Final Exam PMP

Final TestMultiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 1. Project managers have the most authority in a _________. a. functional organizational structure c. matrix organizational structure b. projectized organizational structure d. circular organizational structure 2. Critical chain method protects tasks on the critical chain from being delayed by using ____, which are additional time added before tasks on the critical chain that are preceded by non-critical-path tasks. a. critical paths c. dummy activities b. feeding buffers ____ d. fast tracking

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3. ____ is a technique for making cost and schedule trade-offs to obtain the greatest amount of schedule compression for the least incremental cost. a. Crashing c. Compacting b. Deflating d. Minimizing

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4. Slack or ____ is the amount of time an activity may be delayed without delaying a succeeding activity or the project finish date. a. leeway c. redundancy b. float d. space

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5. To define the ____ of the project accurately, it is very important to ensure consistency between the project charter, scope statement, WBS, Gantt chart, and related documents. a. scope c. vision b. charter d. parameters

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6. ____ involves describing requirements for the products or services desired from the procurement and identifying potential sources or sellers. a. Planning contracting c. Requesting seller responses b. Selecting sellers d. Planning purchases and acquisitions

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7. ____ involves monitoring specific project results to ensure that they comply with the relevant quality standards while identifying ways to improve overall quality. a. Quality assurance c. Quality checking b. Quality control d. Quality planning

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8. A production process has been defined as part of an industrial equipment manufacturing project. The process is intended to produce steel bolts with a length of 20 cm. The acceptable control limits are 19.955 cm and 20.045 cm. The measurements made at the end of the process yielded the following results:

20.033 cm, 19.982 cm, 19.995 cm, 20.006 cm, 19.970 cm, 19.968 cm, 19.963 cm, 19.958 cm, 19.962 cm, 19.979 cm, 19.959 cm. What should be done? a. The measuring equipment should be recal- c. The process should be adjusted. ibrated. b. The control limits should be adjusted. d. The process is under control.It should not be adjusted. ____ 9. From the suppliers perspective, there is the least risk with a(n) ____ contract and the most risk with the ____ contract. a. CPFF, FPI c. CPPC, FFP b. FFP, CPPC d. CPFF, FFP

____ 10. ____ involves doing whatever you can to make sure the positive risk happens. a. Risk exploitation c. Risk enhancement b. Risk sharing d. Risk acceptance

____ 11. The second most favored approach to conflict resolution is ____. a. compromise c. withdrawal b. confrontation d. forcing

____ 12. The main monitoring and controlling tasks performed as part of project ____ management include monitoring and controlling project work and performing integrated change control. a. integration c. time b. scope d. cost

____ 13. ____ involves coordinating all planning efforts to create a consistent, coherent document. a. Developing the project charter b. Developing the preliminary project scope statement c. Developing the project management plan d. Directing and managing project execution ____ 14. ____ involves determining what to procure, when, and how. a. Planning contracting c. Requesting seller responses b. Selecting sellers d. Planning purchases and acquisitions ____ 15. ____ applies to positive risks when the project team cannot or chooses not to take any actions toward a risk. a. Risk enhancement c. Risk sharing b. Risk acceptance d. Risk exploitation

____ 16. ____ dependencies are inherent in the nature of the work being performed on a project. a. Embedded c. Mandatory b. Absolute d. Compulsory

____ 17. What are the 4 stages of team development? a. Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing. b. Assignment, Kickoff, Training, Communicating. c. Enthusiasm, Hope, Panic, Solution. d. Direction, Motivation, Cooperation, Collaboration. ____ 18. ____ to requirements means that the projects processes and products meet written specifications. a. Voluntary adherence c. Conformance b. Management d. Fidelity ____ 19. ____ involve estimating individual work items or activities and summing them to get a project total. a. Actual estimates c. Bottom-up estimates b. Parametric estimates d. Analogous estimates

____ 20. The PMBOK Guide 2004 includes the ____ and the preliminary project scope statement during project initiation. a. project statement c. project charter b. project declaration d. project contract

____ 21. Which of the following is not normally an element of the Project Charter? a. Work package descriptions. c. The formal authorization to apply organizational resources to project activities. b. The business need that the project was un- d. The product description or a reference to dertaken to address. this document ____ 22. Which process is applied to break down the project into smaller, more manageable elements? a. Scope Planning. c. Scope Definition. b. Scope Verification. d. Activity Duration Estimating.

____ 23. Two key outputs of performance reporting are performance reports and ____. a. forecasts c. retrospectives b. cost-benefit analyses d. performance reviews

____ 24. Activity ____ provide schedule-related information about each activity, such as predecessors, successors, logical relationships, leads and lags, resource requirements, constraints, imposed dates, and assumptions related to the activity. a. features c. properties b. characteristics d. attributes

____ 25. If cumulative benefits minus costs have reached ____, payback has occurred. a. ($140,000) c. ($1,000) b. ($100,000) d. $0

____ 26. ____ involves formalizing acceptance of the project scope. Key project stakeholders, such as the customer and sponsor for the project, inspect and then formally accept the deliverables of the project during this process. a. Scope planning c. Scope control b. Scope definition d. Scope verification

____ 27. A common ____ is performance reporting, where project stakeholders can identify any necessary changes that may be required to keep the project on track. a. executing process c. monitoring and controlling process b. closing process d. planning process

____ 28. Which of the following statements is not true? a. Standards and regulations are mandatory. c. According to ISO, standards are not mandatory, but regulations are. b. Standards often begin as guidelines that d. Standards and regulations are socio-ecoare not mandatory.With later widespread nomic influences to a project. adoption, they can become de facto regulations. ____ 29. If the benefit for a given year is $75,000 and the associated discount factor is .79, the discounted benefit is ____. a. $59,250 c. $94,937 b. $75,000 d. $150,000

____ 30. Planning includes tasks related to each of the ____ project management knowledge areas. a. 4 c. 9 b. 5 d. 16

____ 31. A(n) ____ event is a specific, uncertain event that may occur to the detriment or enhancement of the project. a. chance c. unplanned b. risk d. hidden

____ 32. ____ allow for future situations that are unpredictable. a. Contingency reserves c. Known unknowns b. Management reserves d. Indirect reserves

____ 33. ____ is a planning process falling under the Project Integration Management knowledge area. a. Schedule development c. Create WBS b. Develop project management plan d. Quality planning

____ 34. Project ____ management ensures that the project will satisfy the stated or implied needs for which it was undertaken. a. integration c. portfolio b. quality d. performance

____ 35. A ____ is a product or service produced or provided as part of a project. a. process c. deliverable b. result d. requirement

____ 36. Project ____ management is an overarching function that affects and is affected by all of the other knowledge areas. a. human resource c. integration b. procurement d. quality

____ 37. A project management team has subcontracted work to a service company. The process of ensuring that this service company's performance meets contractual requirements is called a. Staff Acquisition. c. Contract Closeout. b. Contract Administration. d. Contract Negotiation

____ 38. A project manager performs Earned Value Analysis and finds the following values: EV: 100,000; PV: 125,000; AC: 100,000 a. The project is behind schedule but on bud- c. The project is on schedule and on budget. get. b. The project is on schedule but costs exd. Then project is behind schedule and costs ceed budget. exceed budget. ____ 39. The project time management knowledge area maps to the ____ process group through the activity of schedule control. a. initiating c. executing b. planning d. monitoring and controlling

____ 40. A Request for ____ is a document used to solicit quotes or bids from prospective suppliers. a. Proposal c. Quote b. Price d. Cost

____ 41. A PMO, or Project ____ Office, is an organizational group responsible for coordinating the project management function throughout an organization. a. Management c. Municipal b. Money d. Marketing

____ 42. During a project the scope of product purchased on a cost reimbursable contract has increased. In the contract the contractors indirect costs are calculated as 20 % of the direct costs. What is most likely to be true? a. The contractors indirect costs will increase and the customers payment for them will increase, too. b. The contractors indirect costs will not increase but the customers payment for them will. c. The contractors indirect costs will increase but the customers payment for them not. d. Neither the indirect costs nor the customers payment for indirect costs will increase.

____ 43. Project costs are over budget when a. CPI > 1. b. CPI < 0. c. SPI = 1. d. CPI < 1. ____ 44. On a network diagram, all arrowheads should face toward the ____. a. top c. right b. left d. bottom ____ 45. The cost of providing a work space for project workers, office furniture, electricity, and a cafeteria are ____ costs. a. direct c. indirect b. explicit d. incidental

____ 46. People with a high need for ____ seek to excel and tend to avoid both low-risk and high-risk situations to improve their chances for achieving something worthwhile. a. affiliation c. power b. money d. achievement

____ 47. The main outputs of the ____ process are an activity list, activity attributes, milestone list, and requested changes. a. activity definition c. activity resource estimating b. activity sequencing d. activity duration estimating

____ 48. Based on the implementation of quality-control measurements, ____ adjustments often result in updates to the quality baseline, organizational process assets, and the project management plan. a. contract c. process b. quality d. project

____ 49. The highest level of needs in Maslows structure is referred to as a ____ need. a. deficiency c. safety b. growth d. physiological

____ 50. ____ involves doing activities in parallel that you would normally do in sequence. a. Crushing c. Fast tracking b. Crashing d. Expediting

____ 51. Project management ____ facilitate communication among stakeholders and provide a baseline for progress measurement and project control. a. charters c. contracts b. plans d. compacts

____ 52. Key outputs in project human resource management include ____ updates and team performance assessment a. contract c. staffing b. scope d. time

____ 53. ____ is the earned value minus the planned value. a. SV c. CPI b. CV ____ 54. What is a quality audit? a. A team meeting dedicated to measuring and examinations. b. A meeting with the customer to identify quality requirements. d. SPI c. A quality based inspection of work results. d. A structured review of quality management activities during quality assurance.

____ 55. ____ results in supporting detail to document important product information as well as assumptions and constraints related to specific activities and an original activity list. a. Activity definition c. Activity resource estimating b. Activity sequencing d. Activity duration estimating

____ 56. Variances are calculated by subtracting the actual cost or planned value from ____. a. EV c. PV b. AC d. RP

____ 57. Research indicates that project managers favor using ____ for conflict resolution over the other four modes. a. compromise c. confrontation b. smoothing d. forcing

____ 58. With the ____, project managers use a give-and- take approach to resolving conflicts. a. confrontation mode c. smoothing mode b. compromise mode d. forcing mode

____ 59. ____ is(are) action(s) taken to bring rejected items into compliance with product requirements or specifications or other stakeholder expectations. a. Process adjustments c. Acceptance decisions b. Rework d. Auditing

____ 60. ____ is a planning process falling under the Project Scope Management knowledge area. a. Schedule development c. Create WBS b. Develop project management plan d. Quality planning

____ 61. People who believe in ____ assume that the average worker wants to be directed and prefers to avoid responsibility. a. Theory W c. Theory Y b. Theory X d. Theory Z

____ 62. ____ allow for future situations that may be partially planned for. a. Contingency reserves b. Management reserves c. Unknown unknowns d. Direct reserves

____ 63. You are assigned as the project manager in a project with an aggressive schedule. During a recent meeting your team complained about the high pressure applied and the many hours of overwork time. What is the preferred solution to handle the problem? a. Improve team communication and avail- c. Apply fast tracking to shorten project duability of high quality data on risks. Use ration without additional work. this information to enable you to make well-founded decisions earlier. b. Try to obtain additional budget and time. d. The problem might be the customer disturbing project rhythm. Keep him on distance from the team. ____ 64. Which of the following statements is true concerning Scope Definition? a. The Scope Statement is a principle output c. The Activity List is a principle output containing a narrative description of used for resource allocation and is an inproject work and deliverables. put to network diagramming. b. The Project Charter is a principle output and authorizes the project. d. The Work Breakdown Structure is a principle output and should be broken down to a level which allows sufficient accuracy in planning.

____ 65. The project scope management knowledge area maps to the ____ process group through the activities of scope verification and scope control. a. initiating c. executing b. planning d. monitoring and controlling

____ 66. ____ is based on an individuals personal charisma. a. Legitimate power c. Reward power b. Coercive power d. Referent power

____ 67. The main goal of the ____ process is to produce a cost baseline for measuring project performance and project funding requirements. a. cost budgeting c. cost control b. cost consolidation d. cost estimating

____ 68. A(n) ____ is a document used to coordinate all project planning documents and help guide a projects execution and control. a. project management plan c. scope statement b. statement of work d. contact

a. affiliation b. money

c. power d. achievement

____ 70. Three broad categories of contracts are fixed price, or lump sum; ____; and time and material. a. cost intensive c. cost reducing b. cost averse d. cost reimbursable

____ 71. By adding all of the ____ for all project activities, you can determine how the project as a whole is performing and forecast both when it will be completed and how much it will cost at completion. a. earned values c. planned values` b. actual costs d. cost variances

____ 72. ____ is a technique for making cost and schedule trade-offs to obtain the greatest amount of schedule compression for the least incremental cost. a. Crushing c. Fast tracking b. Crashing d. Expediting

____ 73. ____ is a cost that relates to all errors not detected and not corrected before delivery to the customer. a. Prevention cost c. Internal failure cost b. Appraisal cost d. External failure cost

____ 74. Risk reassessment, risk audits, variance and trend analysis, technical performance measurements, reserve analysis, and status meetings or periodic risk reviews are all tools and techniques for performing ____ monitoring and control. a. scope c. cost b. risk d. quality

____ 75. The bottom four needs in Maslows hierarchy are referred to as deficiency needs, and the highest level, ____, is considered a growth need. a. physiological c. self-actualization b. safety d. esteem

____ 76. Which of the following actions will most likely improve team productivity? a. Ensure that social events are mandatory and include a business-related goal. b. Expand the size of work teams to over seven members. c. Reduce the amount of attention paid to virtual team members. d. Acknowledge individual and group accomplishments. ____ 77. A(n) ____ is a meeting held at the beginning of a project or project phase where all major project stakeholders discuss project objectives, plans, and so on. a. kickstart meeting c. kickoff meeting b. startup meeting d. preliminary meeting

____ 78. Suppose that after one week of work, the earned value is $4000 and the actual cost is $4500. What is the value of the cost performance index (CPI)? a. 60% c. 80% b. 70% d. 88.89%

____ 79. The goal of ____ control is to know the status of the schedule, influence the factors that cause schedule changes, determine whether the schedule has changed, and manage changes when they occur. a. time c. cost b. schedule d. scope

____ 80. The ultimate goal of ____ is to create a realistic project schedule that provides a basis for monitoring project progress for the time dimension of the project. a. activity definition c. schedule development b. activity sequencing d. activity duration estimating

____ 81. ____ are the people involved in or affected by project activities and include the project sponsor, project team, support staff, customers, users, suppliers, and even opponents of the project. a. Managers c. Directors b. Stakeholders d. Citizens

____ 82. ____ describe what the project team has accomplished during a certain period. a. Progress reports c. Forecasts b. Status reports d. Updates

____ 83. Suppose that a project has an original time estimate of 12 months and a schedule performance index (SPI) of . 92. What is the new time estimate for project completion? a. 11.04 months c. 13.04 months b. 12 months d. 14 months

____ 84. ____ involves numerically estimating the effects of risks on project objectives. a. Qualitative risk analysis c. Risk response planning b. Risk management planning d. Quantitative risk analysis

____ 85. ____ is crucial in projects because once a project team implements a new system, it takes a considerable amount of effort to change the system. a. Initiating c. Executing b. Planning d. Closing

____ 86. With a(n) ____ contract, the buyer pays the supplier for allowable performance costs along with a predetermined fee and an incentive bonus. a. CPFF c. CPPC b. CPIF d. CPPF

____ 87. ____ is a project performance measurement technique that integrates scope, time, and cost data.

a. Cost baseline b. Earned value management

c. Constructive cost modeling d. Parametric modeling

____ 88. What are dummy activities? a. Activities in PDM which are not necessary c. Arrows in ADM which represent depenand can be dropped if time is running out. dencies between nodes without real activities. b. Activities, which can be passed to the team members with the lowest IQ. d. Activities in PDM which are not performed by team members.

____ 89. ____ involves periodically evaluating overall project performance to ensure that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards. a. Quality assurance c. Quality checking b. Quality control d. Quality planning

____ 90. The main human resource management task performed as part of monitoring and controlling a project is managing the project ____, which, of course, is no small task. a. sponsors c. team b. clients d. supplies

____ 91. In a(n) ____ relationship, the from activity must finish before the to activity can start. a. start-to-start c. finish-to-finish b. finish-to-start d. start-to-finish

____ 92. Which of the following are not cost of quality? a. Prevention costs. c. Failure costs. b. Transportation costs. d. Appraisal costs.

____ 93. The ____ is the ratio of earned value to actual cost and can be used to estimate the projected cost of completing the project. a. SV c. CPI b. CV d. SPI

____ 94. A validated defect repair is an output from the ____ monitoring and controlling process. a. scope verification c. integrated change control b. perform quality control d. performance reporting

____ 95. The ____ tasks vary the most from project to project. a. closing c. planning b. monitoring and controlling d. executing

____ 96. Project managers must use discipline to control ____. a. project bursts c. project critical paths

b. project schedules ____ 97. ____ is a monitoring and controlling process. a. Develop project team b. Request seller responses

d. project dependencies c. Risk response planning d. Integrated change control

____ 98. The ____ mode is also called the problem-solving mode. a. confrontation c. smoothing b. compromise d. forcing

____ 99. Scope statements should include, at a minimum, a description of the project, including its overall objectives and justification; detailed descriptions of all project ____; characteristics and requirements of products and services produced as part of the project; and project success criteria. a. stakeholders c. meetings b. volunteers d. deliverables

____ 100. According to the project plan, a contractor is scheduled to deliver some software components at the end of the day. A regular payment is due to be made to this contractor tomorrow. The project team received a note this morning informing them that the software delivery will be delayed by 2 weeks. How should the project management team react?(BEST ANSWER) a. The project management team should de- c. The project management team should conlay payment for 2 weeks. duct a meeting with the contractor to resolve the delivery issues before making the payment. b. The project management team must immediately find a different contractor. d. The project management team should make the payment and reschedule the project plan.

____ 101. You are the project manager and have contracted with a service provider to develop a complicated software solution. This software is necessary to control the machinery equipment which your project team will develop. It is a lump-sum contract with additional incentives for meeting predefined schedule targets. The payment schedule and incentives are as follows: * 10% with order * 20% after submission of prototype (+ 5% if delivered one week early) * 50% after product delivery (+ 5 % if delivered one week early) * 20% after final product acceptance (+ 5 % if delivered one week early) Yesterday the company submitted the prototype to your project team. This was 2 weeks after the scheduled delivery date and 3 weeks after the date necessary to qualify for the incentive payment. This morning, the manager of the contractor approached you to ask for changes to the payment schedule. They found that their initial work and costs were much higher than originally expected and they now wish to increase the second payment to 30% and reduce the final payment to 10%.

During the discussion you got the impression that the company is in serious financial trouble. Which of the following might be the most appropriate initial step? a. Offer to pay 25% now and to reduce the c. Point out that the contractor is not in a pofinal payment down to 15%. sition to demand a change to the contract. b. Revisit the planning processes of project d. Demand an urgent meeting with the seller. risk management to understand the upcoming risks in conjunction with the seller before any further decisions are made. ____ 102. Which of the following is true in regard to the Code of Accounts? a. It allows one to easily identify the break- c. It describes the coding structure used by down level of the item in the resource the performing organization to report fistructure. nancial information in its general ledger. b. It is the collection of unique identifiers generally assigned to WBS items. d. It defines ethical behavior in the project and the responsibilities to the customer and the profession.

____ 103. In the example of the project of building a house, the ____ would normally be the general contractor responsible for building the house. a. project sponsors c. project manager b. project team d. support staff

____ 104. When using the ____, the project manager de-emphasizes or avoids areas of differences and emphasizes areas of agreement. a. confrontation mode c. smoothing mode b. withdrawal mode d. forcing mode

____ 105. The goal of ____ is to know the status of the schedule, influence the factors that cause schedule changes, determine that the schedule has changed, and manage changes when they occur. a. activity duration estimating c. schedule control b. schedule development d. activity resource estimating

____ 106. In the ____, you use a similar projects WBS as a starting point. a. top-down approach c. mind-mapping approach b. bottom-up approach d. quality approach

____ 107. A(n) ____ log is a tool used to document and monitor the resolution of project issues. a. event c. problem b. issue d. running

____ 108. Information regarding the content of essential project communications comes from the ____. a. organizational chart c. work breakdown structure (WBS) b. communications management plan d. expectations management matrix

____ 109. ____ involves determining the information and communications needs of the stakeholders. a. Performance reporting b. Information distribution c. Managing stakeholders d. Communications planning

____ 110. With a(n) ____ contract, the buyer pays the supplier for allowable performance costs plus a fixed fee payment usually based on a percentage of estimated costs. a. CPFF c. CPPC b. CPIF d. CPPF

____ 111. A ____ is a time-phased budget that project managers use to measure and monitor cost performance. a. budget baseline c. cost baseline b. ledger d. cost line

____ 112. During a company event, you had the opportunity to talk to a colleague project manager. He told you that in his current project actual costs are 15% under cumulated costs scheduled for today. What do you think? a. The information available is not sufficient c. The project will probably be completed to assess project performance. with total costs remaining under budget. b. Original cost planning must have been poor to allow this variance. d. A significant cost increase during the further course of the project will probably bring the costs back to baseline level.

____ 113. Which is true regarding projects? a. A project is a unique service undertaken to c. A project is a temporary endeavor undercreate a temporary product. taken to create a unique product or service. b. A project is a temporary product underd. A project is a unique endeavor undertaken taken to create a unique endeavor or serto create a temporary service. vice ____ 114. The major output document of Scope definition is the : a. Hierarchically structured WBS. c. Activity List. b. The Project Charter for the project man- d. Project Scope Statement ager ____ 115. Regarding Delphi Technique all of the following statements are true except: a. It is a way to reach a consensus of experts. c. The experts are encouraged by the facilitator to make direct contact with each other during the assessment process to create a higher number of feedback loops. b. Experts are identified but participate anonymously while a facilitator uses a questionnaire to solicit ideas. d. The responses are submitted and are then circulated to the experts for further com-

a. bid b. activity list

c. proposal d. contract

____ 117. ____ are often more effective than ____, particularly for sensitive information. a. Electronic communications, short face-to-face meetings b. Short face-to-face meetings, electronic communications c. Electronic communications, telephone conversations d. Telephone conversations, short face-to-face meetings ____ 118. Project ____ are usually most interested in making sure that final products, services, or results are delivered on schedule and within budget. a. managers c. sponsors b. auditors d. Handlers

____ 119. Which of the following is not an example of a source of scope change? a. a need to engage in bottom-up cost estic. failure to include a required feature in the mating. design of a telecommunication system d. introducing technology that was not available when scope was originally defined. ____ 120. Learning curve theory emphasizes that in producing many goods: a. average unit cost decreases as more units are produced. b. cost decreases as production rates increase. c. laborers become more productive because of technological advances calculate the net present value d. materials become cheaper when they are purchased in bulk. ____ 121. Project ____ management includes the processes required to ensure that a project team completes a project within an approved budget. a. control c. cost b. delivery d. outlays ____ 122. To transfer most of the cost risk to the contractor, the client may use a ___________ contract. a. cost plus award fee c. cost plus incentive fee b. fixed price ____ 123. Theory X holds that: a. quality improvements lie in the hands of quality circles. b. profits are tied to meeting schedule deadd. cost plus fixed fee c. absenteeism is tied to poor working conditions. d. workers are inherently unmotivated and b. a variation in government regulations.

lines.

need strong guidance.

____ 124. Inputs to cost budgeting include all of the following except: a. cost baseline c. project schedule b. cost estimate d. work breakdown structure

____ 125. All of the following are contract types except: a. Fixed Price c. Make-or-Buy. b. Cost Reimbursable. d. Lump Sum.

____ 126. ____ uses probabilistic time estimatesduration estimates based on using optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic estimates of activity durationsinstead of one specific or discrete duration estimate. a. Critical Path Analysis c. Critical Chain Scheduling b. Gantt Charting d. PERT

____ 127. ____ involves developing an approximation or estimate of the costs of the resources needed to complete a project. a. Cost budgeting c. Cost control b. Cost consolidation d. Cost estimating

____ 128. All of the following are examples of tools often used in cost estimating except: a. activity duration estimates. c. analogous estimating. b. bottom-up estimating. d. parametric modeling.

____ 129. The limitations of scope, time, and cost goals are sometimes referred to as the ____. a. double bind c. double constraint b. triple constraint d. double obstacle

____ 130. One common way to compute estimated at completion (EAC) is to take the project budgeted-at-completion and: a. divide it by the schedule performance in- c. multiply it by the cost performance. dex. b. multiply it by the schedule performance d. divide it by the cost performance index. index. ____ 131. The project manager of a large multi-location software project team has 24 members, out of which 5 are assigned to testing. Due to recent recommendations by an organizational quality audit team, the project manager is convinced to add a quality professional to lead the test team at additional cost, to the project. The project manager is aware of the importance of communication, for the success of the project and takes this step of introducing additional communication channels, making it more complex, in order to assure quality levels of the project.

How many additional communication channels are introduced as a result of this organizational change in the project? a. 25 c. 300 b. 24 d. 325

____ 132. A(n) ____ is any instance where the product or service fails to meet customer requirements. a. defect c. error b. failure d. recall

____ 133. Once the project is complete, the complete set of project records should be put in which of the following? a. Project Archives c. Storage room b. Database d. Project Report

____ 134. If the cost variance is positive and the schedule variance is also positive, this indicates the: a. Project is over budget and ahead of sched- c. Project is under budget and behind schedule ule b. Project is under budget and ahead of d. Project is over budget and behind schedule schedule ____ 135. Which one of the following is the last step of project closing? a. Client has accepted the product c. Client appreciates your product b. Archives are complete d. Lessons learnt are documented

____ 136. ____ include defining and authorizing a project or project phase. a. Initiating processes c. Executing processes b. Planning processes d. Monitoring and controlling processes

____ 137. Project ____ management involves generating, collecting, disseminating, and storing project information. a. risk c. communications b. procurement ____ 138. ____ should be forgotten. a. Sunk costs b. Indirect costs d. resource c. Direct costs d. Intangible costs

____ 139. ____ involves identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, and reporting relationships. a. Human resource planning c. Acquiring the project team b. Developing the project team d. Managing the project team

____ 140. While reviewing the progress, the project manager assesses that an activity has been missed out from the implementation plan. A milestone, scheduled to be achieved within another week, would be missed with the current implementation plan. Which of the following is the next best action for the project manager in this situation?

a. Report the error and the planned recovery c. Omit the status update on the milestone actions b. Assess alternatives to meet the milestone d. Report the error and the expected delay ____ 141. ____ risk events include completing work sooner than planned or at an unexpectedly reduced cost, collaborating with suppliers to produce better products, and obtaining good publicity from the project. a. Collaborative c. Anticipated b. Positive d. Probable

____ 142. Poor conflict management, poor project organization and definition of responsibilities, and absence of leadership are risk conditions associated with which project management knowledge area? a. Integration c. Time b. Quality d. Human Resources

____ 143. ____ involves taking steps to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to meeting project objectives. a. Quantitative risk analysis c. Risk monitoring and control b. Risk response planning ____ 144. Parento diagrams work on the ___ rule. a. 20/80 b. 60/40 ____ 145. Which statement describes best the meaning of the term Cost baseline? a. A cost baseline is always created by trans- c. A cost baseline is usually displayed in the lating time-phased cost information into form of an inverse S-curve drawn from the cost data on activity or work-package beginning of the project until data date. level. b. Data to draw a cost baseline can be easily d. A cost baseline is an approved timegenerated and updated as necessary from phased budget that will be used to meainformation related to actual project cost. sure and monitor cost performance on the project. ____ 146. By grouping projects into ____, organizations can better tie their projects to meeting strategic goals. a. portfolios c. suites b. applications d. collections d. Qualitative risk analysis c. 50/50 d. 80/20

____ 147. Which is for most project situations an appropriate order for the development of scope related documents? a. 1. Work breakdown structure, 2. Scope statement, 3. Project charter, 4. CSOW (Contractual statement of work), 5. Contractual Work breakdown structure, 6. WBS dictionary. b. 1. Feasibility study, 2. Business case,

3. Contract, 4. CWBS (Contractual work breakdown structure), 5. Scope of work descriptions, 6. PID (Project initiation document). c. 1. BOM (Bill of materials), 2. CAP (Control account plan), 3. Project charter, 4. Project scope statement, 5. Change management plan, 6. Scope baseline. d. 1. Project SOW (Statement of work), 2. Project charter, 3. Preliminary project scope statement, 4. Project scope management plan, 5. Project scope statement, 6. WBS (Work breakdown structure) and WBS dictionary. ____ 148. What is the only output of the scope planning process? a. Scope Statement c. Activity List b. WBS d. None of the Above ____ 149. How many communication channels do 12 people require? a. 12 c. 36 b. 24 d. 66

____ 150. ____ is a fact-finding technique for collecting information in face-to-face, phone, e-mail, or instant-messaging discussions. a. Brainstorming c. The Delphi Technique b. SWOT analysis d. Interviewing

____ 151. A change request in a project has been rejected some weeks ago. Yesterday, the project manager found out that it nevertheless has been implemented by the team members, who knew of the change request, but not of the rejection. In order to avoid such a situation, Rejected change requests are an output to which process? a. Schedule control b. Integrated Change Control c. Scope Control d. Activity Control ____ 152. The main monitoring and controlling task performed as part of project cost management is ____ control. a. time c. scope b. schedule d. cost ____ 153. What process group is the Develop the Project Team process belong to? a. Human Resource

b. Planning c. Executing d. Project ____ 154. A(n) ____ is a bell-shaped curve that is symmetrical regarding the average value of the population (the data being analyzed). a. skewed distribution c. polynomial distribution b. normal distribution d. symmetrical distribution ____ 155. When using the ____ mode, project managers directly face a conflict using a problem-solving approach that allows affected parties to work through their disagreements. a. conciliatory c. confrontation b. congratulatory d. cooperative

____ 156. The final output of the communication plaaning process is a ____. a. bid c. charter b. communications management plan d. WBS

____ 157. With a(n) ____ contract, the buyer pays the supplier for allowable performance costs along with a predetermined percentage based on total costs. a. CPFF c. CPPC b. CPIF d. CPPF

____ 158. In what organizational type is communications complex? a. Functional c. Matrix b. Projectized d. Company

____ 159. Project teams sometimes use ____unplanned responses to risk eventswhen they do not have contingency plans in place. a. work charts c. work processes b. work flows d. workarounds

____ 160. ____ is best known for developing a hierarchy of needs. a. Frederick Herzberg c. Abraham Maslow b. David McClelland d. Douglas McGregor

____ 161. ____ is the amount of time an activity can be delayed from its early start without delaying the planned project finish date. a. Total slack c. Total time b. Free float d. Free slack

____ 162. ____ involves choosing part of a population of interest for inspection. a. Statistical sampling c. Six Sigma

b. Pareto analysis

d. Quality control charting

____ 163. The ____ step in the planning process is to tie the information technology strategic plan to the organizations overall strategic plan. a. first c. third b. second d. fourth

____ 164. Administrative activities are often involved in ____, such as archiving project files, closing out contracts, documenting lessons learned, and receiving formal acceptance of the delivered work as part of the phase or project. a. monitoring and controlling processes c. initiating processes b. executing processes d. closing processes

____ 165. The main outputs of ____ are accepted deliverables, requested changes, and recommended corrective actions. a. scope planning c. scope definition b. scope control ____ 166. Quality metrics are an output of ____. a. cost estimating b. scope definition d. scope verification c. quantitative risk analysis d. quality planning

____ 167. The longest path through a network diagram that determines the earliest completion of a project is called the ____ path. a. essential c. critical b. important d. vital

____ 168. Often, buyers develop a short list of the top ____ suppliers to reduce the work involved in selecting a source. a. one to two c. eight to ten b. three to five d. twelve to fifteen

____ 169. The project team develops a preliminary scope statement during project ____. a. review c. orientation b. initiation d. development

____ 170. Blake and Mouton (1964) delineated ____ basic modes for handling conflicts. a. four c. six b. five d. seven

____ 171. The ____ for an activity is the latest possible time an activity might begin without delaying the project finish date. a. early finish date c. late start date b. late finish date d. early start date

____ 172. ____ found that people were motivated to work mostly by feelings of personal achievement and recognition.

a. Maslow b. McGregor

c. McClelland d. Herzberg

____ 173. A program ____ provides leadership and direction for the project managers heading the projects within the program. a. director c. facilitator b. organizer d. manager

____ 174. A(n) ____ is a document that formally recognizes the existence of a project and provides direction on the projects objectives and management. a. balanced scorecard c. net present value analysis b. business case d. project charter

____ 175. After a project is approved, senior managers should meet to determine the ____, time, and cost constraints for the project. a. range c. vision b. scope d. boundary

____ 176. ____ involves using punishment, threats, or other negative approaches to get people to do things they do not want to do. a. Legitimate power c. Reward power b. Coercive power d. Referent power

____ 177. ____ involves analyzing activity sequences, activity resource estimates, and activity duration estimates to create the project schedule. a. Activity duration estimating c. Schedule control b. Schedule development d. Activity resource estimating

____ 178. The ____ is that portion of the approved total cost estimate planned to be spent on an activity during a given period. a. AC c. RP b. EV d. PV

____ 179. A ____ contract has the least amount of risk for the buyer. a. firm -fixed price c. soft-fixed-price b. fixed-price incentive d. contingent-fixed

____ 180. If you were trying to assess commitment of project stakeholders, a(n) ____ would be the most appropriate medium to use. a. phone call c. e-mail b. voice mail d. meeting

____ 181. ____ are a complete set of organized project records that provide an accurate history of the project.

a. Project archives b. Project backups

c. Project databases d. Project notes

____ 182. Outputs to the ____ process include selected sellers, contracts, a contract management plan, resource availability information, updates to the procurement management plan, and requested changes. a. Closing the contract c. Requesting seller responses b. Selecting sellers d. Administering the contract

____ 183. _______ organize and summarize the information gathered, and present the results of any analysis as compared to the performance measurement baseline a. WBS c. Performance Reports b. Activity List ____ 184. A parametric cost estimate: a. Is a bottom up estimating technique b. Is a top down estimating technique d. Scope Management Plan c. Is a top down and statistical estimating technique d. Is a statistical estimating technique

____ 185. _________ is a comprehensive list including all schedule activities that are planned to be performed on the project a. WBS c. Quality Checklist b. Scope Management Plan d. Activity List

____ 186. Which of the following is not a primary input to the Activity Definition Process? a. WBS Dictionary c. Organizational Process Assets b. Project Scope Statement ____ 187. How many process groups are in PMBOK? a. 9 b. 5 d. Activity List c. 10 d. 44

____ 188. ______ is the process necessary for deciding how to approach, plan, and execute the risk management activities for a project a. Risk Control c. Risk Response Planning b. Quality Management d. Risk Management Planning

____ 189. _____ allows an acceleration of the successor activity a. Lag c. PDM b. ADM d. Lead

____ 190. The Close Project process is a part of which of the following project management knowledge areas? a. Project Scope Management c. Project Communication Management b. Project Integration Management d. Project Time Management

____ 191. The current project performance report indicates that the Schedule Variance (SV) is 1.09. What does this information indicate? a. The project is on schedule. b. The project is slightly behind schedule. c. The project is ahead of schedule. d. The project is behind schedule.

____ 192. What is a deliverable-oriented grouping of project elements called? a. Detailed plan c. Work breakdown structure b. Linear responsibility chart d. Cost account coding system

____ 193. As per PMBOK, all are parts of the executing process group except which of the following? a. Acquire Project Team c. Information Distribution b. Develop Preliminary Scope Statement d. Develop Project Team

____ 194. Which of the following is not used in the quality control process? a. Gantt charts c. Pareto charts b. Control charts d. Statistical sampling

____ 195. Which of these is not an example of a project? a. Buying clothes from the market on a spe- c. Cleaning the office building every day. cial sale. b. Planning for your friends wedding. d. Building a bridge across the Amazon river. ____ 196. AOA activity diagrams are only represented using which representation? a. finish-to-start c. start-to-start b. finish-to-finish d. start-to-finish

____ 197. You are the project manager of ABC project. Mid-way through the project a key component was stolen. This was not planned for. The team met after the event and managed to make the product work without the stolen component. This is an example of a. Risk mitigation c. Accepting the consequences passively. b. Workaround d. Transfer of risk

____ 198. You are planning to use PERT for planning of your project. A task has pessimistic estimate of 24 days, most likely estimate of 15 days and optimistic estimate of 12 days. What is the mean using the PERT technique? a. 18 days b. 5 days c. 20 days d. 16 days

____ 199. Which of these is not a process in the Project Procurement Management knowledge area? a. Select Sellers c. Contract administration b. Procurement administration d. Plan Purchases and Acquisitions

a. If a risk is identified in a risk response c. Risk identification happens in all the plan, then that means that risk has already phases of the project. happened. b. Once a risk has happened, you refer to the d. A risk that was not planned but has haprisk management plan to determine what pened is called a trigger. action needs to be taken.

Final Test Answer SectionMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: B B A B A A B C C A A A C D B C A C C C A C A D D D C A A C B B B B C C B A D C A PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: 53 244 122 120 106 494 308 407 501 476 424 227 127 494 476 112 132 141 274 88 50|51 2 248 109 42 181 81 202 41 93 252 271 96 141 61 9 154 385 84 169 32

42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87.

ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS:

B D C C D A C B C B C A D A A C B B C B A B A D D A A A D A B D B C D C D B C B A C D B B B

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:

132 158 225 167 366 218 240 364 242 95 4 287 147 221 287 424 423 313 96 367 271 12 66 84 369 282 150 366 166 230 242 337 252 195 248 427 229 236 230 11 420 230 452 82|83 500 285

88. 89. 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. 100. 101. 102. 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110. 111. 112. 113. 114. 115. 116. 117. 118. 119. 120. 121. 122. 123. 124. 125. 126. 127. 128. 129. 130. 131. 132. 133.


C A C B B C C D B D A D C B B C C C A B C D A C A C D C D B C A A C B D A C D D A B D A A A


1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1


429 308 246 225 51 287 111 193 249 111 423 100 268 21 28 11 424 247 196 251 410 407 500 283 36 367 140 131 2 412 265 28 138 125 104 414 466 332 246 266 62 8 152 449 327 191

134. 135. 136. 137. 138. 139. 140. 141. 142. 143. 144. 145. 146. 147. 148. 149. 150. 151. 152. 153. 154. 155. 156. 157. 158. 159. 160. 161. 162. 163. 164. 165. 166. 167. 168. 169. 170. 171. 172. 173. 174. 175. 176. 177. 178. 179.


C B A C A A B B D B D D A D D D D B D C B C B C C D C A A A D D D C B B B C D D D B B B D A


1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1


202 451 80 13 271 361 364 156 459 452 11 412 15 492 50 211 460 159 239 374 325 187 215 500 55 252 363 239 320 131 81 181 97 31 508 100 187 239 365 14 145 68 368 219 285 167

180. 181. 182. 183. 184. 185. 186. 187. 188. 189. 190. 191. 192. 193. 194. 195. 196. 197. 198. 199. 200.

ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS:

D A B C C D D B D D B C C B A C A B D B C

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

REF: 208 REF: 434 REF: 494

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Final Exam PMP