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The gyro will _______ if the rotor turns in the wrong direction. precess continuously

To maintain the gyro in its axis, it must be capable of _______. precession

This property of the gyroscope and that of revolving system of masses is implicit in a principle known as the _______. Law of Conservation of angular Momentum

Gyroscopic inertia depends upon the: all of these

Which statement is NOT correct regarding the gyro compass? its accuracy remains the same in all latitudes

Which can be set while the vessel is heading magnetic east or west? fore and aft magnets

A vessel magnetic compass indicates 086 degrees when heading magnetic east. What action would you take during compass adjustment? if the blue ends of the magnets are aft and the fore and aft tray is at the top, you should add some magnets

When adjusting a compass with induced magnetism in vertical soft iron, which of the following corrects this coefficient of deviation? Flinder’s bar

Which area of voyage planning that involves an operation carried out by the navigation officers which gathers relevant information benefiting the future stages of the passage plan. Appraisal

This is an essential area of voyage planning that involves the operation carried out by the navigation officers such as highlighting the ‘NO GO’ areas, laying out the intended tracks. Planning

This is an essential area of voyage planning which involves the formulation of the tactics which are intended to carry the plan through. Execution

This is an essential phase in voyage planning which involves the construction of the finished voyage plan and the instigation of the plan revealing the programs of the vessel and the visual confirmation that the plan is being drawn to a conclusion. Monitoring

A safe speed throughout the passage, bearing in mind the ship’s draft and the possibility of squat and reduction in under keel clearance is part of the __________ phase of voyage planning? Planning

Ensuring that all relevant publications are on board and correct for the forthcoming voyage is part of the _________phase of voyage planning? Appraisal

The projection of ETA’s towards critical points to allow a more detailed assessment of the heights and flow of tides is part of the ___________ phase of voyage planning? Execution

Bridge team management refers to _____. a concept that makes command and control of the ship on the master in order to effect a safe well-planned navigation.

The state of knowing what is going on around the ship. situational awareness

An effective bridge organization includes procedures, that: all of these problems are correct

Appraisal is a part of the _______ of voyage planning preparation stage

Execution of the voyage includes: I. Organization II. Monitoring III. Appraisal Both I and II

Who among the following members of the bridge team is a conning officer when the ship is in pilotage waters? master

Which of the 18 articles of the STCW Convention obligates parties to give full and complete effect to the convention? Article I

Which of the following factors shall be among those taken into account by all vessels in determining safe speed? all of the these

In bridge resource management, which of the following statements are examples of “hazardous thoughts” I. I can do it II. It won’t happen to me III. Why take chances IV. It’s not my job V. Don’t tell me what to do VI. We’re all in the same ship I, II, IV, V

In authority and assertiveness, which of the following thoughts is correct if a master or pilot is considered to be of too high authority? I. total command expected II. lack communication skills III. I cannot delegate IV. Performance oriented V. needs to prove himself I, II, III, IV & V

Which is NOT a specific step in short term strategy in bridge team management? I. leave the problem and do alternatives II. identify the problem III. build plans to deal with the problem IV. check the plans with the BTM members by an interactive briefing V. perform a summary briefing on the mutually agreed combined plans VI. monitor that the combined plan is followed I

Which of the following is not an indication of error chain development? I. ambiguity II. distraction III. inadequacy and confusion IV. Communication breakdown V. proper conning or lookout VI. Procedural violation V

When you turn on the fast time constant (differentiator) control of a radar it will ____. reduce clutter over the entire PPI by shortening the echoes

The radar control that shortens all echoes on the display and reduces clutter caused by rain or snow is the ____. fast time constant (differentiator)

The radar control used to reduce sea return at close ranges is the ____. sensitivity time control

The radar control that reduces weak echoes out to a limited distance from the ship is the ____. sensitivity time control (sea-clutter control)

You are using a radar in which your own ship is shown at the center, and the heading flash always points to 0°. If bearings are measured in relation to the flash, what type of bearings are produced? Relative

A radar display which is oriented, so that north is always at the top of the screen, is called a/an: stabilized display

A radar display in which North is always at the top of the screen is a(n) ___. stabilized display

Your radar is set on a true motion display. Which of the following will NOT appear to move across the PPI scope? Echoes from a buoy

Your radar is set on a true motion display. Which of the following will appear to move across the PPI scope? Own ship’s marker

Your radar displays your ship off center. As you proceed on your course, your ship’s marker moves on the PPI scope while echoes form land masses remain stationary. What is this display called? true motion

Which condition indicates that your radar needs maintenance? Serrated range rings

You have been observing your radar screen and notice that a contact on the screen has remained in the same position, relative to you, for several minutes. Your vessel is making 10 knots through the water. Which statement is TRUE? The contact is on the same course and speed as your vessel.

You are underway at 10 knots. At 1800 you note a radar contact ahead 10 miles away. At 1812 the contact is dead ahead at a range of 8 miles. The estimated speed of the contact is ______. dead in the water

A radar contact will remain stationary on a relative motion radar display only when it is: on the same course and speed as your vessel

The closest point of approach (CPA) of a contact on a relative motion radar may be determined _____. after the contact has been marked at least twice

The description “Racon” beside an illustration on a chart would mean a ____. radar transponder beacon

The description “Racon” beside an illustration on a chart would mean a____. radar transponder beacon

You are approaching a sea buoy which emits racon signal. This signal is triggered by which type of radar? 3 cm

You are scanning the radar screen for a buoy fitted with racon. How should this signal appear on the PPI display? Starting with a dash and extending radially outward from the target

A ship’s aspect means? Own ship bearing of target ship

In order to insure that the racon signal is visible on your 3 cm radar, the _____. radar should be stabilized, head up

How can you detect a dangerous target from a relative motion display? The target is closing in with no bearing change

What is the most used geographical presentation of target speed and course on a ARPA? Relative or true speed vectors

What does manual acquisition mean? The operator must select and acquire each target manually.

What is ARPA? Computerized radar plotting device

What is the IMO minimum range requirement for ARPA? 3.6 and 12 NM.

What is the IMO requirement for ARPA detection? No special requirement

With regards to ARPA, what is the IMO requirement to acquisition? Acquisition can be manual or automatic

With regards to ARPA, what are the IMO minimum continuously tracking requirements? 30 targets

What is the IMO performance standard for the ARPA target history requirement? Four quality spaced history positions

Comparing manual and automatic acquisition in ARPA, which is most sensitive? Automatic acquisition

With regards to ARPA, what is the difference between a tracking gate and a tracking window? It is the same thing

With regards to ARPA, what is the purpose of digitizing the radar echoes? The ARPA tracking only works with digital signals

With regards to ARPA, what is the purpose of the steady course filter? Provide stable target information

With regards to ARPA, can a target reduction of speed activate the fast filter? Yes

With regards to ARPA, how many target parameters must be displayed in alpha numeric format? 6

Regarding IMO performance standards for ARPA, is it a requirement for simulation of own ship maneuver? Yes

Is it an IMO requirement for the ARPA to provide warning on connected external equipment? Yes

Is it an IMO requirement for an ARPA to be sea and ground stabilized? Yes

What are the IMO requirements regarding separation of Radar and ARPA information? ARPA and radar information should be independently controlled

Is it an IMO requirement for both visual and audible warnings on ARPA? yes

With regards to ARPA, is there an IMO requirement to display data for more than one target simultaneously? No

With regards to ARPA, why is raster scan display lock up so dangerous? The displayed information is no longer relevant

What is dangerous with operating the ARPA in mixed mode over time? Forgetting that this actually is a mixed mode.

What can you expect from the ARPA target tracking system in auto acquisition mode? Small and weak targets may not be acquired

With regards to ARPA, does the line connecting the PAD or POS with target indicate target speed? No

With regards to ARPA, can a target course change deactivate the slow filter? No

With regards to ARPA, what does the lost target warning tell? Target can no longer be plotted

If you input gyro course to the ARPA, what can you expect? No problem

With regards to ARPA, what is the meaning of a flashing triangle apex pointing down? Target on collision

With regards to ARPA, what is the meaning of a flashing diamond? New target

With regards to ARPA, what is the meaning of XXT at the bottom of the display? Acquisition area active

To map a hemisphere in oceanography, a picture taken from the inside view is called: Photograph

To map a hemisphere a projection obtained if the camera is located at the center of the earth is called: mercator projection

The first chronometer used in navigation was tried at sea, in the year of: 1535

To map a hemisphere a projection obtained if the camera is located at the surface of the earth is called: gnomonic projection

To map a hemisphere with gnomonic projection requires an: infinite knowledge of the area

To map a hemisphere with stereographic projection requires: definite sheet of paper

Who was the first explorer to determine Latitude and Longitude accurately? Christopher Columbus

Who wrote one of the first text books of oceanography, published in 1711? Ferdinand Magellan

He is a British Carpenter’s son who first to develop a time piece that could keep time with sufficient accuracy on board a moving ship. James Cook

In what year the unit of length was obtained? 1695

The first unit of length was obtained by the Phil. National Assembly

The radius of the earth is: R = 7 x 10 to the 7th power/2

If we are standing on a level ground, our vision encompasses an area of about: 50 sq. km. of the surface area of our planet

The first evidence of vegetation on land appears in: Cambrain times

Who was the first to determine the size of our planet accurately? Eratothenes

The first determination of the size of our planet earth was in Aswan, Southern Egypt. The angle found was: 1/20 of a circle

What is the approximate velocity of winds at a low pressure area, if the barometric reading is 991mb using the Classification Scheme developed by Panofsky and Brier? 106.9 Km/hr

This is the approximate velocity of winds at a low pressure area, if the storm central barometric pressure is 991 mb using the Classification Scheme developed by Panofsky and Brier. 35.5 knots

The actual circumference of the earth is: 30,000 km

Speed of light, denotes as C is derived by ________ subtracting wavelength from frequency of radiation

If frequency is derived by dividing the speed of light by its frequency , what will be the frequency of a radio wave of 100 meter wavelength __ 3 megahertz

It is the mass of water vapor per unit mass of dry air _____________ mixing ratio

A value of 12 grams of water vapor per one kilogram of dry air would entail a total mixing ratio of ______ 1012 grams

When air contains all the water vapor it can hold at a given temperature and barometer pressure, the air is said to be________ saturated

When air is saturated its actual vapor pressure will equal its saturation a vapor pressure the air will then be at its ____ dew point temperature

It is defined as the mass of water vapor contained in a unit volume and is expressed in grams per cubic meter which represents the actual amount of water vapor in air, is called _______ absolute humidity

It is the ratio of the amount of water vapor actually in the air, to the amount of water vapor the air could hold, at a given temperature and pressure. It is the ratio of the “ actual vapor pressure” to the “saturated vapor pressure” ______ absolute humidity

If a kilogram of air at constant pressure could hold 12 grams of water at a certain temperature, but contains only 9 grams at that temperature, it has a relative humidity of __________ 75 %

The capacity of the air to hold moisture is , EXCEPT_________ increased with increasing temperature

The surface circulation of the ocean is a direct result of the circulation of the: Hurricane

The circulation of the Black Sea depends on the difference between evaporation, precipitation and: atmospheric pressure

The circulation of the Black Sea depends on the difference between river addition and: pressure, temperature

The deep circulation of the Mediterranean depends on the density of the High-salinity Eastern water versus: lower salinity

The density of the surface water in the Mediterranean is much greater than that in the: Atlantic Ocean

Estuaries are embayment of the ocean that are diluted by run-off from the: land

Estuaries may be vertically stratified in: Temperature

This increases the salinity in the Mediterranean. evaporation

Biological activity in the sea tends to deplete the surface of the nutrients, but: enrich the deep water

There are two methods by which the ocean currents can be measured, one is by: a fixed current meter gauge

There are two methods by which ocean current can be measured, one is by: motion relative to the earth

A simple but ingenuous method for measuring current flows of the ocean was developed by Carruther in 1967 which he calls after the leaning tower pisa

The velocity of sound in sea water is about: 1.5 ft sec

Sound velocity varies slightly with the pressure, temperature and: salinity

Sound velocity varies slightly with the temperature, salinity and: pressure

Sound velocity varies slightly with salinity, pressure and: altitude

The sound velocity was measured based on: 1 atm pressure, 0 degree R and 5% ºº

The distribution of elevations on the earth’s surface has two peak, one is: a narrow peak about 10m above sea level

The Distribution of elevations on the earth’s surface has two peak, is: a broader peak at about 2.5 km below sea level

The natural division between the two distribution of elevations on the earth’s surface, that is, the minimum between the peaks: does not occur at ground level, but at a depth of about 1.5 km

In general, the sound velocity increases with the: weight of the material

A tsunami is generated by a sudden displacement at the sea floor. This disturbance sends out wave that travels with a speed of about: 1050 km hr in the open ocean

A vessel discharging cargo at anchor observes an approaching thunderstorm. A flash of lightning is followed after 12 seconds by thunder. Six minutes later another flash of lightning is followed in 8 seconds by thunder. How much time does the vessel have to rig hatch tents or close hatches before the storm reaches her? 12 minutes

You are observing an approaching thunderstorm from seaward while loading in port. When you saw a flash of lightning, it was followed after 14 seconds by thunder. How far is the thunderstorm from your position? 2.52 n.m.

In the Northern hemisphere, the earth’s rotation is affecting the direction of the current by deflecting the set, or direction of flow, towards the __________? Right

In the Southern hemisphere, the earth’s rotation is affecting the direction of the current by deflecting the set, or direction of flow, towards the __________? Left

An Isobaric configuration formed by a relatively low pressure zone between two cyclones and two anticyclones is called __________? Col

The elongated area of high pressure extending outwards from an anticyclone area is called: Ridge

The fast moving current of air with strong lateral and vertical wind shears which is located immediately below the troposphere is called _________? Jet stream

In the last stages of the extratropical cyclone, the closing of its warm sector by an overtaking cold front which races about the system’s center is called ___________? Occlusion

In the Northern hemisphere, gusty winds shifting clockwise, a rapid drop in temperature, thunderstorms or rain squalls. In summer (frequent rain/snow squalls in winter) then a rise in pressure followed by clearing skies, indicate the passage of a (n)___________? Cold front

Which of the following about a front is true? all of these

On a clear, warm day, you notice the approach of a tall cumulus cloud. The cloud top has hard well Define edges and rain is falling from the dark lower edge. Should this cloud pass directly overhead___________? it will be preceded by a sudden increase in wind speed

In low latitudes the range of the diurnal variation of pressure is up to____________? 3.0 millibar

Clouds appearing in the following order : cirrus, cirrostratus, altostratus, status, and nimbostratus usually indicate the approach of a (n)___________? Warm front

The navigable semicircle of a storm in the Northern Hemisphere is that area of the storm measured___________? from the direction of the storm movement counterclockwise

If you are caught up by a cyclone in the Northern hemisphere, and you are in the dangerous semi circle, the evasive action to be done is ___________? place wind 1-4 points on starboard bow, altering course to starboard as the wind veers

If you are caught up by a cyclone in the Northern hemisphere, and you are in the navigable semi circle or in the path of the cyclone, the evasive action to be done is ___________? place wind on starboard quarter, altering course to port as wind backs

If you are caught up by a cyclone in the Southern hemisphere, and you are in the navigable semi circle or in the path of the cyclone, the evasive action to be done is ___________? place wind on port quarter altering course to starboard as wind veers

If you are caught up by a cyclone in the Southern hemisphere, and you are in the dangerous semi circle, the evasive action to be done is ___________? place wind 1-4 points on port bow, altering course to port as the wind backs

The area in low latitudes in which the trade winds of the Northern and Southern hemispheres converge is called _________? Intertropical Convergence Zone

What do mid-channel marks indicate? Deep-water channel or fairway

You are underway in a narrow channel and is being overtaken by a vessel astern. The overtaking vessel sounds a signal indicating her intention to pass on your starboard side. If such an action appears dangerous, you should sound ________________. five short rapid blasts

Based on the Rules, a combined whistle system is regarded as a ______________. Separate whistle

The construction of sound signal appliances, their performance, and their installation shall be to the satisfaction of the appropriate authority of the state where the vessel is ______. Registered

Target indicates tug with tow showing her green light on your port bow, and close to your port bow the green light of another power driven vessel. What action should you make? Slacken speed or stop the vessel

In an inconspicuous or semi-submerged vessels or objects being towed a white all-round light shall be visible at: 3 N.M.

Which statement is TRUE concerning risk of collision? Assumption shall not be made on the basis of scanty radar information

In determining the safe speed to comply with rule 6, which of the following factors shall be among those to take into account by all vessels? I. The maneuverability of the vessel with special reference to stopping distance and turning ability in the prevailing conditions. II. At night the presence of background lights such as from shore lights of from back scatter of her own lights. I and II

In which of the following is the purpose of ship’s routing to improve the safety of navigation correct? I. In converging areas where the density of traffic is great II. In areas where the freedom of movement of shipping is inhibited by restricted sea-room, the existence of obstructions to navigation limited depths, or unfavorable meteorological conditions. I and II

This rule states that every vessel shall at all times maintain a proper look-out by sight and hearing as well as by all available means. Rule 5

What is the routeing measure comprising a designated area between the landmark boundary of a traffic separation scheme and the adjacent coast, not normally to be used by through traffic and where local special rules may apply? Inshore Traffic zone

Rule 10 (d) prescribes that Inshore traffic zones shall not normally be used by through traffic which can safely use the appropriate traffic lanes within the adjacent separation schemes. However vessels of less than _________ meters in length and sailing vessels may in all circumstance use inshore traffic zones. 20

In Traffic Separation Scheme, a vessel shall normally join the lane at termination of the lane. When joining at either side, the vessel shall do so by ______________. Entering at small angle as to the general direction of the traffic as practicable

How many seconds is the duration of a short blast on the ships whistle when used as a fog signal? 1

How many nautical miles is the audible range of the sound signal intensity of the whistle of a vessel of less than 20 meters in length as required by Annex III of the 1972 Rules of the Road? 0.5

Under the rules which situation is considered “special” circumstances? Two or more meeting vessel

Example of a special circumstance ? Three vessels in an approaching situation

You observed a vessel with an additional light in vertical line with the stern light. Which statement is CORRECT? It is a power-driven towing vessel

A vessel is termed engaged in fishing when ______________. using gear which restricts her maneuverability

A power-driven engaged in towing is exempted by the Rules to display the required towing light when rendering assistance. High intensity intermittent or revolving lights

Where the length of the two exceeds 200 meters, the towed vessel will exhibit ____________. diamond-shaped light where it can best be seen

While heading North, a vessel crossed ahead of you showing her port side light. The bearing of the side light before it went out of view is 000 degree. What is the most probable course of this vessel at that time? 292.5 degrees

A vessel is being propelled by her sail and by her engine. How is this vessel considered under the Rules? A power driven vessel

A pilot vessel may continue to sound her identity signal under what situations? When underway, but not making way to embark a pilot.

One of these vessels is NOT obliged to comply with rules regarding Traffic Separation Scheme. What is this? Vessel serving navigational aids of Traffic Separation Scheme

A vessel is engaged in fishing when she is using fishing apparatus which restricts her to maneuver

Conduct of vessels is Restricted visibility is _______________ Rule 19

What factor is taken consideration when a vessel is restricted in her ability to maneuver? The nature of her work limits maneuverability as required by the rules.

Which vessel is regarded as “restricted in her ability to maneuver”? Vessel engaged in mine clearing

Sailing vessel have right of way over power driven vessel, EXCEPT ______________. When overtaking such vessel

Ship bell of vessels more than 20 meters are constructed with a diameter at the mouth of NOT less than ________. 300 mm

When a vessel is transferring her cargo while underway, she is considered as Restricted in her ability to maneuver

A vessel navigating a narrow channel shall ________________. Not cross the channel if it impedes the safe passage of other vessels

What is the fog signal for a vessel NOT under command? Successive one prolonged / two short blasts not more than two minutes interval.

A vessel transferring provisions while underway is classified by Rules as a vessel ________. restricted in her ability to maneuver

Which of the following is NOT a good holding ground for anchor? all of these

The scope of chain to be used depends upon several factors EXCEPT: size of the vessel

The scope of chain to be used depends upon several factors EXCEPT: size of the vessel

On a ship moving ahead, a pivot point is approximately: 1/3 ship length abaft the bow

A rule of thumb in the handling of VLCC is that she losses _____ of her headway for every ______ degree change in heading. 25 – 30 % / 90

A vessel moving at 1 knot moves approximately 100 feet in ______ minute 1

A vessel moving at 2 knots moves approximately _______ in one minute. 200 feet

A 30-knot wind exerts the same force on an equal area as a _______ current. 1 knot

The ship’s turning circle from deep water to shallow water is ______. smaller

An average size ship’s turning circle is usually and slightly _______ when the ship turns to right than when she turns to the left. smaller

Ships like VLCC’s turning circle to the right is usually ____ her turning circle to the left. nearly the same as

If the speed of a ship is increased during a turn, the tactical diameter becomes (or remains) ______. smaller

Your vessel is proceeding parallel to a bank. Her stern moves______. towards the bank

A ship can be backed and filled in the ______ area when to the left. smallest

You are proceeding through an open roadstead. Your vessel is an average-size, house aft tanker ship. If you back your ship, expect her to ______. headway from the wind while she has headway, back away from the wind when she has no headway

Bow or aft thrusters are sometimes preferable to tugs because _______. it is always available

The disadvantage of a bow thruster is ______. it has no effect on headway to slow down or hold a ship

The following are a series of conditions that influences the maneuvering characteristics of the ship EXCEPT: size of the vessel

This system has been used for many years, the fittings of these plates in way of bronze propellers and other immersed fittings is a common practice. sacrificial anode system

The turning circle of ship is the path followed by the ____________. pivoting point

The turning circle of a vessel making a turn of over 360° is the path followed by the _______. center of gravity

In relation to the turning circle of the ship, the term “advance” means the distance ___________. gained in the direction of the original course and maximum when ship turned 90°

The distance a vessel moves at right angles to the original course, when a turn of 180° has been completed, is called the ___________. Tactical diameter

A vessel in shallow water might experience _________. squatting

The distance that a vessel travels from the time that the order to put engine full astern until the vessel is dead on the water is known as__________. head reach

When a large merchant vessel enters shallow water at high speed the _____. bow will suck down farther than the stern

The pivoting point of a fully loaded vessel with normal trim proceeding ahead at sea speed is: one-third of the length of the vessel from the bow

When backing down with sternway, the pivot point of a vessel is _________. about one-quarter of the vessel’s length from the stern

As a general rule for most large merchant vessels, squat effects what part of the vessel? stern

When you enter shallow water, you would expect your rudder response to ____ be sluggish, and your speed to decrease

A wedge of water building up between the bow and nearer bank forces the bow out and away describes _____. bank cushion

The effect known as “bank cushion” acts in which of the following ways on a single-screw proceeding along in a narrow channel? it pulls the stern toward the bank

The ship movement where the pivot point plays a part _____. rotational

A ship under headway can make a smaller turning radius if the pivot point is ____. close to the bow

When going ahead from dead in the water, the stern of a ship with a single right-handed propeller: turns to starboard

A ship is said to have a positive directional stability when _____ she tends to steady up when the rudder turned to amidships position

What is the cause of the increase of draft of a ship moving through the water? drop in water pressure around the ship’s hull

In an emergency and the anchor is dropped while at full ahead, do not slack the cable as soon as the anchor holds. I. false II. true III. depends upon the size of the ship I only

How will you turn a ship quickly in a following current in restricted water? by dragging one anchor and astern engine

Your ship, a right-handed single screw is making a headway, when the ship is maneuvered to crash stop the tendency of the ship will _____. slow down her headway and turn to starboard

A right handed single screw ship, when taking turning circles both port and starboard at same speed and rudder angles, which side will probably have the larger area of turn? starboard side

When comparing different turning circles of your ship at same speed and different rudder angles, which of the rudder angles used has the largest turning circles? 10 degrees

Which of the following is the affect of depth of water on turning radius if the ship is at low speed? larger turning radius at shallow water

Which is CORRECT? I. directional stability becomes more positive in shallow water (steering improves) II. diameter of turning circle in shallow water increases to as much as twice that of the deep water III. in shallow water, speed losses occur with large changes in heading, but to a Lesser extent than in deep water IV. in deep water, diameter of turning circle is approximately three times ship’s length V. ship carries her way longer in shallow water than in deep water VI. in deep and shallow water, head falls off to starboard, but at a greater rate as depth decreases in shallow water All of these

When does it become evident that the ship has reached shallow water? when the depth of water is about one point five (1.5) times of the ships draft

In maneuvering the ship in a restricted area or in a narrow channel, which side would be easier to maneuver the ship using the backing and filling maneuver? starboard side

A ship is having a slow speed, by using the backing maneuver, the ship is considered to be dead on the water when the _____. quickwater reaches the amidship

In docking, when approaching the quay at one (1) knot, how many meters is ships advance in one (1) minute. 41 meters

The distance of the ship to its final berth is about 200 meters. Approximately how many minutes will it take the ship to be in position if the ship speed is two (2) knots 3.2 minutes

Your ship RPM is 120 and gives a maximum speed of 16 knots. How many RPM required if you need a two (2) knot speed in approaching the berth? 15 RPM

When going astern in a right-handed propeller ship and need to maintain the ship heading, the rudder would be place at _____ Rudder to starboard enough to compensate the swing

In principles of shiphandling which factor that a master or a pilot has no direct control of the ship. shallow water factor

What is the main purpose of knowing the turning circle of own ship? to know the area of maneuverability of the ship

Your ship’s draft is 10 meters, speed 10 knots and having a block coefficient of .70 water. What will be the under water clearance if the depth of water is 12 meters? 1 meter

In anchoring, using the scope of 6, determine the number of shackles to be used if the depth of water is 35 meters? 7.5 shackles

In anchoring, it is always best to approach the anchorage area ________. against the current

Your ship is at anchor. What is the approximate area of rotation if your ship has a length of 200 meters, cable used is 6 shackles and depth of water is 35 meters? 347 meters radius

If a ship is holed above the waterline, you should ______. all of these

If a ship is holed or cracked on or near the waterline, you should ____. all of these

Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning gasoline vapors on board a vessel? They are lighter than air and will settle in the highest part of the vessel

Drains or outlets for drawing off fuel from a fuel tank should ___? be located a the lowest portion of the tank

Should you discover a leak in the gasoline line to the engine, the best thing to do is ___? activate the CO2 system

Outlets in fuel lines are ___? Permitted for drawing fuel

The purpose of the shut off valve at the gasoline tank operate from outside the tank space is to: control the amount of gasoline to the engine

Which of the following devices is required in the fuel supply line at the engine? Flow meter

The top of vents from gasoline tanks should terminate? inside cabins

Gasoline fuel tanks vents should terminate ___? in the engine compartment

Why is it necessary to extend ventilators to the bilges? to keep them dry, and thus easier to clean

The purpose of fuses in electric wiring is to ___? Allow for cutting out branch circuits

Electric generators can be protected against overload? with switches

The principal reason for mounting starting motors, generators and other spark producing devices as high above the bilges as practicable is to___? Keep them dry when the bilges are full of water

After machinery is put in motion, you should __? look at the machinery and see that it is running

During fueling, all doors, hatches and ports __? to windward should be opened, the ones to leeward should be closed

Gasoline tanks should be filled __? to the top to expel all vapors from the tanks

The Nozzle of a gasoline hose or can should be kept __? from making contact with the fill opening to guard against static spark

Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning precautions during fueling operations? all engines, motor, fans, etc. should be shut down when fueling

Before starting any diesel or gasoline engine, which of the following must be checked? flow of cooling water

Prior to starting any enclosed engine, you should: check the flame arrester

Where a mechanical exhaust ventilation system is used with gasoline engines, before starting the engine (s), the exhaust blower should be run a sufficient time to ____? warm up the exhaust blower motor

Before starting a gasoline engine on a motorboat, you should make sure for safety that ___? the gasoline tanks is full

Before any machinery is put in operation, you should ___? just turn the key and start up

Upon completion of fueling a gasoline driven vessel it is necessary to ___? keep ports, doors, windows and hatches closed

A hydraulic Accumulator is designed to: act as a fluid reservoir

When fueling has been completed? The fuel tank fill pipe should be left open to allow gasoline vapors to vent from the tank

What is the function of an air receiver in the compressed air system? condenses moisture

A wobbling tail shaft is an indication of ___? shallow water

Where a propeller shaft passé through the hull, water is prevented from entering by means of a: Propeller boss

A thrust block is designed to: absorb the shock of wave pressure at the bow

What type of stern tube bearing has the least friction? lignum vitae

What power source actuates a solenoid valve? air pressure

Which of the following is an advantage of a steam turbine over a diesel for the main propulsion? faster response from ahead to astern

Which of the following is NOT a function of the steam drum of a marine water tube boiler? receives saturated steam from the generating tubes

The brick work surrounding the fire box of a boiler is known as __? the screen wall

Blowing tubes does which of the following ___? eliminates unburned fuel oil residues from the firebox

In a water-tube marine type boiler, after the steam leaves the generating tubes, in which part of the boiler is temperature of the steam increased? mud drum

In a water tube marine boiler, what protects the super heater tubes from the fires of the combustion? water wall tubes

When two generators are operating in parallel, what will happen if one generator driving an engine automatically shuts down? one generator will motorize

Over speed of the diesel engine driving an electric generator could cause: low voltage trip

What factor is essential to the proper operation of a radiator cooled engine? cooling water pressure

What is the most probable cause of reduced capacity in a reciprocating air compressor? Carbon on cylinder heads

A centrifugal pump must be primed to ___? lubricate the shaft seals

What causes cavitation in a centrifugal pump? Rough impeller surfaces

Maintaining the close tolerances in diesel fuel pumps and injectors requires the use of __? fuel/water separators

What is the principle behind dynamic braking as used on an anchor windlass? mechanical distribution

In case of any failure on machinery or irregularity on equipment which may lead to the propulsion speed or the steering of the vessel to be affected, what is the FIRST ACTION to be taken by the duty engineer? inform the bridge

The amount and condition/appearance of liquid collected in bilges is a clear sign of _____. specific system losses or flooding

What would be the best method to be followed if the ship is in port and there is an urgent need to pump out bilge water from the vessel? pump out only to shore tank or barge

What action shall be taken if you find more substantial amount of water than usual has collected in the bilge wells? ask permission to pump bilges via 15ppm oily water separator

Suppose you are told to store ships lubricants for one year and you estimate you will consume 480 liters in that time. You have an opened drum of 180 liters on board. What quantity will you order? 24 pails x 20 liters

During maneuvering periods with the main engine, what is the arrangement for starting air supply by the main air compressors on the control setting of the compressors? one compressor on AUTO CONTROL, the other on MANUAL

What is that force that tends to twist the material like the force on the shaft to twist it apart? torsional stress

Kinetic energy is the energy a body has due to its ______. motion

Phenolphthalein is used to test boiler for ______. alkalinity

What do you call the instrument that measures the radial position of the crankshaft or rotor shaft? bridge gauge

Too high alkalinity of boiler water may cause ______. scale

In which pipe line should you expect to find an illuminated sight glass (bull’s eye)? tank overflow piping

What are the four processes in a refrigeration process? Compression/Condensation/Expansion/Evaporation

What is the purpose of a dehydrator in a refrigeration system? to absorb moisture usually present in the refrigerant

In which machinery can you not add oil under running conditions? air compressors or refrigerant compressors

If the cooling water temperature exceeds over its recommended value, what can happen? a less effective lubricating oil film is formed on the cylinder walls

The temperature of the daily tank of 60 degrees C suggests which grade of Fuel in use? intermediate or heavy fuel oil

In which part of the alternator is the electric power produced? by the stator

What is the function of the Lube Oil Sump Tank? all of these

What is the purpose of the Main Engine Dirty Oil Tank? as collecting for dirty oil of main engine intended for purification

The main as well as the emergency switchboard are panels where the electric power is, as well: fed into monitored and supplied to the consumers

By what means is the power output of an alternator controlled? by the excitation current in the rotor

The working principle of an automatic voltage regulator (AVR) is to produce an excitation current proportioned to _______. the output voltage as well as the output current of the alternator

According to regulations on board ships, it is required to have pump redundancy. What is understood by this? all essential pumps in the engine room have a back-up possibility

In case the auxiliary seawater pump fails, with which pump shall you cool the condensers? with the main seawater pump(s)

Below are some capacities of seawater pumps of a vessel listed. Which pump is the FIRE AND BALLAST pump? 110/410 cubic meter/hour x 70/35 meters

Following is a listing of water pumps on board. Which one is the Fresh Water Hydrophore pump? 5 cubic meter/hour x 50 meters

What liquid is used to clean a turbo charger? water

If you find it difficult to obtain suction while pumping the bilge well, which action shall you take? all of these

How does the change of flow direction in the filter helps in segregating water and dirt? due to centrifugal force

A pump can empty a tank in 12 hours, another pump can empty the same tank in 4 hours, and another can empty this tank in 9 hours. If all three pumps are set working together on this tank, how long would it take to empty it? 2 hours and 15 minutes

In a 4 cycle engine, the intake valve begins to open while the piston is on the: suction stroke

In a 4 cycle engine, the exhaust valve opens while the piston is on its ______. power stroke

What are the indications of excessive cylinder clearance in a small diesel engine? I. loss of power II. Misfiring III. White exhaust smoke IV. Excessive Consumption of lube oil I, III and IV

In four stroke cycle diesel engine, a four stroke of the piston is required to complete one cycle which must take place in regular order, and the second stroke indicates _______. compression of air

What is the compression system of a refrigeration? it is the absorption of heat under temperature, compression, pressure and expansion

The last stroke of two-stroke cycle diesel engine is also called: power stroke

What is the source of energy used to convert salt water into fresh water inside a fresh water generator? the waste heat from the main engine

How is a vacuum created in the fresh water generator? by the vapor eductor driven to the ejector pump

What is the required ppm if boiler distillate water is produced to be used in water tube boilers of medium pressure by a fresh water generator? 2ppm

Reciprocating pumps are installed in circuits where liquids ______. have a high air content

If you are to replace a mechanical seal of a pump, which part will you dismantle/remove in order to access to the seal? remove pump casing half, shaft flange and take out pump assembly

It is noted after overhaul that pump bearings heat up, and is verified that o wrong assembly has taken place or no parts are touching. The reason is: misalignment of the shaft

What will happen to the level of the expansion tank if the engine slows down or stops from running condition? the level will decrease

What can happen if only one generator is connected to the mains and several large fans are started at the same time? the generator may trip on overload

A ship’s propeller is 4882 mm diameter with pitch of 4226 mm. The engine RPM is 122. What is the engine speed of this vessel? 16.70 knots

A vessels main engine runs at 114 RPM. The slip that day was 7.4%. The ships speed that day was 13.82 knots. What is the pitch of the propeller? 4040 mm

A vessel has a propeller with 3828 mm pitch and makes 109 RPM. The nautical speed is 12.8 knots. What is the slip? 5.3%

The Master issues a night order in the Night Order Book. It is valid for ______. 24-hour period

The Night Order Book consists which of the following? all of these

Which of the following is TRUE? all of these

The Night Order Book includes the following EXCEPT: maintain ships speed at all times

The Night Order Book includes: all of these

Following a ship routing system, an initial route recommendation is issued to a ship _____. 48 to 72 hours prior to sailing

______ is an underway adjustment in track and is intended to avoid or limit the effect diversion

______ is a recommendation for slowing or increasing the ships speed as much as adjustment of SOA

______ is a transmission sent to the ship advising the master of expected adverse conditions, weather advisory

_______ is issued to a ship normally two to three days before sailing as a weather advisory. initial route recommendation

______ is an underway adjustment in track and is intended to avoid or limit the effect diversion

_______ is a recommendation to the master to take independent action to avoid, as much evasion

______ is a transmission sent to the ship advising the master of expected adverse conditions, their duration, and geographic extent. weather advisory

The greatest potential advantage for a ship weather routing exists when the following the economic gain of the shipowner as a result of a shorter route

The Light List shows that a navigational light has a nominal range of 15 miles and height above water of 29 ft. Your height of eye is 52 ft. and the visibility is 6 miles. At what approximate range will you see the light? 11.0 miles

The Light List shows that a navigational light has a nominal range of 5 miles and height above water of 21 ft. Your height of eye is 32 ft. and the visibility is 1 mile. At what approximate range will you see the light? 1.5 miles

The predictions in Tide Tables are based on ______. detailed observations

On a Tidal Current Tables, river current prediction may be considerably in error following a: heavy rain

Tidal Current Charts present a comprehensive view of the velocity of current in different bodies of water ______. hourly

A good chart can be distinguished from indifferent one by: date of correction

Which nautical publication gives an information if there will be a chance to meet an iceberg during the course of the voyage? sailing directions

A report which a vessel should make if she is more than 2 hours steaming time the predicted position is called _______. deviation report

________ represents part of the spherical earth on a plane surface. nautical chart

A cartographer cannot transfer a sphere to a flat surface without distortion, he must project the surface of a sphere onto a plane surface.An example of this projection is that the cylinder tangent along the Equator called ________. mercator projection

The projection in which the meridians appear as straight lines converging toward the nearer pole is called _______. gnomonic projection

Which chart is commonly used for planning great circle track? gnomonic chart

________ results from projecting points on the surface of the Earth onto a tangent plane, from a point on the surface of the Earth opposite the point of tangency. tereographic projection

If terrestrial points are projected geometrically from infinity toa tangent plane, the projection is called _____. orthographic projection

The ratio of a given distance on the chart to the actual distance it represents on the earth Scale

The smallest scale chart used for planning, fixing position at sea and for plotting the dead reckoning while proceeding on a long voyage is the _____. sailing chart

________ are intended for coastwise navigation outside of outlying reefs and shoals. general charts

________ are intended for navigation and anchorage in harbor and small waterways. harbor charts

At the top of the center of the chart is the date of ________. first edition of the chart

Chart symbols and abbreviations are shown in _______. Chart No.1

_______ solves problems involving a single course and distance, difference of latitude plane sailing

______ is similar to plane sailing but uses meridional difference and difference in longitude in place of difference of latitude and departure. Mercator sailing

_______ combines plane sailing solutions when there are two or more courses and determines the equivalent course and distance made good by a vessel steaming along a series traverse sailing

________ is the intersection of departure and difference of longitude when a vessel parallel sailing

________ uses the mean latitude for converting departure to difference of longitude when middle latitude sailing

____ involves a solution of courses, distances, and points along a track between two points. great circle sailing

________ is a sailing in which you take a parallel sailing to limit the altitude of your track composite sailing

_______ solves problems involving a single course and distance, difference of latitude plane sailing

______ is similar to plane sailing but uses meridional difference and difference in longitude in place of difference of latitude and departure. Mercator sailing

________ combines plane sailing solutions when there are two or more courses and determines the equivalent course and distance made good by a vessel steaming along a series of rhumblines. traverse sailing

_________ is the intersection of departure and difference of longitude when a vessel is proceeding due east or west. parallel sailing

________ uses the mean latitude for converting departure to difference of longitude when the course is not due east or west. middle latitude sailing

A vessel can fix his position with one bearing only at the time when there is a: range bearing

The horizontal intensity component along a geographic meridian is: north component

Which process decreases the strength of magnetic field? degaussing

Under the influence of an external field, magnetism is called: induced magnetism

When a stream of charged particles rotates around the nucleus of an atom: magnetism

The error in the gyro caused by the rolling of the vessel whose effect can reach as maximum on inter-cardinal heading is called________. quadrantal error

Where the gyro compass has the least directional power is the : geographical poles

This gyro compass error applicable where damping is accompanied by offsetting the point tangent latitude error

This is a pressure whereby one piece of ice overrides another: rafting

A submerged ice attached to the bottom irrespective of the nature of its formation is called: anchor ice

The part of the surface of the earth that has more satellite fixes due to orbital precession higher latitudes

Seawater ice density at its freezing point is: 0.925 gm/cm3

The proper percentage of alcohol/distilled water to be used in liquid compass is_______. 55% water, 45% alcohol

The actual spread transmission used on a GPS system is called_________. generation of the code

In lat. 75 N, dec. of sun 15 S, which of the following will occur? sun crosses the prime vertical below the horizon

In lat. 7 N, dec. of sun 5 S, which of the following occurs: sun crosses the Prime Vertical below the horizon twice

In lat. 7 N, dec. of sun 0, which of the following will occur? sunrise at 0600 hrs

In lat. 75 N, dec. of the sun 16 N, which of the following will occur? it is total daylight whole day

When radar waves are trapped in the atmosphere, what would occur: increase of radar range

These are radio waves shorter than 30 centimeter: radio spectrum

The frequency of a radar with a wavelength of 3.2 cm, is about: 9375 MHZ

This is the term given to the sea surface with oily appearance: shuga

An error is caused when great changes take place in the ionosphere which is called: polarization

__________ detects the incoming target echoes: mixer crystal

The separation between orbital planes of satellite is: 60 degrees

This is fitted on a satellite in order to achieve a gravity-gradient stabilization: 100 foot extendable boom

The position of the satellite when it passes the North Magnetic Pole is: vertical

If sea ice disintegrate when temperature rises above freezing point, this is called: rotten ice

A route which is often marked by centerline buoys is called: recommended route

TSS should be approved first by the ________ before it adopted by a territorial sea area of Maritime Safety Committee of IMO

The diurnal inequalities of the tide is caused by the: declination of the moon

In a radar being in a unstabilized mode, fixes are determined most easily from: ranges

A radar has the ability to distinguish targets and is called: range resolution

The main component of the display unit of a radar is: cathode ray unit

This affords a good indication of the value of the chart. the spacing of charted depths

Charted depths of a wee-surveyed area usually appear: radial straight lines

The state of the atmosphere with respect to temperature, humidity, precipitation, weather

The average long term meteorological conditions of a place or region is called: climate

A relatively thin shell of air, water vapor, and suspended particulates surrounding atmosphere

As altitude increases, air pressure decreases due to decreased weight of air above. troposphere

The top of the troposphere is marked by a transition layer called: tropopause

On top of the tropopause is the layer ______. stratosphere

The standard sea level pressure of the atmosphere is _____ 1013.25 millibars of mercury

The standard sea level pressure of the atmosphere is _____. 29.92 inches

Temperature decreases with height called _____. standard lapse rate

As radiant energy from the sun arrives at the earth, how many percent is reflected back 29%

As radiant energy from the sun arrives at the earth, how many percent is absorbed by 19%

As radiant energy from the sun arrives at the earth, how many percent is absorbed by 52%

The prevailing winds from approximately 5 deg N to 30 deg N are the _____. northeast trade winds

The winds with the greatest effect on the set, drift and depth of the equatorial currents trade winds

In low latitudes, trade winds converge in an area called ______. intertropical convergence zone

In weather analysis, the approach of a storm is through observation of wind, waves, atmospheric pressure

Atmospheric pressure is measured by a _____. barometer

_______ is a measure of the atmosphere vapor content. humidity

The ratio of the pressure of water vapor present in the atmosphere to the saturation relative humidity

______ is the vector sum of the true wind and the reciprocal of the vessel course apparent wind

In making a synoptic observation, the following should should be considered EXCEPT: safety of life

What cyclone is in its final stage of development? occluded front

In low altitudes, the range of diurnal variation of pressure is up to _____ millibars 3.0

The direction of the current in the Southern Hemisphere is affected by the earth rotation by deflecting the set towards the ________. left

The configuration formed by a relatively low pressure zone between two cyclones and two anti-cyclones is called_________. col

From an anti-cyclone area, the elongated area of high pressure extending outwards is called_______. ridge

This does not have closed isobars: tropical disturbance

In the eye of the storm: relatively calm and sunny

The movement of the cyclone is: parallel to the isobars in the warm sector

When a storm loses the source of heat because it passes a colder water or land, the storm assumes the characteristic a/an: extra tropical cyclone

A seiche has a period of anything from: few minutes to an hour

The periodic motion of the sea due to gravitational forces of various celestial bodies is : tidal phenomenon

This is a local strong wind carrying damp snow or sleet and spray that freezes upon contact with objects: barber

________ dissipate fog: downslope motion of air

This is a frozen precipitation: sleet

In October, storms that enter the Great Lakes Basin from the west and northwest are the products of pressure systems known as__________. Alberta Lows

In the ________ state of the atmosphere, water does not exist: plasma

If rain drops from the dark edges of a tall cumulus cloud: the wind speed will not change as it passes

Near the eye of the storm in the relatively calm area, the sea are: mountainous and confused

On which side of the storm track is the navigable semi-circle in the South Indian Ocean? right

In the southern hemisphere, the dangerous semi-circle lies: to the left of the storm track

A current called Darwin current along the coast of Australia flows: poleward

The balance between the Coriolis force and the subsurface pressure fields is called: geostrophic equilibrium

Kamchatka current flows: southward

The flow of Agulhas current is generally: westward

The usual sequence of directions in which a tropical cyclone moves in the Southern Hemisphere is_____. southwest, south and southeast

It is the type of cloud which means spreads out, flatten, cover with layer Stratus

It is the type of cloud means heap, a pile, an accumulation cumulus

The layer of the atmosphere above the stratosphere is called: mesosphere

Since air has weight, the downward force exerted by the air is known as : atmospheric pressure

PAGASA has classified the Philippines various regions depending on the frequency of tropical cyclones passing over each one. Northern Luzon including Batanes has the highest number where cyclones pass the area at: 5 cyclones in 2 years

A recent study shows that about___________% of the average annual rainfall in the Philippines is attributed to the occurrence of tropical cyclones in its vicinity especially from June to December: 47

The seawater temperature essential in the formation of typhoons in the vicinity of the Philippines or East of the Philippines is________. above 26 deg. Celsius

A sudden blast of wind descending form a mountainous coast to the sea, in the Strait of Magellan or at the Aleutian Islands: Williwaw

The wind is called a geostropic wind if the isobars are straight and a ________ if isobars are curved: gradient wind

The name CYCLONE is used in the following except: North Atlantic

For determining a safe speed , all of the following factors are mentioned by the Rules EXCEPT: the competency of the crew

Your vessel had an oil spill in the Philippine port while refueling, the oil spill must Philippine Coast Guard

Audibility range in Nautical miles for vessels 75 but less than 200 meters in length shall be __. 1.5 Nm

A term which means any sound signaling appliance capable of producing the prescribed blasts. whistle

The sound pressure level at any other direction in the horizontal plane shall NOT be more than_______ below the prescribed sound pressure level on the axis. 10 dB

Limits of the fundamental frequencies for vessel 200 m or more in length. 70-200 Hz

The sound pressure level of a directional whistle shall not be more than_____ below the sound pressure level on the axis at any direction. 4.0 dB

Fundamental frequency of a whistle shall be___________. 70-200 Hz for vessel 200 meters or more in length

Sound level pressure of a directional whistle in any direction shall be measured in that________ which determined the audibility range. 1/3 octave band

Fundamental frequency of signal (whistle) shall lie within the range__________. 70-700 Hz

Under the International Rules how is the height of a light measured? vertical distance above the uppermost continuous deck

The Frequency band between 20-20,000 Hz is the range of frequency that could be heard by the human ear. This frequency band is called: AF Frequency

The PPS is strictly for the U.S. Military use only. To deny the PPS accuracy for civilian users, two cryptographic methods are employed: one is the selective availability (SA) and _______. Anti-spoofing (AS)

In a dense fog you hear a whistle signal ahead of the prolonged blast followed by three short blasts. This signal indicates a: Manned vessel being towed

If a departure from the Rules is necessary to avoid immediate danger, a vessel__________. would be justified in departing from the Rules

The earliest Rules for Preventing Collision at Sea which has been adopted by over thirty maritime countries including the United States and Germany were known as: Articles

Which statement is true regarding equipment for sound signals? Manual sounding of the signals must always be possible

The Rules state that certain factors are to be taken into account when determining state of the wind

Under the Rules a non-displacement craft or seaplane which is not capable of being used as a means of transportation of water: is not a “vessel†�

Within the content of Rule 3 (d) which of the following type of vessels is Not included under the definition of vessel engage in fishing vessel fishing with trolling lines

The FIRST International Maritime Conference to consider regulations for preventing collision at sea was held in_________. Washington

What is the requirement for any action taken to avoid collision? Any action taken must not result in another close-quarters situation

Within the context of Rule 3 (f) which of the following vessels would qualify as a vessel not under command a vessel riding to anchor chains with anchors unshackled

Which of the situations may NOT involve risk of collision? An approaching vessel has a generally steady range and increasing bearing

Part B, Section II of the International Regulations for Preventing Collision at Sea, 1972 covers the Rules on: Conduct of vessels in sight of one another

Your vessel is underway but stopped and making no way through the water. You sight another vessel approaching, and her compass bearing and range does not appreciably change. This would indicate that: The other vessel is dead in the water

When two vessels are in immediate danger of collision, the stand-on vessel must: Assist in taking whatever action is necessary to avoid collision

Within the context of Rule 3 (i) vessel is underway when She is dragging her anchor

The October 1972 International Conference on the regulations for Preventing Collisions Increasing number of power-driven vessels Increasing number of power-driven vessels

Within the context of the Rules what factor other than the depth of the water in relation Available navigable water width

Which statement applies to Rule 8 (c) of the 1972 Colregs? If there is sufficient sea room, alteration of course alone may be the most effective action to avoid a close quarters situation provided it is made in good time

The following are considered practiced of good seamanship which are not specifically taking positive action in ample time to comply with the Rules

A vessel using a traffic separation scheme shall comply with the following, EXCEPT: if anchoring is necessary , anchor in the separation zone

Rules regarding traffic separation schemes require: II only

The vessel obliged by the rules to hold her course and speed in a crossing situation is the: I only

Which of the following defines In extrem I. A collision is inevitable; II. Action II only

In International water, on your port bow, you observe the green light of a vessel. You have sounded the danger signal . When may you take avoiding actions? When it is apparent the other vessel is not taking action to avoid a collision

In fog, your radar shows another vessel ahead. Which should you avoid? I. Change of course to port unless overtaking; II. Altering course toward the vessel on or about your beam. Both I and II

You are navigating in International waters in fog. You detect another vessel on radar dead ahead. Which of the following statements applies? Neither vessel may sound the danger signal

You are navigating in International waters in fog. You hear a vessel sound one prolonged Both I and II

All of the following are distress signals EXCEPT: International Code AA

A tropic hazard which could increase risk of explosion and increase the presence of harmful vapors during an oil spill: Solar heat

The construction and installation of the lantern on board the ship is to the satisfaction of ________ where the vessel is registered. government of the state

What do you mean by sample time in assessing a situation? Enough time to carefully assess the situation whether in restricted or clear visibility

Before commencing a turn, several factors have to be considered EXCEPT: turning space

You are stopped with no way upon your vessel at the pilot station. Your vessel is half ahead with hard over rudder, then full astern on inboard engine

You are approaching a pilot station with the wind on the starboard bow and making a short burst of ahead full will left rudder

On a ship moving ahead, the pivot point is situated about _____. 1/6 ship length abaft the bow

It is always best to approach the quay when berthing: against the current

When a vessel is expected to unberth during heavy weather, it is best to: any of these

When unberthing with the stream ahead: let go all lines first and leave the back spring last

The anchor holding power in tons on good anchoring ground is about ______. 7 - 8 times the anchor weight

The length of cable laid out measured from the hawse pipe to the anchor divided scope

The scope of the anchor to be used depends upon: all of these

The scope of the anchor to be used depends upon: all of these

When the vessel normally lie with the anchor and cable fine on its own bow about natural sheer

When the cable nips round the stern and breaks the anchor out of its holding ground, breaking sheer

When a vessel is anchored with both anchors leading ahead, she is said to be on ___. open moor

When anchoring in clay bottom, what is one hazard that may cause the anchor to drag? the anchor may get shod with clay and not develop full holding power

In shiphandling, forces associated with it can are the following EXCEPT: forces under control

forces and moments under indirect control the ships speed and type of propulsion

In shiphandling, the forces not under control are the following EXCEPT: force majeure

Which of the following is FALSE in shiphandling? only the master knows the maneuvering characteristics of his vessel

The hydrodynamic resistance on a ship in shiphandling are the following EXCEPT: hull resistance

______ describes a ship tendency to remain at rest when at rest. inertia

______ describes a ship tendency to remain in motion when in motion. momentum

______ describes a ship underwater hull friction. underwater hull resistance

A vessel stopping characteristics are dependent on the following EXCEPT: type of engine propulsion

The larger the vessel you are handling and maneuvering, the ______ must be used less initial speed

Maneuvers useful in ship handling to achieve transverse speed can be the following round turn

During maneuver, the best way to control a reduced speed is by ______. kick ahead

Which of the following is TRUE about speed in shiphandling? all of these

The characteristic movements of a vessel can be described by a coordinate system 6 degrees of freedom

The 3 movements of a vessel along its axis are the following EXCEPT: roll

The 3 movements of a vessel rotating about its axis are the following EXCEPT: sway

In ship handling, displacement over time is called ______. velocity

In ship handling, change of velocity per unit time is called ______. acceleration

The maneuvering information of a vessel should be presented through: all of these

The following are the presentation of maneuvering information EXCEPT: master card

On maneuvering information, which of the following describe the current condition pilot card

On maneuvering information, which describes the general particulars and detailed wheelhouse poster

On maneuvering information, which describes full details of the maneuvering maneuvering booklet

In the maneuvering booklet, the following is contained EXCEPT: speed of the vessel with the corresponding RPM

Normally, fully automated vessels with UMS certificate carry smaller number of crew, do officers/crew require a higher level of skill

What is the most important connection of the Chief Engineer with the Deck Department? knowledge of all sailing plans and cargo loading/discharging

What is the most important deck connection of watch keeping engineers? executing orders from and issuing warnings to the bridge

Clearing a cylinder of exhaust gases by forcing into a current of air which provides scavenging

Flashpoint of the oil is the temperature at which ______. fuel oil must be heated to allow flammable vapors to form on its surface

A unit of measure used to express the chloride content of boiler water is _____. PPM

What is the purpose of a counterbore in a cylinder? to distribute the oil film evenly over the cylinder surface

Thermal efficiency refers to heat engines and is the ratio of ______. output on the shaft/flywheel over internally produced power

What do you call the valve that prevent steam pressure from exceeding the allowable safety valve

The basic type of reversing air starting system that can be used only on two stroke - rotating camshaft

The heat used to change a liquid to vapor is called latent heat of ______. vaporation

A refrigerant gives up heat when it _______. condenses

The lowest temperature obtained in a refrigerator system is the temperature of the ______. liquid in the evaporator

The actual refrigerating or cooling effect is produced by ________. lowering pressure of refrigerant

The two main types of evaporators are: dry and flooded

The greatest decrease in the temperature of the refrigerant is at the ______. condenser

A receiver in a refrigeration system is used to ______. store the refrigerant

Humidity is a measure of ______. water vapor content

Ambient temperature means ______. temperature of air in the surrounding space

Moisture in the refrigeration system will cause a ______. faulty expansion valve

What will happen if a brine in a refrigeration system has a high specific gravity? it will crystallize

Diesel engines are considered safer than gasoline engines because ___? The fuel used is less volatile

Generally speaking, the fuel injected into a diesel engine combustion chamber is heat of compression

The quickest method to stop a small diesel engine whose throttle or governor has close the fuel supply valve

Which of the following is an advantage of diesel over steam turbine propulsion? less fuel consumption per SHP

All diesel engines are classified as ___? compression ignition

Each cylinder in a two stroke cycle engine experience combustion __? once each crankshaft revolution

How would the exhaust of a properly operating diesel engine appear? perfectly clear

What does a pyrometer measure on a diesel engine? exhaust temperature

What monitoring device best indicates the load being carried by a diesel engine? tachometer

What is the effect of heated intake air on a diesel engine? increases efficiency

How does combustion air enter the cylinder of a two cycle diesel engine? ports

Diesel engines obtain combustion air through turbo chargers, blowers or: air receiver

What is the purpose of the intake/exhaust valves in a diesel engine? They regulate the combustion cycle

The most serious effect of air in a diesel engine jacket water cooling system is that it? causes corrosion

What quality of a diesel fuel is most significant for efficient combustion? viscosity

Lubricating oil should be changed on a heavy duty diesel engine when___? it has been in use for a specified interval

How should you warm up a diesel engine that has not been run for some time? run it at minimum speed for a period of time

What would white exhaust smoke from a diesel engine probably mean? late fuel injection

The three conditions which cause engine shutdown are over speed, low lube oil high jacket water temperature

If an engine shuts down due to high jacket water temperature, what action should be taken? open crankcase explosion covers

What is the bets indication of the loading of diesel engine? exhaust gas temperature

Sudden unloading of a diesel engine can cause? black smoke

If you are unable to stop a diesel engine by any other means, you should__? secure the starting air supply valve

What is the one effect of running a diesel engine at too cool a temperature? severe heat stresses on mechanical parts

Most medium and slow speed diesels are started by what medium? compressed air

What are the three basic types of engine starters? air, hydraulic, electric

All marine low speed diesels are of what design? two stroke

One major disadvantage of a low speed diesel as compared to a steam main the extra weight required of the diesel reduction gearing

Which of the following exhausts should be carefully inspected at regular intervals? engine

The exhaust pipe shall be kept gas tight throughout its entire length because? the joint gaskets may be blown

Vessels required to be equipped with an approved backfire flame arrester are? those with diesel engines

Backfire flame arrestors are installed on ___? fuel tanks

A carburetor is placed on the engines to ___? mix the fuel and air

A carburetor is required to have a safety device called a (n)__? backfire flame arrestor

Which of the following devices is required to be installed under the carburetor of flame arrestor

The engine head block, and exhaust manifold shall be ___ (small passenger air cooled

If a gasoline engine falls to start, the procedure to find the cause is to? ventilate the space, then check the battery, spark plugs, carburetor and fuel lien

If a gasoline engine turns over but is hard to start, the cause is generally__? defective ignition

Fuel system safety may best be achieved by? proper air/gasoline fuel mixture ratio

Gasoline fumes tend to__? disperse to atmosphere

Gasoline vapor is of such weight relative to air that it will tend to collect: above the carburetor level

Which statement is TRUE concerning fuel vapors on a vessel? fuel vapors can only be ignited by an open flame

Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning gasoline vapors on board a vessel? They are lighter than air and will settle in the highest part of the vessel

Should you discover a leak in the gasoline line to the engine, the best thing to do is ___? activate the CO2 system

Outlets in fuel lines are ___? Permitted for drawing fuel

The purpose of the shut off valve at the gasoline tank operate from outside the tank space control the amount of gasoline to the engine

Which of the following devices is required in the fuel supply line at the engine? Flow meter

The top of vents from gasoline tanks should terminate? inside cabins

Gasoline fuel tanks vents should terminate ___? in the engine compartment

Radar does not transmit continuously because it would: prevent detection of targets

The error introduced into the satellite signal in the ephemeris data is: epsilon error

If the south end of the gyro rotor case is towards the north when started, it will: precess constantly

If the gyro rotor turns in the wrong direction, the gyro will: red reciprocal

The speed adjustment of the master gyro should be made within: 3 knots

1,360 watts per square meter solar energy is received by the earth and is called: solar constant

The percentage of the sea surface covered with ice at OKTA is__________. 50%

The time of sunrise when the vessel was at the Tropic of Capricorn on or about Sept. 21? about 0600

When the observer is on the equator , which of the following is TRUE? day and night are equal

A typical radar pulse length is: 500 to 3000 pulse per second

A typical radar pulse length is: 0.05 to 1.25 microseconds

How long is the wave length of the L2 carrier wave of GPS? 24.5 cm

The most significant error in GPS positioning is: ionospheric error

An example of gyroscopic inertia is: quoit

When fixing a position from three bearings of an object forming a cocked hat, the ship is: anywhere along the last bearing

A good chart can be distinguished from indifferent one by: the date of correction

The observer’s Zenith at lat. 60 n is: 60 n of the celestial equator

The sun will stay on the horizon whole day if: the observer is at the South Pole on or about Sept. 21

What is Right Ascension? angular distance of a celestial body east of Aries

The body touches the prime vertical when the: latitude and declination are equal and same name

On all liquid compasses, what kind of oil is used? grain alcohol

On a course of 316, you are heading towards a range whose charted bearing is 317. What would be the gyro error if the variation of the locality is 9 E? 1.5 E

Your first observation of the wind in the northern hemisphere was NE and successive observations are NNE and N, velocity is increasing, most likely the storm will be passing: north of you

Successive observations of the wind were N south of you

What specific volume of the Admiralty List of Radio Signals that contains the list of coast radio stations, Inmarsat, GMDSS, SAR and ship reporting system? Vol I

In order for the satellite to align itself with the earth magnetic field, what is activated? Electromagnet

In calculating a running fix position, what is the minimum number of fixed objects needed to your lines of position from? One

A Great Circle crosses the equator at 1340 E. It will also cross the equator at what other longitude? 46 deg.W

The latitude of the upper vertex of a great circle is 360N. What is the latitude of the lower vertex? 46 deg. W

The latitude of the upper vertex of a great circle is 36 deg. N. What is the latitude of the lower vertex? 36 deg. S

_________ error is an error introduced by the titling of the mounting system of the compass due to horizontal acceleration caused by the motion of the vessel. This error applies to the reading of the compass or its repeaters rather than to compass itself. Gimbaling

A gyro has 3 perpendicular axis through the center of gravity. Which of the following axis is NOT included? quadrantal axis

The axle of the gyro tends to settle in the plane of the Virtual Meridian. The horizontal angle between the vertical planes of the Virtual and True Meridians is called: Steaming Error

Which of the following is an example of gyroscopic inertia? deck quoit

Which of the following is an example of gyroscopic inertia? Rifling of a gun barrel

Which of the following is an example of gyroscopic inertia? The Earth

The radius of a motion of a particle having a mass equal to that of the spinning body is called: Gyration

The horizontal angle between the vertical plane through the gyro axle and the True Meridian is called: Latitude Error

An observer at Latitude 45º -00 South took a gyro bearing of the sun on the horizon and found to be 078 deg.. The declination of the sun obtained from the almanac gives 14 deg.-00N. Calculate the gyro error. 8º W

If the surface of the spheroid is altered so as to be everywhere perpendicular to the direction of gravity, the Earth is considered a/an: Geoid

A cloudy patch of matter in the heavens outside the galaxy is called: Extragalactic nebula

The component of space motion in the line of sight is called: Heliocentric parallax

When the moon rises during sunrise, therefore it is: New Moon

The sun rises exactly at the time when the moon is setting. The moon is at__________. Opposition

After passing the first Quarter phase, the moon become full moon at: Opposition

If the age of the moon is approximately 14&1/2 days, it is said to be at: Opposition

If the GHA of the moon differs by 180 by that of the sun, it said to be at: Opposition

If the moon reaches appoint wherein it is completely illuminated, it is at: Opposition

If declination plus the Latitude equals 90 deg. and same names, therefore. Body is tangent to the horizon at lower transit

The Geographical longitude of the body will be numerically equal to the Meridian angle only when: the body is setting

In the Celestial Equator System of coordinates, when the body is along the Pn-Ps line, therefore the Meridian Angle is: 90º

In the celestial equator system of coordinates, when the body diurnal circle coincides with the celestial equator, the altitude during upper transit will be equal to the: Co-latitude

In the orthographic projection of the horizon system of coordinates, when the body rises to the right of the Prime Vertical (PV), the amplitude is named: E-S

In the orthographic projection of the horizon system of coordinates, when the body rises to the left of the Prime Vertical (PV), the amplitude is named. E-N

The intercepted arc of the horizon between the principal vertical circle and the vertical circle passing through the body when rising or setting is called: Azimuth

The amplitude will be numerically equal to the declination only when: Latitude is zero

All of the following arcs or angles can be measured in the Horizon system of coordinates EXCEPT: Declination

All of the following arcs or angles can be measured in the Horizon system of coordinates EXCEPT: Meridian angle

Which of the following when subtracted from 90º will give the radius of almucantar? Altitude

The azimuth angle when prefixed south means that: I. The amplitude is East-South; II. The true-azimuth is taken from south; III. The latitude is south. III only

Your vessel is at Lat. 24º 35 N; Long. 110º 56 E. From the nautical Almanac, the GHA of the sun is 86 deg. 25 What is the meridian angle of the sun? 162º 39 E

The angle measured form the observer meridian either eastward or westward to the body and named East if rising and West if setting. Meridian angle

If the GHA of the sun in the time diagram is 36º, what is the GAT? 02h 25m 52s

In the time diagram, the time-arc of the celestial equator between the hour circle of the vernal equinox to the observer Meridian is called: Local Sidereal Time

The optical principle of a marine sextant is when a ray of light is reflected from a plane surface, the angle of reflection is equal to the_________. Angle of incidence

During meridian passage, the LHA and meridian angle of the body is zero. What is its altitude? Maximum altitude

In the daily pages of the Nautical Almanac, a circle with the right hand side fully shaded indicates: Last quarter

During meridian passage, the LHA and meridian angle of the body is zero. What is its altitude? Maximum altitude

In the daily pages of the Nautical Almanac, a circle with the right hand side fully shaded indicates: Last quarter

The GMT of LAN was found to 14h 02m 24s. from the daily pages of the Nautical Almanac, the GHA of the sun at 14h indicates 33º 40.5 Find the corresponding increments for 2m 24s. 0º 36

The GHA of Aries taken from the Almanac at 1200H GMT is 239 deg. 55.3 Find the corresponding increments for 30m 24s. 7 deg. 36

The GHA of the sun at 1200H GMT was found in the daily pages of the almanac to be 356 deg. 28.4 What is the equations of time? 14m 06s

The GHA of the sun at 1200h GMT was found in the Almanac to 002 deg. 31.6 What is the equation of time? 6m 06s

The GHA of the sun at 1200 GMT was found from the Nautical Almanac 358 deg. 28.4. What will be the GMT of Meridian Passage? 11h 23m 04s

This cannot be used as a standard time sine it differs fro every meridian . Its principal use in rising, setting and twilight tables. LMT

On June 10 in Longitude 58 deg. 42 E,. the sextant meridian altitude (Hs) of the Sun U.L, was 87 deg. 32.0 bearing South, I.E. 1.3 on the arc, Dip Corrn. Is 4.8, Main Corrn. is 15.9. Calculate for Obs. Lat. If the sun decl is 23 deg. 17.4N. 26 deg. 7.4N

On Sept. 23 in Longitude 19 deg.15 E., the sextant meridian altitude (Hs) of the Sun L.L., was 48 deg. 36.0 bearing south, I.E. 1.7 off the arc, DIP Corrn.=6.9, Main Corrn. 15.1, Decl. of the sun is 0 deg.. Calculate for the Obs. Latitude. 41 deg. 14.1 N

On June 13 Long. 27 deg. 42 W the observed altitude (Ho) of the sun U.L. at meridian passage was 64 deg. 42.2 bearing NORTH, Decl of the sun was 28 deg. 26.4 N. Calculate for the observer latitude. 1 deg. 54.1 S

On Sept. 2 in Long. 12 deg. 58 W the observed altitude (Ho) of the sun L.L. at meridian passage was 68 deg. 23.3 bearing SOUTH, Decl of the sun was 1 deg. 28.2 S. Find the observer latitude. 20 deg. 08.5 S

At meridian passage, upper transit, the observer latitude was found to be .7 N, Declination is 1046.3 N. Find the Observed Altitude (Ho) 48deg. 11.6 S

The LMT of sunrise on the standard meridian is 0552H. your longitude is E. What is you ZT of sunrise? 0512

229. The local mean time of sunrise at lat. 23 deg.30 S, Long. 36 deg14W is 0422H. Find the corresponding zone time of sunrise? 04h 46m 56

The local mean time of the sunset at long. 75 deg E is 18h 40m 00s. What is the corresponding local zone time of sunset? 18h 40m 00s

What is the time difference between Pt. A (ZD=+8) and B (ZD=-8)? Pt. B is 16 hours ahead of Pt. A

During foggy weather you hear on e short blast, one prolonged blast, and one short blast. It should indicate to you one of the following: a vessel at anchor

The characteristic on which range resolution depends is pulse length

This is defined as the speed the molecules making up the atmosphere in order to overcome the force of gravity. velocity of escape

On weather maps, cold front is colored: blue

On weather maps, warm fron is colored: red

On weather maps, occluded front is colored: purple

On weather maps, stationary front is colored: red/blue

On weather maps, blue color indicates: cold front

On weather maps, red color indicates: warm front

On weather maps, purple color indicates: occluded front

On weather maps, alternate red and blue color indicates: stationary front

The value of the nautical chart depends upon the ___________. the character and the accuracy of the survey on which it is based.

What are leaning type of letters in Nautical charts used for? underwater and floating features

The date of the chart-Nautical charts bear three dates which are important to persons using them. The first edition date (month year) printed centrally in the upper margin. This issue contains all up to date which are hand corrected in the old issues.

When a first edition of a chart is printed, the original date of issue of a new chart is shown at the top center margin and; lower left hand corner

What type projection is formed if a plane is tangent to the earth, and the points are geometrically form the center of the Earth? Oblique gnomonic

Chart with a natural scale of 1:180,000 is classified as a: General chart

The revision date of a chart is printed on what area of the chart? lower-left corner

Which of the following should be consulted to obtain information about the general current circulation in the North Atlantic Ocean? Pilot chart

You are entering a harbor for the first time, which of the publications would you consult? Coast pilot

What publication contains information about the port facilities in Cadiz, Spain? World Port Index

The Sailing Directions (Planning Guide) contain information on all of the following EXCEPT: Coastal features

What is the longitude of the geographical position of a body whose GHA is 10º 30? 149º 30 E

Your vessel is at the equator at midnight on 1 January, and a star is observed rising. At what time will this same star rise on 1 February, assuming your vessels location is still at the equator? 2158

What is the latitude of a place where the sun is at the zenith of the observer at: 2327 N

What is the latitude of a place where the sun is at the horizon at midnight of Jun 21? 66º 33 N

Find the height of the observer in Lat 450N when he is casting a shadow 10 feet long at local apparent noon on a day when the sun declination is 20º N? 21.45 feet

The distance between any two meridians measured along a parallel of latitude ____. decreases with increased latitude

A line connecting points of equal magnetic intensity. isodynamic line

What is the semi-circular deviation which is proportional to the sine of the compass heading? Coefficient B

“The orbit of each planet is an ellipse with the sun at one of its foci†is a law that is� associated with_____________. Kepler

What are the relative positions of the sun, the earth, and a planet when the planet is at inferior conjunction? The planet is between the earth and the sun.

When the sun is between the Earth and Planet Venus, Venus is said to be at______. superior conjunction

When planet Venus is between the Earth and Sun, Venus is said to be at_________. inferior conjunction

As the inferior planet moves along its orbit from superior conjunction to inferior conjunction its elongation________. increases

The angle between the lines connecting the Sun and the Earth and between elongation

Why is planet Venus not visible at midnight in any latitude? its greatest elongation is only 46º

Planetary aberration is due, in part, to________________. refraction of light as it enters the Earth atmosphere

The vernal equinox is the point in the celestial sphere where the sun declination is: 0º increasing to maximum north

The autumnal equinox is the point in the celestial sphere where the sun declination is___________. 0º increasing to maximum south

When the sun is at summer solstice its declination is____________. maximum north

When the sun is at the summer solstice its declination is__________. north and decreasing to 0º

The Earth is closest to the sun in what month? January

Places situated in Lat 300 N are within the _____________. North Temperate Zone

How far in angular distance is the Arctic Circle from the North Pole? 23º 27

Between the parallels of about 23º 26 N and about the sun is directly overheard at some time during the year. If you are situated between these two parallels how many times in a year will the sun pass your zenith? twice

The points of intersection of the ecliptic and the celestial equator are called_______. Equinoxes

The hour cycle that passes through the First Point of Aries is known as the______. equinoctial colure

What condition will exist if the axis of rotation of the earth is perpendicular to the plane of its orbit? The length of days and nights are equal throughout the year in both hemisphere

In what planetary configuration should Venus be situated if it is an evening star? between greatest elongation east and inferior conjunction

In what planetary configuration should Venus be situated if it is a morning star? between inferior conjunction and greatest elongation west

When Venus disappears in the sky it can be presumed to be at or near________. inferior or superior conjunction

Venus attains maximum brilliance of about five weeks before and after_________. inferior conjunction

The moon will wax from__________. New Moon to First Quarter

The moon will wane from____________. Full Moon to Last Quarter

The full moon nearest the autumnal equinox is called____________. Harvest moon

The celestial sphere as seen by an observer at the equator is called the_______. right sphere

The celestial sphere as seen by an observer at the geographical poles is called the: parallel sphere

The celestial sphere as seen by an observer at Lat 30ºN is called the___________. right sphere

There are two conditions that must be fulfilled at the same time in order for a solar the moon must be at full moon

The result of gravitational forces exerted principally by the sun and moon precession of the earth axis

The same side of the moon is always turned towards the Earth because_______. the period of rotation is equal to the period of revolution

The moon is rising while sun is setting. What is the approximate phase of Full moon

Planetary aberration is due in part, to______________. the body orbital motion during the time required for its light to reach the earth

Diurnal aberration is due to_______________. rotation of the Earth on its axis

As observed from the Earth, the angle between lines from the Earth to the Sun elongation

When the moon is at New Moon its elongation is _______________. zero

Elongation becomes zero at________________. inferior conjunction

With regard to GPS, a civilian receiver may be capable of achieving the selective availability is set to zero

Which feature, when set to zero, might allow a GPS unit to have an accuracy equivalent to Precise Positioning Service receiver capability? Selective Availability

Which type of GPS receiver has at least four channels to process information from several satellites simultaneously? Continuous

The highest level of commercial navigational accuracy is provided by________. DGPS, within a coverage area

A low HDOP (Horizontal Dilution of Precision) number such as 2 indicates a: good fix

When using GPS, how many position lines are required for a 2 dimensional fix? 3

When using GPS, how many position lines are required for a 3 (dimensional 4

Which theoretical minimum number of measurements from satellites does Four

Most GPS receiver use the Doppler shift of the carrier phase to compute______. Speed

The speed of sound in a water is approximately____________. 4.5 times its speed in air

When operated over a muddy bottom, a fathometer may indicate___________. two depth readings

When using an echo sounder in deep water, it is NOT unusual to _________. receive a strong return at about 200 fathoms (366 meters) during the day, and one nearer the surface at night

When using a recording depth finder in the open ocean, what phenomena is most likely to produce a continuous trace that may not be from the actual ocean bottom? Echoes from a deep scattering layer

In modern fathometers the sonic or ultrasonic sound waves are produced transducer

Which factor has the greatest effect on the amount of gain required to obtain Type of bottom

The radar control that shortens all echoes on the display and reduces clutter caused by rain or snow is the ________________. fast time constant (differentiator)

The radar control used to reduce sea return at close ranges is the __________. sensitivity time control

Your radar displays your ship off center. As you proceed on your course, True motion

The closest point of approach (CPA) of a contact on a relative motion radar after the contact has been marked at least twice

The description “Racon†beside an illustration on a chart would mean a ______. radar� transponder beacon

You are approaching a light fitted with a RACON. The light may be identified a coded signal appearing on the same bearing at a greater range than the light

What is the latitude of a place where the observer is stepping on his shadow at at the equator

What is the length of the shadow of a man, 6 feet tall, when standing in an open field at local apparent noon of a certain day when the sun declination is about 200S and his latitude is 20º S and his latitude is 20º S? 0

When radar waves are trapped in a layer of the atmosphere called a surface radio duct, which of the following would be created? Increase of radar range

The ability of radar to distinguish separate targets on the same bearing but having small differences in range is called _______. Range resolution

If the rotor on a gyro is turning in the wrong direction it will cause the gyro to: Read reciprocal directions

The transmission time duration of a single pulse of radio-frequency energy is a function of the : Pulse length

The minimum range at which a target can be detected is basically determined by which of the following? Pulse length

A stationary front is a ______________.: I. cold front; II. Warm front Either I or II

On a weather map, a stationary front is represented as ______________. alternating red and blue lines with half circles and triangles

On a weather map, the half circles in a stationary front are pointing towards _____ . colder air

On a weather map, triangles are pointing toward the _______. warmer air

A warm front marks the region _________________ where a warm air is replacing cold air

On a weather map, warm fronts are drawn as ____________. a solid red line

On a weather map, warm fronts are drawn as _________. a solid red line with half circles

This is a kind of front which appears on weather maps as a solid purple line occluded front

This term is applied to spreading of the isotherms at a front, which means Frontolysise

This term is applied to the closing of the isobars at a front which means that Frontogenesis

Frontolysis occurs when ___________. the isobars are cyclonic

Frontogenesis occurs when ______________. the isobars are anti-cyclonic

Isohyet is a ________________. line joining places having equal rainfall

Isohel is a ________________. line joining places of equal sunshine

Isallobar is a ________________. line joining places having an equal change of pressure

Pressure Gradient is a _______________. difference in pressure in unit distance measured at right angles to

This is an error caused in a barometer due to a constant change in height pumping

All readings of a barometer should be corrected to sea level. Increase I. a ecrease in pressure approximately 1 millibar for every 10 meters II. a decrease in pressure approximately 10 millibars for every 10 meters I only

At what temperature reading will the Centigrade and Fahrenheit scale be negative 40º

Isohaline is a _____________________. line joining places having equal salinity

You are steaming west in the North Atlantic in an extratropical cyclonic to the north of you

According to Buys Ballot’s Law, when an observer in the Northern Hemisphere experiences a northwest wind, the center of the low pressure is located to the ____ . northeast

If your weather bulletin shows the center of a low pressure area to be 100 north to northwest

According to Buys Ballot law, when an observer in the northern hemisphere south-southeast

According to Buys Ballot Law, when an observer in the southern hemisphere south-southwest

If a weather bulletin shows the center of a low pressure system to be 100 south-southwesterly

The apparent wind speed can be zero only when two conditions are present. wind speed equals the ship speed

The apparent wind speed can be zero only when two conditions are present. must be from dead astern

The velocity of the apparent wind can be more than the true wind, and come true wind must be from dead ahead

The velocity of the apparent wind can be less than the true wind and from true wind from dead astern

The usual sequence of directions in which a tropical cyclone moves in southwest, south and southeast

The inner cloud bands of a hurricane, when viewed from a distance, form a bar of the storm

Which condition exists in the eye of a hurricane? An extremely low barometric pressure

What kind of conditions would your observe as the eye of a storm passes Huge waves approaching from all directions, clearing skies, light winds and an extremely low barometer.

In the relatively calm area near the hurricane center, the seas are___________. mountainous and confused

The largest waves or swells created by a typhoon or hurricane will forward and to the right of its course

The dense black cumulonimbus clouds surrounding the eye of a hurricane cloud walls

The wind velocity is higher in the dangerous semicircle of a tropical wind circulation and forward motion of the storm

Tropical cyclones do not form within 5º of the Equator because_____________. of negligible Coriolis force

The navigable semicircle of a typhoon in the Southern Hemisphere is to the right of the storm track

You are attempting to locate your position with reference to a hurricane center on the storm track behind the center

If it is impossible to avoid a hurricane in the Northern Hemisphere, the that half of the storm lying to the left of the storm path

What is the average speed of movement of a hurricane prior to recurvature? 10 to 12 knots

A tropical wave is usually preceded by ______________. good weather

A tropical wave is located 200 miles due west of your position, which is north Farther away to the west

The pressure gradient between the horse latitudes and doldrums runs_________ . north-south

Little or no change in the barometric reading over a twelve hour that present weather conditions will continue

What do the numbers on isobars indicate? barometric pressure

Pressure gradient is a measure of ______________. pressure difference over horizontal distance

The diurnal pressure variation is most noticeable in the _____________. doldrums

The diurnal variation of pressure is most noticeable_____________. in the doldrums

Which weather change accompanies the passage of a cold front in the A line of cumulonimbus clouds

Which condition will occur after a cold front passes? Humidity decreases

After a cold front passes the barometric pressure usually_________. rises, often quite rapidly, with clearing skies

As a cold front passes an observer, pressure_____________. rises and winds become gusty

A cold front moving in from the northwest can produce____________. thunderstorms, hail, and then rapid clearing

The steepness of a cold front depends on________________. its velocity

A boundary between two masses is a _______________. front

What is TRUE about a front? All of these

Clouds appearing in the following order: cirrus, cirrostratus, altostratus, warm front

The first indications a mariner will have of the approach of a warm front will be: high cirrus clouds gradually changing to cirrostratus and then to altostratus

Fetch is the _____________. stretch of water over which wave-forming wind blows

On mid-ocean waters, the height of a wind-generated wave is not affected by: water depth exceeding 100 feet

An upper layer of warm, dry air over a surface layer of a cold, moist air Super-refraction

If a layer of cold, moist air over rides a shallow layer of warm, dry air, which Sub-refraction

Which instrument is the most useful in forecasting fog? a sling psychrometer

Frost smoke will occur when Extremely cold air from shore passes over warmer water

Fog forms when the air Temperature equals or is below the dew point temperature

Fog is most commonly associated with a (an) Warm front at night

Fog forms when the air temperature is at or below The dew point

Which characteristic is common to advection fog? all of the above

Which of the following will act to dissipate fog? Downslope motion of an air mass along a coast

Ascending and descending air masses with different temperatures is part of Convection

The process in which an air mass changes in temperature and or moisture Modification

In ship handling, the force/s that is/are under direct control is/are: all of these

In ship handling, the force/s that is/are under indirect control is/are: all of these

In ship handling, which of the following are NOT under control? all of these

In ship handling, which of the following is NOT obtained from a personal experience

Which of the following is NOT a hydrodynamic resistance in current

Which of the following is TRUE? the greater displacement, the greater inertia and momentum

A vessel stopping characteristics is/are dependent on: all of these

Which of the following is FALSE? decreasing the transverse speed, the stopping distance will be greatly reduced

Maneuver/s that is/are useful to achieve increased transverse speed is/are: all of these

Which is the best way to control a maneuver? kick ahead

Which of the following is FALSE? the stopping distance is proportional to the engine power

A vessel has independent movements. This is called _____. 6 degrees of freedom

When a vessel starts to swing _______. surge decreases, sway and yaw increases

Maneuvering information should be presented through: all of these

Which of the following is FALSE? all ships must be provided with pilot card

The pilot card provides information ______. all of these

Which of the following is NOT included in the maneuvering characteristics of a ship in deep water? turning circle to port

Which of the following is NOT included in the speed control characteristics advance and transfer

Which of the following propellers has a turnable housing that it can Schottel

The following are forces acting on the hull during maneuvering EXCEPT: current set forces

When a vessel is on open moor, it is _______. anchored with two anchors

All thrusters work on reaction principle of ______. Newton 3rd law

Vessel going alongside portside to in a current, which line should be given headline

Vessel to undock with a stream ahead, which line would be cast off last? astern line

Vessel to dock starboard side to with a right handed propeller, which of the approach the wharf with a small angle

Using a scope of 6, determine how many feet of anchor cable you should put out 72 feet

Why is it necessary to veer a sufficient amount of chain when anchoring a vessel? To insure that the anchor flukes bite into the ocean bottom

Using a scope of 5, determine how many feet of cable you would put out to anchor in 5 fathoms of water 150 feet

Anchoring in 5 fathoms under normal conditions requires approximately. 2 shots of chain

Using a scope of five, determine how many shots of chain you should put out 5

Which of the following would be the best guide for determining the proper One shot of chain for every fifteen feet of water

Generally speaking, the most favorable bottom for anchoring is. A mixture of mud and clay

Which type of bottom provides most anchors with the best holding ability? Sandy mud

When anchoring in a clay bottom, what is one hazard that may cause the anchor The anchor may get shod with clay and develop full holding power

The best method to stop a vessel which is dragging anchor in a sand is to. Pay out more cable

A danforth lightweight anchor does not hold well in which type of bottom? Grass

The best method of determining if a vessel is dragging anchor is to note. Changes in bearing of fixed objects onshore

Which of the following provides little or not indication that a vessel is dragging? Changing radar range to an object abeam

A drift lead indicates that the vessel is dragging anchor when the lines is: Taut and leading forward

The most serious problem in a crowded anchorage at slack water is: Anchored vessels swinging into each other

When anchoring a vessel, it is best to release the anchor when: Going slow astern

The best time to let go of the anchor is when your vessel is: Moving slowly astern over the ground

When anchoring in calm water, it is best to: Have slight sternway on the vessel while letting go the anchor

When anchoring in a current, you should: Anchor while stemming in the current

Preparing to anchor while headed downstream in a strong current, it is best to: Swing your vessel to stem the current

The easiest way to anchor a vessel in a current is to: Stern the current and be falling aft very slowly when the anchor is dropped

When anchoring in a river where the current is form one direction only, the best So that their lines form an angle

Which is the correct procedure for anchoring a small to medium size vessel in Under power, back the anchor out until it is near, but clear of the bottom

Which statement(s) is/are correct when anchoring in deep water? All of these

Mooring with two anchors has what major advantage over anchoring with The radius of the vessel’s swing will be shortened

When attempting to free an anchor jammed in the hawsepipe, the simplest A simple kick, such as starting the windlass at full power

You are coming to anchor in 8 fathoms of water. In this case, the: Anchor may be dropped from the hawse pipe

Which of the following would NOT be used to describe the amount of anchor On the bottom

Your vessel is anchored in an open roadstead with three shots of chain out on the Veer out more chain on the port anchor

What is a danger signal? 5 or more short rapid blasts on the whistle

A vessel is in sight of another vessel when: she can be observed visually from the other vessel

Which statement is true concerning 2 sailing vessels approaching each other? a sailing vessel overtaking another is the give-way vessel

What type of vessel or operation is indicated by a vessel showing 2 cones with vessel trawling

A power-driven vessel has on her port side a sailing vessel which is on a keep clear

At specified interval, a vessel towing in fog shall sound: 1 prolonged and 2 short blasts in succession

A vessel towing in fog shall sound a fog signal of: 1 prolonged and 2 short blasts every 2 minutes

Continuous sounding of a fog whistle by a vessel is a signal: of distress

A 50-meter vessel is towing astern and the length of the bow is 100 meters. 2 masthead lights forward, 2 masthead lights aft, a stern light, and a towing light

A vessel, which is unable to maneuver due to some exceptional circumstance, when making way at night, 2 all-around red lights, sidelights, and a stern light

Which signal, other than a distress signal, can be used by a vessel to searchlight

Which statement is true concerning the light used with whistle signals? it is only used to supplement short blasts of the whistle

What is the minimum sound signaling equipment required aboard a vessel 14 a bell and a whistle

The towing light is defined as a(n): yellow light having the same characteristics as the stern light

An all-flashing yellow light may be exhibited by a(n): Air cushion vessel in the non-displacement mode

When should a fog signal of a manned vessel being towed be sounded? after the towing vessel fog signal

A lantern combing the 2 sidelights of a vessel running lights may be shown on a: 15-meter sailing vessel

A sailing vessel is NOT required to keep out of the way of a: power-driven vessel

While under way in fog, you hear a vessel sound 1 prolonged blast followed by a vessel towing

Vessel A is underway and towing when vessel B is sighted off the starboard bow. Which vessel is the stand-on vessel? Vessel B is the stand-on vessel because it is the starboard of vessel A

If you saw flames aboard a vessel but could see the vessel was not on fire, vessel was required immediate assistance

By day, when it is impracticable for a small vessel engaged in diving operations a rigid replica of the international Code flag A

A vessel will NOT show sidelights when: not under command, not making way

Which display indicates a vessel conducting mineclearance operations? 1 ball near the foremast and 1 ball at each yardarm

Which vessel may show 2 headmast lights in a vertical line? a vessel less than 50 meters in length with a 20-meter tow

What dayshape should a vessel being towed exhibit if tow exceeds 200 meters? 1 diamond

Which statement is true when you are towing more than 1 barge astern at night? Each barge in the tow must be lighted.

A vessel is propelled both by sail and by engines. Under the Rules, the vessel is: considered a power-driven vessel

The white masthead light required for a power-driven vessel under the Rules 225.0

An unbalanced cylinder load may be indicated by: high exhaust temperature

On diesel engine fuel systems, to drain water and sediment, what type of valves are allowed? valves with caps or plugs

When a diesel engine is producing white smoke, it indicates: low combustion temperature

When the compression ratio for a diesel engine is normally low, misfiring at light load is usually caused by: excessive cylinder cooling

The most practical way of detecting overload in on cylinder of an operating check the exhaust gas temperature frequently

Turbulence in the combustion chambers of a diesel engine is induced by: directional intake ports

If an operating diesel engine begins smoking, the trouble may be in only cut off the fuel to each cylinder in turn and note the exhaust smoke intensity

If a diesel engine is operating with excessively high exhaust temperatures on reduce the engine load

The rate of fuel injection depends primarily upon: timing of the fuel pumps

Overheating of a diesel engine cylinder can be caused by late fuel injection or: leaking fuel valve

In actual diesel operation, the pressure usually continues to rise for a short injected shortly before top dead center

If the engine is smoking, how would you determine which cylinder is causing the smoke? I. check pyrometers for temperature difference; II. Cut out individual cylinders and check exhaust. both I and II

Dispersion of fuel in a cylinder is dependent on the: any of these

A clogged fuel oil filter could result in: any of these

Early fuel injection timing will cause cylinder pressure to be: above normal and exhaust temperature below normal

A practical way of checking for excessive fuel oil injection in a diesel engine is to: check exhaust gas temperature

Which of the statement is true regarding combustion in a diesel engine? maximum cylinder firing pressure does not occur until the piston passes T.D.C. (top dead center)

The most likely cause of a sudden drop in compression pressure in one cylinder is: malfunctioning valves

Fuel injection nozzle holders are indirectly cooled by: direct contact with surrounding water jacket

Injection nozzles are directly cooled by: water flowing through passages in the nozzle holder

Ignition delay is caused by: the fuel

When speaking of governor stability, the principal characteristic is: the ability of the governor to return the engine to the set speed without minor fluctuations in speed

When we refer to the speed regulation of an engine: we are discussing the methods used to compensate for friction losses in the engine

Engine speed governors work on the basic principle: that any change in engine load immediately causes a change in engine speed

A governor that is used to limit the load of a diesel must consist of: a variable maximum fuel stop

To avoid hunting above or below engine RPM, hydraulic governors have a: compensating device

Oil grooves are found on: bearings

On a diesel engine propulsion, which of the following is FALSE? slow start and stop of propeller

The propeller on a vessel has a diameter of 23.7 feet and a pitch of 24.8 feet. 11.80%

The propeller of the vessel has a diameter of 20.6 feet and a pitch of 23.4 feet. What would be the apparent slip if the vessel cruised of 538 miles in a 24 hour day (observed distance) at an average RPM of 87? -11.60%

If the speed necessary for reaching port at a designated time is 20.7 knots and 86

If the speed necessary for reaching port at a designated time is 17.4 knots and the pitch of the propeller is 25.6 feet, how many revolutions per minute will the shaft have to turn, assuming a 3% positive slip? 71

If the pitch of the propeller is 19.7 feet, and the revolutions per day are 287.6 miles

If the pitch of the propeller is 20.6 feet, and the revolutions per day are 107,341, calculate the days run allowing 3% positive slip. 352.7 miles

You have steamed 916 miles at 13 knots, and consumed 166 tons of fuel. If you have 203 tons of usable fuel remaining, how far can you steam at 14 knots? 966 miles

You have steamed 803 miles at 13 knots, and consumed 179 tons of fuel. If you have 371 tons of usable fuel remaining, how far can you steam at 16 knots? 1099 miles

While steaming at 19.5 knots, your vessel burns 297 bbls of fuel per day. What 135 bbls

Your vessel consumes 215 barrels of fuel per day at a speed of 18.0 knots. 101 bbls

You have steamed 142 miles and consumed 21.0 tons of fuel. If you maintain the same speed, how many tons of fuel will you consume while steaming 465 miles? 68.8 tons

You have steamed 142 miles and consumed 15.0 tons of fuel. If you maintain the same speed, how many tons of fuel will you consume while steaming 472 miles? 49.9 tons

You wish to make good a course of 0530T while turning for an engine speed of 16 knots. The set is 3450T, and the drift is 2.4 knots. What course should you steer? 0610T

You wish to make good a course of 0350T while turning for an engine speed of 12 knots. The set is 3400T, and the drift is 2 knots. What speed will you make good along the track line? 13.0 knots

You wish to make good a course of 3500T while turning for an engine speed of 10 knots. The set is 0700T, and the drift is 1.5 knots. What speed will you make good along the track line? 10.2 knots

The temperature at which fuel oil must be heated to allow flammable vapors flashpoint

The chloride content of boiler water is expressed in a unit of measure called: PPM

The counterbore in a cylinder is _________. to distribute the oil film evenly over the cylinder surface

Heat engines are thermal efficiency referring tothe ratio of ______. output on the shaft/flywheel over internally produced power

The valve that prevent steam pressure from exceeding the allowable working safety valve

The clearing a cylinder of exhaust gases by forcing into a current of air which scavenging

The reversed air starting system that can be used only on two stroke ported rotating camshaft

To change a liquid to vapor is called latent heat of ______. vaporation

When would a refrigerant gives up heat? When it _______. condenses

The temperature of the _______ is the lowest temperature obtained in a liquid in the evaporator

The cooling effect of refrigeration is produced by ________. lowering pressure of refrigerant

What are the two main types of evaporators? dry and flooded

In refrigeration where is the greatest decrease in the temperature of the refrigerant? condenser

What is a receiver in a refrigeration system for? store the refrigerant

What would ambient temperature mean? temperature of air in the surrounding space

If there is moisture in a refrigeration system, it will cause a ______. faulty expansion valve

If a brine in a refrigeration system has a high specific gravity, ________. it will crystallize

What is a measure of humidity? water vapor content