Final 2013

Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. By the end of prophase, each of the following has occurred except ____.

a. tighter coiling of the chromosomes

b. breaking down of the nuclear envelope

c. disappearing of the nucleolus

d. lining up of chromosomes in the cell

____ 2. The chromosomes shown in Figure 9-1 are in which state of mitosis?

Figure 9-1

a. prophase c. anaphase

b. metaphase d. telophase

____ 3. Which of the following does not occur as a cell grows larger and larger in size?

a. difficulty obtaining nutrients

b. difficulty eliminating wastes

c. ratio of surface area to volume increases

d. diffusion across the cell membrane is impaired

____ 4. Which of these has occurred by the end of prophase?

a. Sister chromatids are separated.

b. The spindle is beginning to form.

c. The cell membrane has begun to pinch inward.

d. The nuclear membrane has disappeared.

Figure 9-4

____ 5. Figure 9-4 illustrates which stage of mitosis?

a. anaphase c. prophase

b. metaphase d. telophase

____ 6. How is the alignment of chromosomes, shown in Figure 9-4, on the equatorial plate of the cell maintained?

a. They are always located there, since that is where the nucleus was.

b. Tension between opposite spindle fibers pulls them there.

c. The pressure of the cytoplasm moves them there.

d. The chromosomes are attracted to each other and meet there.

____ 7. Which of the following occurs in telophase?

a. chromosomes condense

b. chromosomes line up

c. chromosomes move to opposite poles

d. chromosomes relax

____ 8. A cell has 12 chromosomes. How many chromosomes will each daughter cell have?

a. 4 c. 12

b. 6 d. 24

____ 9. Prokaryotes divide by binary fission, a form of asexual reproduction in which

a. the nucleus divides into two nuclei.

b. the number of chromosomes in the cell is reduced.

c. a cell divides into two cells with identical genetic information.

d. spindle fibers attach to the poles of the cell.

Figure 9-5

____ 10. The cell in Figure 9-5 is undergoing mitosis. Which stage of mitosis will follow this one?

a. anaphase c. prophase

b. metaphase d. telophase

____ 11. Which checkpoint has this cell just passed?

a. near the end of gap 1, monitoring DNA damage

b. during the S stage

c. during the gap 2 stage

d. during mitosis, monitoring spindle formation

____ 12. The typical growth period of a cell occurs during which stage of the cell cycle?

a. Gap 1 c. synthesis

b. Gap 2 d. mitosis

____ 13. A white mouse whose parents are both white produces only brown offspring when mated with a brown

mouse. The white mouse is most probably ____.

a. homozygous recessive c. homozygous dominant

b. heterozygous d. haploid

Figure 10-7

____ 14. What fraction of this cross will be recessive for both traits?

a. 1/2 c. 1/8

b. 1/4 d. 1/16

____ 15. Crossing over would most likely occur during which stage of the cell cycle?

a. when DNA is being replicated

b. when homologous chromomosomes line up in pairs

c. when centromeres are separated

d. when cytokinesis begins

____ 16. Which is the best description of the events that take place during anaphase II?

a. The replicated chromosomes become visible.

b. Homologous chromosomes line up along the equator.

c. Sister chromatids are separated and pulled to opposite sides of the cell.

d. Homologous pairs are separated and pulled to opposite sides of the cell.

____ 17. What is the role of the spindle fibers?

a. to join homologous chromosomes together

b. to store nucleotides prior to DNA synthesis

c. to initiate the formation of the nuclear membrane

d. to move chromosomes in the cell

____ 18. The typical human body cell contains 46 chromosomes. How many chromosomes are found in a typical

human sperm?

a. 23 c. 46

b. 45 d. 92

____ 19. During which phase of meiosis do homologous pairs of chromosomes line up next to one another along the

equator?

a. anaphase I c. prophase II

b. metaphase I d. metaphase II

____ 20. A true-breeding tall pea plant is crossed with a true-breeding short pea plant, and all the offspring are tall.

What is the most likely genotype of the offspring assuming a single-gene trait?

a. tt c. TT

b. Tt d. TT or tt

Figure 10-10

____ 21. Which stage of meiosis is represented in Figure 10-10?

a. anaphase I c. anaphase II

b. metaphase I d. metaphase II

____ 22. Which series is arranged in order from largest to smallest in size?

a. chromosome, nucleus, cell, DNA, nucleotide

b. cell, nucleus, chromosome, DNA, nucleotide

c. nucleotide, chromosome, cell, DNA, nucleus

d. cell, nucleotide, nucleus, DNA, chromosome

Figure 12-2

____ 23. In which part of the cell does this process shown in Figure 12-2 take place?

a. in the nucleus c. at the ribosomes

b. in food vacuoles d. on the chromosome

____ 24. Structure III in Figure 12-2 represents a(n) ____.

a. gene c. codon

b. amino acid d. DNA molecule

____ 25. The process illustrated in Figure 12-2 is called ____.

a. translation c. monoploidy

b. replication d. transcription

____ 26. Which of the structures in Figure 12-2 are composed of RNA?

a. II and IV c. I and V

b. III and IV d. III and V

____ 27. A DNA segment is changed from-AATTAG- to -AAATAG-. This is a ____.

a. frameshift mutation c. insertion

b. substitution d. deletion

Figure 12-3

____ 28. What type of mutation has occurred in Figure 12-3?

a. substitution c. lethal

b. frameshift d. insertion

____ 29. What will be the result of the mutation in Figure 12-3?

a. it will have no effect on protein function

b. only one amino acid will change

c. nearly every amino acid in the protein will be changed

d. translation will not occur

____ 30. A DNA segment is changed from -AATTAGAAATAG- to -ATTAGAAATAG-. This is a ____.

a. frameshift mutation c. inversion

b. insertion d. translation

____ 31. Where would a DNA substitution probably have the smallest or least effect on the organism?

a. exon c. intron

b. histone d. operon

____ 32. A particular sequence of parent DNA has four purine bases and two pyrimidine bases. According to base-

pairing rules, which of the following sequences could be formed during replication?

a. two cytosine, two adenine, two thymine

b. two cytosine, two adenine, two uracil

c. two adenine, two thymine, one guanine, one cytosine

d. two adenine, two guanine, two cytosine

____ 33. Which of the following sequences of processes correctly reflects the central dogma?

a. protein synthesis, transcription, translation

b. protein synthesis, translation, transcription

c. transcription, translation, protein synthesis

d. translation, transcription, protein synthesis

____ 34. This is a template DNA sequence: 3'AATCGC5'. This is a partially-completed mRNA strand transcribed

from the DNA template: 3'GCGA5'. What is the next nucleotide that RNA polymerase will attach?

a. A c. T

b. C d. U

____ 35. Using DNA sequencing, you discover that a bacterium has experienced a deletion mutation that removed

three nucleotides. The bacterium appears completely unaffected in all its functions. Where is the mostly

likely location for the mutation?

a. an exon c. a promoter

b. an intron d. a repressor

____ 36. Which combination of characteristics in a population would provide the greatest potential for evolutionary

change?

a. small population, few mutations c. large population, few mutations

b. small population, many mutations d. large population, many mutations

____ 37. When investigating shell color of a species of snail found only in a remote area seldom visited by humans,

scientists discovered the distribution of individuals that is shown in the graph in Figure 15-1. Based on the

information shown in the graph, what form of selection is the snail population undergoing?

Figure 15-1

a. stabilizing selection c. artificial selection

b. disruptive selection d. directional selection

____ 38. Which term best describes the structures shown in Figure 15-3?

Figure 15-3

a. homologous c. analogous

b. heterologous d. vestigial

Figure 15-4

____ 39. Which type of natural selection showed in Figure 15-4 favors average individuals?

a. A c. C

b. B d. D

____ 40. Which type of natural selection shown in Figure 15-4 would favor giraffes that need to reach the tallest

branches to eat?

a. A c. C

b. B d. D

____ 41. How do fossils demonstrate evidence of evolution?

a. They show that ancient species share similarities with species now on Earth.

b. They show evidence of species that are now extinct.

c. They are the primary source of evidence of natural selection.

d. Fossils reveal that many species have remained unchanged for millions of years.

____ 42. Which of the following is the explanation of why bird wings and reptile forelegs are evidence of evolution?

a. Similar functions point to a common ancestor.

b. Analogous structures indicate a common ancestor.

c. Vestigial structures point to a common ancestor.

d. Homologous structures indicate a common ancestor.

____ 43. Superficially similar features molded by natural selection in very different species are classified as what kind

of structures?

a. vestigial c. analogous

b. homologous d. comparative

____ 44. According to Darwin, which of the following best explains why the mara is more similar to other South

American mammals than it is to the rabbit?

a. Its genotype is similar to the South American animals.

b. It shares amino-acid sequences with other South American animals.

c. It shares a closer ancestor with the South American animals.

d. Its geographic distribution indicates very little variation over time.

____ 45. When allelic frequencies remain unchanged, a population is in genetic equilibrium. This statement expresses

which of the following?

a. genetic drift c. sympatric speciation

b. Hardy-Weinberg principle d. prezygotic isolating mechanism

____ 46. A population diverges and becomes reproductively isolated. Which of the following is the best description of

that phenomenon?

a. speciation c. postzygotic isolation

b. bottleneck d. sexual selection

____ 47. What is the term describing the process that occurs when a species evolves into a new species without a

physical barrier separating populations?

a. adaptive radiation c. sympatric speciation

b. coevolution d. allopatric speciation

____ 48. Some birds are known as honey guides because they may be followed by humans to wild beehives. When the

humans take honey from the hives, the birds are able to feast on the honey and bees, too. This type of

relationship can best be described as ____.

a. parasitism c. mutualism

b. commensalism d. symbiosis

____ 49. Cougars are predators that often eat weakened or diseased animals. This is a description of the ____ of

cougars.

a. habitat c. niche

b. community d. none of these

Figure 2-1

____ 50. Referring to Figure 2-1, the coyotes would be considered ____.

a. herbivores c. second-level consumers

b. third-level consumers d. decomposers

Figure 2-2

____ 51. The group of animals in Figure 2-2 is an example of what?

a. community c. population

b. ecosystem d. biosphere

Figure 2-3

____ 52. In the energy pyramid shown in Figure 2-3, which level has the smallest number of organisms?

a. fox c. grasshoppers

b. birds d. grass

____ 53. Which of the following is the ultimate source of energy for the pyramid in Figure 2-3?

a. grass c. sunlight

b. heat d. water

flea

Figure 2-4

____ 54. The organism shown in Figure 2-4 is involved in which type of symbiosis?

a. mutualism c. parasitism

b. commensalism d. predation

____ 55. Which of the following information could be included in the description of a grasshopper’s niche, but not in a

description of its habitat?

a. continent where it lives c. plant species it eats

b. locations where it shelters d. temperatures it experiences

____ 56. Organisms with overlapping niches probably have which type of relationship?

a. commensal c. mutualistic

b. competitive d. parasitic

____ 57. What is “soil type” to an earthworm?

a. abiotic factor c. biotic factor

b. biome d. carbon source

____ 58. Which process describes nitrogen fixation?

a. animals eat plants containing nitrogen and return it to the soil through urination

b. bacteria take nitrogen from the air and convert it to a form usable by plants

c. organisms die and are decomposed into ammonia in the soil

d. plants take nitrogen from the air and store it in their roots

____ 59. Which of the following allows the flow of energy through an ecosystem to happen?

a. abiotic factors c. evaporation

b. cycling of nutrients d. predation

____ 60. One of the nutrient cycles moves from an atmospheric gaseous form to the soil through both abiotic and biotic

processes, moves through the food web, then is returned to the soil or to the atmosphere. Which cycle fits this

description?

a. carbon c. phosphorus

b. nitrogen d. water

____ 61. A student notices that her guppies reproduce most when her fish tank water is slightly alkaline. They stop

reproducing if the water becomes acidic or if the water becomes too alkaline. This is an example of ____.

a. secondary succession c. communities

b. zones of tolerance d. intertidal zones

____ 62. What type of succession is most likely to happen in Figure 3-2?

Figure 3-2

a. primary

b. secondary

c. tertiary

d. climax

____ 63. At which stage in Figure 3-3 are the most pioneer species found?

Figure 3-3

a. A c. C

b. B d. D

Figure 3-4

____ 64. Look at the graph in Figure 3-4. What does this graph tell us about this species of plant?

a. Too much sunlight can hurt them.

b. They thrive in a lot of sun.

c. Heat is damaging to them.

d. They need plenty of water.

____ 65. What would be the best time of the year to plant the organism described in Figure 3-4?

a. winter c. summer

b. spring d. fall

____ 66. What single feature is primarily responsible for the variation of climate in different parts of the world?

a. intensity of wind

b. angle of incoming sunlight

c. length of daylight

d. amount of precipitation

____ 67. If the global warming trend continues and permafrost under the tundra melts, what biome would you predict

would replace it?

a. boreal forest c. temperate grassland

b. temperate forest d. desert

____ 68. Some coral reefs off the east coast of South America are starting to die off. Satellite images reveal great

plumes of sediment washing out of the mouths of rivers. What can you conclude, if anything, about the

relationship between these two factors?

a. Although the two factors coincide, they are not likely to be related.

b. Deforestation on land results in lower oxygen levels in the atmosphere, which stresses the

reef.

c. Deforestation on land allows erosion to wash away topsoil, which smothers reefs.

d. Burning of the rain forest increases atmospheric carbon dioxide to levels toxic to reefs.

____ 69. A place at 2º N latitude has an average annual temperature of –6º C. What can you conclude about the

environment?

a. It is cold, so it must be in the northern polar region.

b. Nothing can be concluded except the information given.

c. It is at a very high altitude.

d. It must be submerged at the bottom of a deep ocean to be equatorial and so cold.

____ 70. Density, distribution, and growth rate are characteristics used to classify which one of the following?

a. biomes c. limiting factors

b. populations d. age structure

____ 71. A flowering plant has seeds that are carried by the wind. Infer the most likely dispersion pattern of the plants

that grow from these seeds.

a. uniform c. random

b. clumped groups d. spatial

____ 72. Which of the following statements is correct?

a. Population size of predators increases when their prey is scarce.

b. Competition for resources is density-independent when food is plentiful.

c. Disease is density-dependent because transmission occurs more easily when a population

is large.

d. A change in average temperature is a density-dependent factor because fewer organisms

can acclimate to variations in temperature.

____ 73. Young adult male chimpanzees look for mates outside their own population. The males then take the females

back to their group. Which of the following occurs in females’ original population?

a. emigration c. mortality

b. immigration d. natality

____ 74. To assess a population’s growth rate, an ecologist must know how many individuals are born, how many died,

and how many move away in a given period of time. What else must an ecologist know?

a. how many individuals find mates

b. how many individuals move in from somewhere else

c. how many individuals carry communicable diseases

d. how many individuals are young or old

____ 75. Agriculture led to an increase in the size of the human population. Which of the following was the most

important impact of agriculture on the human population size?

a. It stabilized and increased available food supplies.

b. It made people better able to resist disease.

c. It reduced accidental deaths from hunting.

d. It decreased the negative impacts of storms.

Figure 32-1

____ 76. Which type of muscle is labeled I in the Venn diagram shown in Figure 32-4?

a. cardiac c. skeletal

b. filament d. smooth

____ 77. Which type of muscle is labeled II in the Venn diagram shown in Figure 32-4?

a. cardiac c. skeletal

b. filament d. smooth

____ 78. Which type of muscle is labeled III in the Venn diagram shown in Figure 32-4?

a. cardiac c. skeletal

b. filament d. smooth

____ 79. Which describes a difference between the dermis and epidermis?

a. The epidermis is typically as thick as a piece of paper and the dermis is as much as 40

times thicker.

b. The dermis contains keratin, while the epidermis is mostly made up of fat cells.

c. The epidermis is primarily composed of connective tissue and the dermis is mostly made

up of hair follicles.

d. The epidermis is completely made up of nerve cells, which are lacking in the dermis.

____ 80. A tissue is observed to contain nerve cells, muscle fibers, and oil glands. Where is this tissue found?

a. dermis c. hair

b. epidermis d. nails

____ 81. Which lists the layers of skin from outer to inner?

a. dermis, melanin c. melanin, epidermis

b. epidermis, dermis d. keratin, epidermis

____ 82. In which type of tissue would you expect to find the most mitochondria?

a. bicep c. arm bone

b. hair d. skin

____ 83. Which would not be possible if the triceps muscle were severed?

a. extending the arm straight out

b. bending the forearm toward the shoulder

c. opening and closing the hand

d. rotating the thumb

____ 84. What would result if the heart were made of skeletal muscle?

a. It would beat according to its own pacemaker.

b. It would not contain any striations when dissected.

c. You would have to think about controlling its beating.

d. It would not be strong enough to pump blood throughout the body.

____ 85. Epithelial cells are similar to the shingles of a roof in that they are both flat and overlap. How does this

structure aid in their function?

a. It allows the individual cells to shed more easily.

b. It allows the whole structure of the skin to be lightweight.

c. It allows them to form a barrier to the outside.

d. It allows them to use small amounts of space.

____ 86. What might occur if a scab does not form over a cut that has damaged blood vessels?

a. Bacteria may enter the body. c. The cut may not bleed.

b. Skin cells may not divide. d. White blood cells will attack the skin.

____ 87. A student states that the contraction of a skeletal muscle begins when a nerve impulse causes calcium to be

released. The calcium causes the actin and myosin filaments to attach, then myosin begins to move,

contracting the muscle.

Which evaluation of this answer is most appropriate?

a. The answer is correct.

b. Actin filaments move, not myosin.

c. Calcium is not involved in muscle contraction.

d. The sequence of events is incorrect.

____ 88. Which of the following pairs lists the fiber-like extensions that are components of neurons?

a. axons and myelin c. dendrites and axons

b. synapses and myelin d. dendrites and synapses

____ 89. What is the main difference between the central nervous system (CNS) and the peripheral nervous system

(PNS)?

a. The PNS integrates information received from the external environment, and the CNS

processes this information.

b. The PNS regulates body temperature, blood pressure, and thirst, while the CNS integrates

this information.

c. The CNS processes information, while the PNS carries information to and from the CNS

and sensory, muscle, and gland cells.

d. The CNS communicates involuntary communication, while the PNS communicates

voluntary information.

____ 90. How would your nervous system respond if you encountered a bear on a hiking trail?

a. The sympathetic nervous system would send signals to increase the heart rate, decrease

salivation, and increase respiration.

b. The autonomic nervous system would send signals to the somatic nervous system to

increase respiration and heart rate.

c. The parasympathetic nervous system would send signals to increase the heart rate,

decrease salivation, and increase respiration.

d. The somatic nervous system send signals to the central nervous system to increase heart

rate and respiration.

____ 91. Which of the following describes functions of the peripheral nervous system?

a. integrates perception, movement, and intellect

b. transmits external stimuli and motor responses

c. regulates body temperature, thirst, and appetite

d. regulates respiration, blood pressure, and heart rate

Figure 34-1

____ 92. How would the diaphragm change in Figure 34-1 to inhale?

a. flatten and lower c. flatten and go higher

b. expand and go higher d. expand and lower

____ 93. How would the ribcage change in Figure 34-1 to inhale?

a. The ribs would become closer together.

b. The ribs would become further apart.

c. The ribs would move downward.

d. The ribs would not move at all.

Figure 34-2

____ 94. How is the blood located in the vein at C in Figure 34-2 different than the blood in all other veins of the

body?

a. it is rich with oxygen c. it doesn’t reach the lung

b. it is rich with carbon dioxide d. it doesn’t reach the heart

Figure 34-3

____ 95. In which structure of Figure 34-3 does filtrate become urine?

a. Structure A c. Structure C

b. Structure B d. Structure D

____ 96. Which of the following structures in Figure 34-3 contains blood?

a. Structure A c. Structure C

b. Structure B d. Structure D

____ 97. Which of the following organ systems is primarily responsible for maintaining the pH level of the blood?

a. cardiovascular system c. respiratory system

b. lymphatic system d. excretory system

____ 98. Which type of respiration takes place only in the lungs?

a. cellular respiration c. internal respiration

b. intercellular respiration d. external respiration

____ 99. Which of the following is a function of the circulatory system?

a. remove wastes from the bloodstream

b. transport materials to fight infections

c. transport gases out of the body

d. produce digestive enzymes

____ 100. Which of the following would most likely occur first if the circulatory system suddenly stopped functioning?

a. Blood clots would form in the arteries.

b. Cells would die from a lack of oxygen.

c. Skin cells would become infected with bacteria.

d. Body temperature would fall, causing hypothermia.

____ 101. What is the main function of cilia in the respiratory system?

a. prevent food from passing the epiglottis

b. prevent the alveoli from drying out

c. prevent dust from entering the lungs

d. prevent the trachea from being burned

____ 102. Which body systems do the lungs belong to?

a. respiratory system only c. respiratory and immune systems

b. respiratory and circulatory systems d. respiratory and excretory systems

____ 103. A scientist dissecting a mammal removes a large vessel from the mammal’s hind leg and finds a valve inside

the vessel. What type of vessel did the scientist most likely find?

a. artery c. vein

b. capillary d. ureter

____ 104. Which of the following organ systems is primarily responsible for the process of internal respiration?

a. circulatory system c. lymphatic system

b. integumentary system d. excretory system

Figure 34-4

____ 105. Examine Figure 34-4. Which of the following correctly describes the contents of the pulmonary artery

shown?

a. oxygen-poor blood c. carbon dioxide-poor air

b. oxygen-rich blood d. carbon dioxide-rich air

____ 106. In which structure shown in Figure 34-4 is gas from the atmosphere exchanged with gas from the

bloodstream?

a. alveoli c. pulmonary vein

b. bronchiole d. pulmonary artery

____ 107. A person’s blood vessels become partially clogged with fat deposits. What is the most likely effect of this?

a. increased blood pressure

b. decreased red blood cell concentration

c. Rh factor complications

d. increased white blood cell count

____ 108. Which best describes the difference between chemical and mechanical digestion?

a. chemical digestion requires the use of enzymes, mechanical digestion does not involve

enzymes

b. chemical digestion occurs only in the small intestine, mechanical digestion occurs in all

digestive organs

c. chemical digestion involves physically breaking down food, mechanical digestion breaks

the bonds in foods

d. chemical digestion occurs only when the body’s pH is acidic, mechanical digestion

requires alkaline surroundings

____ 109. Which digestive processes occur first?

a. chemical digestion occurs in the stomach

b. mechanical digestion in the esophagus

c. chemical and mechanical digestion in the mouth

d. no digestion occurs at first, food is only moistened

____ 110. Which correctly describes the path food takes through the organs of the digestive system?

a. mouth, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, anus

b. mouth, stomach, esophagus, large intestine, small intestine, anus

c. mouth, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine, anus

d. mouth, stomach, esophagus, small intestine, large intestine, anus

____ 111. Which best describes the importance of mechanical digestion?

a. It allows proteins and other organic compounds to be broken down into their component

molecules.

b. It makes food particles more acidic so that chemical digestion can occur in the digestive

organs

c. It speeds the work of enzymes by allowing food to be transported to the stomach more

quickly

d. It increases the surface area of food, allowing chemical digestion to occur more efficiently

____ 112. Which of the following might result if food moves very quickly through the large intestine?

a. The food would not be fully digested.

b. The feces would be eliminated as diarrhea.

c. The body could not eliminate any wastes.

d. The appendix might become inflamed.

____ 113. How does the adrenal gland help us when we are afraid?

a. It releases enzymes that help to make our senses more acute so we can react more readily.

b. It releases enzymes that digest more carbohydrates providing us with extra energy.

c. It releases hormones that increase heart and breathing rates, and makes glucose available

to our muscles.

d. It releases hormones that increase the strength of our bones by stimulating the absorption

of calcium.

____ 114. Where does most digestion occur?

a. mouth c. small intestine

b. large intestine d. stomach

____ 115. A person experiences digestive discomfort within 2 hours of eating meat, beans, or eggs. Which of the

following organs is most likely the source of this difficulty?

a. large intestine c. small intestine

b. mouth d. stomach

____ 116. Evaluate the following symptoms: A person has a swelling on their neck and is losing weight despite an

increase in eating habits. Which organ is most likely affected?

a. adrenal gland c. pituitary gland

b. pancreas d. thyroid gland

____ 117. Which of the following statements regarding the digestive system is correct?

a. All organs contain glands that release enzymes for chemical digestion.

b. Wherever mechanical digestion occurs, chemical digestion also occurs.

c. Peristalsis occurs in each organ, enabling nutrients to be more easily absorbed.

d. The pH of each organ is the same so the food can easily move through the system.

____ 118. What is responsible for breaking food molecules into smaller molecules?

a. acid c. bile

b. mechanical action d. enzymes

____ 119. In which structure do sperm cells grow and mature?

a. the epididymis c. the seminal vesicle

b. the testis d. the vas deferens

____ 120. Egg cells are produced in which structure of the female reproductive system?

a. uterus c. corpus luteum

b. ovary d. cervix

____ 121. Where does the egg travel immediately after it is released from the ovary?

a. oviduct c. oocyte

b. uterus d. vagina

____ 122. In which structure does the fetus develop?

a. oviduct c. oocyte

b. uterus d. cervix