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1.4 Marks

Each question is followed by two statements A and B. Answer each question using the following instructions.Mark (1) if the question can be answered by using statement A alone but not by using statement B alone.Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using statement B alone but not by using statement A alone.Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by using either of the statements alone.Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements.

P and Q together can do a piece of work in a days, Q and R together can do the same piece of work in b days, P and R together can dothe same piece of work in c days. Working alone, who among P,Q and R can complete the work fastest?

A. b > aB. c < b

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

4) 4

Solution:b > a means that R will take more time than P to complete the same work.

c < b means that Q will take more time than P to complete the same work.So if we take both the options together then P can complete the work fastest.

Hence, option 3.

2.4 Marks

Ram bought a car which depreciated at 10% every year. After 3 years, Shyam bought it at 70% of its value then and sold it for Rs . 132678at a profit of 30%. For how much did Ram buy the car?

1) Rs. 150000

2) Rs. 175000

3) Rs. 205000

4) Rs. 200000

Solution:Let the cost price of the car bex

Cost price of car for Shyam

For Shyam, profit = 30%

x = Rs. 200000

Hence, option 4.

3.4 Marks

When n chocolates were distributed among 11 children such that each child got the same number of chocolates, 5 chocolates were leftover. If 4n chocolates were to be distributed among 88 children such that each child got equal number of chocolates, how many chocolatescould have got left over?

1) 54

2) 64

3) 44

4) 74

Collapse All

Section I


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Solution:Let each child get kchocolates in the first case.

n = 11k + 5

Now, 4n = 88p + q where q is the number of chocolates left over.

4(11k + 5) = 88p + q

44k + 20 = 88p + q

Sincep corresponds to number of chocolates received by each student in the second case, it is an integral value.

Hence, k 2

For k = 2,p = 1 and q = 20

For k = 3,p = 1 and q = 64

Similarly, for every value forp, q = 20 or 64.

Only 64 is given in the options.

Hence, option 2.

4.4 Marks

The line passing through (3, 4) intersects the line ax + by + 1 = 0 at (0, 1), and at right angles. What is the value of a b?

1) 1

2) 2

3) 0

4) None of these

Solution:Substitute (0, 1) in ax + by + 1 = 0

b = 1

Since b = 1, the slope becomes a.

Since the two lines are perpendicular, (a)(1) = 1.

a = 1

a b = (1) (1) = 0

Hence, option 3.

5.4 Marks

Rs. 155 is dist ributed amongst 10 brothers. There is a constant dif ference in the amount received between a brother and his younger

sibling with the younger sibling earning more. If the 3rd oldest receives Rs. 8, how much does the youngest receive?

1) Rs. 29

2) Rs. 31

3) Rs. 68

4) None of these

Solution:Let the oldest sibling receive Rs. x

2nd oldest receives (x + d)

3rd oldest receives (x + 2d)

The youngest receives (x + 9d)

Now,

10x + 45d = 155 (i)


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and

x + 2d = 8 (ii)

Solving (i) and (ii) simultaneously, we get

d = 3 andx = 2

The youngest brother receives (x + 9d) = 2 + 9(3) = Rs. 29

Hence, option 1.

6.4 Marks What is 22.89% of 9842 + 47.46% of 703 + 8.12% of 59052?

1) 6892.2

2) 7752.5

3) 7381.5

4) 5652.5

Solution:Observe that the given numbers are not easy to use with percentages and the percentages are not easily converted to fractions.

e.g. 10% of 20 = 2.

This is the same as (10 2)% of (20/2) i.e. 20% of 10 = 2

This is also the same as (10/2)% of (20 2) i.e. 5% of 40 = 2

Observe if any such relationship exists between 9842, 703 and 59052.

9842 = 703 14 and 59052 = 9842 6

Similarly,

Hence, the given expression becomes:

22.89% of 9842 + 3.39% of 9842 + 48.72% of 9842 = (22.89 + 3.39 + 48.72)% of 9842

= 75% of 9842

= 7381.5

Hence, option 3.

7.4 Marks

There are two groups of farmers. The first group of farmers has four farmers who can individually s ow a field in 2, 4, 8 and 16 daysrespectively. The other group has five farmers who can sow the field in 3, 9, 27, 81 and 243 days respectively. The groups sow twoidentical fields. Which group finishes first and by how many days?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Solution:The amount of work done by the group of 4 in a day

The amount of work done by the group of 5 in a day

Reports for

iCMAT 01 (Sept

2014)

OverviewAccuracy Time Allocation NationalPercentile

SolutionKey

QuestionSelection

UnattemptedQuestions Report


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Clearly, the group of four finishes first and by

Hence, option 1.

8.4 Marks

The speed of a train is proportional to the square of the number of wagons attached to it. I f the speed is 32 kmph, the number of wagonsattached is 4. When the speed of the train becomes four times this speed, what is the additional number of wagons attached?

1) 8

2) 6

3) 4

4) 2

Solution:Let the speed of the train be Vkmph and number of wagons attached be N.

VN2

V = k N2

For V= 32, N = 4

i.e., 32 = k (4)2

k = 2

V = 2 N2

Now, V = 32 4 = 128 kmph

N= 8 (as number of wagons cannot be negative)

Number of additional wagons attached = 8 4 = 4

Hence, option 3.

Alternatively,

N2 = 64

N = 8

Number of additional wagons attached = 8 4 = 4

Hence, option 3.

9.4 Marks


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The figure above shows the sales of company (in Rs.) in four quarters of the year 2011. What percentage of the sales in the fourth quarteris the sum of the sales in first and second quarters?

1) 50

2) 75

3) 125

4) 100

Solution:Sales in the fourth quarter = Rs. 3,60,000

Sum of sales in the first and second quarters = 1,20,000 + 2,40,000 = Rs. 3,60,000

Hence, option 4.

10.4 Marks

When 25 litres of water is added to a 100 litre milk-water solution, the ratio of milk and water gets reversed. What would the ratio of milkand water become if 25 litres of pure milk were to be added to the original solution?

1) 2 : 1

2) 27 : 11

3) 20 : 9

4) 29 : 16

Solution:Let the original solution havex liters of milk and (100 x) litres of water.

x2= (100 x)2 + 25(100 x)

x

2

= 10000 200x +x

2

+ 2500 25x

225x = 12500

When 25 litres of milk is added to the solution, the ratio becomes:

Hence, option 4.

11.4 Marks

The average age of a group of people decreased by 40% when 25% of the people in the group left i t. I f the diff erence between the averageage of the people who left the group, and the average age of those who remained was 25.6 years, what is the average age (in years) of thepeople who left the group?

1) 16

2) 35.2


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3) 2.2

4) None of the above

Solution:Let the original number of people in the group be nand their original average age bexyears.

Hence, the original total age of the group = nx years

After 25% people left the group, number of people left = 0.75nand average age of the remaining group = 0.6x years

Total age of the remaining group = (0.75n)(0.6x) = 0.45nx

Since the difference between the average age of people who left and people who remained was 25.6 years

2.2x 0.6x = 25.6

Average age of people who left the group = 2.2 16 = 35.2 years

Hence, option 2.

12.4 Marks There are 3 clocks on a wall one that shows the correct t ime, one that runs late by 4 minutes every hour and one that runs early by 6minutes every hour. All the three clocks are set at 6 o' clock. After how many hours will all the three clocks show 6 o' clocksimultaneously?

1) 120 hours

2) 180 hours

3) 270 hours

4) 360 hours

Solution:All the t hree c locks will show 6 o' clock only w hen the clock that runs late l oses 12 hours or a multiple of 12 hours and t he clock that runsearly gains 12 hours or a multiple of 12 hours.

The clock that runs late by 4 minutes will take 15 hours to lose 1 hour.

Hence, it will take 180 hours to lose 12 hours.

The clock that runs early by 6 minutes will take 10 hours to gain 1 hour.

Hence, it will take 120 hours to gain 12 hours.

The L.C.M of 180 and 120 is 360.

Hence, after 360 hours, all the three clocks will show 6 o' clock simultaneously.

Hence, option 4.

13.4 Marks

The loss on the sale of 60 oranges is equal to the selling price of 15 oranges. By what percentage is the selling price of 1 orange less thanthe cost price of 1 orange?

1) 25%

2) 40%

3) 20%

4) None of these

Solution:Let the selling price of 1 orange be Re. 1

Hence, S.P. of 15 oranges = Rs. 15 and that of 60 oranges = Rs. 60

When 60 oranges are sold for Rs. 60, the loss is Rs. 15.

Hence, C.P. of 60 oranges = 60 + 15 = Rs. 75

Hence, option 3.


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Note: The negative sign in the final percentage calculation has been ignored as it just indicates that the S.P. is less than the C.P. by thecalculated percentage.

14.4 Marks

What is the value ofx?

1) 0.007

2) 0.7

3) 0.07

4) None of these

Solution:

Hence, option 3.

15.4 Marks

Rohan purchased potatoes, tomatoes and onions in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3. The ratio of price (in Rs/k g) of potatoes, tomatoes and onions is 2 :3 : 4. What is the ratio of average price (in Rs/kg) of potatoes and onions combined to onions and tomatoes combined?

1) 35 : 36

2) 17 : 18

3) 5 : 6

4) 7 : 9

Solution:Let Rohan buyx, 2x and 3x kgs of potatoes, tomatoes and onions respectively.

Let the price of potatoes, tomatoes and onions (in Rs. per kg) be 2y, 3y and 4y respectively.

Thus, total cost of potatoes and onions bought = (x)(2y) + (3x)(4y) = Rs. 14xy

And, total quantity of potatoes and onions bought =x + 3x = 4x kgs

Similarly,

Hence, option 1.

16.4 Marks

Ram and Sham enter into a partnership by contributing Rs. 2,00,000 and Rs. 2,50,000 respectively. After 2 months, Chetan joins them bycontributing Rs. 3,00,000. Four months before the end of the year, Ram quits by taking his share of the capital with him. Because of thisSham adds another Rs. (X 1000). At the end of the year the partnership makes a profit of Rs. 6,63,000. If the difference betweenShams share and Rams share of profit is Rs. 1,36,000, what isX?

1) 40

2) 60

3) 50

4) None of these

Solution:Ram invests Rs. 2,00,000 for 8 months.

Sham invests Rs. 2,50,000 for 12 months and Rs. (X 1000) for 4 months.


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Chetan invests Rs. 3,00,000 for 10 months.

(Ratio of Investment Time) for Ram, Sham and Chetan = 1600 : (4X+ 3000) : 3000

1600 + (4X+ 3000) + 3000 = 4X+ 7600

The total profit = Rs. 6,63,000

4X + 7600 corresponds to Rs. 6,63,000

Difference between Shams share and Rams share of profit is Rs. 1, 36,000.

663(4X + 1400) = 136(4X + 7600)

663 4X + 663 1400 = 136 4X + 136 7600

(663 4X) (136 4X ) = (136 7600) (663 1400)

(527 4X) = (136 7600) (663 1400) = 105400

Solving this equation,X = 50

Hence, option 3.

17.4 Marks

Sanju went to the market to buy some apples, bananas and oranges. The cost of 7 bananas, 8 apples and 3 oranges is Rs. 60 whereasthe cost of 16 apples, 9 oranges and 14 bananas is Rs. 150. Find the cost of one banana.

1) Rs. 30

2) Rs. 25

3) Rs. 45

4) Cannot be determined.

Solution:Let the cost of one banana, one apple and one orange be a, b and crespectively.

7a + 8b + 3c = 60 (i)

14a + 16b + 9c = 150 (ii)

From (i) and (ii) we get

c = 10

But as co-efficients of a and bare in proportion, their values cannot be determined.

Hence, option 4.

18.4 Marks p and q are the roots of the equation a

2 2a k = 0.

1) 3

2) 4

3) 5

4) 6

Solution:

p + 2 + q + 2 = 3(p + 2)(q + 2)


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p + q + 4 = 3[pq + 2(p + q) + 4]

(p + q) + 4 = 3pq + 6(p + q) + 12

3pq + 5(p + q) + 8 = 0

Sincep and q are the roots of the equation a2 2a k = 0,

sum of roots =p + q= (2)/1 = 2

and product of roots =pq = (k)/1 = k

3(k) + 5(2) + 8 = 0

3k = 18

k = 6

Hence, option 4.

19.4 Marks

ab + 3c = (a + c)(b + c), where a, b and c are positive real numbers. If abctakes its greatest possible value, what is the value of 3a + b?

1) 4

2) 5

3) 3

4) 6

Solution:For positive real numbers, abc takes its greatest value when a = b = c

ab + 3c = (a + c)(b + c)

a2 + 3a = (2a)(2a)

3a2 = 3a

a = 0 or 1

Since a, b and care positive, a = 1

3a + b = 3(1) + 1 = 4

Hence, option 1.

20.4 Marks

The line chart below shows the number of mobile handsets s old by seven different companies in January 2014.

Which company has sold approximately 15% of all the mobile handsets sold in January 2014?

1) Lenevo

2) HTC

3) MicroMax

4) Sony

Solution:Total number of handsets sold in January 2014 = 100000 + 300000 + 50000 + 125000 + 175000 + 30000 + 80000 = 860000

15% of 860000 = 129000


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The company that comes closest to this value is Sony (approximately 125000) handsets.

Hence, option 4.

21.4 Marks

In an equilateral triangle ABC, AD = EC = 1 cm and AB = 4 cm. What is the length of DE?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Solution:AB = BC = AC = 4 cm

AE = AC EC = 4 1 = 3 cm

In ADE, AD = 1 cm, AE = 3 cm and DAE = 60

10 DE2 = 3

Hence, option 4.

22.4 Marks

1) 85

2) 89

3) 91

4) 95

Solution:

2 log a. log 2 = 7 log b. log 2


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Hence, option 3.

23.4 Marks

The average weight of 10 students in a class is 70 kg. A few students, each weighing at least 50 kg, join the class . What is the minimumnumber of students who have joined, if the average weight of the class becomes 55 kg?

1) 20

2) 25

3) 30

4) 40

Solution:Total weight of the students

= average weight number of students

= 70 10 kgs = 700 kgs

Let the number of students joining bex.

Forx to be minimum, the weight of the students joining will have to be minimum too i.e. 50 kgs.

x = 30 students

Hence, option 3.

24.4 Marks

The product of two numbers is 18490. What is the difference between the two numbers when their HCF takes it s largest possible value?

1) 43

2) 387

3) 129

4) More than one of the above

Solution:Let the two numbers be a and b.

ab = 18490

18490 = 21 51 432

Since 432 is present in the product and 2, 5 and 43 are co-prime, both a and b should have 43 as one of their factors. If 43 is not a factorcommon to both the numbers, the HCF of the two numbers becomes 1. If 43 is the factor common to both numbers, the HCF of the twonumbers becomes 43.

Thus, 43 is the largest possible value of the HCF.

For HCF = 43, the possible values of a and b (and the relevant difference) are:

a = 2 43 and b = 5 43ab = 3 43 = 129

a = 2 5 43 and b = 43ab = 9 43 = 387


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Thus, the possible difference between the two numbers is either 129 or 387.

Hence, option 4.

Note: Since it is not known whether a > b, the values of a and b can be interchanged. However, we still get the same values for thedifference.

25.4 Marks

ABCD is a square as shown below. The area of trapezium ABED is fiv e times the area of DEC. What is the ratio of area of trapeziumAECD to t he area of the square?

1) 3 : 4

2) 4 : 5

3) 2 : 3

4) 5 : 6

Solution:

Since ABCD is a square, AB = CD and AD = BC.

Also, BE = BC EC

2BC EC = 5EC

BC = CD = 3EC

Hence, option 3.

26.4 Marks

A, B, C , D, W, X, Y and Z sit along a circular table in such a way that A, B, C and D sit alternately and X, Y, Z and W also sit alternately.Y and W sit opposite each other. Z sits to the immediate right of A, who sits opposite C. Who is to the immediate right of C?

1) X

2) Y

3) W

4) Z

Solution:A is opposite C and Z i s to the immediate right of A. Also, Y and W are opposite each other.

Considering that W, X, Y and Z sit at alternate places, the arrangement becomes:

Section II


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Thus, X sits opposite Z.

So, X is to the immediate right of C.

Hence, option 1.

27.4 Marks

A, B, C, D and E are five tennis players. Each of them has won a disti nct tournament out of French Open, Wimbledon, Itali an Open, USOpen and Australian Open. Their current ages (in years) are 23, 29, 31, 27 and 26 (in no particular order). Further:

1. A did not win Wimbledon and was neither the youngest nor the eldest in this group.2. D was 2 years younger to the player who won Wimbledon.3. The youngest player won either the Italian Open or Australian Open.4. The player aged 31 won the French Open.

5. The player who won the US open was 3 years younger to B.6. E won the Italian Open.

What was the age of the player who won the Australian Open?

1) 23

2) 27

3) 26

4) Cannot be determined

Solution:Create a table as shown below:

From (6), since E won the Italian Open, E cannot be 31 (as the French Open winner is 31 years old).

From (2), D = 29 (i.e. 31 2) or 27 (i.e. 29 2).

However, D is two years younger than the person who won Wimbledon and the French Open winner is 31 years old.

Hence, D is 27 years old and the Wimbledon winner is 29 years old.

From (1), A = 26, 27 or 29 and A did not win Wimbledon.

Hence, A is 26 years old.

Hence, one of B or C is 31 years old.

From (5), B = 26 (i.e. 23 + 3) or 29 (26 + 3)

Since A is already 26, B is 29 years oldand hence, C is 31 years old.

Thus, C won the French Open andB won Wimbledon.

Thus, the only possible age of E is 23 years.

Since B is 3 years elder to the US Open winner, A (i.e. the 26 year old) won the US Open and D won the Australian Open.

Thus, the final table is as shown below:


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Thus, the winner of the Australian Open is 27 years old.

Hence, option 2.

28.4 Marks

The question below has a set of sequentially ordered statements. Each statement can be classified as one of the following:

A. Facts, which deal with the pieces of information that one has heard, seen or read, and which are open to discovery or verification(the answer option indicates such a statement with an F)

B. Inferences, which are conclusions drawn about the unknown, on the basis of the known (the answer option indicates such astatement with an I)

C. Judgements, which are opinions that imply approval or disapproval of persons, objects, situations and occurrences in the past, the

present or the future (the answer option indicates such a statement with a J)

Select the answer option that best describes the set of statements.

1. We should not be hopelessly addicted to an erroneous belief that peace with Pakist an is forever impossible.2. The truth is that we cannot move forward on the peace process unless Pakistan checks terrorism.3. The Pakistan army is hand in glove with terrorist organisations.4. The connection between the army and terror organisations is s o deep that a dreaded terrorist like Osama Bin Laden was hiding near

the army base of Abbotabad.

1) JIFI

2) JFJJ

3) JIJF

4) IFJF

Solution:Statement 1 is a judgment because the person is saying "should not be". Statement 2 is an inference drawn about the peace process inPakistan moving forward. Statement 3 is a verifiable fact. Statement 4 is inferential, based on fact of Osama's hideout. The correctsequence is JIFI.Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

29.4 Marks

A joint family has eight members - A, B, K, M, N, T, L and J. J is the only grandson of B. L and K are the daughters-in-law of A, who is thehusband of B. K is the mother of J. N is unmarried. M is the brother of L's husband. N is the sister of M. How is M related to T and howmany male members does the family have?

1) Brother, 3

2) Brother-in-Law, 4

3) Brother, 4

4) None of these

Solution:

L and K are the daughters-in-law of A, who is the husband of B.

A is the father-in-law of L and K.

K is the mother of J and J is the only grandson of B.

J is a boy.

Now we are left with three people M, N and T to place in the family tree. M is the brother of L's husband and it is given that N isnot married to anyone.

T is the husband of L and M is the husband of K.

N is the sister of M which means N, M and T are siblings.

M is the brother of T.

There are 4 male members in the family A, T, M and J.

Hence, option 3.


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30.4 Marks

Four archeologists from Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai go to four different places in the country Harappa, Mohenjo-Daro, Lothal andDwarka in no particular order. They are wearing red, blue, green and yellow coloured turbans. The archeologist from Mumbai went to Lothaland is wearing a blue turban. The one wearing green turban hails from Kolkata. The one wearing a yellow turban went to Mohenjo-Daro andthe archeologist who went to Dwarka was from Delhi. Which of the following combinations is correct?

1) Delhi Red

2) Kolkata Mohenjo-Daro

3) Mohenjo-Daro Green

4) Dwarka Yellow

Solution:The fact that option 3 is incorrect can be directly obtained from the given data as the archeologist wearing a yellow turban went toMohenjo-Daro.

The archeologist wearing the green turban hails from Kolkata and doesnt go to Mohenjo-Daro and hence option 2 is also incorrect.

The archeologist from Delhi went to Dwarka and he cannot be wearing a yellow turban as the one with the yellow turban went to Mohenjo-Daro. Hence, option 4 is also incorrect.

Hence, option 1.

31.4 Marks

Six countries Spain (S), England (E), Holland (H), Germany (G), France (F), and Uruguay (U) are partcipating in a football competition.These counties have been divided in two groups A and B, each containing three countries. Three countries are selected two from group

A and one from group B. Each of the given s elections satisfies these criteria.

(H, E, U), (G, S, E), (F, E, S), (H, S, E)

Which of the following statements is not correct?

1) Spain and Holland are in groups A and B respectiv ely.

2) Germany and France are in group B.

3) Uruguay and England are in group A.

4) France and Spain are in the same group.

Solution:Each selection given satisfies the criteria that two countries from group A and one from group B have been selected.

Observe that E is present in all the selections.

If E has been selected from group B, the remaining two countries in each selection will belong to group A.

So, H, U, G, S and F will also belong to group A. However, this violates the condition that there are only three countries in a group.

So, E has been selected from group A.

Now, observe that S is present in three selections and E is present in each of these.

It has been proved that E has been selected from group A.

If S has been selected from group B, the third country in each of these selections will be from group A.

In such a case, G, F and H will be from group A. However, this will take the number of countries from group A to 4 (G, F, H, E). Again,this is invalid.

So, S has also been selected from group A.

Hence, in every selection that has both S and E, the third country has been selected from group B.

Hence, G, F and H are from group B while S, E and U are from group A.

i.e. Group A: Spain, England, Uruguay

Group B: Germany, France, Holland

Thus, only the statement in option 4 is not correct.

Hence, option 4.

32.4 Marks

The numbers 7, 10, 15, 16 and 21 are written one by one on a sheet of paper such that no three consecutiv e numbers are either indescending order or in ascending order. If 15 was the first number written and 21 was the last, in how many ways could the five numbershave been written?

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

4) 4


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Solution:The order in which the numbers were written was 15, ___, ___, ___, 21.

Case 1:Let 7 be the second number.

Here, 16 has to be the third and 10 has to be the fourth number.

So, the only combination possible in this case is (7, 16, 10).


Here, 16 has to be the third and 7 has to be the fourth number.

So, the only combination possible in this case is (10, 16, 7).


Here, if 7 is the third number, then (7, 10, 21) form a set of numbers in ascending order, which is invalid.

If 10 is the third number, then (16, 10, 7) form a set of numbers in descending order, which is also invalid.

So, there is no combination possible in this case.

Hence, the numbers could have been written in only two ways.

Hence, option 2.

33.4 Marks

Karan, Arjun and Sahadev book rooms in different hotels based on their preferences. Each of them opts for a different thing out of spa,

sauna and Jacuzzi. Each of the hotels JWM, JTC and Hyatt has just one of these facilities. The person who choses Jacuzzi does not goto Hyatt. Karan likes spa. Arjun does not go to Hyatt. Hyatt does not have spa facility. Which of the following is a correct combination?

1) Arjun, Sauna, Hyatt

2) Karan, Jacuzzi, JWM

3) Sahadev, Sauna, Hyatt


Solution:Hyatt doesnt have spa. Hyatt doesnt have Jacuzzi either. So Hyatt has sauna.

Karan likes spa, so he does not go to Hyatt. Arjun also does not go to Hyatt. So Sahadev goes to Hyatt.

So the correct combination is Sahadev, Sauna, Hyatt.

Hence, option 3.

34.4 Marks

There were three types of people Alpha, Beta and Gamma in a room.

Alpha: People w ho always speak the truth

Beta: People who occasionally speak the truth

Gamma: People who always lie

All the ten people in the room were asked t o specify the number of Alpha category people in the room. The responses of the ten peoplewere: 3, 2, 4, 1, 1, 4, 2, 2, 3 and 1.

If exactly two members of category Beta spoke the truth, how many people actually belong to category Alpha?

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3


Solution:If there are n people in the Alpha category, each of them would have mentioned the correct number exactly once i.e. n times in all.

Apart from this, two members from the Beta category have also mentioned the correct number.

Hence, the correct number has been mentioned (n+ 2) times in all, in the given list.

From the list, number of people in the Alpha category can be 1, 2, 3 or 4.

For 1 person the number 1 should be present 3 times.

For 2 people the number 2 should be present 4 times.



The only number that satisfies this condition is 1.


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Hence, there is only one person from the Alpha category.

Hence, option 1.

35.4 Marks

Ramesh had ordered 21 identic al packets of sweets, each weighing 1 kg. On delivery, he found that only 20 of them weighed 1 kg, whileone weighed more than 1 kg. If Ramesh has a weighing balance, in how many weighings can he definitely identify the packet that does notweigh 1 kg?

1) 3

2) 4

3) 5

4) 6

Solution:Ramesh should divide the 21 packets into 3 groups having 7 packets each.

Now, he should compare any two groups (say, groups 1 and 2). If the pan is balanced, the odd packet is in the third group else it is in thegroup that has gone down in the weighing balance.

Thus, at the end of the first weighing, the number of packets comes down to 7.

Now, divide these into three groups having 2, 2 and 3 packets respectively and weigh the two groups having two packets each againsteach other. There are two outcomes possible:

Case 1: One of these pans goes down.

The odd packet is in that pan and the number of odd packets has come down to 2 at the end of the second weighing.

Now, just weigh these two packets against each other and identify the heavier packet.

Thus, the heavier packet has been identified in 3 weighings.

Case 2: The pans are balanced.

So, the odd packet is in the third group i.e. the one having 3 packets. So, the number of odd packets has come down to 3 at the end of thesecond weighing.

Divide this group into three groups each having one packet, and weigh any two of them.

If any of the pans goes down, that pan has the heavier packet. If they stay balanced, the remaining packet is the heavier one.

Thus, the heavier packet has again been identified in 3 weighings.

Hence, option 1.

36.4 Marks

In the morning, the shadow of a person is behind him. If , in the evening, his shadow is towards his left, then through what angle has herotated?

1) 90 clockwise

2) 90 anticlockwise

3) 270 anticlockwise

4) More than one of the above

Solution:Since in the morning, the shadow of the person is behind him, he is facing the sun (east).

In the evening, the shadow of a person is to the east. This is to the left of that person now. That means he should now be facing south.

So, he has rotated from east to south. The rotation angle can be either 90 clockwise or 270 anticlockw ise.

Hence, option 4.

37.4 Marks

Which is the odd term among the following?

170, 197, 226, 255, 325

1) 170

2) 226

3) 255

4) 325

Solution:

All the terms except 255 are of the f orm k2 + 1, where k is a natural number.

Thus 255 is the odd term.


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Hence, option 3.

38.4 Marks

A number arrangement machine when given an input line of words/numbers rearranges/ does some operations on them following aparticular set of rules for each step and gives output in a finite number of steps. Analyze the rules from the given steps and answer thequestions that follow:

Input: 1 5 7 9 11 13 15

Step I: 1 25 49 81 121 169 225

Step II: 2 26 50 82 122 170 226

Step III : 1 13 25 41 61 85 113

As per the rules followed in above steps, what w ill be step III for t he input:

3 17 21 1 19

1) 9 289 441 1 361

2) 10 230 442 2 362

3) 8 288 440 0 360

4) 5 145 221 1 181

Solution:The steps are as follows:

Step I : (x2) : 9 289 441 1 361

Step II: (x2 +1) : 10 290 442 2 362

Step III: (x2 +1)/2 : 5 145 221 1 181

Hence, option 4.

39.4 Marks

D13I10A, B3A13L, Z30D9E, R20__5__

Which alphabets will fill the blanks in the given series?

1) C, D

2) B, D

3) C, E

4) B, C

Solution:Consider the term D13I10A.

Now, consider the position of each letter in the alphabet.

D = 4, I = 9 and A = 1

Observe that 13 = 4(D) + 9(I) and 10 = 9(I) + 1(A)

The same pattern also applies in the remaining terms.

Now, R = 18

20 = 18(R) + 2

Since B = 2, the first blank is filled with B.

5 = 2(B) + 3

Since C = 3, the second blank is filled with C.

Hence, option 4.

40.4 Marks

The letters P, Q, R, S and T have been uniquely assigned one of five dist inct digits 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. Each of these digits is uniquelychosen by Rahul, Santosh, Mohan, Kaustabh and Shridhar. Further:

1. 3 is assigned to S.2. Rahul chose the digit assigned to either Q or R.3. Santosh chose T, which is not assigned 4.4. The digit chosen by Kaustabh is 4 more than the digit assigned to P.5. The digit chosen by Mohan is 3 less than the digit assigned to Q.

Which digit is chosen by Shridhar?

1) 1

2) 4


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3) 3


Solution:Make a table as shown below:

From (1), S = 3

From (4), P = 1 and Kaustubh = 1 + 4 = 5

From (5), Q = 5 and Mohan = 2 or Q = 4 and Mohan = 1

From (3), T = Santosh and T 4 i.e. T = 2 or 5

If T = 5, then both Santosh and Kaustubh have picked the digit 5 (which is not possible).

Hence, T = 2 = Santosh

Hence, Mohan 2 i.e. Q = 4 and Mohan = 1

Hence, R = 5 = Kaustubh, P = 1 = Mohan

Since Rahul chose the digit assigned to Q or R, Q = 4 = Rahul

Hence, as shown below:3 = S = Shridhar.

Hence, option 3.

41.4 Marks

Given below are three statements followed by three conclusions. Choose the conclusions which definitely follow from at least two of thethree given statements

Statements:

1. Some Indians are married2. All Japanese are doctors3. All doctors are married

Conclusions:

A. All doctors are JapaneseB. Some Indians are JapaneseC. Some doctors are Indians

1) Only A and B follow

2) Only C follows

3) Only B follows

4) None of A, B and C follow

Solution:One way of expressing the given statements is shown below.


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As evident from the figure, all t hree conclusions are f alse in this case.

Since there exists a case where each conclusion is false, none of the conclusions definitely follows from the given statements.

Hence, option 4.

42.4 Marks

A, B, C , D, E, F and G have been divided into groups, such that exact ly one group contains three people. A is in the same group asexactly one of D or F. B and E are in different groups. A and C are in the same group, if D is not in the same group as both of them. G andD are in the same group. In how many different ways can the groups be formed?

1) 7

2) 6

3) 5

4) 8

Solution:Case 1: Group 1 has 3 people and Group 2 has 4 people.

Since G and D are together, there are two sub-cases based on which group they are in.

Sub-case 1: G and D are in group 1 (3 people)

Since B and E are in different groups, one of them is in group 1. No one else can be in group 1.

So, group 1 = G, D, (B/E) and group 2 = (B/E), A, C, F

Depending on where B and E are, two groups can be formed.

Sub-case 2: G and D are in group 2 (4 people)

Since B and E are in different groups, one of them is in group 1 and the other is in group 2.

So, the three people in group 2 (so far) are: G, D, (B/E)

and the one person in group 1 is B/E.

Now, if both A and C are in group 1, no one else can be in group 1. This violates the condition that A is in the same group as exactly oneof D or F.

So, one of A and C is in group 1 and the other is in group 2.

Finally, F is in group 1.

So, group 1 = (B/E), (A/C), F and group 2 = G, D, (B/E), (A/C)

Since there are four combinations possible i.e. BA, BC, EA and EC, four groups can be formed.

Case 2: Group 1 has 3 people, groups 2 and 3 have 2 people each.

Again, based on G and D, there are two sub-cases possible.

Sub-case 1: G and D are in group 2 or 3 (2 people).

Say G and D are in group 3. Hence, this group is full.

Here, it is not possible for G to be in the same group as A and C.

So, A and C are together.

If A and C are in group 2, B, E and F are in group 1. However, this is not valid as B and E cannot be together and one of D or F has to bewith A.

If A and C are in group 1, F has to be with A in group 1. Hence, B and E are in group 2. Again, this is not valid as B and E cannot betogether.

Hence, G and D cannot be in group 2 or 3 at all. Here, no group can be formed.

Sub-case 2: G and D are in group 1 (3 people).

As seen in t he earlier sub-case, one of A or C has to be with D.

If C is in group 1, then A and F are together in a group while B and E are together in the other group. Again, this is not valid as B and Ecannot be together.


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Hence, A is in group 1 with D.

Now, one of B or E is with C in one group and the other is with F in the other group.

So, group 1 = G, D, A, group 2 = C, (B/E) and group 3 = F, (B/E)

So, two groups can be formed.

Hence, total groups possible = 2 + 4 + 2 = 8

Hence, option 4.

43.

4 Marks

Answer the question based on t he passage given below.

According t o U.S. Secretary of Energy Steven Chu, Developing the next generation of biofuels is key to our effort to end our dependenceon foreign oil and address the climate crisis while creating millions of new jobs that cant be outsourced.Which of the following statements, if true, would weaken the statement given by the U.S. Secretary?

1) A study s hows that corn-based bioethanol, has a higher combined environmental and health burden than conventional fuels.

2) The U.S is a major importer of oil.

3) Biofuels are 15% cheaper than conventional fuels.

4) Creation of new jobs cannot always be linked to the development of partic ular sectors.

Solution:The main idea put forth in the passage is that biofuels are capable of playing a key role in the reduction of dependence on imports, whilecreating jobs and addressing climate change issues. Option 1 is the best choice as it states that corn-based bioethanol has a highenvironmental and health burden and hence, will not help in solving the climate change crisis, but will in fact worsen it.Options 2 and 3 would strengthen the point made by the U.S. Secretary.Option 4 is very vague and does not provide any substantial reasoning, which can lead us to conclude that it weakens the argument of theSecretary.Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

44.4 Marks

Three adjacent faces of a cube of dimensions 4 4 4 are painted. The cube is then broken into smaller cubes of dimensions 1 1 1.How many of these cubes have only one face painted?

1) 25

2) 27

3) 35

4) None of these

Solution:All the cubes on the painted surfaces except those on t he edges are painted on only one surface.

Number of cubes having only one face painted = 9 + 9 + 9 = 27

Hence, option 2.

45.4 Marks If the 21

st march 1998 was Tuesday, then what was the day on 22nd march 2007?

1) Saturday

2) Sunday

3) Monday

4) Tuesday

Solution:

From 21stmarch 1998 to 21st march 1999, it is one year, which gives 1 odd day.

From 21stmarch 1999 to 21st march 2000, it is one leap year, which gives 2 odd day.


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+ 1 more day of 22ndmarch = 12 odd days

I.e. a total of 5 odd days.

Hence, the day was Sunday.

Hence, option 2.

46.4 Marks

In a school survey 30% students like cric ket, 60% like football and 50% like tennis. Every student likes at least one of the three sports. I fthe percentage of students who like all three sports is p, what the maximum value ofp?

1) 20

2) 25

3) 18

4) None of these

Solution:Out of 100, let a students like only one sport, let bstudents like exactly two sports.p students like three sports.Now,a + b +p = 100 (i)

Also,a + 2b + 3p = 30 + 60 + 50 = 140 (ii)Subtracting (i) from (ii),b + 2p = 40Now, to maximisep, we have to minimise b.The minimum value of b = 0

2p = 40

pmax = 20

Hence, option 1.

47.4 Marks

Six digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 - are arranged in a line from left to right suc h that 1 is neither at the beginning nor at the end. 2 isimmediately followed by 6. From right to left, 5 is before 4 but after 3. There are two digits between 6 and 4. There are three digits between1 and 3. How many digits are between 4 and 5?

1) 4

2) 2

3) 3

4) 1

Solution:1 is neither at the beginning nor at the end and there are three digits between 1 and 3.

Therefore, there are two possible arrangements:

__ 1 __ __ __ 3 or 3 __ __ __ 1 __

However, from right to left 5 is after 3 i.e. from left to right, 5 is somewhere to the left of 3.

Hence, 3 is not at the extreme left, and the correct arrangement is: __ 1 __ __ __ 3

There are two digits between 6 and 4. Hence, the possible arrangements are:

4 1 __ 6 __ 3 or 6 1 __ 4 __ 3

However, 2 is immediately followed by 6. So, 6 is not at the extreme left, and the arrangement becomes:

4 1 2 6 5 3

Thus, there are 3 digits between 4 and 5.

Hence, option 3.

48.4 Marks

A round table conference was held at the headquarters of a company and eight executiv es - A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H - attended theconference. The table had eight seats, numbered 1 to 8 as shown below, and the executives sat around the table facing each other.


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A is to the immediate left of B and opposite seat 5. H is opposite G. E is to the immediate right of G. C is opposite the person who i s tothe immediate right of D. D is opposite B. Where does F sit?

1) Seat 5

2) Seat 6

3) Seat 2

4) Seat 3

Solution:A is to the immediate left of B and opposite s eat 5.

Hence, A = seat 1 and B = seat 8.

Since D is opposite B, D = seat 4.

C is opposite the person who is to the immediate right of D. The seat to Ds immediate right is seat 3 and the seat opposite it is seat 7.Hence, C = seat 7.

These filled seats are shown below.

Since H is opposite G and E is to the immediate right of G, G can only be on seat 6.

Hence, G = seat 6, E = seat 5 and H = seat 2.

Hence, F = seat 3.

Hence, option 4.

49.4 Marks

Each question is followed by two statements A and B. Answer each question using the following instructions.Mark (1) if the question can be answered by using statement A alone but not by using statement B alone.Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using statement B alone but not by using statement A alone.Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by using either of the statements alone.Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements.

A family has six people A, B, C, D, E and F spanning three generations. F i s the son of B s mother-in-law. How is A related t o C?

A. Bs spouse is the father of C.B. E is Ds spouse and the grandfather of C.

1) 1

2)


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2

3) 3

4) 4

Solution:F is the son of Bs mother-in-law.

Hence, there are three possibilities:

If B is female, F can be Bs husband or Bs husbands brother.

If B is male, F is Bs wifes brother.

Using Statement A alone:

It can be concluded that B is female, and C is her child.

However, A is not mentioned at all.

Thus, the question cannot be answered using statement A alone.

Using Statement B alone:

A is not mentioned here as well.

Thus, the question cannot be answered using statement B alone.

Using Statements A and B together:

The family tree can be drawn as shown below:

Thus, A is either the father or paternal uncle of C.

Thus, the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements.

Hence, option 4.

50.4 Marks

In a class, two tests were conducted - T1 and T2. Four students scored the top four ranks in both tests. The following is known about them

i. First in T1 was not second in T2.

ii. Second in T1 was not third in T2.

iii. Third in T1 was not second in T2.

iv. Fourth in T1 was not first in T2.

v. Second in T1 had a gap of more than one rank in T2with respect to T1.

vi. No person had the same rank in both tests .

The person who got the third rank in T 1 secured which rank in T2?

1) 4

2) 3

3) 2

4) 1

Solution:The rows in the following table denote the rank in T1 and the columns indicate the rank in T2. The data in statements I, ii, iii, iv and vi is

summarised in the table.


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Clearly, fourth in T1 was second in T2.

1st in T1 was 3rd in T2.

Now from v, second in T1 must be 4th in T2.

Third in T1 is first in T2.

Hence, option 4.

51.4 Marks

Select the grammatically incorrect option

Commodity refers to standard products, (A)/ especially raw materials such as grains and metals, (B)/ that are not associated withparticular producers (C)/ and trade on organized exchanges (D)/.

1) A

2) B

3) C

4) D

Solution:The word commodity should be in plural as it stands for standard products.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

52.4 Marks

In the given question, four different ways of presenting an idea are given. Choose the one that conforms most closely to Standard Englishusage.

1) The waves beside them dance but they out-did the sparkling waves with glee.

2) The waves beside them danced but they out-did the sparkling waves off glee.

3) The waves beside them danced but it out-did the sparkling waves in glee.

4) The waves beside them danced but they out-did the sparkling waves in glee.

Solution:Option 1 has a tense error in the usage of dance. The entire sentence is in the past perfect tense and the correct verb to use is 'danced'.Option 2 incorrectly uses the preposition off instead of in.Option 3 incorrectly uses the singular pronoun it with the plural subject waves.Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

53.4 Marks

From the following words, identify which word will make a similar analogous relationship as the first pair.

Impediment : Hitch :: Insignia :

1) Design

2) Depiction

3) Symbol

4) Imitation

Solution:The relation in the first pair is that of synonyms. Both the words, Impediment and Hitch mean 'an obstruction or hindrance'.Insignia refers to 'a distinguishing mark of sign of anything'. The only word from the options that this synonymous to insignia issymbol. Eliminate options 1, 3 and 4.Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

54.4 Marks

Match the items in Column I to the items in Column II. Find the correct answer combination in the options given below.

Section III


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1) A H, B E, C F, D - G

2) A G, B H, C E, D - F

3) A G, B E, C H, D - F

4) A F, B E, C F, D - G

Solution:A slap on t he wrist is a mild rebuke or punishment. Eliminate options 1 and 4.Till the cows come home refers to a long time. Eliminate option 2.To wag the dog means to shift the focus of attention to something that is insignificant or of lesser importance.Originally, sitting shotgun meant To travel as an armed guard next to a vehicle's driver. In the contemporary context, it refers to theact of travelling in the front passenger seat of a car.Thus, the correct sequence is A G, B E, C H, D F.Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

55.4 Marks

Identify the CORRECT sentence.

1) Men still are men and not the keys of a pianothe whole work of man really s eems to consist in nothing but proving to himselfevery minute that he is a man and not a piano-key!

2) Men still are men and not the keys of a piano,the whole work of man, really seems t o consist, in nothing but, proving tohimself every minute, that he is a man and not a piano-key!

3) Men still are men and not the keys of a pianothe whole work of man really s eems to consist in nothing but proving to himselfevery minute that he is a man! and not a piano-key!

4) Men still are men and not the keys of a piano!the whole work of man really seems to consist in nothing but proving to himselfevery minute that he is a man and not a piano-key!

Solution:Ellipsis (...) are used as 'omission from speech or writing of a word or words that are superfluous or able to be understood from contextualclues'. There is no need for a comma or an exclamation after the ellipsis. Eliminate options 2 and 4.Option 3 incorrectly inserts an exclamation mark after man. This breaks the flow of the sentence.Option 1 is grammatically correct.Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

56.4 Marks

Match the column - (Column A Idiom) (Column B meaning)

1) A-H, B-E, C-F, D-G

2) A-H, B-G, C-E, D-F

3) A-G, B-H, C-F, D-E

4) A-E, B-F, C-G, D-H

Solution:At the drop of a hat means 'willing to do something immediately'. Eliminate options 3 and 4.Dropping like flies refers to the scenario of 'a large number of people either falling ill or dying'. Eliminate option 1.A drop in the bucket means 'a very small part of something big or whole'.The penny dropped refers to the scenario when 'someone belatedly understands something that everyone else has long sinceunderstood'.Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

57.4 Marks

Rearrange the following sentence fragments to make meaningful sentence.

The susceptibility to develop earlier than expected glucose intolerance states (A)/ the relevant impact of metabolic issues, specificallyinsulin resistance and obesity on (B)/ that these aspects need to be taken into consideration while determining the course of treatment (C)/the pathogenesis of PCOS and (D)/ including type 2 diabetes has supported the notion. (E)

1) ABECD

2) ABCDE

3) BDACE

4) BDAEC


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Solution:The statement discusses the ...aspects that need to be taken into consideration while determining the course of treatment. Thus, theaspects must be put in a sequential and logical order.Both fragments A and B pertain to the aspects that have been mentioned in statement C. However, fragments A, E and C need to beplaced together to make sense. The only option that places them together is option 4.The arrangement of fragments in options 1 and 2 is grammatically and logically incoherent. A sentence cannot end with the word and.Similarly option 2 which would end with the notion does not make sense as the notion discussed in fragment E has been detailed uponin C.Option 3 can be eliminated for the same reason.Only option 4 is logically coherent.Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

58.4 MarksFill in the blanks with the most appropriate option that follows.

The institute had put in a lot of resources for the revamp of their library. The new library was endowed with a reading room, comfortablechairs with arms rests and the cool air conditioned breeze. However, there was _______________, their catalog was not complete yet.

1) a fly in the ointment

2) a pig in a poke

3) a tinker' s damn

4) a Catch 22 situation

Solution:The statement suggests that the institute had put in a lot of efforts and resources for the revamp of the library, but there had been a smallerror - their catalog was incomplete. The phrase in the blank needs to reflect the error was of a minor nature but could ruin the entire effort.The correct answer is a fly in the ointment. The phrase means 'A small but irritating flaw that spoils the whole.'A pig in a poke refers to 'an offering or deal that is foolishly accepted without being examined first.' Eliminate option 2.

A tinker's damn refers to 'something that is insignificant or worthless.' Eliminate option 3.A Catch 22 situation means 'a dilemma or difficult circumstance from which there is no escape because of mutually conflicting ordependent conditions.' Eliminate option 4.Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

59.4 Marks

Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate word.

Many unknown dinosaurs await discovery in rock formations all over the world, but some new species are hiding in plain _______.

1) site

2) cite

3) sight

4) sites

Solution:Sight meaning 'vision' fits the most appropriately in this context.Site which refers to the 'position or location' of something does not fit into the the statement logically. Eliminate options 1 and 4.Cite meaning 'to quote' cannot fit into this statement. Eliminate option 2.Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

60.4 Marks

Select the grammatically incorrect option

Give the range of diversity in soil type, climate (A)/and occupations, these cuisines vary (B)/significantly from each other and use (C)/locally available spices, herbs, vegetables, and fruits (D)/.

1) A

2) B

3) C

4) D

Solution:The construction Give the does not make any sense. Given the is a phrasal construction meaning an assumption that is taken forgranted.Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Group Question

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Acclaimed BBC broadcaster and psychology writer Claudia Hammond explores in Time Warped, a fascinating foray into the idea that ourexperience of time is actively created by our own minds and how these sensations of what neuroscientists and psychologists call mind timeare created. Hammond writes, W e construct the experience of time in our minds, so it follows that we are able to change the elements we findtroubling - whether its t rying to stop the years racing past, or speeding up time when were stuck in a queue, trying to live more in the present,or working out how long ago we last saw our old friends. Time can be a friend, but it can also be an enemy. The trick is to harness it, whether at

home, at work, or even in social policy, and to work in line with our conception of time. Time perception matters because it is the experience oftime that roots us in our mental reality. Time is not only at the heart of the way we organize life, but the way we experience it.

61.4 Marks

What is the style in which the passage has been authored?

1) Opinionated

2) Descriptive


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3) Speculative

4) Didactic

Solution:The passage is one person's perspective on time and the way in which one experiences it. Hence, it is an opinion about a particularissue.The passage does not seek to describe a situation and hence, is not descriptive in nature. Eliminate option 2.The passage is not hypothetical or reflective in nature and hence, is not speculative. Eliminate option 3.Didactic means 'intended to teach, particularly in having moral instruction as an ulterior motive' and hence, option 4 is incorrect asthe passage does not wish to convey any moral teaching.Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

62.4 Marks

What is the general idea that author Hammond wishes to convey through this passage?

1) Time moves faster when we are having fun.

2) The mind is powerful enough to do whatever one wishes to really do.

3) Time functions according to our perception of it.

4) Time and tide wait for no man.

Solution:The main idea of the passage is that we can control how we perceive time and harness it to our benefit by using our mind. Option 3correctly answers the question asked as author states that our experience of time is actively created by our own minds through ...afascinating foray into the idea that our experience of time is actively created by our own minds ....Option 1 cannot be logically concluded from the passage.Option 2 speaks about the mind doing whatever it pleases and is beyond the scope of the discussion of the passage.

Option 4 contradicts the passage since it conveys the idea of as time being something which is beyond our control.Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

63.4 Marks

Which of the following would be a suitable title for the passage?

1) Sensory Perceptions

2) Harnessing time in a productive manner

3) The Experience of Time

4) Time A friend and a foe

Solution:

The passage discusses how the experience of time is created by our minds and how this experience shapes our perception of it andalso our lives. Option 3 alludes to this concept of the passage and hence, is the most appropriate title.Option 1 is unrelated to the context of the passage.Option 2 goes beyond the concept of the passage, which does not refer to the process of harnessing time. Eliminate option 2.

Although t he passage discusses that time can be a f riend and an enemy, that is not t he focus area of the passage. The title shouldsuggest what the passage is primarily about. Eliminate option 4.Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Group Question

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

Far from being a meaningless spasm, tickling is intimately bound up with human development and the sense of self. Such is the argumentexpounded by neuroscientist Robert Provine, who sees in tickling an important form of pre-verbal communication and an element in the creationof the distinction between self and other. A primal and neurologically programmed mode of interaction, tickling creates intimacy through a benignand playful aggression. And the well-known inability to tickle oneself serves an important role in educating the infant about the limits of its ownbodily experience, poignantly signaling the difference between self-affection and being affected by the other.

Let us focus on one detail of Provines theory, a rather extravagant speculation. Linking tickling not only with humorous laughter but also withthe prehistoric birth of comedy, Provine writes: I forge recklessly into the paleohumorology fray, proposing my candidate for the most ancient

jokethe feigned tickle. (Real ti ckling is disqualified because of its reflexive nature.) The Im going to get y ou game of the threatened tickle ispracticed by human beings worldwide and is the only joke that can be told equally well to a baby human and a chimpanzee. Both babies andchimps get this joke and laugh exuberantly. Here we should underline the subtlety of Provines argument: ticklish laughter is not yet properlycomic because it is too much of an automatic or neurological reaction. The joke first enters the scene with a distancing from reflex, when thetickling play is itself played with and made into a spectacle, when the suspended, not the real, gesture gets a laugh. The Ur-joke, the zero-degree of comedy, the pretend tickle may also be seen as a primordial manifestation of culture as a virtual space detached from immediatereflex and natural instinct.

64.4 Marks

How does tickling create the distinction between self and the other?

1) It creates intimacy between the self and the other through its playful aggression.

2) Not being a pre-verbal form of communication it differentiates between self and others.

3) By means of contrasting a bodily experience when performed by self and others.

4) It is a meaningless outburst that one shares with others.

Solution:Options 1 and 4 refer to a role that tickling plays in the interaction that one has with others. They do not highlight how ticklingserves as a form of distinction.Option 2 is ruled out as tickling has been mentioned as a form of pre-verbal communication.


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Option 3 can be inferred from the following extract from the passage - And the well-known inability to tickle oneself...between self-affection and being affected by the other.Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

65.4 Marks

What can you infer from the following line - the pretend tickle may also be seen as a primordial manifestation of culture as a virtualspace detached from immediate reflex and natural instinct.?

1) The primordial manifestati on of the pretend tickle happens in a space that is not virtual.

2) The pretend tickle is an early cultural product devoid of instinct.

3) Immediate reflex and instinct are not as associated with primordial culture such as the pretend tickle.

4) The pretend tickle can inculcate laughter and reaction even without the actual act being performed.

Solution:Robert Provine links tickling to the prehistoric birth of comedy. Comedy is a creation of culture and not biology. The pretend tickleelucidates a response which is similar to the actual act of tickling. This happens due to primordial/early cultural manifestation. Thepretend tickle is detached from instinct and reflex. Option 2 reflects this the best.The passage refers to culture as a virtual space but option 1 states the opposite.Option 3 makes the mistake of equating the pretend tickle and primordial culture. As per the passage, the pretend tickle is an earlymanifestation (product) of culture.Option 4 merely elaborates upon what the pretend tickle is without bringing culture and biology into perspective.Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

66.4 Marks

What is the tone of the passage?

1) Didactic

2) Speculative

3) Informative

4) Humorous

Solution:The passage is not didactic meaning 'instructive'. Eliminate option 1.It does not 'speculate' about anything. It is informative about the act of tickling.

Although the subject matter of the passage is closely associated with humour, by itself and in it s tone it is not humorous.Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Group Question

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

The Asia-Pacific will experience its largest spike in employee turnover levels this year, and organizations in the region will experience the

highest increase in turnover rates worldwide. "Make no mistake, India is in the eye of an employee turnover storm. In order to protect employeeretention, organisations in India must give serious thought to what drives employee commitment," Hay Group India Leadership and Talentpractice leader Mohinish Sinha said. "Indian economic growth is set to pick up, and this will be warmly welcomed by businesses. But the upturnwill come with a risk - driven by an ambitious middle class and employers at India Inc are likely to face a talent exodus in the coming year,"Sinha added. Indian employees expressed concerns about the fairness of their compensation and the extent to which benefits meet their needs.One in every three employees expressed concern over lack of confidence in being able to achieve their career objectives with their currentemployers. As a result, they are concerned about opportunities for learning and development and supervisory coaching for their development.

67.4 Marks

Indian employees are concerned by

1) their cost to the company.

2) the ability to meet their needs.

3) their need for a work-life balance.

4) All of the above.

Solution:The passage makes no mention of cost to the company and need for a work-life balance. This eliminates options 1, 3 and 4.Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

68.4 Marks

The word exodus has been used to denote

1) the migration of business from the West to India

2) the increase of benefits demanded by new employees.

3) the mass changing of jobs set to occur in the next year.

4) the increased dissatisfact ion felt by the ambitious middle class .

Solution:Exodus means 'a going out a departure or emigration, usually of a large number of people'.The passage clearly states that Indian economic growth is set to pick up, and this will be warmly welcomed by businesses. Butthe upturn will come with a risk - driven by an ambitious middle class and employers at India Inc are likely to face a talent exodusin the coming year..This eliminates options 1, 2 and 3. The reference to exodus is clearly to the increased number of people who will change jobs nextyear.Hence, the correct answer is option 3.


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69.4 Marks

Which of the following options would help arrest the rate of attrition?

1) Ensuring that individual and company growth go hand in hand.

2) Encouraging employees to attend workshops to help build morale.

3) Ensuring that employees sign a long term bond to reduce attrition.

4) Preparing a questionnaire to understand employee dissatisf action.

Solution:The chances of success of options 2, 3 and 4 are weak. They might not be very effective in curbing attrition.

Option 1 on the other hand would address most of the employee concerns voiced in the passage fair compensation, achievementof career objectives, opportunities for learning and development and supervisory coaching for their development.Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Group Question

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Nineteen Eighty-Four, sometimes published as 1984, is a dystopian novel by George Orwell published in 1949. The novel is set in Airstrip One(formerly known as Great Britain), a province of the superstate Oceania in a world of perpetual war, omnipresent government surveillance, andpublic manipulation, dictated by a political system euphemistically named English Socialism (or Ingsoc in the government's invented language,Newspeak) under the control of a privileged Inner Party elite that persecutes all individualism and independent thinking as "thoughtcrimes". Thetyranny is epitomized by Big Brother, the quasi-divine Party leader who enjoys an intense cult of personality, but who may not even exist. BigBrother and the Party justify their oppressive rule in the name of a supposed greater good. The protagonist of the novel,Winston Smith, is amember of the Outer Party who works for the Ministry of Truth (or Minitrue), which is responsible for propaganda and historical revisionism. His

job is to rewrite past newspaper articles so that the historical record always supports the current party line. Smith is a diligent and skillfulworker, but he secretly hates the Party and dreams of rebellion against Big Brother.

70.4 Marks

What is the tone adopted by the author while writing the passage?

1) Critical

2) Optimistic

3) Reproachful

4) Neutral

Solution:Option 1 is incorrect since the passage does not 'critique' the novel.The passage is not hopeful or confident about the future and hence, is not optimistic in nature. Eliminate option 2.The passage provides a write-up on the novel - 1984 by George Orwell, which is not presented in a disapproving manner and henceis not reproachful in nature. Eliminate option 3.

The passage gives an objective account of George Orwell's novel and hence, is neutral in nature.Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

71.4 Marks

Which of the following alludes to the euphemism mentioned in the passage?

1) The invention of a new language Newspeak.

2) The passing off, of a totalit arian sys tem under the guise of socialis m.

3) Rewrit ing of past newspaper articles so that the historical record always supports the leadership.

4) The fact that Smith is a diligent and skillf ul worker, but secretly hates the Party and dreams of a rebellion against BigBrother.

Solution:The word Euphemism is a figure of speech which is used to denote something harsh or unpleasant in a mild manner.

Options 1 and 3 are incorrect as the passage provides no direct evidence that the invention of a new language or the protagonist'sjob are harsh and need to be toned down.The passage states that ...in a world of perpetual war, omnipresent government surveillance, and public manipulation,dictated by a political system euphemistically named English Socialism... Option 2 represents how a quasi-dictatorshipwas being passed off as socialist and hence, is the best option.Option 4 is an 'irony' as it depicts two contradictory ideas and is not a euphemism.Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

72.4 Marks

In the context in which it has been used, the word dystopia refers to which of the following?

1) An imaginary place or state in which the condition of life is ext remely bad, as from deprivation, oppression, or terror.

2) Lack of foresight or intellect ual insight.

3) An imagined place or state of things in which everything is perfect.

4) A state of mind in which one anticipates undesirable outcomes or believes that the evil or hardships in life outweigh thegood or luxuries.

Solution:Dystopia refers to 'An imaginary place or state in which the condition of life is extremely bad, as from deprivation, oppression, orterror'. Hence, option 1 is correct.Option 2 describes 'myopia', which refers to 'lack of foresight or intellectual insight'.Option 3 describes 'utopia', which refers to 'an imagined place or state of things in which everything is perfect'.Option 4 describes the condition known as 'pessimism' which is 'the tendency to see the worst aspect of things or believe that the


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worst will happen.'Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Group Question

A passage is followed by questions pertaining to the passage. Read the passage and answer t he questions. Choose the most appropriate answer.

Witch hunting is a social disease, rooted in local superstitious and irrational beliefs, that is ravaging many parts of the world. Just condemningthe attacks and killings of alleged witches makes little or no difference to the problem. Some urgent action is needed. Some firm globalresponse is required. The international community must take a more proactive approach to addressing this problem.

For a long time, the UN agencies and other international human rights bodies have kept silent and turned a blind eye on this burning issue, all inthe name of respecting the cultural beliefs of the people. The whole idea of accusing people of causing death and diseases through magic is a

mistaken idea informed by fear and ignorance. This erroneous notion is at the root of witch crazes and hysteria. Witch hunting is a culturalpractice that should be treated with uttermost contempt, not respect. Witch killing is a horrible criminal act that should not be condoned ortolerated anywhere in the world. The UN human rights office and other human rights agencies around the globe must speak out and act now!

73.4 Marks

Which of the following actions does the author support?

1) Addressing the issue of superstit ion amongst the native communities.

2) Condemning violence by wit ch hunters.

3) Adopting a policy of no-tolerance against the practice of Witch Hunting.

4) Dispell ing ignorance about cultural beliefs of the native communities.

Solution:The author asserts the importance of taking urgent action against the practice of witch hunting.Options 1 and 2 are not very pro-active and the author has clearly mentioned that condemning violence makes little or no differenceto the problem.The actions mentioned in option 4 would make no difference to the problem of witch-hunting.The following extract, Witch killing is a horrible criminal act that should not be condoned or tolerated anywhere in the worldvalidates option 3.Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

74.4 Marks

What is the tone of the given passage?

1) Inciteful

2) Blas

3) Condescending

4) Pressing

Solution:In the given passage, the author demands that international human rights agencies and the UN take urgent action against thecrimes, attacks and killings. Therefore, his/her tone is pressing meaning 'requiring quick or immediate action or attention'.Though option 1 with inciteful seems tempting, it means 'offering incitement - the action of provoking unlawful behaviour or urgingsomeone to behave unlawfully'. Since the author does not advocate any unlawful practices in the passage, we can eliminate option1.Blas means 'unimpressed with or indifferent to something because one has experienced or seen it so often before' whilecondescending means 'having or showing an attitude of patronizing superiority' neither can be attributed to the author. Eliminateoptions 2 and 3.Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

75.4 Marks

Which of the following is untrue with regard to the given passage?

1) Irrationality and ignorance lead to social evils lik e Witch Hunting.

2) The international community has not reacted against witch hunting.

3) UN has been ineffect ive in stopping the crimes against alleged witches.

4) The alleged witches have been accused of harming people with the use of supernatural forces.

Solution:Option 1 is supported by the line Witch hunting is a social disease, rooted in local superstitious and irrational beliefs .. Eliminateoption 1.The passage urges the international community to take a ...more proactive approach... but it certainly does say that theinternational community has reacted to the reports. This can be found in the lines Just condemning the attacks and killings ofalleged witches makes little or no difference to the problem. Some urgent action is needed. Some firm global response is required.The international community must take a more proactive approach to addressing this problem. This vindicates option 2.Option 3 is stated in For a long time, the UN agencies and other international human rights bodies have kept silent and turned ablind eye on this burning issue ... Eliminate option 3.Option 4 finds a mention in the passage in - The whole idea of accusing people of causing death and diseases through magic is amistaken idea informed by fear and ignorance.. Eliminate option 4.Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

76.4 Marks

Meiji Holdings Co Ltd of Japan acquired which Bangalore-based pharmaceutical firm for 290 million US dollar?

Section IV


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1) Medreich

2) British Biologicals

3) Advinus Therapeutics

4) Alcon Laboratories

Solution:Option 1.

77.4 Marks Which of the following tropical cyclone emerged in east-central Arabian Sea?

1) Phailin

2) Nanauk

3) Lehar

4) Helen

Solution:Option 2.

78.4 Marks Who is elected as the 16

thSpeaker of Lok Sabha?

1) Nit in Gadkari

2) Meira Kumar

3) Sumitra Mahajan

4) Kamal Nath

Solution:Option 3.

79.4 Marks

Which among the following nuclear plant became Indias firs t plant to generate 1000 MW power?

1) Kudankulam

2) Tata Mundra project

3) Tarapur

4) Gorakhpur

Solution:Option 1.

80.4 Marks

Who is the current Union Rural Development minister of India

1) Ananth Kumar

2) Nit in Gadkari

3) Uma Bharti

4) Gopinath Munde

Solution:Option 2.

81.4 Marks

Who won the silv er medal in mens 10-meter air pistol event at the ISSF World Cup Shooting in Munich?

1) Prakash Nanjappa

2) Jitu Rai

3) Gagan Narang

4) Pablo Carrera

Solution:Option 2.

82.4 Marks

US scienti sts at Brown University have developed a new biochip sensor to detect blood sugar via ________

1) Saliva


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2) Blood

3) Tears

4) Urine

Solution:Option 1.

83.4 Marks

Which of the following country won the Womens Hockey World Cup 2014?

1) Netherlands

2) Australia

3) Argentina

4) USA

Solution:Option 1.

84.4 Marks

Japanese firm SoftBank has unveiled the world's first " emotional" humanoid robot that can communicate and read people's emotions.What is the name of that robot?

1) Apple

2) Paper

3) Pepper

4) Robo

Solution:Option 3.

85.4 Marks

Who is selected for the prestigious Moortidevi Award for 2013 on 13 June 2014?

1) C Radhakrishnan

2) Akkitham Achuthan Namboothiri

3) Haraprasad Das

4) Gopi Chand Narang

Solution:Option 1.

86.4 Marks

Which of the following is the largest exporter of textile?

1) China

2) India

3) Bhutan

4) Japan

Solution:Option 1.

87.4 Marks

Sourav Ganguly, the former Indian crick eter, joined which committ ee on IPL spot-fixing as an expert on crick eting affairs.

1) Mukul

2) Mudgal

3) IPL

4) cricketing affairs

Solution:Option 2.

88.4 Marks

Who among the following is the author of the book Warrior State: Pakistan in the Contemporary World ?

1) T V Paul


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2) A Sivathanu Pillai

3) Kingshuk Nag

4) Juhi Saklani

Solution:Option 1.

89.4 Marks

Kanha National Park is located in which of the followi ng state in India?

1) Madhya Pradesh

2) Jharkhand

3) Assam

4) Chhattisgarh

Solution:Option 1.

90.4 Marks

An Air freshener works on the principle of

1) Osmosis

2) Reverse Osmosis

3) Centrifugation

4) Diffusion

Solution:Option 4.

91.4 Marks

Titanium dioxide tiles developed to fight against ____________.

1) Air Pollution

2) Water Pollution

3) Sound Pollution

4) Soil Pollution

Solution:Option 1.

92.4 Marks

Euthanasia is legal in which of the following countries?

1) Netherlands

2) Belgium

3) Luxemburg

4) All option 1, 2 and 3

Solution:Option 4.

93.4 Marks

Swahili is the offic ial language of which of the following countries?

1) Tanzania, Uganda and Kenya

2) Tanzania, Uganda and Lesotho

3) Uganda, Liberia and Kenya

4) Liberia, Lesotho and Kenya

Solution:

Option 1.

94.4 Marks

Which city is on the bank of Hudson river?

1) New Orleans

2) London


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3) New York

4) Liverpool

Solution:Option 3.

95.4 Marks

Which is the first Kerosene-free city of India?

1) Mumbai

2) Delhi

3) Kolkata

4) Chennai

Solution:Option 2.

96.4 Marks

What is the capital of Rwanda?

1) Victoria

2) Abuja

3) Kigali

4) Niamey

Solution:Option 3.

97.4 Marks

What is the name of the Biography of the Bollywood legend Dili p Kumar?

1) The Substance and the Shadow

2) The Shadow

3) The Man Who Shocked the World

4) The great Soul

Solution:Option 1.

98.4 Marks

Who among the following is appointed as the Chief Minister of Telangana?

1) K.ChandraSekhar Rao

2) N Chandrababu Naidu

3) E S L Narasimhan

4) Mukul Sangma

Solution:Option 1

99.4 Marks

Dumhal is a folk dance of which of the following state?

1) Haryana

2) Kashmir

3) Manipur

4) Odisha

Solution:Option 2.

100.4 Marks

When do we observe the World Blood Donar Day?

1) 11thJuly


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2) 5th June

3) 12th June

4) 14th June

Solution:Option 4.

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