus, it will cause a false high readingB. If the eye level is higher than the level of the meniscus, it will cause a false low readingC. If the eye level is lower than the level of the meniscus, it will cause a false low readingD. If the eye level is equal to that of the level of the upper meniscus, the reading is accurate

63. How many minute/s is/are allowed to pass before making a re-reading after the first one?

A. 1B. 5C. 15D. 30

64. Which of the following is TRUE about the auscultation of blood pressure?

A. Pulse + 4 is considered as FULLB. The bell of the stethoscope is use in auscultating BPC. Sound produced by BP is considered as HIGH frequency soundD. Pulse +1 is considered as NORMAL

65. In assessing the abdomen, Which of the following is the correct sequence of the physical assessment?

A. Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, PalpationB. Palpation, Auscultation, Percussion, InspectionC. Inspection, Palpation, Auscultation, PercussionD. Inspection, Auscultation, Palpation, Percussion

66. The sequence in examining the quadrants of the abdomen is:

A. RUQ,RLQ,LUQ,LLQB. RLQ,RUQ,LLQ,LUQC. RUQ,RLQ,LLQ,LUQD. RLQ,RUQ,LUQ,LLQ

67. In inspecting the abdomen, which of the following is NOT DONE?

A. Ask the client to void firstB. Knees and legs are straighten to relax the abdomenC. The best position in assessing the abdomen is Dorsal recumbentD. The knees and legs are externally rotated

68. Dr. Fabian De Las Santas, is about to conduct an ophthalmoscope examination. Which of the following, if done by a nurse, is a Correct preparation before the procedure?

A. Provide the necessary draping to ensure privacyB. Open the windows, curtains and light to allow better illuminationC. Pour warm water over the ophthalmoscope to ensure comfortD. Darken the room to provide better illumination

69. If the client is female, and the doctor is a male and the patient is about to undergo a vaginal and cervical examination, why is it necessary to have a female nurse in attendance?

A. To ensure that the doctor performs the procedure safelyB. To assist the doctorC. To assess the client’s response to examinationD. To ensure that the procedure is done in an ethical manner

70. In palpating the client’s breast, Which of the following position is necessary for the patient to assume before the start of the procedure?

A. SupineB. Dorsal recumbentC. SittingD. Lithotomy

71. When is the best time to collect urine specimen for

routine urinalysis and C/S?

A. Early morningB. Later afternoonC. MidnightD. Before breakfast

72. Which of the following is among an ideal way of collecting a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity?

A. Use a clean containerB. Discard the first flow of urine to ensure that the urine is not contaminatedC. Collect around 30-50 ml of urineD. Add preservatives, refrigerate the specimen or add ice according to the agency’s protocol

73. In a 24 hour urine specimen started Friday, 9:00 A.M, which of the following if done by a Nurse indicate a NEED for further procedural debriefing?

A. The nurse ask the client to urinate at 9:00 A.M, Friday and she included the urine in the 24 hour urine specimenB. The nurse discards the Friday 9:00 A M urine of the clientC. The nurse included the Saturday 9:00 A.M urine of the client to the specimen collectionD. The nurse added preservatives as per protocol and refrigerates the specimen

74. This specimen is required to assess glucose levels and for the presence of albumin the the urine

A. Midstream clean catch urineB. 24 hours urine collectionC. Postprandial urine collectionD. Second voided urine

75. When should the client test his blood sugar levels for greater accuracy?

A. During mealsB. In between mealsC. Before mealsD. 2 Hours after meals

76. In collecting a urine from a catheterized patient, Which of the following statement indicates an accurate performance of the procedure?

A. Clamp above the port for 30 to 60 minutes before drawing the urine from the portB. Clamp below the port for 30 to 60 minutes before drawing the urine from the portC. Clamp above the port for 5 to 10 minutes before drawing the urine from the portD. Clamp below the port for 5 to 10 minutes before drawing the urine from the port

77. A community health nurse should be resourceful and meet the needs of the client. A villager ask him, Can you test my urine for glucose? Which of the following technique allows the nurse to test a client’s urine for glucose without the need for intricate instruments.

A. Acetic Acid test

B. Nitrazine paper testC. Benedict’s testD. Litmus paper test

78. A community health nurse is assessing client’s urine using the Acetic Acid solution. Which of the following, if done by a nurse, indicates lack of correct knowledge with the procedure?

A. The nurse added the Urine as the 2/3 part of the solutionB. The nurse heats the test tube after adding 1/3 part acetic acidC. The nurse heats the test tube after adding 2/3 part of UrineD. The nurse determines abnormal result if she noticed that the test tube becomes cloudy

79. Which of the following is incorrect with regards to proper urine testing using Benedict’s Solution?

A. Heat around 5ml of Benedict’s solution together with the urine in a test tubeB. Add 8 to 10 drops of urineC. Heat the Benedict’s solution without the urine to check if the solution is contaminatedD. If the color remains BLUE, the result is POSITIVE

80. +++ Positive result after Benedicts test is depicted by what color?

A. BlueB. GreenC. YellowD. Orange

81. Clinitest is used in testing the urine of a client for glucose. Which of the following, If committed by a nurse indicates error?

A. Specimen is collected after mealsB. The nurse puts 1 clinitest tablet into a test tubeC. She added 5 drops of urine and 10 drops of waterD. If the color becomes orange or red, It is considered postitive

82. Which of the following nursing intervention is important for a client scheduled to have a Guaiac Test?

A. Avoid turnips, radish and horseradish 3 days before procedureB. Continue iron preparation to prevent further loss of IronC. Do not eat read meat 12 hours before procedureD. Encourage caffeine and dark colored foods to produce accurate results

83. In collecting a routine specimen for fecalysis, Which of the following, if done by a nurse, indicates inadequate knowledge and skills about the procedure?

A. The nurse scoop the specimen specifically at the site with blood and mucusB. She took around 1 inch of specimen or a teaspoonfulC. Ask the client to call her for the specimen after the client wiped off his anus with a tissueD. Ask the client to defecate in a bedpan, Secure a sterile container

84. In a routine sputum analysis, Which of the following indicates proper nursing action before sputum collection?

A. Secure a clean containerB. Discard the container if the outside becomes contaminated with the sputumC. Rinse the client’s mouth with Listerine after collectionD. Tell the client that 4 tablespoon of sputum is needed for each specimen for a routine sputum analysis

85. Who collects Blood specimen?

A. The nurseB. Medical technologistC. PhysicianD. Physical therapist

86. David, 68 year old male client is scheduled for Serum Lipid analysis. Which of the following health teaching is important to ensure accurate reading?

A. Tell the patient to eat fatty meals 3 days prior to the procedureB. NPO for 12 hours pre procedureC. Ask the client to drink 1 glass of water 1 hour prior to the procedureD. Tell the client that the normal serum lipase level is 50 to 140 U/L

87. The primary factor responsible for body heat production is the

A. MetabolismB. Release of thyroxinC. Muscle activityD. Stress

88. The heat regulating center is found in the

A. Medulla oblongataB. ThalamusC. HypothalamusD. Pons

89. A process of heat loss which involves the transfer of heat from one surface to another is

A. RadiationB. ConductionC. ConvectionD. Evaporation

90. Which of the following is a primary factor that affects the BP?

A. ObesityB. AgeC. StressD. Gender

91. The following are social data about the client except

A. Patient’s lifestyleB. Religious practicesC. Family home situation

D. Usual health status

92. The best position for any procedure that involves vaginal and cervical examination is

A. Dorsal recumbentB. Side lyingC. SupineD. Lithotomy

93. Measure the leg circumference of a client with bipedal edema is best done in what position?

A. Dorsal recumbentB. SittingC. StandingD. Supine

94. In palpating the client’s abdomen, Which of the following is the best position for the client to assume?


95. Rectal examination is done with a client in what position?

A. Dorsal recumbentB. Sims positionC. SupineD. Lithotomy

96. Which of the following is a correct nursing action when collecting urine specimen from a client with an Indwelling catheter?

A. Collect urine specimen from the drainage bagB. Detach catheter from the connecting tube and draw the specimen from the portC. Use sterile syringe to aspirate urine specimen from the drainage portD. Insert the syringe straight to the port to allow self sealing of the port

97. Which of the following is inappropriate in collecting mid stream clean catch urine specimen for urine analysis?

A. Collect early in the morning, First voided specimenB. Do perineal care before specimen collectionC. Collect 5 to 10 ml for urineD. Discard the first flow of the urine

98. When palpating the client’s neck for lymphadenopathy, where should the nurse position himself?

A. At the client’s backB. At the client’s right sideC. At the client’s left sideD. In front of a sitting client

99. Which of the following is the best position for the client to assume if the back is to be examined by the nurse?

A. Standing

B. SittingC. Side lyingD. Prone

100. In assessing the client’s chest, which position best show chest expansion as well as its movements?

A. SittingB. ProneC. SidelyingD. Supine

FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING TEST IV

Content Outline

1. The nursing process2. Physical Assessment3. Health Assessment3.a Temperature3.b Pulse3.c Respiration3.d Blood pressure4. Routine Procedures4.a Urinalysis specimen collection4.b Sputum specimen collection4.c Urine examination4.d Positioning pre-procedure4.e Stool specimen collection

1. She is the first one to coin the term “NURSING PROCESS” She introduced 3 steps of nursing process which are Observation, Ministration and Validation.

A. NightingaleB. JohnsonC. RogersD. Hall

2. The American Nurses association formulated an innovation of the Nursing process. Today, how many distinct steps are there in the nursing process?

A. APIE – 4B. ADPIE – 5C. ADOPIE – 6D. ADOPIER – 7

3. They are the first one to suggest a 4 step nursing process which are : APIE , or assessment, planning, implementation and evaluation.

1. Yura2. Walsh3. Roy4. Knowles

A. 1,2B. 1,3C. 3,4D. 2,3

4. Which characteristic of nursing process is responsible for proper utilization of human resources, time and cost resources?


5. Which characteristic of nursing process addresses the INDIVIDUALIZED care a client must receive?A. Organized and SystematicB. HumanisticC. EfficientD. Effective

6. A characteristic of the nursing process that is essential to promote client satisfaction and progress. The care should also be relevant with the client’s needs.


7. Rhina, who has Menieres disease, said that her environment is moving. Which of the following is a valid assessment?

1. Rhina is giving an objective data2. Rhina is giving a subjective data3. The source of the data is primary4. The source of the data is secondary

A. 1,3B. 2,3C. 2.4D. 1,4

8. Nurse Angela, observe Joel who is very apprehensive over the impending operation. The client is experiencing dyspnea, diaphoresis and asks lots of questions. Angela made a diagnosis of ANXIETY R/T INTRUSIVE PROCEDURE. This is what type of Nursing Diagnosis?


9. Nurse Angela diagnosed Mrs. Delgado, who have undergone a BKA. Her diagnosis is SELF ESTEEM DISTURBANCE R/T CHANGE IN BODY IMAGE. Although the client has not yet seen her lost leg, Angela already anticipated the diagnosis. This is what type of Diagnosis?


10. Nurse Angela is about to make a diagnosis but very unsure because the S/S the client is experiencing is not specific with her diagnosis of POWERLESSNESS R/T DIFFICULTY ACCEPTING LOSS OF LOVED ONE. She then focus on gathering data to refute or prove her diagnosis but her plans and interventions are already ongoing for the diagnosis. Which type of Diagnosis is this?


11. Nurse Angela knew that Stephen Lee Mu Chin, has just undergone an operation with an incision near the diaphragm. She knew that this will contribute to some complications later on. She then should develop what type of Nursing diagnosis?


12. Which of the following Nursing diagnosis is INCORRECT?

A. Fluid volume deficit R/T DiarrheaB. High risk for injury R/T Absence of side railsC. Possible ineffective coping R/T Loss of loved oneD. Self esteem disturbance R/T Effects of surgical removal of the leg

13. Among the following statements, which should be given the HIGHEST priority?

A. Client is in extreme painB. Client’s blood pressure is 60/40C. Client’s temperature is 40 deg. CentigradeD. Client is cyanotic

14. Which of the following need is given a higher priority among others?

A. The client has attempted suicide and safety precaution is neededB. The client has disturbance in his body image because of the recent operationC. The client is depressed because her boyfriend left her all aloneD. The client is thirsty and dehydrated

15. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to Client Goals?

A. They are specific, measurable, attainable and time boundedB. They are general and broadly statedC. They should answer for WHO, WHAT ACTIONS, WHAT CIRCUMSTANCES, HOW WELL and WHEN.D. Example is : After discharge planning, Client demonstrated the proper psychomotor skills for insulin injection.

16. Which of the following is a NOT a correct statement of an Outcome criteria?

A. Ambulates 30 feet with a cane before dischargeB. Discusses fears and concerns regarding the surgical procedureC. Demonstrates proper coughing and breathing technique after a teaching sessionD. Reestablishes a normal pattern of elimination

17. Which of the following is a OBJECTIVE data?

A. DizzinessB. Chest painC. AnxietyD. Blue nails

18. A patient’s chart is what type of data source?

A. PrimaryB. SecondaryC. TertiaryD. Can be A and B

19. All of the following are characteristic of the Nursing process except

A. DynamicB. CyclicalC. UniversalD. Intrapersonal

20. Which of the following is true about the NURSING CARE PLAN?

A. It is nursing centeredB. Rationales are supported by interventionsC. VerbalD. Atleast 2 goals are needed for every nursing diagnosis

21. A framework for health assessment that evaluates the effects of stressors to the mind, body and environment in relation with the ability of the client to perform ADL.


22. Client has undergone Upper GI and Lower GI series. Which type of health assessment framework is used in this situation?


23. Which of the following statement is true regarding temperature?

A. Oral temperature is more accurate than rectal temperatureB. The bulb used in Rectal temperature reading is pear shaped or roundC. The older the person, the higher his BMRD. When the client is swimming, BMR Decreases

24. A type of heat loss that occurs when the heat is dissipated by air current

A. ConvectionB. ConductionC. RadiationD. Evaporation

25. Which of the following is TRUE about temperature?

A. The highest temperature usually occurs later in a day, around 8 P.M to 12 M.NB. The lowest temperature is usually in the Afternoon, Around 12 P.MC. Thyroxin decreases body temperatureD. Elderly people are risk for hyperthermia due to the absence of fats, Decreased thermoregulatory control and sedentary lifestyle.

26. Hyperpyrexia is a condition in which the temperature is greater than

A. 40 degree CelsiusB. 39 degree CelsiusC. 100 degree FahrenheitD. 105.8 degree Fahrenheit

27. Tympanic temperature is taken from John, A client who was brought recently into the ER due to frequent barking cough. The temperature reads 37.9 Degrees Celsius. As a nurse, you conclude that this temperature is

A. HighB. LowC. At the low end of the normal rangeD. At the high end of the normal range

28. John has a fever of 38.5 Deg. Celsius. It surges at around 40 Degrees and go back to 38.5 degrees 6 times today in a typical pattern. What kind of fever is John having?


29. John has a fever of 39.5 degrees 2 days ago, But yesterday, he has a normal temperature of 36.5 degrees. Today, his temperature surges to 40 degrees. What type of fever is John having?


30. John’s temperature 10 hours ago is a normal 36.5 degrees. 4 hours ago, He has a fever with a temperature of 38.9 Degrees. Right now, his temperature is back to normal. Which of the following best describe the fever john is having?


31. The characteristic fever in Dengue Virus is characterized as:

A. TricyclicB. BicyclicC. BiphasicD. Triphasic

32. When John has been given paracetamol, his fever was brought down dramatically from 40 degrees Celsius to 36.7 degrees in a matter of 10 minutes. The nurse would assess this event as:

A. The goal of reducing john’s fever has been met with full satisfaction of the outcome criteriaB. The desired goal has been partially metC. The goal is not completely metD. The goal has been met but not with the desired outcome criteria

33. What can you expect from Marianne, who is currently at the ONSET stage of fever?

A. Hot, flushed skinB. Increase thirstC. ConvulsionD. Pale,cold skin

34. Marianne is now at the Defervescence stage of the fever, which of the following is expected?

A. DeliriumB. Goose fleshC. Cyanotic nail bedsD. Sweating

35. Considered as the most accessible and convenient method for temperature taking


36. Considered as Safest and most non invasive method of temperature taking


37. Which of the following is NOT a contraindication in taking ORAL temperature?

A. QuadriplegicB. Presence of NGTC. DyspneaD. Nausea and Vomitting

38. Which of the following is a contraindication in taking RECTAL temperature?

A. UnconsciousB. NeutropenicC. NPOD. Very young children

39. How long should the Rectal Thermometer be inserted to the clients anus?

A. 1 to 2 inchesB. .5 to 1.5 inches

C. 3 to 5 inchesD. 2 to 3 inches

40. In cleaning the thermometer after use, The direction of the cleaning to follow Medical Asepsis is :A. From bulb to stemB. From stem to bulbC. From stem to stemD. From bulb to bulb

41. How long should the thermometer stay in the Client’s Axilla?

A. 3 minutesB. 4 minutesC. 7 minutesD. 10 minutes

42. Which of the following statement is TRUE about pulse?

A. Young person have higher pulse than older personsB. Males have higher pulse rate than females after pubertyC. Digitalis has a positive chronotropic effectD. In lying position, Pulse rate is higher

43. The following are correct actions when taking radial pulse except:

A. Put the palms downwardB. Use the thumb to palpate the arteryC. Use two or three fingers to palpate the pulse at the inner wristD. Assess the pulse rate, rhythm, volume and bilateral quality

44. The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure is termed as

A. Apical rateB. Cardiac rateC. Pulse deficitD. Pulse pressure

45. Which of the following completely describes PULSUS PARADOXICUS?

A. A greater-than-normal increase in systolic blood pressure with inspirationB. A greater-than-normal decrease in systolic blood pressure with inspirationC. Pulse is paradoxically low when client is in standing position and high when supine.D. Pulse is paradoxically high when client is in standing position and low when supine.

46. Which of the following is TRUE about respiration?

A. I:E 2:1B. I:E : 4:3C I:E 1:1D. I:E 1:2

47. Contains the pneumotaxic and the apneutic centers

A. Medulla oblongataB. Pons

C. Carotid bodiesD. Aortic bodies

48. Which of the following is responsible for deep and prolonged inspiration


49. Which of the following is responsible for the rhythm and quality of breathing?


50. The primary respiratory center


51. Which of the following is TRUE about the mechanism of action of the Aortic and Carotid bodies?

A. If the BP is elevated, the RR increasesB. If the BP is elevated, the RR decreasesC. Elevated BP leads to Metabolic alkalosisD. Low BP leads to Metabolic acidosis

52. All of the following factors correctly influence respiration except one. Which of the following is incorrect?

A. Hydrocodone decreases RRB. Stress increases RRC. Increase temperature of the environment, Increase RRD. Increase altitude, Increase RR

53. When does the heart receives blood from the coronary artery?

A. SystoleB. DiastoleC. When the valves opensD. When the valves closes

54. Which of the following is more life threatening?

A. BP = 180/100B. BP = 160/120C. BP = 90/60D. BP = 80/50

55. Refers to the pressure when the ventricles are at rest

A. DiastoleB. SystoleC. PreloadD. Pulse pressure

56. Which of the following is TRUE about the blood

pressure determinants?

A. Hypervolemia lowers BPB. Hypervolemia increases GFRC. HCT of 70% might decrease or increase BPD. Epinephrine decreases BP

57. Which of the following do not correctly correlates the increase BP of Ms. Aida, a 70 year old diabetic?

A. Females, after the age 65 tends to have lower BP than malesB. Disease process like Diabetes increase BPC. BP is highest in the morning, and lowest during the nightD. Africans, have a greater risk of hypertension than Caucasian and Asians.

58. How many minutes are allowed to pass if the client had engaged in strenuous activities, smoked or ingested caffeine before taking his/her BP?

A. 5B. 10C. 15D. 30

59. Too narrow cuff will cause what change in the Client’s BP?

A. True high readingB. True low readingC. False high readingD. False low reading

60. Which is a preferable arm for BP taking?

A. An arm with the most contraptionsB. The left arm of the client with a CVA affecting the right brainC. The right armD. The left arm

61. Which of the following is INCORRECT in assessing client’s BP?

A. Read the mercury at the upper meniscus, preferably at the eye level to prevent error of parallaxB. Inflate and deflate slowly, 2-3 mmHg at a timeC. The sound heard during taking BP is known as KOROTKOFF soundD. If the BP is taken on the left leg using the popliteal artery pressure, a BP of 160/80 is normal.

62. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of the ERROR OF PARALLAX

A. If the eye level is higher than the level of the meniscus, it will cause a false high readingB. If the eye level is higher than the level of the meniscus, it will cause a false low readingC. If the eye level is lower than the level of the meniscus, it will cause a false low readingD. If the eye level is equal to that of the level of the upper meniscus, the reading is accurate

63. How many minute/s is/are allowed to pass before

making a re-reading after the first one?

A. 1B. 5C. 15D. 30

64. Which of the following is TRUE about the auscultation of blood pressure?

A. Pulse + 4 is considered as FULLB. The bell of the stethoscope is use in auscultating BPC. Sound produced by BP is considered as HIGH frequency soundD. Pulse +1 is considered as NORMAL

65. In assessing the abdomen, Which of the following is the correct sequence of the physical assessment?

A. Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation B. Palpation, Auscultation, Percussion, InspectionC. Inspection, Palpation, Auscultation, PercussionD. Inspection, Auscultation, Palpation, Percussion

66. The sequence in examining the quadrants of the abdomen is:

A. RUQ,RLQ,LUQ,LLQB. RLQ,RUQ,LLQ,LUQC. RUQ,RLQ,LLQ,LUQD. RLQ,RUQ,LUQ,LLQ

67. In inspecting the abdomen, which of the following is NOT DONE?

A. Ask the client to void firstB. Knees and legs are straighten to relax the abdomenC. The best position in assessing the abdomen is Dorsal recumbentD. The knees and legs are externally rotated

68. Dr. Fabian De Las Santas, is about to conduct an ophthalmoscope examination. Which of the following, if done by a nurse, is a Correct preparation before the procedure?

A. Provide the necessary draping to ensure privacyB. Open the windows, curtains and light to allow better illuminationC. Pour warm water over the ophthalmoscope to ensure comfortD. Darken the room to provide better illumination

69. If the client is female, and the doctor is a male and the patient is about to undergo a vaginal and cervical examination, why is it necessary to have a female nurse in attendance?

A. To ensure that the doctor performs the procedure safelyB. To assist the doctorC. To assess the client’s response to examinationD. To ensure that the procedure is done in an ethical manner

70. In palpating the client’s breast, Which of the following position is necessary for the patient to assume before the

start of the procedure?

A. SupineB. Dorsal recumbentC. SittingD. Lithotomy

71. When is the best time to collect urine specimen for routine urinalysis and C/S?

A. Early morningB. Later afternoonC. MidnightD. Before breakfast

72. Which of the following is among an ideal way of collecting a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity?

A. Use a clean containerB. Discard the first flow of urine to ensure that the urine is not contaminatedC. Collect around 30-50 ml of urineD. Add preservatives, refrigerate the specimen or add ice according to the agency’s protocol

73. In a 24 hour urine specimen started Friday, 9:00 A.M, which of the following if done by a Nurse indicate a NEED for further procedural debriefing?

A. The nurse ask the client to urinate at 9:00 A.M, Friday and she included the urine in the 24 hour urine specimen B. The nurse discards the Friday 9:00 A M urine of the clientC. The nurse included the Saturday 9:00 A.M urine of the client to the specimen collectionD. The nurse added preservatives as per protocol and refrigerates the specimen

74. This specimen is required to assess glucose levels and for the presence of albumin the the urine

A. Midstream clean catch urineB. 24 hours urine collectionC. Postprandial urine collectionD. Second voided urine

75. When should the client test his blood sugar levels for greater accuracy?

A. During mealsB. In between mealsC. Before mealsD. 2 Hours after meals

76. In collecting a urine from a catheterized patient, Which of the following statement indicates an accurate performance of the procedure?

A. Clamp above the port for 30 to 60 minutes before drawing the urine from the portB. Clamp below the port for 30 to 60 minutes before drawing the urine from the portC. Clamp above the port for 5 to 10 minutes before drawing the urine from the portD. Clamp below the port for 5 to 10 minutes before drawing

the urine from the port

77. A community health nurse should be resourceful and meet the needs of the client. A villager ask him, Can you test my urine for glucose? Which of the following technique allows the nurse to test a client’s urine for glucose without the need for intricate instruments.

A. Acetic Acid testB. Nitrazine paper testC. Benedict’s testD. Litmus paper test

78. A community health nurse is assessing client’s urine using the Acetic Acid solution. Which of the following, if done by a nurse, indicates lack of correct knowledge with the procedure?

A. The nurse added the Urine as the 2/3 part of the solutionB. The nurse heats the test tube after adding 1/3 part acetic acidC. The nurse heats the test tube after adding 2/3 part of UrineD. The nurse determines abnormal result if she noticed that the test tube becomes cloudy

79. Which of the following is incorrect with regards to proper urine testing using Benedict’s Solution?

A. Heat around 5ml of Benedict’s solution together with the urine in a test tubeB. Add 8 to 10 drops of urineC. Heat the Benedict’s solution without the urine to check if the solution is contaminatedD. If the color remains BLUE, the result is POSITIVE

80. +++ Positive result after Benedicts test is depicted by what color?

A. BlueB. GreenC. YellowD. Orange

81. Clinitest is used in testing the urine of a client for glucose. Which of the following, If committed by a nurse indicates error?

A. Specimen is collected after mealsB. The nurse puts 1 clinitest tablet into a test tubeC. She added 5 drops of urine and 10 drops of waterD. If the color becomes orange or red, It is considered postitive

82. Which of the following nursing intervention is important for a client scheduled to have a Guaiac Test?

A. Avoid turnips, radish and horseradish 3 days before procedureB. Continue iron preparation to prevent further loss of IronC. Do not eat read meat 12 hours before procedureD. Encourage caffeine and dark colored foods to produce accurate results

83. In collecting a routine specimen for fecalysis, Which of the following, if done by a nurse, indicates inadequate

knowledge and skills about the procedure?

A. The nurse scoop the specimen specifically at the site with blood and mucusB. She took around 1 inch of specimen or a teaspoonfulC. Ask the client to call her for the specimen after the client wiped off his anus with a tissueD. Ask the client to defecate in a bedpan, Secure a sterile container

84. In a routine sputum analysis, Which of the following indicates proper nursing action before sputum collection?

A. Secure a clean containerB. Discard the container if the outside becomes contaminated with the sputumC. Rinse the client’s mouth with Listerine after collectionD. Tell the client that 4 tablespoon of sputum is needed for each specimen for a routine sputum analysis

85. Who collects Blood specimen?

A. The nurseB. Medical technologistC. PhysicianD. Physical therapist

86. David, 68 year old male client is scheduled for Serum Lipid analysis. Which of the following health teaching is important to ensure accurate reading?

A. Tell the patient to eat fatty meals 3 days prior to the procedureB. NPO for 12 hours pre procedureC. Ask the client to drink 1 glass of water 1 hour prior to the procedureD. Tell the client that the normal serum lipase level is 50 to 140 U/L

87. The primary factor responsible for body heat production is the

A. MetabolismB. Release of thyroxinC. Muscle activityD. Stress

88. The heat regulating center is found in the

A. Medulla oblongataB. ThalamusC. HypothalamusD. Pons

89. A process of heat loss which involves the transfer of heat from one surface to another is

A. RadiationB. ConductionC. ConvectionD. Evaporation

90. Which of the following is a primary factor that affects the BP?

A. Obesity

B. AgeC. StressD. Gender

91. The following are social data about the client except

A. Patient’s lifestyleB. Religious practicesC. Family home situationD. Usual health status

92. The best position for any procedure that involves vaginal and cervical examination is


93. Measure the leg circumference of a client with bipedal edema is best done in what position?

A. Dorsal recumbentB. SittingC. StandingD. Supine

94. In palpating the client’s abdomen, Which of the following is the best position for the client to assume?


95. Rectal examination is done with a client in what position?

A. Dorsal recumbentB. Sims positionC. SupineD. Lithotomy

96. Which of the following is a correct nursing action when collecting urine specimen from a client with an Indwelling catheter?

A. Collect urine specimen from the drainage bagB. Detach catheter from the connecting tube and draw the specimen from the portC. Use sterile syringe to aspirate urine specimen from the drainage portD. Insert the syringe straight to the port to allow self sealing of the port

97. Which of the following is inappropriate in collecting mid stream clean catch urine specimen for urine analysis?

A. Collect early in the morning, First voided specimenB. Do perineal care before specimen collectionC. Collect 5 to 10 ml for urineD. Discard the first flow of the urine

98. When palpating the client’s neck for lymphadenopathy, where should the nurse position himself?

A. At the client’s backB. At the client’s right sideC. At the client’s left sideD. In front of a sitting client

99. Which of the following is the best position for the client to assume if the back is to be examined by the nurse?

A. StandingB. SittingC. Side lyingD. Prone

100. In assessing the client’s chest, which position best show chest expansion as well as its movements?

A. SittingB. ProneC. SidelyingD. Supine

FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING TEST V

Content Outline

1. Oxygenation2. Nutrition

1. Which one of the following is NOT a function of the Upper airway?

A. For clearance mechanism such as coughingB. Transport gases to the lower airwaysC. Warming, Filtration and Humidification of inspired airD. Protect the lower airway from foreign mater

2. It is the hair the lines the vestibule which function as a filtering mechanism for foreign objects

A. CiliaB. NaresC. CarinaD. Vibrissae

3. This is the paranasal sinus found between the eyes and the nose that extends backward into the skull

A. EhtmoidB. SphenoidC. MaxillaryD. Frontal

4. Which paranasal sinus is found over the eyebrow?


5. Gene De Vonne Katrouchuacheulujiki wants to change her surname to something shorter, The court denied her request which depresses her and find herself binge eating. She accidentally aspirate a large piece of nut and it passes the carina. Probabilty wise, Where will the nut go?

A. Right main stem bronchusB. Left main stem bronchusC. Be dislodged in between the carinaD. Be blocked by the closed epiglottis

6. Which cell secretes mucus that help protect the lungs by trapping debris in the respiratory tract?

A. Type I pneumocytesB. Type II pneumocytesC. Goblet cellsD. Adipose cells

7. How many lobes are there in the RIGHT LUNG?

A. OneB. TwoC. ThreeD. Four

8. The presence of the liver causes which anatomical difference of the Kidneys and the Lungs?

A. Left kidney slightly lower, Left lung slightly shorterB. Left kidney slightly higher, Left lung slightly shorterC. Right kidney lower, Right lung shorterD. Right kidney higher, Right lung shorter

9. Surfactant is produced by what cells in the alveoli?


10. The normal L:S Ratio to consider the newborn baby viable is

A. 1:2B. 2:1C. 3:1D. 1:3

11. Refers to the extra air that can be inhaled beyond the normal tidal volume

A. Inspiratory reserve volumeB. Expiratory reserve volumeC. Functional residual capacityD. Residual volume

12. This is the amount of air remained in the lungs after a forceful expiration


13. Casssandra, A 22 year old grade Agnostic, Asked you, how many spikes of bones are there in my ribs? Your best response is which of the following?

A. We have 13 pairs of ribs CassandraB. We have 12 pairs of ribs CassandraC. Humans have 16 pairs of ribs, and that was noted by Vesalius in 1543D. Humans have 8 pairs of ribs. 4 of which are floating

14. Which of the following is considered as the main muscle of respiration?

A. LungsB. Intercostal MusclesC. DiaphragmD. Pectoralis major

15. Cassandra asked you : How many air is there in the oxygen and how many does human requires? Which of the following is the best response :

A. God is good, Man requires 21% of oxygen and we have 21% available in our airB. Man requires 16% of oxygen and we have 35% available in our airC. Man requires 10% of oxygen and we have 50% available

in our airD. Human requires 21% of oxygen and we have 21% available in our air

16. Which of the following is TRUE about Expiration?

A. A passive processB. The length of which is half of the length of InspirationC. Stridor is commonly heard during expirationD. Requires energy to be carried out

17. Which of the following is TRUE in postural drainage?

A. Patient assumes position for 10 to 15 minutesB. Should last only for 60 minutesC. Done best P.CD. An independent nursing action

18. All but one of the following is a purpose of steam inhalation

A. MucolyticB. Warm and humidify airC. Administer medicationsD. Promote bronchoconstriction

19. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in steam inhalation?

A. It is a dependent nursing actionB. Spout is put 12-18 inches away from the noseC. Render steam inhalation for atleast 60 minutesD. Cover the client’s eye with wash cloth to prevent irritation

20. When should a nurse suction a client?

A. As desiredB. As neededC. Every 1 hourD. Every 4 hours

21. Ernest Arnold Hamilton, a 60 year old American client was mobbed by teen gangsters near New york, Cubao. He was rushed to John John Hopio Medical Center and was Unconscious. You are his nurse and you are to suction his secretions. In which position should you place Mr. Hamilton?

A. High fowlersB. Semi fowlersC. ProneD. Side lying

22. You are about to set the suction pressure to be used to Mr. Hamilton. You are using a Wall unit suction machine. How much pressure should you set the valve before suctioning Mr. Hamilton?

A. 50-95 mmHgB. 200-350 mmHgC. 100-120 mmHgD. 10-15 mmHg

23. The wall unit is not functioning; You then try to use the portable suction equipment available. How much pressure of

suction equipment is needed to prevent trauma to mucus membrane and air ways in case of portable suction units?


24. There are four catheter sizes available for use, which one of these should you use for Mr. Hamilton?

A. Fr. 18B. Fr. 12C. Fr. 10D. Fr, 5

25. Which of the following, if done by the nurse, indicates incompetence during suctioning an unconscious client?

A. Measure the length of the suction catheter to be inserted by measuring from the tip of the nose, to the earlobe, to the xiphoid processB. Use KY Jelly if suctioning nasopharyngeal secretionC. The maximum time of suctioning should not exceed 15 secondsD. Allow 30 seconds interval between suctioning

26. Which of the following is the initial sign of hypoxemia in an adult client?

1. Tachypnea2. Tachycardia3. Cyanosis4. Pallor5. Irritability6. Flaring of Nares

A. 1,2B. 2,5C. 2,6D. 3,4

27. Which method of oxygenation least likely produces anxiety and apprehension?

A. Nasal CannulaB. Simple Face maskC. Non Rebreather maskD. Partial Rebreather mask

28. Which of the following oxygen delivery method can deliver 100% Oxygen at 15 LPM?


29. Which of the following is not true about OXYGEN?

A. Oxygen is odorless, tasteless and colorless gas.B. Oxygen can irritate mucus membraneC. Oxygen supports combustionD. Excessive oxygen administration results in respiratory acidosis

30. Roberto San Andres, A new nurse in the hospital is about to administer oxygen on patient with Respiratory distress. As his senior nurse, you should intervene if Roberto will:

A. Uses venture mask in oxygen administrationB. Put a non rebreather mask in the patient before opening the oxygen sourceC. Use a partial rebreather mask to deliver oxygenD. Check for the doctor’s order for Oxygen administration

31. Which of the following will alert the nurse as an early sign of hypoxia?

A. Client is tired and dyspneicB. The client is coughing out bloodC. The client’s heart rate is 50 BPMD. Client is frequently turning from side to side

32. Miguelito de balboa, An OFW presents at the admission with an A:P Diameter ratio of 2:1, Which of the following associated finding should the nurse expect?

A. PancytopeniaB. AnemiaC. Fingers are Club-likeD. Hematocrit of client is decreased

33. The best method of oxygen administration for client with COPD uses:

A. CannulaB. Simple Face maskC. Non rebreather maskD. Venturi mask

34. Mang dagul, a 50 year old chronic smoker was brought to the E.R because of difficulty in breathing. Pleural effusion was the diagnosis and CTT was ordered. What does C.T.T Stands for?

A. Chest tube thoracotomyB. Chest tube thoracostomyC. Closed tube thoracotomyD. Closed tube thoracostmy

35. Where will the CTT be inserted if we are to drain fluids accumulated in Mang dagul’s pleura?

A. 2nd ICSB. 4th ICSC. 5th ICSD. 8th ICS

36. There is a continuous bubbling in the water sealed drainage system with suction. And oscillation is observed. As a nurse, what should you do?

A. Consider this as normal findingsB. Notify the physicianC. Check for tube leakD. Prepare a petrolatum gauze dressing

37. Which of the following is true about nutrition?

A. It is the process in which food are broken down, for the

body to use in growth and developmentB. It is a process in which digested proteins, fats, minerals, vitamins and carbohydrates are transported into the circulationC. It is a chemical process that occurs in the cell that allows for energy production, energy use, growth and tissue repairD. It is the study of nutrients and the process in which they are use by the body

38. The majority of the digestion processes take place in the

A. MouthB. Small intestineC. Large intestineD. Stomach

39. All of the following is true about digestion that occurs in the Mouth except

A. It is where the digestion process startsB. Mechanical digestion is brought about by masticationC. The action of ptyalin or the salivary tyrpsin breaks down starches into maltoseD. Deglutition occurs after food is broken down into small pieces and well mixed with saliva

40. Which of the following foods lowers the cardiac sphincter pressure?

A. Roast beef, Steamed cauliflower and RiceB. Orange juice, Non fat milk, Dry crackersC. Decaffeinated coffee, Sky flakes crackers, SumanD. Coffee with coffee mate, Bacon and Egg

41. Where does the digestion of carbohydrates start?

A. MouthB. EsophagusC. Small intestineD. Stomach

42. Protein and Fat digestion begins where?


43. All but one is true about digestion that occurs in the Stomach

A. Carbohydrates are the fastest to be digested, in about an hourB. Fat is the slowest to be digested, in about 5 hoursC. HCl inhibits absorption of Calcium in the gastric mucosaD. HCl converts pepsinogen to pepsin, which starts the complex process of protein digestion

44. Which of the following is NOT an enzyme secreted by the small intestine?

A. SucraseB. EnterokinaseC. AmylaseD. Enterokinase

45. The hormone secreted by the Small intestine that stimulates the production of pancreatic juice which primarily aids in buffering the acidic bolus passed by the Stomach

A. EnterogastroneB. CholecystokininC. PancreozyminD. Enterokinase

46. When the duodenal enzyme sucrase acts on SUCROSE, which 2 monosaccharides are formed?

A. Galactose + GalactoseB. Glucose + FructoseC. Glucose + GalactoseD. Fructose + Fructose

47. This is the enzyme secreted by the pancrease that completes the protein digestion

A. TrypsinB. EnterokinaseC. EnterogastroneD. Amylase

48. The end product of protein digestion or the “Building blocks of Protein” is what we call

A. NucleotidesB. Fatty acidsC. GlucoseD. Amino Acids

49. Enzyme secreted by the small intestine after it detects a bolus of fatty food. This will contract the gallbladder to secrete bile and relax the sphincter of Oddi to aid in the emulsification of fats and its digestion.

A. LipaseB. AmylaseC. CholecystokininD. Pancreozymin

50. Which of the following is not true about the Large Intestine?

A. It absorbs around 1 L of water making the feces around 75% water and 25% solidB. The stool formed in the transverse colon is not yet well formedC. It is a sterile body cavityD. It is called large intestine because it is longer than the small intestine

51. This is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg water to 1 degree Celsius

A. CalorieB. JoulesC. MetabolismD. Basal metabolic rate

52. Assuming a cup of rice provides 50 grams of carbohydrates. How many calories are there in that cup of rice?

A. 150 caloriesB. 200 caloriesC. 250 caloriesD. 400 calories

53. An average adult filipino requires how many calories in a day?

A. 1,000 caloriesB. 1,500 caloriesC. 2,000 caloriesD. 2,500 calories

54. Which of the following is true about an individual’s caloric needs?

A. All individual have the same caloric needsB. Females in general have higher BMR and therefore, require more caloriesC. During cold weather, people need more calories due to increase BMRD. Dinner should be the heaviest meal of the day

55. Among the following people, who requires the greatest caloric intake?

A. An individual in a long state of gluconeogenesisB. An individual in a long state of glycogenolysisC. A pregnant individualD. An adolescent with a BMI of 25

56. Which nutrient deficiency is associated with the development of Pellagra, Dermatitis and Diarrhea?

A. Vitamin B1B. Vitamin B2C. Vitamin B3D. Vitamin B6

57. Which Vitamin is not given in conjunction with the intake of LEVODOPA in cases of Parkinson’s Disease due to the fact that levodopa increases its level in the body?


58. A vitamin taken in conjunction with ISONIAZID to prevent peripheral neuritis


59. The inflammation of the Lips, Palate and Tongue is associated in the deficiency of this vitamin


60. Beri beri is caused by the deficiency of which Vitamin?

A. Vitamin B1B. Vitamin B2C. Vitamin B3D. Vitamin C

61. Which of the following is the best source of Vitamin E?

A. Green leafy vegetablesB. Vegetable oilC. Fortified MilkD. Fish liver oil

62. Among the following foods, which food should you emphasize giving on an Alcoholic client?

A. Pork liver and organ meats, PorkB. Red meat, Eggs and Dairy productsC. Green leafy vegetables, Yellow vegetables, Cantaloupe and Dairy productsD. Chicken, Peanuts, Bananas, Wheat germs and yeasts

63. Which food group should you emphasize giving on a pregnant mother in first trimester to prevent neural tube defects?

A. Broccoli, Guava, Citrus fruits, TomatoesB. Butter, Sardines, Tuna, Salmon, Egg yolkC. Wheat germ, Vegetable Oil, soybeans, corn, peanutsD. Organ meats, Green leafy vegetables, Liver, Eggs

64. A client taking Coumadin is to be educated on his diet. As a nurse, which of the following food should you instruct the client to avoid?

A. Spinach, Green leafy vegetables, Cabbage, LiverB. Salmon, Sardines, TunaC. Butter, Egg yolk, breakfast cerealsD. Banana, Yeast, Wheat germ, Chicken

65. Vitamin E plus this mineral works as one of the best anti oxidant in the body according to the latest research. They are combined with 5 Alpha reductase inhibitor to reduce the risk of acquiring prostate cancer

A. ZincB. IronC. SeleniumD. Vanadium

66. Incident of prostate cancer is found to have been reduced on a population exposed in tolerable amount of sunlight. Which vitamin is associated with this phenomenon?

A. Vitamin AB. Vitamin BC. Vitamin CD. Vitamin D

67. Micronutrients are those nutrients needed by the body in a very minute amount. Which of the following vitamin is considered as a MICRONUTRIENT

A. PhosphorousB. IronC. Calcium

D. Sodium

68. Deficiency of this mineral results in tetany, osteomalacia, osteoporosis and rickets.

A. Vitamin DB. IronC. CalciumD. Sodium

69. Among the following foods, which has the highest amount of potassium per area of their meat?

A. CantaloupeB. AvocadoC. RaisinD. Banana

70. A client has HEMOSIDEROSIS. Which of the following drug would you expect to be given to the client?

A. AcetazolamideB. DeferoxamineC. Calcium EDTAD. Activated charcoal

71. Which of the following provides the richest source of Iron per area of their meat?

A. Pork meatB. Lean read meatC. Pork liverD. Green mongo

72. Which of the following is considered the best indicator of nutritional status of an individual?

A. HeightB. WeightC. Arm muscle circumferenceD. BMI

73. Jose Miguel, a 50 year old business man is 6’0 Tall and weights 179 lbs. As a nurse, you know that Jose Miguel is :

A. OverweightB. UnderweightC. NormalD. Obese

74. Jose Miguel is a little bit nauseous. Among the following beverages, Which could help relieve JM’s nausea?

A. CokeB. SpriteC. MirindaD. Orange Juice or Lemon Juice

75. Which of the following is the first sign of dehydration?

A. TachycardiaB. RestlessnessC. ThirstD. Poor skin turgor

76. What Specific gravity lab result is compatible with a dehydrated client?

A. 1.007B. 1.020C. 1.039D. 1.029

77. Which hematocrit value is expected in a dehydrated male client?

A. 67%B. 50%C. 36%D. 45%

78. Which of the following statement by a client with prolonged vomiting indicates the initial onset of hypokalemia?

A. My arm feels so weakB. I felt my heart beat just right nowC. My face muscle is twitchingD. Nurse, help! My legs are cramping

79. Which of the following is not an anti-emetic?

A. MarinolB. DramamineC. BenadrylD. Alevaire

80. Which is not a clear liquid diet?

A. Hard candyB. GelatinC. Coffee with Coffee mateD. Bouillon

81. Which of the following is included in a full liquid diet?

A. PopsiclesB. Pureed vegetable meatC. Pineapple juice with pulpsD. Mashed potato

82. Which food is included in a BLAND DIET?

A. Steamed broccoliB. Creamed potatoC. Spinach in garlicD. Sweet potato

83. Which of the following if done by the nurse, is correct during NGT Insertion?

A. Use an oil based lubricantB. Measure the amount of the tube to be inserted from the Tip of the nose, to the earlobe, to the xiphoid processC. Soak the NGT in a basin of ice water to facilitate easy insertionD. Check the placement of the tube by introducing 10 cc of sterile water and auscultating for bubbling sound

84. Which of the following is the BEST method in assessing for the correct placement of the NGT?

A. X-RayB. Immerse tip of the tube in water to check for bubbles producedC. Aspirating gastric content to check if the content is acidicD. Instilling air in the NGT and listening for a gurgling sound at the epigastric area

85. A terminally ill cancer patient is scheduled for an NGT feeding today. How should you position the patient?

A. Semi fowlers in bedB. Bring the client into a chairC. Slightly elevated right side lying positionD. Supine in bed

86. A client is scheduled for NGT Feeding. Checking the residual volume, you determined that he has 40 cc residual from the last feeding. You reinstill the 40 cc of residual volume and added the 250 cc of feeding ordered by the doctor. You then instill 60 cc of water to clear the lumen and the tube. How much will you put in the client’s chart as input?

A. 250 ccB. 290 ccC. 350 ccD. 310 cc

87. Which of the following if done by a nurse indicates deviation from the standards of NGT feeding?

A. Do not give the feeding and notify the doctor of residual of the last feeding is greater than or equal to 50 mlB. Height of the feeding should be 12 inches about the tube point of insertion to allow slow introduction of feedingC. Ask the client to position in supine position immediately after feeding to prevent dumping syndromeD. Clamp the NGT before all of the water is instilled to prevent air entry in the stomach

88. What is the most common problem in TUBE FEEDING?

A. DiarrheaB. InfectionC. HyperglycemiaD. Vomiting

89. Which of the following is TRUE in colostomy feeding?

A. Hold the syringe 18 inches above the stoma and administer the feeding slowlyB. Pour 30 ml of water before and after feeding administrationC. Insert the ostomy feeding tube 1 inch towards the stomaD. A Pink stoma means that circulation towards the stoma is all well

90. A client with TPN suddenly develops tremors, dizziness, weakness and diaphoresis. The client said “I feel weak” You saw that his TPN is already empty and another TPN is scheduled to replace the previous one but its provision is already 3 hours late. Which of the following is the probable complication being experienced by the client?

A. HyperglycemiaB. HypoglycemiaC. InfectionD. Fluid overload

91. To assess the adequacy of food intake, which of the following assessment parameters is best used?

A. Food likes and dislikesB. Regularity of meal timesC. 3 day diet recallD. Eating style and habits

92. The vomiting center is found in the

A. Medulla OblongataB. PonsC. HypothalamusD. Cerebellum

93. The most threatening complication of vomiting in client’s with stroke is

A. AspirationB. DehydrationC. Fluid and electrolyte imbalanceD. Malnutrition

94. Which among this food is the richest source of Iron?

A. AmpalayaB. BroccoliC. MongoD. Malunggay leaves

95. Which of the following is a good source of Vitamin A?

A. Egg yolkB. LiverC. FishD. Peanuts

96. The most important nursing action before gastrostomy feeding is

A. Check V/SB. Assess for patency of the tubeC. Measure residual feedingD. Check the placement of the tube

97. The primary advantage of gastrostomy feeding is

A. Ensures adequate nutritionB. It prevents aspirationC. Maintains Gastro esophageal sphincter integrityD. Minimizes fluid-electrolyte imbalance

98. What is the BMI Of Budek, weighing 120 lbs and has a height of 5 feet 7 inches.

A. 20B. 19C. 15D. 25

99. Which finding is consistent with PERNICIOUS

ANEMIA?

A. Strawberry tongueB. Currant Jelly stoolC. Beefy red tongueD. Pale [ HYPOCHROMIC ] RBC

100. The nurse is browsing the chart of the patient and notes a normal serum lipase level. Which of the following is a normal serum lipase value?

A. 10 U/LB. 100 U/LC. 200 U/LD. 350 U/L

FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING TEST V

Content Outline

1. Oxygenation2. Nutrition

1. Which one of the following is NOT a function of the Upper airway?

A. For clearance mechanism such as coughing B. Transport gases to the lower airwaysC. Warming, Filtration and Humidification of inspired airD. Protect the lower airway from foreign mater

2. It is the hair the lines the vestibule which function as a filtering mechanism for foreign objects

A. CiliaB. NaresC. CarinaD. Vibrissae

3. This is the paranasal sinus found between the eyes and the nose that extends backward into the skull


4. Which paranasal sinus is found over the eyebrow?


5. Gene De Vonne Katrouchuacheulujiki wants to change her surname to something shorter, The court denied her request which depresses her and find herself binge eating. She accidentally aspirate a large piece of nut and it passes the carina. Probabilty wise, Where will the nut go?

A. Right main stem bronchusB. Left main stem bronchusC. Be dislodged in between the carinaD. Be blocked by the closed epiglottis

6. Which cell secretes mucus that help protect the lungs by trapping debris in the respiratory tract?


7. How many lobes are there in the RIGHT LUNG?

A. OneB. TwoC. ThreeD. Four

8. The presence of the liver causes which anatomical difference of the Kidneys and the Lungs?

A. Left kidney slightly lower, Left lung slightly shorterB. Left kidney slightly higher, Left lung slightly shorterC. Right kidney lower, Right lung shorterD. Right kidney higher, Right lung shorter

9. Surfactant is produced by what cells in the alveoli?


10. The normal L:S Ratio to consider the newborn baby viable is

A. 1:2B. 2:1C. 3:1D. 1:3

11. Refers to the extra air that can be inhaled beyond the normal tidal volume


12. This is the amount of air remained in the lungs after a forceful expiration


13. Casssandra, A 22 year old grade Agnostic, Asked you, how many spikes of bones are there in my ribs? Your best response is which of the following?

A. We have 13 pairs of ribs CassandraB. We have 12 pairs of ribs CassandraC. Humans have 16 pairs of ribs, and that was noted by

Vesalius in 1543D. Humans have 8 pairs of ribs. 4 of which are floating

14. Which of the following is considered as the main muscle of respiration?

A. LungsB. Intercostal MusclesC. DiaphragmD. Pectoralis major

15. Cassandra asked you : How many air is there in the oxygen and how many does human requires? Which of the following is the best response :

A. God is good, Man requires 21% of oxygen and we have 21% available in our airB. Man requires 16% of oxygen and we have 35% available in our airC. Man requires 10% of oxygen and we have 50% available in our airD. Human requires 21% of oxygen and we have 21% available in our air

16. Which of the following is TRUE about Expiration?

A. A passive processB. The length of which is half of the length of InspirationC. Stridor is commonly heard during expirationD. Requires energy to be carried out

17. Which of the following is TRUE in postural drainage?

A. Patient assumes position for 10 to 15 minutesB. Should last only for 60 minutesC. Done best P.CD. An independent nursing action

18. All but one of the following is a purpose of steam inhalation

A. MucolyticB. Warm and humidify airC. Administer medicationsD. Promote bronchoconstriction

19. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in steam inhalation?

A. It is a dependent nursing actionB. Spout is put 12-18 inches away from the noseC. Render steam inhalation for atleast 60 minutesD. Cover the client’s eye with wash cloth to prevent irritation

20. When should a nurse suction a client?

A. As desiredB. As neededC. Every 1 hourD. Every 4 hours

21. Ernest Arnold Hamilton, a 60 year old American client was mobbed by teen gangsters near New york, Cubao. He was rushed to John John Hopio Medical Center and was Unconscious. You are his nurse and you are to suction his

secretions. In which position should you place Mr. Hamilton?

A. High fowlersB. Semi fowlersC. ProneD. Side lying

22. You are about to set the suction pressure to be used to Mr. Hamilton. You are using a Wall unit suction machine. How much pressure should you set the valve before suctioning Mr. Hamilton?


23. The wall unit is not functioning; You then try to use the portable suction equipment available. How much pressure of suction equipment is needed to prevent trauma to mucus membrane and air ways in case of portable suction units?


24. There are four catheter sizes available for use, which one of these should you use for Mr. Hamilton?

A. Fr. 18B. Fr. 12C. Fr. 10D. Fr, 5

25. Which of the following, if done by the nurse, indicates incompetence during suctioning an unconscious client?

A. Measure the length of the suction catheter to be inserted by measuring from the tip of the nose, to the earlobe, to the xiphoid processB. Use KY Jelly if suctioning nasopharyngeal secretionC. The maximum time of suctioning should not exceed 15 secondsD. Allow 30 seconds interval between suctioning

26. Which of the following is the initial sign of hypoxemia in an adult client?

1. Tachypnea2. Tachycardia3. Cyanosis4. Pallor5. Irritability6. Flaring of Nares

A. 1,2B. 2,5C. 2,6D. 3,4

27. Which method of oxygenation least likely produces anxiety and apprehension?

A. Nasal Cannula

B. Simple Face maskC. Non Rebreather maskD. Partial Rebreather mask

28. Which of the following oxygen delivery method can deliver 100% Oxygen at 15 LPM?


29. Which of the following is not true about OXYGEN?

A. Oxygen is odorless, tasteless and colorless gas.B. Oxygen can irritate mucus membraneC. Oxygen supports combustionD. Excessive oxygen administration results in respiratory acidosis

30. Roberto San Andres, A new nurse in the hospital is about to administer oxygen on patient with Respiratory distress. As his senior nurse, you should intervene if Roberto will:

A. Uses venture mask in oxygen administrationB. Put a non rebreather mask in the patient before opening the oxygen sourceC. Use a partial rebreather mask to deliver oxygenD. Check for the doctor’s order for Oxygen administration

31. Which of the following will alert the nurse as an early sign of hypoxia?

A. Client is tired and dyspneicB. The client is coughing out bloodC. The client’s heart rate is 50 BPMD. Client is frequently turning from side to side

32. Miguelito de balboa, An OFW presents at the admission with an A:P Diameter ratio of 2:1, Which of the following associated finding should the nurse expect?

A. PancytopeniaB. AnemiaC. Fingers are Club-likeD. Hematocrit of client is decreased

33. The best method of oxygen administration for client with COPD uses:

A. CannulaB. Simple Face maskC. Non rebreather maskD. Venturi mask

34. Mang dagul, a 50 year old chronic smoker was brought to the E.R because of difficulty in breathing. Pleural effusion was the diagnosis and CTT was ordered. What does C.T.T Stands for?

A. Chest tube thoracotomyB. Chest tube thoracostomyC. Closed tube thoracotomyD. Closed tube thoracostmy

35. Where will the CTT be inserted if we are to drain fluids accumulated in Mang dagul’s pleura?

A. 2nd ICSB. 4th ICSC. 5th ICSD. 8th ICS

36. There is a continuous bubbling in the water sealed drainage system with suction. And oscillation is observed. As a nurse, what should you do?

A. Consider this as normal findingsB. Notify the physicianC. Check for tube leakD. Prepare a petrolatum gauze dressing

37. Which of the following is true about nutrition?

A. It is the process in which food are broken down, for the body to use in growth and developmentB. It is a process in which digested proteins, fats, minerals, vitamins and carbohydrates are transported into the circulationC. It is a chemical process that occurs in the cell that allows for energy production, energy use, growth and tissue repairD. It is the study of nutrients and the process in which they are use by the body

38. The majority of the digestion processes take place in the

A. MouthB. Small intestineC. Large intestineD. Stomach

39. All of the following is true about digestion that occurs in the Mouth except

A. It is where the digestion process startsB. Mechanical digestion is brought about by masticationC. The action of ptyalin or the salivary tyrpsin breaks down starches into maltoseD. Deglutition occurs after food is broken down into small pieces and well mixed with saliva

40. Which of the following foods lowers the cardiac sphincter pressure?

A. Roast beef, Steamed cauliflower and RiceB. Orange juice, Non fat milk, Dry crackersC. Decaffeinated coffee, Sky flakes crackers, SumanD. Coffee with coffee mate, Bacon and Egg

41. Where does the digestion of carbohydrates start?


42. Protein and Fat digestion begins where?

A. MouthB. EsophagusC. Small intestine

D. Stomach

43. All but one is true about digestion that occurs in the Stomach

A. Carbohydrates are the fastest to be digested, in about an hourB. Fat is the slowest to be digested, in about 5 hoursC. HCl inhibits absorption of Calcium in the gastric mucosaD. HCl converts pepsinogen to pepsin, which starts the complex process of protein digestion

44. Which of the following is NOT an enzyme secreted by the small intestine?

A. SucraseB. EnterokinaseC. AmylaseD. Enterokinase

45. The hormone secreted by the Small intestine that stimulates the production of pancreatic juice which primarily aids in buffering the acidic bolus passed by the Stomach

A. EnterogastroneB. CholecystokininC. PancreozyminD. Enterokinase

46. When the duodenal enzyme sucrase acts on SUCROSE, which 2 monosaccharides are formed?

A. Galactose + GalactoseB. Glucose + FructoseC. Glucose + GalactoseD. Fructose + Fructose

47. This is the enzyme secreted by the pancrease that completes the protein digestion

A. TrypsinB. EnterokinaseC. EnterogastroneD. Amylase

48. The end product of protein digestion or the “Building blocks of Protein” is what we call

A. NucleotidesB. Fatty acidsC. GlucoseD. Amino Acids

49. Enzyme secreted by the small intestine after it detects a bolus of fatty food. This will contract the gallbladder to secrete bile and relax the sphincter of Oddi to aid in the emulsification of fats and its digestion.

A. LipaseB. AmylaseC. CholecystokininD. Pancreozymin

50. Which of the following is not true about the Large

Intestine?

A. It absorbs around 1 L of water making the feces around 75% water and 25% solidB. The stool formed in the transverse colon is not yet well formedC. It is a sterile body cavityD. It is called large intestine because it is longer than the small intestine

51. This is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg water to 1 degree Celsius

A. CalorieB. JoulesC. MetabolismD. Basal metabolic rate

52. Assuming a cup of rice provides 50 grams of carbohydrates. How many calories are there in that cup of rice?

A. 150 caloriesB. 200 caloriesC. 250 caloriesD. 400 calories

53. An average adult filipino requires how many calories in a day?

A. 1,000 caloriesB. 1,500 caloriesC. 2,000 caloriesD. 2,500 calories

54. Which of the following is true about an individual’s caloric needs?

A. All individual have the same caloric needsB. Females in general have higher BMR and therefore, require more caloriesC. During cold weather, people need more calories due to increase BMRD. Dinner should be the heaviest meal of the day

55. Among the following people, who requires the greatest caloric intake?

A. An individual in a long state of gluconeogenesisB. An individual in a long state of glycogenolysisC. A pregnant individualD. An adolescent with a BMI of 25

56. Which nutrient deficiency is associated with the development of Pellagra, Dermatitis and Diarrhea?


57. Which Vitamin is not given in conjunction with the intake of LEVODOPA in cases of Parkinson’s Disease due to the fact that levodopa increases its level in the body?

A. Vitamin B1

B. Vitamin B2C. Vitamin B3D. Vitamin B6

58. A vitamin taken in conjunction with ISONIAZID to prevent peripheral neuritis


59. The inflammation of the Lips, Palate and Tongue is associated in the deficiency of this vitamin


60. Beri beri is caused by the deficiency of which Vitamin?

A. Vitamin B1B. Vitamin B2C. Vitamin B3D. Vitamin C

61. Which of the following is the best source of Vitamin E?

A. Green leafy vegetablesB. Vegetable oilC. Fortified MilkD. Fish liver oil

62. Among the following foods, which food should you emphasize giving on an Alcoholic client?

A. Pork liver and organ meats, PorkB. Red meat, Eggs and Dairy productsC. Green leafy vegetables, Yellow vegetables, Cantaloupe and Dairy productsD. Chicken, Peanuts, Bananas, Wheat germs and yeasts

63. Which food group should you emphasize giving on a pregnant mother in first trimester to prevent neural tube defects?

A. Broccoli, Guava, Citrus fruits, TomatoesB. Butter, Sardines, Tuna, Salmon, Egg yolkC. Wheat germ, Vegetable Oil, soybeans, corn, peanutsD. Organ meats, Green leafy vegetables, Liver, Eggs

64. A client taking Coumadin is to be educated on his diet. As a nurse, which of the following food should you instruct the client to avoid?

A. Spinach, Green leafy vegetables, Cabbage, LiverB. Salmon, Sardines, TunaC. Butter, Egg yolk, breakfast cerealsD. Banana, Yeast, Wheat germ, Chicken

65. Vitamin E plus this mineral works as one of the best anti oxidant in the body according to the latest research. They are combined with 5 Alpha reductase inhibitor to reduce the risk of acquiring prostate cancer

A. ZincB. IronC. SeleniumD. Vanadium

66. Incident of prostate cancer is found to have been reduced on a population exposed in tolerable amount of sunlight. Which vitamin is associated with this phenomenon?

A. Vitamin AB. Vitamin BC. Vitamin CD. Vitamin D

67. Micronutrients are those nutrients needed by the body in a very minute amount. Which of the following vitamin is considered as a MICRONUTRIENT

A. PhosphorousB. IronC. CalciumD. Sodium

68. Deficiency of this mineral results in tetany, osteomalacia, osteoporosis and rickets.

A. Vitamin DB. IronC. CalciumD. Sodium

69. Among the following foods, which has the highest amount of potassium per area of their meat?

A. CantaloupeB. AvocadoC. RaisinD. Banana

70. A client has HEMOSIDEROSIS. Which of the following drug would you expect to be given to the client?

A. AcetazolamideB. DeferoxamineC. Calcium EDTAD. Activated charcoal

71. Which of the following provides the richest source of Iron per area of their meat?

A. Pork meatB. Lean read meatC. Pork liverD. Green mongo

72. Which of the following is considered the best indicator of nutritional status of an individual?

A. HeightB. WeightC. Arm muscle circumferenceD. BMI

73. Jose Miguel, a 50 year old business man is 6’0 Tall and weights 179 lbs. As a nurse, you know that Jose Miguel is :

A. OverweightB. UnderweightC. NormalD. Obese

74. Jose Miguel is a little bit nauseous. Among the following beverages, Which could help relieve JM’s nausea?

A. CokeB. SpriteC. MirindaD. Orange Juice or Lemon Juice

75. Which of the following is the first sign of dehydration?

A. TachycardiaB. RestlessnessC. ThirstD. Poor skin turgor

76. What Specific gravity lab result is compatible with a dehydrated client?

A. 1.007B. 1.020C. 1.039D. 1.029

77. Which hematocrit value is expected in a dehydrated male client?

A. 67%B. 50%C. 36%D. 45%

78. Which of the following statement by a client with prolonged vomiting indicates the initial onset of hypokalemia?

A. My arm feels so weakB. I felt my heart beat just right nowC. My face muscle is twitchingD. Nurse, help! My legs are cramping

79. Which of the following is not an anti-emetic?

A. MarinolB. DramamineC. BenadrylD. Alevaire

80. Which is not a clear liquid diet?

A. Hard candyB. GelatinC. Coffee with Coffee mateD. Bouillon

81. Which of the following is included in a full liquid diet?

A. PopsiclesB. Pureed vegetable meatC. Pineapple juice with pulpsD. Mashed potato

82. Which food is included in a BLAND DIET?

A. Steamed broccoliB. Creamed potatoC. Spinach in garlicD. Sweet potato

83. Which of the following if done by the nurse, is correct during NGT Insertion?

A. Use an oil based lubricantB. Measure the amount of the tube to be inserted from the Tip of the nose, to the earlobe, to the xiphoid processC. Soak the NGT in a basin of ice water to facilitate easy insertionD. Check the placement of the tube by introducing 10 cc of sterile water and auscultating for bubbling sound

84. Which of the following is the BEST method in assessing for the correct placement of the NGT?

A. X-RayB. Immerse tip of the tube in water to check for bubbles producedC. Aspirating gastric content to check if the content is acidicD. Instilling air in the NGT and listening for a gurgling sound at the epigastric area

85. A terminally ill cancer patient is scheduled for an NGT feeding today. How should you position the patient?

A. Semi fowlers in bedB. Bring the client into a chairC. Slightly elevated right side lying positionD. Supine in bed

86. A client is scheduled for NGT Feeding. Checking the residual volume, you determined that he has 40 cc residual from the last feeding. You reinstill the 40 cc of residual volume and added the 250 cc of feeding ordered by the doctor. You then instill 60 cc of water to clear the lumen and the tube. How much will you put in the client’s chart as input?

A. 250 ccB. 290 ccC. 350 ccD. 310 cc

87. Which of the following if done by a nurse indicates deviation from the standards of NGT feeding?

A. Do not give the feeding and notify the doctor of residual of the last feeding is greater than or equal to 50 mlB. Height of the feeding should be 12 inches about the tube point of insertion to allow slow introduction of feedingC. Ask the client to position in supine position immediately after feeding to prevent dumping syndromeD. Clamp the NGT before all of the water is instilled to prevent air entry in the stomach

88. What is the most common problem in TUBE FEEDING?

A. Diarrhea

B. InfectionC. HyperglycemiaD. Vomiting

89. Which of the following is TRUE in colostomy feeding?

A. Hold the syringe 18 inches above the stoma and administer the feeding slowlyB. Pour 30 ml of water before and after feeding administrationC. Insert the ostomy feeding tube 1 inch towards the stomaD. A Pink stoma means that circulation towards the stoma is all well

90. A client with TPN suddenly develops tremors, dizziness, weakness and diaphoresis. The client said “I feel weak” You saw that his TPN is already empty and another TPN is scheduled to replace the previous one but its provision is already 3 hours late. Which of the following is the probable complication being experienced by the client?

A. HyperglycemiaB. HypoglycemiaC. InfectionD. Fluid overload

91. To assess the adequacy of food intake, which of the following assessment parameters is best used?

A. Food likes and dislikesB. Regularity of meal timesC. 3 day diet recallD. Eating style and habits

92. The vomiting center is found in the

A. Medulla OblongataB. PonsC. HypothalamusD. Cerebellum

93. The most threatening complication of vomiting in client’s with stroke is

A. AspirationB. DehydrationC. Fluid and electrolyte imbalanceD. Malnutrition

94. Which among this food is the richest source of Iron?

A. AmpalayaB. BroccoliC. MongoD. Malunggay leaves

95. Which of the following is a good source of Vitamin A?

A. Egg yolkB. LiverC. FishD. Peanuts

96. The most important nursing action before gastrostomy feeding is

A. Check V/SB. Assess for patency of the tubeC. Measure residual feedingD. Check the placement of the tube

97. The primary advantage of gastrostomy feeding is

A. Ensures adequate nutritionB. It prevents aspirationC. Maintains Gastro esophageal sphincter integrityD. Minimizes fluid-electrolyte imbalance

98. What is the BMI Of Budek, weighing 120 lbs and has a height of 5 feet 7 inches.

A. 20B. 19C. 15D. 25

99. Which finding is consistent with PERNICIOUS ANEMIA?

A. Strawberry tongueB. Currant Jelly stoolC. Beefy red tongueD. Pale [ HYPOCHROMIC ] RBC

100. The nurse is browsing the chart of the patient and notes a normal serum lipase level. Which of the following is a normal serum lipase value?

A. 10 U/LB. 100 U/LC. 200 U/LD. 350 U/L

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