FIITJEE COMMON TEST paper class 7.pdf · 2017. 9. 23. · 1 FIITJEE Ltd., B –4, Sec 16, Noida (U.P), 201301, Ph : 0120 4754800/804/811/814 FIITJEE Towers, C –56 A/26 Institutional

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FIITJEE Ltd., B – 4, Sec – 16, Noida (U.P), 201301, Ph : 0120 – 4754800/804/811/814 www.fiitjeenoida.com

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FIITJEE COMMON TEST

Class – VII (1618 A LOT Batches)

PHASE – I NN SS EE JJ SS

SET-A

Time: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 180

A. Question Paper Format 1. The question paper consists of 4 parts (Physics -Section-I, Chemistry - Section-II, Mathematics- Section-III

and Biology- IV) and each part consists of four sections.

2. Each Section contains 15 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its

answer, out of which only one is correct.

B. Marking scheme:

1. For each question in Section I, II, & III, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble

corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1)

mark will be awarded.

Enrolment No. :

Name : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Batch : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Date:. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

Paper Code

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SECTION – I (PHYSICS) 1. Which of the following substances have greatest specific heat? (A) Iron (B) Water (C) Copper (D) Mercury 2. A temperature difference of 27°C on Kelvin scale is (A) 27 K (B) 300 K (C) –246 K (D) Zero 3. „M‟ gm of ice at 0°C is to be converted to water at 0°C. If L is the latent heat of fusion of ice, the

quantity of heat required for the above operation would be (A) ML cal (B) M/L (C) M/L cal (D) None of these 4. When air is saturated, it cannot hold (A) more water vapour (B) more air (C) more carbon dioxide (D) more oxygen 5. If a substance contracts on heating, its coefficient of linear expansion is (A) +ve (B) –ve (C) zero (D) infinity 6. Maximum density of water is (A) 0°C (B) –273°C (C) 4°C (D) 100°C 7. If we decrease the pressure of the surroundings the water will boil at (A) 100°C (B) above 100°C (C) below 100°C (D) None of these 8. Find the Fahrenheit reading for 10°C (A) 50°F (B) 45°F (C) 33.8°F (D) 44.8°F 9. On a hot day, beach sand is hotter than the ocean water because of difference in (A) texture (B) conductivity (C) colour (D) specific heat 10. The normal temperature of human body is (A) 37°C (B) 38°C (C) 36.8°C (D) None of these 11. 5 g of ice at 0°C and 20 g of water at 45°C are mixed. The temperature of the mixture will be (latent

heat of ice = 80 cal/gm) (A) 10°C (B) 20°C (C) 28°C (D) 40°C 12. In summer the clock (A) become slow (B) become fast (C) gives correct time (D) lose time 13. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of 2000 g of water from 10°C to 50°C is (A) 80 cal (B) 80,000 cal (C) 8000 cal (D) none of these 14. Water in a container is heated from 0°C to 10°C. Its volume (A) increases for the full given range (from 0°C to 10°C) (B) decreases upto 4°C, then increases (C) increases upto 4°C, then decreases (D) decreases for the full range (from 0°C to 10°C) 15. At what temperature do the Fahrenheit and Celsius scales give the same reading? (A) –40°C (B) 0° (C) 574.25° (D) 273°

Space for rough work

3



SECTION – II (CHEMISTRY) 1. Which of the following is acidic in nature? (A) apple juice (B) Soap solution (C) slaked like (D) None of these 2. Which of the following acids is present in sour milk? (A) Lactic acid (B) Glycolic acid (C) Citrus acid (D) Tartaric acid 3. Virgin wool is obtained from (A) lamb (B) dead sheep (C) camel (D) adult sheep 4. Natural fibre which is called as “queen of fibres” is : (A) wool (B) jute (C) silk (D) nylon 5. Which of the following bacteria causes sorter‟s disease in sorters ? (A) Anthrax (B) Rhizobium (C) Coliform (D) Clostridium 6. The process of removal of greases and dirt from wool by washing it with water containing alkali

called (A) Oiling (B) Scouring (C) Carding (D) None of these 7. What is the percentage of Carbon in wool? (A) 80 % (B) 40% (C) 50% (D) 20% 8. Which is the only natural fibre which has Sulphur in its composition? (A) Tussar (B) Wool (C) Muga (D) Eri 9. The property of wool fibres to interlock and contract when exposed to heat is (A) Felting (B) Crimp (C) Unshrinkable wool (D) Both (A) and (B) 10. Tussore silk is obtained from are ____________ feeding moth. (A) Mulberry (B) Castor leaves (C) Oak (D) None of these 11. Japanese and Italian silk are ____________ and _________ in colour respectively (A) White, Yellow (B) Yellow, White (C) White, Pink (D) Pink, White 12. Fine merino wool has _________ crimps per inch (A) 20 (B) 25 (C) 30 (D) 35 13. The extra gum from silk fibre is removed by treating it with (A) Hydrogen peroxide (B) Sulphur dioxide (C) Water (D) Both (A) and (B) 14. NaOH is a (A) acid (B) base (C) salt (d) none of these 15. NaCl is

(A) acid (B) base (C) salt (d) none of these


4



SECTION – III (MATHEMATICS)

1. The solution of the equation 2

7 153

y is

(A) 12 (B) 0 (C) 15 (D) 8 Direction (2 – 3): There are two positive integers x and y . When x is divided by 237, the remainder is

192. When y is divided by 117, the quotient is same but the remainder is 108. 2. The remainder when the sum of x and y is divided by 118 is (A) 16 (B) 32 (C) 64 (D) 72 3. The remainder when the difference of x and y is divided by 15 is (A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 12 Direction (4 – 6): A bag contains 6 white, 5 red and 4 black balls. 4. If one ball is drawn randomly, find the probability that the bal is white (A) 2/5 (B) 3/5 (C) 1/15 (D) 4/15 5. If one ball is drawn randomly, find the probability ball is red? (A) 1/2 (B) 1/15 (C) 1/3 (D) 1/5 6. If one ball is chosen, find the probability that it is not a black ball.

(A) 11

15 (B)

4

5 (C)

1

3 (D)

1

5

Direction (7 – 8): A man has some hens and cows. If the number of heads are 40 and number of legs are 128, then 7. Determine number of cows in the group. (A) 16 (B) 20 (C) 22 (D) 24 8. If man purchased 5 more hens, then how many hens does he has now? (A) 20 (B) 15 (C) 21 (D) none of these

9. The mean of 31 results is 60. If the mean of first 16 results is 58 and that of last 16 results is 62.

Find the 16th result.

(A) 60 (B) 70 (C) 50 (D) none of these 10. The ages of 10 persons (in years) are 34, 24, 28, 31, 30, 26, 27, 25, 29, 30. The median age is (A) 28 yrs (B) 29 yrs (C) 28.5 yrs (D) 32.5 yrs


5



11. Find the quotient when 2.66 divided by 100. (A) 266 (B) 0.266 (C) 0.0266 (D) none of these 12. Closure property does not hold good in integers for (A) addition (B) subtraction (C) multiplication (D) division 13. Which property is reflected in the following 7 × 5 = 5 × 7 (A) Closure (B) Commutative (C) Associate (D) Distributive 14. A data can have _______ mode. (A) One (B) Zero (C) More than one (D) All of these

15. Write an expression: Raju‟s father age is 5 years more than 3 times Raju‟s age. If Raju‟s age is x years, then father‟s age

is

(A) 3 5x (B) 5 3x (C) 3 5x (D) 15x


6



SECTION – IV (BIOLOGY) 1. Cud-chewing animals are called: (A) Ruminants (B) Cannibals (C) Frugivous (D) Sanguivores 2. Green plants are (A) Herbivores (B) Autotrophs (C) Heterotrphs (D) Saprotrophs 3. Leguminous plants can obtain nitrogen from the soil in the presence of Rhizobium. This is an

example of (A) Parasitism (B) Saprotrophism (C) Symbiosis (D) Commensalism 4. In which portion of chloroplast does light reaction takes place: (A) Thylakoid membrane (B) Thylakoid lumen (C) Stroma (D) All of these 5. The inner walls of small intestine have millions of small finger like projection called (A) Villi (B) Junctions (C) Appendix (D) Mucus 6. An Amoeba ingests food with the help of (A) Cilia (B) Tentacles (C) Pseudopodia (D) Flagella 7. Amylase enzyme is present in (A) Bile juice (B) Saliva (C) Gastric juice (D) Intestinal juice 8. Grass is rich in ________ which can only be digested by some animals. (A) Glucose (B) Cellulose (C) Sucrose (D) Starch 9. During light reaction in photosynthesis the following are formed: (A) ATP and sugar (B) ATP and O2 (C) ATP and hydrogen (D) Hydrogen and O2 10. Dark reaction is called so because (A) It can occur in dark only (B) It does not depend on light energy directly (C) It cannot occur during light (D) It occurs rapidly at night 11. Which of the following is not required for photosynthesis? (A) Chlorophyll (B) Water (C) Sunlight (D) Oxygen 12. The largest gland in human body is (A) Pancreas (B) Stomach (C) Liver (D) Salivary gland 13. Pepsin acts in (A) Acidic medium (B) Basic medium (C) Neutral medium (D) In all media 14. Iodine turns ___________ in colour, in presence of ___________ (A) red, acid (B) green, sugar (C) black, protein (D) blue-black, starch

15. Dark reaction occurs in: (A) Cytoplasm (B) Stroma (C) Grana (D) Thylakoid


7



FIITJEE COMMON TEST


PHASE – I NN SS EE JJ SS

SET-A

ANSWERS

SECTION – I (PHYSICS) 1. B 2. A 3. A 4. A 5. B 6. C 7. C 8. A 9. D 10. A 11. B 12. A 13. B 14. B 15. A

SECTION – II (CHEMISTRY)

1. A 2. A 3. A 4. C 5. A 6 B 7 C 8. B 9. A 10. C 11. A 12. C 13. D 14. B 15. C

SECTION – III (MATHEMATICS)

1. A 2. C 3. C 4. A 5. C 6. A 7. D 8. C 9. A 10. C 11. C 12. D 13. B 14. D 15. A

SECTION – IV (BIOLOGY)

1. A 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. A 6. C 7. B 8. B 9. B 10. B 11. D 12. C 13. A 14. D 15. B

Paper Code

8



FIITJEE COMMON TEST

for


PHASE – I

SET-A Time : 1 ½ hours Maximum Marks : 90

Scholastic Aptitude Test

INSTRUCTIONS The question paper consists of 90 multiple choice questions divided into four sections.

Section – I contains 45 questions of Mathematics.

Section – II contains 15 questions of Physics.

Section – III contains 15 questions of Chemistry.

Section – IV contains 15 questions of Biology.

Each question carries +1 marks.

There is No negative marking.

Attempt All questions.

Use of Calculator is NOT PERMITTED.

All symbols have their usual meanings, if not mentioned in the question.

The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough work.

No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.

This booklet also contains OMR answer sheet.

Name of the Candidate : ……………….………………………………….. Enrollment Number :…………………………………………………….

9



SECTION – I (MATHEMATICS) 1. A telephone number has a form ABC–DEF–GHIJ where each letter represents different digit. The

digit in each part of the number are in descending order, further more D, E and F are consecutive even digits. G, H, I, J are consecutive odd digits and A + B + C = 9. Find A

(A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9 2. 186 × 186 + 159 × 159 – 2 × 186 × 159 (A) 119025 (B) 729 (C) 1369 (D) 218645

3. If 2 2 180a b and 72ab , then value of

a b

a b

is

(A) 18 (B) 6 (C) 3 (D) None of these 4. If there are 25% girls in the class and there are 45 boys in the class, then find the number of

students in the class. (A) 60 (B) 45 (C) 100 (D) 50 5. Value of (largest 3-digit integer) – (smallest 3 digit integer) + [–(largest 2-digit integer which is

multiple of 2)] (A) 1998 (B) 801 (C) –98 (D) 98

6. Evaluate 2 2 54 18 51 16 3/ / (A) –4 (B) 4 (C) +2 (D) –2 7. What least value must be assigned to * so that the number 63576*2 is divisible by 9? (A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 8 (D) 7 8. The difference between numbers is 1510. If larger number is divided by smaller one, the quotient is

7 and remainder is 58. Then the smaller number is ? (A) 58 (B) 1752 (C) 1452 (D) 242


10



9. Find the next integer in the given sequence 125, 64, 27, 8, ____, ? (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) –1 (D) can‟t be determined

10. If 3 2

2 2 3 3a b a b and 0ab , then find the value of 2 23 3 2a b ab (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 4

11. From question 10, find the value of a b

b a

(A) 3

2 (B)

2

3 (C)

1

3 (D)

4

3

12. Tony requires 4 pieces of wood, each of which are 68 cm long. If wood is sold in 2m or 3 m length.

Find the length of wood he must buy. (A) 32 (B) 16 (C) 8 (D) 4

13. If 3

32

11

23

x

, then find value of x.

(A) 1 (B) 18/13 (C) 13/18 (D) 13/36

14. Simplify 1 1 1

20 30 152 3 6 _________

(A) 2

353

(B) 1

356

(C) 3

352

(D) 66

15. Making maggi requires 1

72

cups of boiling water. Your measuring cup holds 1

14

of water. How

many times you need to fill the cup? (A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 10


11



Direction (16–18): A man spends 2

5 of his salary on house rent,

3

10 of his salary on food and

1

8 of his

salary on conveyance. If he saves Rs.2800 per month, then 16. Find his monthly salary (A) Rs.16000 (B) Rs.12000 (C) Rs.15000 (D) Rs.24000 17. How much he spend on food? (A) Rs.4800 (B) Rs.1600 (C) Rs. 4000 (D) None of these 18. His expenditure of conveyance is how much percent of his house rent? (A) 32% (B) 35% (C) 40% (D) None of these 19. Monty brought 3 kg 300 gm mangoes that cost him Rs.110. Mona bought 4 kg 400 gms of mangoes

at Rs.130. Who bought mangoes at cheaper rate? (A) Monty (B) Mona (C) Both bought at equal price (D) Can‟t be determined 20. Find the median of 38, 34, 36, 32, 37, 31, 33, 35 (A) 34 (B) 36 (C) 34.5 (D) 35.5 21. If mean = 30 and median = 25, its mode is (A) 27.5 (B) 50 (C) 30 (D) 15 22. If the mean of frequency of distribution is 50. Find the value of P.

Variable 10 30 50 70 90

Frequency 17 P 32 24 19

(A) 28 (B) 56 (C) 32 (D) None of these


12



Direction (23–25): Sale of books (in thousand numbers) from five branches B1, B2, B3, B4 and B5 of publishing company in 2014 and 2015

Sale

s

Branches

23. Total sales of branches B1, B3, B5 together for both the years (in thousand number) is (A) 250 (B) 310 (C) 435 (D) 560 24. What is the percentage increase in sales of B from 2014 to 2015 ? (A) 32% (B) 31.25% (C) 35% (D) 39% 25. What is the average sale of all the branches (in thousand) for year 2014? (A) 80 (B) 78°C (C) 82 (D) none 26. The average of 50 numbers is 32. If two numbers 22 and 18 are discarded, then find the average of

remaining numbers? (A) 32.5 (B) 40 (C) 60.5 (D) can‟t be determined 27. A student was asked to find the average of 12, 19, 16, 15, 32, 8, x. He finds the average 18. What would be the value of x. (A) 24 (B) 26 (C) 30 (D) 20 28. A labour got engaged for 20 days on the condition that he will receive Rs.60 for each day‟s work

and he will be fined Rs.5 for each day, he is absent. If he receives Rs.745 in all, for how many days he remained absent?

(A) 9 (B) 8 (C) 7 (D) none of these


13



Direction (29 – 31):One mango, one orange and one banana will together cost Rs.55. One banana and one orange together cost Rs.40. Rohit buys a mango on Monday, one banana and one orange on Tuesday, one banana each on Thursday and Friday, one orange each one Wednesday and Saturday. On Sunday, he buys all three items. 29. What is the cost of one mango? (A) Rs.12 (B) Rs.10 (C) Rs.15 (D) can‟t say 30. What is the cost of one banana? (A) Rs.18 (B) Rs. 8 (C) Rs.9 (D) cant‟say 31. What does Rohit pay for his entire week‟s purchases? (A) Rs.285 (B) Rs.190 (C) Rs.95 (D) Can‟t say 32. Out of 5 brands of chocolates in a shop, a boy has to purchase the brand which is most liked by

children. What measure of central tendency would be most appropriate if the data is provided to him?

(A) mean (B) mode (C) median (D) any of the three 33. Which one of the following is improper fraction? (A) 2/3 (B) 5/7 (C) 7/4 (D) 1/2 Direction (34 – 38): Read the bar graph which shows number of computers sold by a store during five consecutive years.

34. How many computers were sold in 1989? (A) 100 (B) 200 (C) 300 (D) 600 35. In which year were 400 computers sold? (A) 1990 (B) 1991 (C) 1993 (D) 1989

36. In which year were fewer than 200 computers sold? (A) 1989 (B) 1991 (C) 1993 (D) 1992 37. What will be the difference of number of computers sold in 1993 and 1990? (A) 600 (B) 200 (C) 400 (D) 100 38. How many computers were sold from 1991 to 1993? (A) 1300 (B) 1000 (C) 900 (D) 800


100

200

300

400

500

600

700

1989

1990

1991

1992

1993

14



39. A dice is thrown once. What will be the probability of getting prime number? (A) 1/2 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) 1/6 40. Which of the following has same mean, median and mode? (A) 6, 2, 5, 4, 3, 4, 1 (B) 4, 2, 2, 1, 3, 2, 3 (C) 2, 3, 7, 3, 8, 3, 2 (D) 4, 3, 4, 3, 4, 6, 4

41. Which of the following can be formed starting with 0x ?

(A) 2 1 1x (B) 5 72

x (C) 3 1 1x (D) 3 1 1x

42. The ascending arrangement of 2 6 13

3 7 21, , is

(A) 6 2 13

7 3 21, , (B)

13 2 6

21 3 7, , (C)

6 13 2

7 21 3, , (D)

2 6 13

3 7 21, ,

43. One packet of biscuit requires 1

22

cups of flour and 2

13

cups of sugar. Estimated total quantity of

both ingredients used in 10 such packets of biscuits will be (A) less than 30 cups (B) between 30 cups and 40 cups (C) between 40 cups to 50 cups (D) above 50 cups 44. Simplify:

1 2 3 4

888 888 888 8885 5 5 5

______

(A) 1

8886

(B) 888 (C) 3554 (D) None of these

45. The average of A, B and C is 10. If the average of A and B is 11 and that of B and C is 14. Find the

value of B? (A) 18 (B) 20 (C) 36 (D) None of these


15



SECTION – II (PHYSICS)

1. Two bodies are said to be in thermal or equilibrium if (A) there is a heat flow between them (B) both of them lose equal amounts of heat to the atmosphere (C) there is no heat flow between them (D) none of these 2. The unit of specific heat is (A) cal °C (B) cal / g°C (C) cal / g (D) °C 3. Fahrenheit scale divides two fixed points into (A) 180 parts (B) 212 parts (C) 100 parts (D) 273 parts 4. The movement of water being heated in a pot on a stove is an example of (A) conduction (B) convection (C) radiation (D) condensation 5. Water evaporates under atmospheric pressure without changing the temperature, the same water is

placed under partial vacuum. The rate of evaporation will (A) increase (B) drop to zero (C) decrease (D) remains unaffected. 6. A thermometer is used to measure (A) heat (B) thermal capacity (C) water equivalent (D) temperature 7. Absolute zero temperature corresponds to (A) –273 K (B) 273 K (C) 0 K (D) –100°C 8. Steam at 100°C causes more severe burns than water at the same temperature because (A) Steam is a gas (B) Steam cannot do work (C) Steam can provide more neat (D) steam is highly combustible 9. –40°F on absolute scale is equal to (A) 0 K (B) 233 K (C) 273 K (D) 313 K 10. When the temperature of water rises, the rate of evaporation (A) increases (B) decreases (C) remains the same (D) first decreases the increases 11. A piece of ice at 0°C is added to a vessel containing water at 0°C, then (A) all the ice will melt (B) some ice will melt (C) no ice will melt (D) the temperature will decrease further 12. When we cool a gas below is condensation point, the KE of its molecules (A) increases (B) decreases (C) remains the same (D) first increases then decreases 13. In hot water bottles, water is used because (A) its specific heat is low (B) its specific heat is high (C) it is cheap (D) it is easily available 14. The temperature of water at the bottom of a large waterfall is higher than that of the water at the

top, because (A) the falling water absorbs heat from sun. (B) the KE of the falling water is converted into heat. (C) the water at the bottom has greater PE. (D) rocks on the bed of the river give out heat.

15. The unit of thermal capacity is (A) cal/°C (B) cal /g (C) cal/g/°C (D) none of these

16



SECTION – III (CHEMISTRY) 1. Which of the following type of medicine is used for treating indigestion? (A) antibiotic (B) analgesic (C) antacid (D) antiseptic 2. Which of the following is not an organic acid? (A) acetic acid (B) sulphuric acid (C) formic acid (D) citric acid 3. The substance can turn blue litmus to red is (A) milk of magnesia (B) baking soda solution (C) lemon juice (D) calamine solution 4. Wool is obtained from the animals that grow long lustrous hairs like: (A) Angora goat (B) Angora rabbit (C) Cashmere goat (D) all of them 5. The wool of Merion sheep belongs to (A) medium wool (B) long wool (C) carpet wool (D) fine wool 6. The process of removing the vegetable matter like seeds and burrs form wool is known as (A) carding (B) roving (C) crimp (D) carbonizing 7. The composition of wool fibre has elements (A) C, N, O and H (B) C, N, O, H and S (C) C, N, S and O (D) C, N, O and S 8. The acid present in tea is (A) lactic (B) tannic (C) tartaric (D) citric 9. Find the odd one out (A) Wool (B) Polyester (C) Silk (D) Cotton 10. Cocoons are prepared from silk worms at which of the following stage of its life cycle? (A) Larva (B) Pupa (C) Nymph (D) Adult 11. The pH of an orange juice is (A) Between 0-7 (B) Equal to 7 (C) More than 7 (D) None of these 12. The egg of silk worm are stored in (A) Wooden box (B) Metal box (C) Strips of cloth (D) Plastic box 13. Which of the following parts swing side to side in the form of during the formation of cocoon around

the caterpillar? (A) Head moves (B) Neck moves (C) Abdomen moves (D) Thorax moves 14. On body of sheep the hair part of fleece is called (A) Kemp (B) Camp (C) Fibre part (D) None of these 15. Which type of wool is common in Tibet and Ladhak? (A) Yak wool (B) Angora wool (C) Sheep wool (D) Pashmina wool


17



SECTION – IV (BIOLOGY) 1. Acidic medium of stomach is maintained by (A) sulphuric acid (B) oxalic acid (C) citric acid (D) hydrochloric acid 2. Thylakoids occur in (A) Mitochondria (B) Chloroplasts (C) Golgi appratus (D) ER 3. Human saliva contain ptyalin which digest:- (A) lipids (B) glycerol (C) lactose (D) starch 4. The walls of large intestine absorb: (A) Water (B) Proteins (C) Roughage (D) None of these 5. Which cycle in plants reduces CO2 to form sugar? (A) Kreb cycle (B) Urea cycle (C) Calvin cycle (D) Citric acid cycle 6. Water is transported from roots to leaves through: (A) Xylem (B) Phloem (C) Cortex (D) Epidermis 7. The hardest constituent of tooth is: (A) Bone (B) Dentine (C) Enamel (D) Pulp 8. The gastric juice contains protein splitting enzymes namely: (A) Pepsin and Trypsin (B) Pepsin and Amylase (C) Pepsin and Rennin (D) Trypsin and Amylase 9. The tiny pores present in the leaves of the plants for exchange of gases are called: (A) Stomata (B) Trachea (C) Chloroplast (D) Spiracles 10. Amarbel (Cuscuta) is an example of (A) Autotroph (B) Parasite (C) Saprotroph (D) Host 11. The pointed teeth which are required for tearing are called: (A) Incisors (B) Canines (C) Premolars (D) Molars 12. Which of the following is incorrect? (A) Saprotrophic organisms depend on dead and decaying organisms. (B) Mushroom is saprotrophic (C) Saprotrops generally do not contain chlorophyll (D) Saprotrophic nutrition involves intracellular digestion 13. Which of the following is not a part of nutrition? (A) Digestion (B) Excretion (C) Assimilation (D) Absorption 14. Enzymes required for starch digestion in humans are secreted by (A) Mouth and pancrease (B) Mouth and stomach (C) Mouth and liver (D) Mouth and intestine

15. Which of the following is an insectivorous plant? (A) Venus fly trap (B) Parkinsonia (C) Wolffia (D) Epipogium

18



FIITJEE COMMON TEST

for


PHASE – I

SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE Test QP CODE: XXXX.0

SET – A

ANSWERS SECTION – I (MATHEMATICS)

1. C 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. B 6. A 7. D 8. D 9. B 10. A 11. B 12. C 13. B 14. A 15. B 16. A 17. A 18. D 19. B 20. C 21. D 22. A 23. D 24. B 25. C 26. A 27. A 28. C 29. C 30. D 31. B 32. B 33. C 34. A 35. C 36. A 37. B 38. A 39. A 40. D 41. C 42. B 43. C 44. C 45. B

SECTION – II (PHYSICS) 1. C 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. A 6. D 7. C 8. C 9. B 10. A 11. C 12. B 13. B 14. B 15. A

SECTION – III (CHEMISTRY) 1. C 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. D 6. D 7. B 8. B 9. B 10. A 11. A 12. A 13. A 14. A 15. B

SECTION – IV (BIOLOGY) 1. D 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. C 6. A 7. C 8. C 9. A 10. B 11. B 12. D 13. B 14. A 15. A

19



FIITJEE COMMON TEST

for


PHASE – I Mental Ability Test (MAT)

QP CODE: XXXX.0

SET - A

Time: 90 Minutes Maximum Marks: 90 Please read the instructions carefully.

INSTRUCTIONS

Directions (1-20): Find the missing number in the series given below: 1. 1, 3, 7, 13, 21, 31, 43, ? (A) 55 (B) 57 (C) 59 (D) 61

A: General :

1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball point

pen.

2. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer

Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.

3. Darken the appropriate bubbles with HB Pencil only.

4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and

electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed.

5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS) is provided separately.

6. Do not Tamper/mutilate the ORS or this booklet.

7. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work

8. On completion of this test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test

Booklet with them.

B: Questions paper format and Marking Scheme :

1. The question paper consists of 90 questions.

2. For each question you will be awarded 1 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the

correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles is darkened. No Negative Mark will be awarded.

Enrollment No. : Batch : Name :

Candidate’s Signature Invigilator’s Signature:

20



2. 10, 33, 102, 309, ? (A) 1030 (B) 1050 (C) 928 (D) 930 3. 3, 11, 23, 39, ? (A) 58 (B) 59 (C) 60 (D) 61 4. 0, 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 21, ? (A) 34 (B) 35 (C) 33 (D) 36 5. 17, 43, 81, 131, ? (A) 375 (B) 468 (C) 300 (D) 193 6. 6, 42, ?, 1260 , 5040, 15120, 30240 (A) 546 (B) 424 (C) 252 (D) 328 7. 15, 17, 20, 22, 27, 29, ?, ? (A) 31, 28 (B) 36, 38 (C) 36, 43 (D) 38, 45 8. 4, 18, ?, 100, 180, 294 (A) 32 (B) 36 (C) 48 (D) 40 9. 3, 5, 7, ?, 13, 17, 19, 23 (A) 9 (B) 11 (C) 8 (D) 10 10. 4, 9, 20, 43, ? (A) 90 (B) 84 (C) 96 (D) 95 11. 20, 29, 38, 47, ? (A) 59 (B) 56 (C) 52 (D) 58


21



12. DF, GJ, KM, NP, RT, ? (A) UW (B) YZ (C) XZ (D) UW 13. PMT, OOS, NQR, MSQ, ? (A) LUP (B) LVP (C) LVR (D) LWP 14. ABD, DGK, HMS, MTB, SBL, ? (A) XKW (B) ZAB (C) ZKU (D) ZKW

15. NOA, PQB, RSC, ? (A) TUD (B) DTU (C) ENO (D) FNQ

16. DFI, KMP, ?, YAD (A) QSV (B) RTW (C) SUX (D) RTU 17. CFL, EIK, GLJ, IOI, ? (A) KRH (B) KRJ (C) IRU (D) KOV 18. EDBA, KJHG, QPNM, ? (A) ZXUV (B) WVTS (C) KIGS (D) QOMK 19. AYBZC, DWEXF, GUHVI, JSKTL, ? (A) MQORN (B) MQNRO (C) NQMOR (D) QMONR 20. ABCDEFZYXWVUABCDEZYXWVUABCDZYXWV? (A) U (B) A (C) B (D) Z


22



Directions (21-30): In each of the following questions, continuous pattern series is given. Some of the letter of the series is given. Some of the letter of the series are missing. Find the missing term. 21. adb_ac_da_cddcb_dbc_cbda (A) bccba (B) cbbaa (C) ccbba (D) bbcad 22. b_acbda_bd_cb_a_ (A) baadc (B) dcadc (C) cbdca (D) cdacb 23. ab_d_bc_a_c_ab_d (A) cadbdc (B) cabbcd (C) abbcdd (D) caddbc 24. a_a_abab_ba_ (A) abab (B) baab (C) abba (D) bbab 25. a_cdaab_cc_daa_bbb_ccddd (A) bdbda (B) bddca (C) abdcb (D) bbdac 26. _A_A_ _BAB_B_BABA (A) BBABAA (B) BBBAAA (C) ABABBA (D) BBAABB 27. abc_ea_ _dd_bcc_ _ (A) bbbbb (B) abbbb (C) dcbbb (D) None of these 28. ab_d_ _b_dm_ _x (A) abmdx (B) xmaxab (C) axdbm (D) abxmd 29. xyzu_yz_v_ _uv_ _ (A) uvxyzu (B) vuxzxy (C) vuvzyx (D) zvuxyz 30. r_ttp_ s_tp_s_ _ (A) rstqp (B) tsrqp (C) rstpq (D) none of these


23



Directions (31 to 40): In each series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number. 31. 87, 54, 28, 13, 5, 2, 2 (A) 28 (B) 54 (C) 13 (D) 2 32. 22, 37, 52, 67, 84, 97 (A) 52 (B) 84 (C) 97 (D) 67 33. 10, 41, 94, 1624, 2516, 3625 (A) 1624 (B) 2516 (C) 3625 (D) 4936 34. 258, 130, 66, 34, 18, 8, 6 (A) 130 (B) 66 (C) 34 (D) 8 35. 2, 5, 11, 27, 58, 121, 248 (A) 5 (B) 11 (C) 27 (D) 58 36. 1, 2, 6, 21, 86, 445, 2676 (A) 2 (B) 6 (C) 21 (D) 86 37. 864, 420, 200, 96, 40, 16, 6 (A) 420 (B) 200 (C) 96 (D) 40 38. 6072, 1008, 200, 48, 14, 5, 3 (A) 1008 (B) 200 (C) 48 (D) 14 39. 2, 6, 12, 27, 58, 121, 248 (A) 12 (B) 27 (C) 6 (D) 2 40. 7, 10, 12, 14, 17, 19, 22, 22 (A) 10 (B) 12 (C) 14 (D) 19


24



Directions (41 – 43): Read the following statements and find the answer of the question that follows. A B means „A is the father of B‟. A * B means „A is the sister of B‟. A + B means „A is the brother of B‟. A – B means „A is the mother of B‟. A B means „A is the son of B‟. A = B means „A is the daughter of B‟. 41. Which of the following means X is the grandfather of Y?

(A) X Z Y (B) Y Z X (C) Z X Y (D) X Y Z 42. Which of the following means Y is the mother of X and Z?

(A) X Y Z (B) Y X Z (C) Y X Z (D) Y X Z 43. Which of the following means Z is the grandson of Y?

(A) Z X Y (B) Z X Y (C) Y X Z (D) Z X Y

44. 6 6 6 .... is equal to

(A) 2 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 3 45. Of three numbers, the second is thrice the first and the third number is three-fourth of the first. If the

average of the three numbers is 114, the largest number is (A) 72 (B) 216 (C) 354 (D) 726 46. Pointing to a photograph of a boy Suresh said, "He is the son of the only son of my mother." How is

Suresh related to that boy? (A) Brother (B) Uncle (C) Cousin (D) Father 47. If A + B means A is the mother of B; A - B means A is the brother B; A % B means A is the father of

B and A x B means A is the sister of B, which of the following shows that P is the maternal uncle of Q?

(A) Q - N + M x P (B) P + S x N – Q (C) P - M + N x Q (D) Q - S % P 48. If A is the brother of B; B is the sister of C; and C is the father of D, how D is related to A? (A) Brother (B) Sister (C) Nephew (D) Cannot be determined 49. If A + B means A is the brother of B; A - B means A is the sister of B and A x B means A is the

father of B Which of the following means that C is the son of M? (A) M - N x C + F (B) F - C + N x M (C) N + M - F x C (D) M x N - C + F


25



50. Introducing a boy, a girl said, "He is the son of the daughter of the father of my uncle." How is the

boy related to the girl? (A) Brother (B) Nephew (C) Uncle (D) Son-in-law 51. Pointing to a photograph Lata says, "He is the son of the only son of my grandfather." How is the

man in the photograph related to Lata? (A) Brother (B) Uncle (C) Cousin (D) Data is inadequate 52. If A + B means A is the brother of B; A x B means A is the son of B; and A % B means B is the

daughter of A then which of the following means M is the maternal uncle of N? (A) M + O x N (B) M % O x N + P (C) M + O % N (D) None of these 53. If D is the brother of B, how B is related to C? To answer this question which of the statements

is/are necessary? 1. The son of D is the grandson of C. 2. B is the sister of D. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Either 1 or 2 (D) 1 and 2 both are required Directions (54 – 57) : A is son of B; C, B‟s sister has a son D and a daughter E; F is the maternal uncle of

D. 54. How is A related to D? (A) Nephew (B) Cousin (C) Uncle (D) Brother 55. How is F related to E? (A) Brother (B) Maternal uncle (C) Nephew (D) Paternal uncle 56. How many nephews does F have? (A) Nil (B) Two (C) Three (D) One 57. How is E related to F? (A) Sister (B) Daughter (C) Wife (D) Niece


26



Directions (58 – 61) : A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight members of a family. B is the only son of A. D has two children and is the wife of B. The siblings are of different sex. G is the husband of F. B‟s son is married and has a son H. 58. How is B related to G? (A) Father (B) Father-in-law (C) Mother (D) Son-in-law 59. Who is the son of B and D? (A) E (B) C (C) F (D) Cannot be determined 60. How is D related to A? (A) Daughter (B) Granddaughter (C) Daughter-in-law (D) Grandson 61. How is D related to H? (A) Grandmother (B) Grandfather (C) Mother (D) Daughter-in-law

62. If A means „×‟ B means „‟ C means „–‟ and D means „+‟, then 4 D 16 A 5 B 8 C 5 = ? (A) 9 (B) 16 (C) 13 (D) 7.5 63. Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace * signs and to balance the following

equation: 8 * 8 * 1 * 7 = 8

(A) × + (B) + × (C) × + (D) + × 64. If 4 – 4 = 12, 6 – 6 =30, 2 – 2 =2, then 8 – 8 =? (A) 8 (B) 38 (C) 56 (D) 16

65. 4 × 6 × 2 = 351, 3 × 4 × 8 = 237, 9 × 5 × 6 = ? (A) 270 (B) 845 (C) 546 (D) 659

66. 9 * 7 = 32, 13 * 7 = 120, 17 * 9 = 208, 19*11 = ? (A) 64 (B) 160 (C) 240 (D) 210


27



67. 16(27)43, 29(?)56, 36(12)48 (A) 23 (B) 33 (C) 27 (D) 37 68. If 73 + 82 = 14, 91 + 21 = 11, then 86 + 24 = ? (A) 9 (B) 62 (C) 8 (D) 6 69. If 264 * 2 = 6, 870 * 3 = 11, then 735 * 5 = ? (A) 05 (B) 12 (C) 16 (D) 03 70. If 2463 = 36 and 5552 = 30 then 6732 = ? (A) 32 (B) 36 (C) 34 (D) 39 Directions:- Q. No. (71 -80). Find the missing number.

71. 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, _______ (A) 12 (B) 13 (C) 14 (D) 15 72. 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, _______, 49 (A) 28 (B) 30 (C) 34 (D) 36 73. 4, 9, 14, 19, _____, 29 (A) 23 (B) 24 (C) 25 (D) 26 74. 1, 8, 27, _____, 125 (A) 40 (B) 44 (C) 64 (D) 72 75. 12, 24, 36, 48, ______, 72 (A) 58 (B) 60 (C) 62 (D) 64 76. 6, 8, 18, 16, 24, ?, 30

(A) 20 (B) 22 (C) 24 (D) 25

77. 3 8 18 33

?4 10 22 40

(A) 25

24 (B)

35

48 (C)

45

58 (D)

53

64

78. 1 1 2 2

11 12 14 16 ?9 2 7 3

(A) 1

83

(B) 1

92

(C) 20 (D) 10

79. Which of the following choices is not the number of the series :

1 8 27 64 125 ?

(A) 256 (B) 512 (C) 729 (D) 1000

80. 2 4 3 9 ? 16

(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 12

Directions:- Q. No. (81). the terms have been arranged in some order. One term is missing find the missing term out of the given five alternatives?

81. cx, fu, ir, ?, ol, ri

(A) lo (B) mn (C) no (D) cp

28




29



Directions (82 – 85): A family has six persons A, B, C, D, E and F. There are four males and two females in the family. A has two sons and is married to C. One of the sons of A is married and has a son F. B is the mother of F. C is the mother of E. 82. How if F related to A? (A) Father (B) Son (C) Grandson (C) can‟t say 83. Which two persons are siblings? (A) D and E (B) D and B (C) E and B (D) A and B 84. How is B related to A? (A) Daughter (B) Niece (C) Daughter –in-law (D) Can‟t say 85. How if F related to D? (A) Son (B) Nephew (C) Niece (D) Can‟t say 86. If 5 * 3 = 16, 9 * 8 = 73 and 6 * 7 = 43, then 7 * 8 = ? (A) 72 (B) 58 (C) 85 (D) 57

87. If = 12, = 15, O = 3 and = 6 then O =?

(A) O (B) (C) (D)

88. If 2 = 6, 4 = 12 and 8 = 24 then 10 = ? (A) 30 (B) 20 (C) 15 (D) 27 89. If 4 – 4 = 17, 6 – 6 = 37, 2 – 2 = 5, 5 – 5 = ? (A) 27 (B) 26 (C) 20 (D) 24 90. 10(150)15, 14(224)16, 13(?)15 (A) 205 (B) 195 (C) 178 (D) 197


30



FIITJEE COMMON TEST

for


PHASE – I Mental Ability Test (MAT)

QP CODE: XXXX.0

SET - A

ANSWERS

1. B 2. D 3. B 4. A 5. D 6. C 7. B 8. C 9. B 10. A 11. B 12. D 13. A 14. D 15. A 16. B 17. A 18. B 19. B 20. A 21. B 22. B 23. A 24. D 25. D 26. B 27. D 28. B 29. B 30. D 31. B 32. B 33. A 34. D 35. B 36. D 37. C 38. A 39. C 40. D 41. A 42. C 43. D 44. D 45. A 46. D 47 C 48. D 49. D 50. A 51. A 52. D 53. D 54. A 55. D 56. B 57. D 58. B 59. D 60. C 61. A 62. A 63. C 64. C 65. B 66. C 67. C 68. C 69. B 70. A 71. D 72. A 73. B 74. D 75. B 76. B 77. B 78. A 79. C 80. D 81. A 82. C 83. A 84. C 85. D 86. D 87. D 88. A 89. B 90. B

31



FIITJEE COMMON TEST

for Class –VII (UTYCRP 1618 A LOT Batches)

NN SS EE JJ SS SSEETT –– AA

(PHASE – II)

Time: 1.30 Hours Maximum Marks: 180

A. Question Paper Format 1. The question paper consists of 4 parts (Physics -Section-I, Chemistry - Section-II, Mathematics- Section-III

and Biology- IV) and each part consists of four sections.

2. Each Section contains 15 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its

answer, out of which only one is correct.

B. Marking scheme:

1. For each question in Section I, II, & III, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble

corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1)

mark will be awarded.

Enrolment No. :

Name : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Batch : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Date:. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

Paper Code

32



Useful Data Chemistry:

Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol

1

= 0.0821 Lit atm K1 mol

1

= 1.987 2 Cal K1 mol

1

Avogadro's Number Na = 6.023 1023

Planck‟s Constant h = 6.626 10–34

Js

= 6.25 x 10-27

erg.s

1 Faraday = 96500 Coulomb

1 calorie = 4.2 Joule

1 amu = 1.66 x 10-27

kg

1 eV = 1.6 x 10-19

J

Atomic No : H=1, D=1, Li=3, Na=11, K=19, Rb=37, Cs=55, F=9, Ca=20, He=2,

O=8,

Au=79.

Atomic Masses: He=4, Mg=24, C=12, O=16, N=14, P=31, Br=80, Cu=63.5, Fe=56,

Mn=55,

Pb=207,

Au=197, Ag=108, F=19, H=2, Cl=35.5, Sn=118.6

Useful Data Physics:

Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 2m/ s

33



SSSEEECCCTTTIIIOOONNN ––– III ::: PPPHHHYYYSSSIIICCCSSS

1. Region BC & DE represents

-5oC

A

0oC

100oC

Temperature

Heat

B

C

D

E

F

(A) melting & evaporation (B) fusion & temperature rise (C) evaporation & temperature rise (D) all of these

2. Condensation is reverse process of (A) vaporisation (B) fusion (C) freeze (D) all of these

3. Specific heat capacity of water is 4200 J kg-1

oC

-1. The same in CGS system will be

(A) 2 cal g-1

oC

-1 (B) 3 cal g

-1 oC

-1 (C) 3 cal g

-1 oC

-1 (D) none of these

4. One degree interval on centigrade scale is equivalent to

(A) o9

F & 1K5

(B) o9

1 F & K5

(C) o o9

1 F & K5

(D) o o9

F& 1 K5

5. Normal temperature of human body is 37oC. Find this temperature in

oF & K.

(A) 98 oF & 300

oK (B) 98.6

oF & 310 K (C) 310

oF & 98

oK (D) all of these

6. Out of excitement a cricketer throws a ball in air up & reaches it after 4 sec. Its initial speed was (A) 9.8 ms

-1 (B) 19.8 ms

-1 (C) 19.6 ms

-1 (D) none of these

7. A student goes school with 40 kmh-1

in 1 hr stay there for 6 hrs. Then he came back with 40 kmh-1

in 1 hr. Find his average speed & average velocity.

(A) 10 kmh-1

, 0 kmh-1

(B) 0 kmh-1

, 10 kmh-1

(C) 10 kmh-1

, 10 kmh-1

(D) 0 kmh-1

, 0 kmh-1

Space for rough

work

34



s

t

s

ts

t

s

t

8. What will be its corresponding displacement time graph. v

t (A) (B)

(C) (D) 9. A driver is moving his car with constant speed of 45 kmh

-1. The brakes produce retardation of 1 ms

-2.

What will be his stopping distance (approximately)? (A) 80 m . (B) 70 m (C) 78 m (D) 60 m 10. 1 man walks 30 km North, 40 km East & then 60 km South. Find his displacement & distance (A) 130 km, 50 km (B) 50 km, 130 km (C) 80 km, 130 km (D) 100 km, 90 km 11. Speed of weak Tordano in (kmh

-1) is

(A) 60 (B) 300 (C) 700 (D) 1100 12. In India which coastal area is more vulnerable to cyclone. (A) East (B) West (C) North (D) South 13. Heavy rain falls during (A) earthquake (B) lighting (C) cyclone (D) tsunami 14. Barometer, thermometer, speedometer & odometer are used to measure these quantities respectively. (A) pressure, temperature, speed, distance (B) pressure, speed, distance, temperature

(C) distance, temperature, speed, pressure (D) all of these 15. Tsunami is a tidal wave came from which language (A) Hindi (B) English (C) Urdu (D) Japanese


35



SSSEEECCCTTTIIIOOONNN ––– IIIIII ::: CCCHHHEEEMMMIIISSSTTTRRRYYY

(Single Correct Answer Type) This section contains 15 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. Among the following which one change the colour of Turmeric powder

(A) Lemon Juice (B) Milk of Magnesia (C) Vinegar (D) Sugar Syrup

2. An acid is a substance___________

(A) Sour in taste (B) Gives proton in aqueous solution

(C) May react with active metal to give hydrogen (D) All of these

3. About neutralization reaction which one is essentially true:-

(A) Evolution of gas (B) Evolution of Heat (C) Formation of water (D) change in colour

4. Among the following which one is not an example of base

(A) Milk of magnesia (B) Lunar caustic (C) Aniline (D) Alum

5. Which of the following is not an example of Neutralization reaction.

(A) Calcium oxide + Nitric acid (B) Calcium oxide + Hydrochloric acid

(C) Sodium Hydroxide + Sulphuric Acid (D) Sodium chloride + Silver Nitrate

6.

Substance Acid Present

A Tamarind P Oxalic

B Curd Q Lactic

C Spinach R Formic

D Amla S Tartaric

E Ant sting T Ascorbic

The correct match base on above table.

(A) A – P, B – Q, C – R, D – S, E – T (B) A – S, B – Q, C – S, D – T, E - Q

(C) A – S, B – Q, C – P, D – T, E – R (D) A – R, B – Q, C – T, D – P, E – S

Space for rough

work

36



7. Which of the following is chemical change

(A) Melting (B) Sublimation (C) Evaporation (D) Neutralization

8. Chemical change can be best defined by.

(A) Evolution of heat during change

(B) Change in colour

(C) Consumption of any substance to produce another substance

(D) Change of state

9. Which of the following activity is expected as chemical change.

(A) Quenching of quick lime

(B) Iron Nail in copper sulphate solution

(C) Heating of blue vitriol at 1000C for some time

(D) Copper metal dipped in dilute hydrochloric acid

10. Which of the following physical change is not reversible

(A) Melting of Ice (B) Torning of paper

(C) Dehydration of Blue vitriol (D) Sublimation of Iodine

11. Which one is considered as chemical property of the substance involving chemical change.

(A) Testing sugar (B) Sublimation (C) Melting Ice (D) None of these

12. Evolution of Heat account for the following

(A) Only Physical change (B) Only Chemical Change

(C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of these

13. The process involve both physical and chemical change.

(A) Dissolution of sugar in water (B) Burning of Coal

(C) Burning of candle (D) None of these

14. Which of the following is chemical change

(A) Twinkling of Stars (B) Cooking of vegetable

(C) Boiling of Water (D) Cutting of fruits

15. Some process is given

(i) Photo synthesis (ii) Making sugar syrup

(iii) Burning of coal (iv) Melting of wax

(v) Beating aluminium sheet to make foil (vi) Digestion of food

Now the correct combination for chemical change is.

(A) I, II, III, IV (B) I, III, VI (C) II, III, V, VI (D) I, III, V, VI


37



SSSEEECCCTTTIIIOOONNN ––– IIIIIIIII ::: MMMAAATTTHHHEEEMMMAAATTTIIICCCSSS


1. From the given figure find the value of x if y = 2x

80o

x y

(A) 100

3 (B)

25

3 (C)

32

3 (D) none of these

2. The bisectors of any pair of corresponding angles are ….. when a pair of parallel lines are intersected

by a transversal in two distinct points. (A) parallel (B) intersecting (C) non-parallel (D) none of these

3. Which of the following is incorrect for the given figure.

2 1

3 4

6 5

7 8

p

l

m

(A) 1 + 2 = 180

o (B) 2 + 3 = 1 + 4 = 6 + 7

(C) 3 + 8 = 180o (D) 1 = 8


38



4. Three persons A, B and C are sitting on the circumference of the circle at equal distances forming a triangle inside the circle. Find the angle subtend by side BC at the centre of the circle. (A) 150 (B) 120 (C) 60 (D) none of these

5. In the given figure, the arrangement of sides in ascending order is

xc

A

B Ca

b

x + 10 70

(A) c > b > a (B) b > c > a (C) a > c > b (D) none of these

6. In the given figure 1: 2 4 : 5 . Find 2 4 6 8 1 3 5 7

2 1

3 4

6 5

7 8

p

l

m


7. In the given figure CO and BO are the bisectors of exterior angles and interior angles ABC. The measure of angle BOC is

A

BC D

120o

O

80o

(A) 20

o (B) 30

o (C) 50

o (D) none of these


39



8. For a triangle ABC, 5A = 3B and B = 5C, find the value of 3 times the largest angle. (A) 75

o (B) 150

o (C) 250

o (D) 300

o

9. If x = 2 and y = 4, then

x y y xx y

y x

is

(A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 12 (D) 2

10. If n5 125 , then n 645

(A) 25 (B) 1

125

(C) 625 (D) 1

5

11. The temperature at 12 noon was 10

oC above zero. If it decreases at the rate of 2

oC per hour until

midnight at what time would the temperature be 8oC below zero?

(A) 9 pm (B) 10 pm (C) 11 pm (D) none of these

12. A rectangular sheet of paper is 1

122

cm long and 2

103

cm wide. Its area in square m is

(A) 21

m75

(B) 21

m90

(C) 21

m105

(D) none of these

13. If x1, x2, x3, x4, …. xn are the n different observations of data and N, a positive real number is subtracted

from each observations, the new mean will differ by

(A) N

2 (B) N (C) N – 2 (D) none of these

14. Fill in the blank place.

Mode = ….. Median − 2 Mean (A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) none of these

15. If , are the possible solutions of the equation 2x 5 10 then + =



40



SSSEEECCCTTTIIIOOONNN ––– IIIVVV ::: BBBIIIOOOLLLOOOGGGYYY


1. Trachea of man is made up of

(A) Bone (B) Cartilage (C) Muscles (D) Phospholipid

2. During anaerobic respiration done by yeast how many ATP is formed from one molecule of

glucose.

(A) 38 (B) 42 (C) 2 (D) None

3. During night oxygen enters in mature plant through

(A) Stomata (B) Lenticel (C) Both (D) None

4. The swollen part of trachea in man which you can see from outside is

(A) Pharynx (B) Adams apple (C) Oesophagus (D) None

5. Aerobic respiration takes place in two phases. Its first phase which occurs in cytoplasm is called as

(A) Glycolysis (B) Krebs cycle (C) Calvin cycle (D) Meiosis

6. Anaerobic respiration done by lower plants are also called as

(A) Pasteurisation (B) Fermentation

(C) Artificial Insemination (D) Cryopreservation

7. Which of the following is a respiratory disease

(A) Emphysema (B) Asthama (C) Bronchitis (D) All of above

8. Which organism has longer intestine

(A) Herbivorous (B) Carnivorous (C) Parasites (D) All of the above

9. Haemoglobin contains which element in abundance

(A) Iron (B) Mg (C) Ca (D) Cu


41



10. Which part of the Gut secrets HCl

(A) Oesophagus (B) Stomach (C) Small Intestine (D) Colon

11. Photolysis of water takes place in

(A) Light reaction (B) Dark reaction

(C) Glycolysis (D) None

12. Which of the following is not an element of weather?

(A) Humidity (B) Temperature (C) Soil (D) Rain

13. Which of the following is an adaptation for cold climates?

(A) Thick fur (B) Long ear (C) Sweating gland (D) Light bones

14. The special features and habits of an animal survive in its environment are known as

(A) Evolution (B) Adaptation (C) Polymorphism (D) Hibernation

15. Long inactivity and metabolic depression of animals during winter is called.

(A) Aestivation (B) Hibernation

(C) Migration (D) Evolution


42



FFIIIITTJJEEEE CCOOMMMMOONN TTEESSTT

UTYCRP (1618) A LOT Batches

PHASE – II

NNSSEEJJSS SSEETT –– AA

ANSWERS KEY

Physics [SECTION-I]

1. A 2. A 3. C 4. A 5. B 6. C 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. B 11. A 12. A 13. C 14. A 15. D

Chemistry [SECTION-II]

1. B 2. D 3. B 4. D 5. D 6. C 7. D 8. C 9. B 10. B 11. A 12. C 13. C 14. B 15. B

Mathematics [SECTION-III]

1. A 2. A 3. D 4. B 5. A 6. C 7. D 8. D 9. B 10. A 11. A 12. A 13. B 14. A 15. A

Biology [SECTION-IV] 1. B 2. A 3. C 4. A 5. B 6. B 7. B 8. C 9. B 10. B 11. A 12. B 13. D 14. B 15. A

Paper Code

43



FIITJEE COMMON TEST

UUTTYYCCRRPP 11661188 AA LLOOTT BBaattcchheess NN SS EE JJ SS

PHASE –II

SET – A SOLUTION

Physics [SECTION-I]

4. C 0 F 32 K 273

100 180 100

C F K

5 9 5

oC F 1 F 9

F F5 9 5 9 5

C K

5 5

K 1

5. C 0 F 32 37 F 32

F 98.6F100 180 5 9

K C 273 37 273 310K

6. flight2U

T 4g

1U 2g 19.6ms

7. (A) average speed = 180

10kmh8

(B) average velocity = 0

08

9. 15

u 45 12.5ms18

v = 0

a = − 1

2u 12.5 12.5

s 78.125m2a 2

10.

44



30 km

40 km

60 km

A B

C

Origin

N

S

W E

distance = OA + AB + BC = 130 km

displacement = shortest distance between final & initial point

displacement = 2 230 40 50 km

45



Mathematics [SECTION-III] 1. Vertically opposite angles and angle sum property of a triangle. 2.

4.

A

B C

60o

O

120o

5. x + x + 10

o + 70

o = 180

o

o

o

2x 180 80

x 50

C B A

c b a

6. 4x + 5x = 180 (Linear pair)

o

9x 180

180x 20

9

7. BOC = 1

BAC2

8. A : B : C 3 : 5 :1

o

o o

3x 5x x 180

9x 180 x 20

9.

2 4 4 22 4

5 2

2

2

2 2

12

2

2 2 8

10. n

25 125 n 6

46



11. temperature difference = 10oC – (−8

oC)

= 18oC

12. 1 cm2 = 2

1m

100 100

13. If each observation is deviated by a certain number, the mean to gets deviated by the same. 14. Mode = 3 median – 2 mean

15. 15

2x 5 102

5

2x 5 10 2x 5 x2

15 5 10

52 2 2

FIITJEE COMMON TEST

for Class –VII (UTYCRP 1618 A LOT Batches)

PHASE TEST – II QP CODE:

Time : 1 ½ hours Maximum Marks : 90

Scholastic Aptitude Test SET – A

INSTRUCTIONS The question paper consists of 90 multiple choice questions divided into four sections.

Section – I contains 45 questions of Mathematics.

Section – II contains 15 questions of Physics.

Section – III contains 15 questions of Chemistry.

Section – IV contains 15 questions of Biology.

Each question carries +1 marks.

There is No negative marking.

47



Attempt All questions.

Use of Calculator is NOT PERMITTED.

All symbols have their usual meanings, if not mentioned in the question.

The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough work.

No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.

This booklet also contains OMR answer sheet.

Name of the Candidate : ……………….………………………………….. Enrollment Number :…………………………………………………….

48



Section – I Mathematics

1. In the given figure „l‟ and „m‟ are two lines intersecting each other. The bisectors of 1 and 3 are OL

and OM respectively. Which of them is a true statement?

l m

23

4 O1

(A) L, O, M collinear (B) L, M, O non-collinear

(C) LO and MO perpendicular (D) none of these

2. Ray OC

stands on a line AB

such that adjacent-angles are one third and half of a constant „K‟. Find

the value of K.

A B

C

O (A) 256

o (B) 220

o (C) 216

o (D) none of these

3. The complement and supplement of an angle are such that the complement is 5

14 times its

supplement. The angle is

(A) 40o (B) 60

o (C) 70

o (D) none of these

4. Three sides of a triangle are produced in order. The exterior angles so formed is each equal to one-

another. What kind of triangle is formed?

(A) isosceles triangle (B) scalene triangle (C) equilateral triangle (D) none of these

5. The angle formed by the bisectors of a linear pair of angles is

(A) right-angle (B) acute angle (C) obtuse angle (D) reflex angle


49



6. Which of the following is a correct statement about a triangle

(A) a triangle has two right angles (B) a triangle has two obtuse angles

(C) a triangle has two supplementary angles (D) sum of one third of each-angle is 60o

7. From the given figure. Find the value of 1

y z3

P

z

yy/3m

(A) 135

o (B) 60

o (C) 120

o (D) none of these

8. The quadrilateral formed by joining the bisectors of interior-angles when two parallel lines are

intersected by a transversal is

(A) square (B) rectangle (C) rhombus (D) any quadrilateral

9. For an equilateral triangle 4 (Nos of medians) + 3 (nos of sides) = x times nos of vertices. Find the

value of x

(A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 9 (D) 10

10. In a triangle ABC, AD is the median such that area of triangle ABD is 40 cm2 then area of triangle ABC

is

(A) 40 cm2 (B) 80 cm

2 (C) 120 cm

2 (D) none of these

11. The altitudes of a triangle are concurrent. The point of concurrence is known as

(A) orthocenter (B) circumcenter (C) centroid (D) incentre

12. Name the triangle in which orthocentre, circumcentre, centroid and incentre are the same

(A) right angled triangle (B) obtuse angled triangle

(C) acute angled triangle (D) a triangles in which all the angles are equal


50



13. From the given figure find the complement of „x‟

A

BE C

120o

D70

o

40o

x

(A) 80

o (B) 10

o (C) 120

o (D) none of these

14. In the given figure CO and BO are the bisectors of ACD and ABC and triangle ABC is an equilateral

triangle. Find the measure of BOC.

A

B C D

O

(A) 40

o (B) 30

o (C) 50

o (D) none of these

15. Which of the following statements is incorrect for a triangle given as

A

B C

c b

a (A) a + b > c (B) c + a > b

(C) 1/2 perimeter of triangle ABC > b (D) 1/2 perimeter of triangle ABC < b

16. In the given figure, find the measure of (x + z)

A

B C D

xz

E

70

(A) 225

o (B) 250

o (C) 300

o (D) none of these


51



17. For a triangle ABC, A = 2B = 3C, then name the type of triangle ABC is

(A) right-angled triangle (B) acute angled triangle

(C) obtuse angled triangle (D) none of these

18. The sides of a triangle are consecutive positive integers such that the sum of squares of the two is

equal to the square of the third. The area of the triangle is

(A) 12 sq. units (B) 8 sq. units (C) 6 sq. units (D) none of these

19. A rectangle of length 40 cm and of diagonal 41 cm is constructed. Find the area of the square

described on its breadth

(A) 100 (B) 41 (C) 81 (D) 121

20. Find the difference in magnitude of perimeter and area of a rhombus whose diagonals are 16 cm and

30 cm.


21. The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 4 : 5 : 9 and the sides are three consecutive integers. The

length of longest side is


22. In an isosceles right triangle the bisectors of acute angles meet in a particular point O. Find the angle

subtended by the longest side at the point.

(A) 135o (B) 145

o (C) 130

o (D) none of these

23. Which of the following is not correct

(A) two lines segments of length 4 cm are always congruent

(B) a person and his image in plane mirror are congruent

(C) two equilateral triangle are always congruent

(D) two circles of the same radii are always congruent

24. In the given figure, ABC DEF , find EG

B

A C

3 4

5

E

DG

F

(A) 13

5 (B)

12

5 (C)

16

5 (D) none of these


52



25. In an isosceles triangle ABC, D is the midpoint of BC and B = 70o then CAD = ?

(A) 20o (B) 35

o (C) 40

o (D) none of these

26. Triangle ABC and triangle DEF are congruent to each other as shown in the given figure. Find a + b +

c.

A

B C

4 c

9

D

E F

a

b

10


27. ABC is a right triangle right angled at B, side AB is produced to point E such that AB = BE. The sides of

the triangle ABC are least possible positive integers. The length of CE is


28. ABC is an isosceles triangle. BL ⊥ AC, CM ⊥ AB. What about the relation between and .

A

B C

LM

(A) > (B) < (C) = (D) = + 2o

29. Two circles are congruent such that two chord AB and PQ of the corresponding circles are equal. What

is the relation between the angles X and Y respectively of the circles subtended by the respective

chords at the centre

(A) X = Y (B) X > y (C) X < Y (D) none of these


53



30. In the given figures ABC PQR. Find the value of (b + c – a).

A

B C

P

Q R

60o

b c

a

70o

(A) 60

o (B) 70

o (C) 90

o (D) none of these

31. ABC is a right angle triangle in which B = 90o. The midpoint M of side AC is at a distance of 5 cm from

vertex A. The length of BM is

(A) 5 cm (B) 6 cm (C) 7 cm (D) none of these

32. In a square ABCD diagonals intersect each other in point O. The area of triangle AOB is X. Find the

value of X if the area of the square is 400 cm2

(A) 200 cm2 (B) 100 cm

2 (C) 300 cm

2 (D) none of these

33. The sum of largest integer and smallest integer is

(A) 0 (B) −∞ (C) +∞ (D) none of these

34. Which of the following is correct

(A) integers are closed under multiplication (B) the integer 0 is the identity under multiplication

(C) division is associative for integers (D) subtraction is commutative for integers

35. A mad man moves forward a distance of 10 m and comes back 5 m every 3 minutes. How much time

he will take to travel a distance of 100 m.

(A) 1 hours (B) 80 minutes (C) 1.5 hours (D) none of these

36. The product of additive inverse of „−a‟ and multiplicative inverse of the same is

(A) 1 (B) −1 (C) a (D) 1/a

37. „a‟ and „b‟ are two different fractions reciprocal of each other. „c‟ and „d‟ are another pair of fractions

reciprocal of each other. Find the value of a b c d


38. Find the average of 1 1

,0.5 0.05

and 1

0.005

(A) 44 (B) 54 (C) 64 (D) 74


54



39. The median for first 10 natural numbers are

(A) 5 (B) 5.5 (C) 6 (D) 6.5

40. The mean of first n natural numbers is

(A) n2 (B) n(n + 1) (C)

n 1

2

(D) none of these

41. (Mode + Median) of the data: 13, 16, 12, 14, 19, 12, 14, 13, 14 is


42. Two coins are tossed simultaneously. Find the probability of getting the same faces

(A) 3

4 (B)

1

4 (C)

1

2 (D) none of these

43. A teacher has 45 chocolates. After giving two chocolates to each student, teacher is left with 7

chocolates. How many students are there in the class?


44. For the given pair of equations find the value of 2 2x y ,

3x + 5y = 21, 2x + 3y = 13

(A) 11 (B) 9 (C) 7 (D) 5

45. The co-ordinates of the point of intersection of the equations x = 5 and y = 3 are

(A) (3, 5) (B) (5, 3) (C) 5 3

,2 2

(D) 3

5,2


55



Section – II Physics

1. What is temperature of which Centigrade and Fahrenheit scale show same reading? (A) 40

o (B) – 40

o (C) 80

o (D) 100

o

2. In which way heat is transferred from sun to earth? (A) conduction (B) convection (C) radiation (D) none of these 3. Using the absolute temperature the temperature at which water has greatest density. (A) 273

o K (B) 273 K (C) 277

o K (D) 277 K

4. Latent heat of fusion of ice is 80 cal g

-1. What is heat required to melt 10 gram ice in Joules

(A) 800 joules (B) 8 joules (C) 3360 joules (D) 336 joules 5. Which element is used in thermos flask to avoid heat loss from radiation? (A) mercury (B) silver (C) both (D) none of these 6. The numerical ratio of speed to the velocity is (A) always less than one (B) always equal to one (C) equal to or more than one (D) equal to or less than one 7. It is given that acceleration is constant then distance is directly proportional to which power of time. (A) t

o (B) t

1 (C) t

2 (D) t

1/2

8. An elephant & a feather is dropped from same height which will fall earlier. (ignore air drag)

(A) elephant (B) feather (C) both at same time (D) none of these


56



9. A particle covers quarter of a circle then ratio of distance to the displacement is as

(A) 2

(B)

2

(C)

2 2

(D)

2

10. Tom is a cat & Jerry is a mouse. When Tom saw Jerry, then Jerry started running with 10 ms

-1. When

separation between them was 90 m. Tom started chasing at 25 ms-1

. In how much time Tom will catch Jerry?

(A) 10 sec (B) 9 sec (C) 3.6 sec (D) 6 sec 11. Cyclones are formed due to (A) pressure difference (B) temperature difference

(C) both (D) none of these 12. Amount of water vapour in a atmosphere is called (A) cyclone (B) storms (C) humidity (D) tornado 13. In cyclone prone-areas government should do (A) construction of cyclone shelter (B) transport arrangement to escape it

(C) medical and food storage in shelter (D) all of these

14. To escape from injury in thunder storm (A) sit inside car (B) sit inside building

(C) stay away from metal sheds & water bodies (D) all of these 15. Nose bleeding occur at high altitude due to (A) high pressure of air (B) low pressure of air (C) both (D) none of these


57



Section – III Chemistry

1. Among the following which one has not „ Sour‟ taste.

(A) Grape (B) Lemon (C) Orange (D) Beat

2. Indicator indicates Acid/base property by

(A) Change in state (B) Evolution of heat

(C) Change in colour (D) Change in Texture

3. Which one has lowest pH [more acidic] character in following

(A) Saliva (B) Blood (C) Sweat (D) Gastric Juice

4. Which salt is known as acid salt.

(A) Washing soda (B) Baking Soda (C) Soda ash (D) Caustic Soda

5. Which of the following natural substance used to defect both acidic and basic character after some

modification.

(A) Turmeric (B) Litchen (C) Hibiscus (D) Phenolphthalein

6. Formation of copper sulphate crystal from copper with concentrated sulpluric acid is chemical change

followed by physical process like

(P) Leaching (Q) Crystallization (R) Evaporation (S) Centrifugal separation

The correct sequence of process is.

(A) P → Q → R → S (B) P → R → Q → S (C) R → Q → P → S (D) S → R → Q → P

7. Which of the following metal does not undergoes any chemical change when kept open in air.

(A) Copper (B) Iron (C) Gold (D) Silver

8. A concentrated sugar solution is obtained by dissolving sugar in hot water which on cooling gives

crystal of sugar. This indicate

(A) Physical change is irreversible (B) Chemical change is irreversible

(C) Physical change is reversible (D) Chemical change is reversible


58



9. LPG gas is used in kitchen as domestic fuel. Which one is not correct statement regarding burning of

the former in gas stove.

(A) Travel of L.P.G to gas stove is a physical

(B) Burning of LPG in burner is chemical change

(C) Heating of griddle on stove is chemical change

(D) Heating of griddle on stove is physical change

10. Galvanization of iron protect it from rusting. The true statement regarding galvanization is.

(A) It is physical change by diping iron in molten zinc

(B) It is chemical change by diping iron in molten zinc (C) It is physical change by diping iron in molten Aluminium (D) It is chemical change by diping iron in molten Aluminium

11. Among the following which combination followed by chemical change.

(A) Zinc + Aluminium sulphate (B) Iron + Magnesium sulphate

(C) Iron + sliver nitrate (D) Nitrogen + Oxygen at room temperature

12. In metallurgical operation „roasting‟ and calcination process involved frequently true statement is.

(A) Roasting is chemical change calcination is physical change

(B) Roasting is physical change calcination may be chemical change

(C) Roasting is chemical while calcination may either physical or chemical change

(D) Roasting may be physical or chemical change but calcination is a chemical change.

13. Which one is not a physical change

(A) Twinkling of star (B) Reflection of mirror

(C) Sparkle of crackers (D) None of the above

14. Dissolution of sugar in water is physical process can be reversed by following steps

(I) Evaporation (II) Crystallization

(III) Precipitable (IV) Coagulation

Now which combination of physical process is suitable in sequence

(A) I – III (B) II – III (C) I – IV (D) I – II

15. Among the following which one is a chemical change regarding only water

(A) Electrolysis of water (B) Softening of hard water

(C) Evaporation of water (D) Freezing of water


59



Section – IV Biology

1. Which compound is CO2 acceptor/carrier in the process of photosynthesis

(A) NADP (B) ATP (C) ADP (D) RUBP

2. Respiratory organ of frog is

(A) Skin (B) Lung (C) Buccal cavity (D) All of these

3. Largest contributor of atmospheric oxygen is

(A) Mango tree (B) Bacteria (C) Fungi (D) Marine algae

4. Empty stomach for a long time may cause

(A) Gas (B) Peptic ulcer (C) Emphysema (D) Both (A) and (B)

5. Ethyle alcohol is the end product of anaerobic respiration in

(A) Higher mammals (B) Mouse (C) Mango tree (D) Yeast

6. For inspiration in man

(A) Suction pressure is created by lungs (B) Pull force is created by trachea

(C) Atmospheric pressure plays main roll (D) None of these

7. Digestion of fat starts in

(A) Mouth (B) Stomach (C) Duodenum (D) Ileum

8. Moist skin is a modification for

(A) Pulmonary respiration (B) Pharyngeal respiration

(C) Branchial respiration (D) Cutaneous respiration

9. Use of ice cream after the meal

(A) Delays the digestion process (B) Speeds up digestion

(C) Kills the germs of food (D) No effect

10. Tidal volume in man is

(A) 1000 ml (B) 2000 ml (C) 500 ml (D) 1500 ml


60



11. Asphyxia means

(A) O2 starvation (B) Gastritis (C) Ulcer (D) Pain in abdomen

12. Birds are adapted to fly because of

(A) Streamlined body (B) Light bones (C) Feathers and wings (D) All of these

13. Water vapour present in atm

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