51
Evolution & Classification Test Chap 14-17 True/False (1 point each) Indicate whether the statement is true or false. ____ 1. Radiometric dating is not possible on rocks that contain fossils since the radioactive isotopes that could be used are found only in igneous or metamorphic rock. ____ 2. Miller and Urey constructed a chamber containing the hypothetical atmosphere of early Earth, input energy in the form of a spark, and the chamber produced simple prokaryotic cells. ____ 3. The purpose of the covered flask in Francesco Redi’s 1668 experiment was to trap flies inside the flask with the meat. ____ 4. The fact that experiments mimicking conditions on early Earth create organic molecules but not living cells disproves Oparin’s primordial soup hypothesis. ____ 5. It is difficult to infer details about the behavior of extinct animals, but in this effort, trace fossils are more helpful than fossils preserved in amber. ____ 6. In the sequence of hypothesized events leading to the evolution of eukaryotes, prokaryotes appeared first. ____ 7. A vestigial structure in one organism can be defined as a reduced form of a functional structure in another organism. ____ 8. Darwin developed his theory of evolution exclusively from his work on the Galapagos Islands. ____ 9. Homologous structures indicate a shared ancestry, while vestigial structures do not. ____ 10. Strepsirrhines are restricted to South and Central America. ____ 11. Anthropoids include both New World and Old World monkeys. ____ 12. Scientists concluded that early humans probably reached Australia by walking across a land bridge. ____ 13. Evidence of arthritis or healed fractures on a Neanderthal skeleton indicates that the individual had to struggle to survive. ____ 14. Aristotle recognized that species evolve over time. ____ 15. A taxonomic class contains related orders. ____ 16. Characters are inherited biochemical features. ____ 17. When a population becomes geographically isolated from other members of the species, it often evolves different adaptations from the rest of the species. ____ 18. The branches of a cladogram indicate known ancestry.

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Evolution & Classification Test Chap 14-17

True/False (1 point each)

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

____ 1. Radiometric dating is not possible on rocks that contain fossils since the radioactive isotopes that could be

used are found only in igneous or metamorphic rock.

____ 2. Miller and Urey constructed a chamber containing the hypothetical atmosphere of early Earth, input energy in

the form of a spark, and the chamber produced simple prokaryotic cells.

____ 3. The purpose of the covered flask in Francesco Redi’s 1668 experiment was to trap flies inside the flask with

the meat.

____ 4. The fact that experiments mimicking conditions on early Earth create organic molecules but not living cells

disproves Oparin’s primordial soup hypothesis.

____ 5. It is difficult to infer details about the behavior of extinct animals, but in this effort, trace fossils are more

helpful than fossils preserved in amber.

____ 6. In the sequence of hypothesized events leading to the evolution of eukaryotes, prokaryotes appeared first.

____ 7. A vestigial structure in one organism can be defined as a reduced form of a functional structure in another

organism.

____ 8. Darwin developed his theory of evolution exclusively from his work on the Galapagos Islands.

____ 9. Homologous structures indicate a shared ancestry, while vestigial structures do not.

____ 10. Strepsirrhines are restricted to South and Central America.

____ 11. Anthropoids include both New World and Old World monkeys.

____ 12. Scientists concluded that early humans probably reached Australia by walking across a land bridge.

____ 13. Evidence of arthritis or healed fractures on a Neanderthal skeleton indicates that the individual had to struggle

to survive.

____ 14. Aristotle recognized that species evolve over time.

____ 15. A taxonomic class contains related orders.

____ 16. Characters are inherited biochemical features.

____ 17. When a population becomes geographically isolated from other members of the species, it often evolves

different adaptations from the rest of the species.

____ 18. The branches of a cladogram indicate known ancestry.

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____ 19. The virus that causes the common cold is a member of Kingdom Bacteria.

____ 20. Plants are predominantly autotrophic, with some heterotrophic exceptions.

Multiple Choice (2 points each)

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 21. While looking for fossils on an eroded hillside, you discover fossil coral and fish in one layer. In a layer just

above, you find the fossil imprint of a fern frond and some fossil moss. Assuming the rock has not been

disturbed, which of the following is the most probable conclusion?

a. The area had been a sea until recent times.

b. A forest had once grown there but had become submerged by water.

c. In ancient times a sea had been replaced by land.

d. A saltwater sea had changed to a freshwater lake long ago.

Figure 14-1

____ 22. According to Figure 14-1, what was the earliest form of multicellular life on Earth?

a. fish c. land plants

b. invertebrates d. reptiles

____ 23. According to Figure 14-1, the correct chronological order of organisms as they developed are _____.

a. birds, dinosaurs, jawed fish, prokaryotes

b. dinosaurs, jawed fish, birds, prokaryotes

c. jawed fish, dinosaurs, prokaryotes, birds

d. prokaryotes, jawed fish, dinosaurs, birds

____ 24. Which is the correct order of the typical sequence of events for fossilization?

a. The organism dies and is buried in sediment. / Sediments build up in layers so the

organism is surrounded. / Minerals replace harder structures like bone and shell. /

Erosion can expose buried fossils.

b. The organism dies and is buried in sediment. / Minerals replace harder structures like bone

and shell. / Sediments build up in layers so the organism is surrounded. / Erosion can

expose buried fossils.

c. Sediments build up in layers so the organism is surrounded. / The organism dies and is

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buried in sediment. / Minerals replace harder structures like bone and shell. / Erosion can

expose buried fossils.

d. The organism dies and is buried in sediment. / Sediments build up in layers so the

organism is surrounded. / Erosion can expose buried fossils. / Minerals replace harder

structures like bone and shell.

____ 25. What is the difference between a cast fossil and a mold fossil?

a. They are two terms for the same kind of fossil.

b. A cast fossil is an impression in rock, but a mold fossil is an impression that was filled in

with minerals.

c. A mold fossil is an impression in rock, but a cast fossil is an impression that was filled in

with minerals.

d. A mold fossil is preserved original tissue, and a cast fossil is petrified.

____ 26. What assumption must be made to calculate an age using radiometic dating?

a. the rate of decay of the isotopes

b. the amount of the isotopes measured in the material

c. the age of the material being analyzed

d. the amount of the isotopes present in the material when it formed

____ 27. A researcher samples bat guano (droppings) that has built up in a 2-meter layer on the floor of a cave. At a

depth of 0.75 m, the analysis shows only 25% of the original amount of carbon-14 left. Recalling that the

half-life of carbon-14 is 5730 years, how old is the guano at that level?

a. 5730 years c. 11,460 years

b. 17,190 years d. 22,000 years

____ 28. Imagine you are a paleontologist who finds a well-preserved dinosaur skeleton. Careful excavation of the site

reveals apparently undisturbed sediments and a thin layer of iridium 12 cm below the specimen. Infer the

significance of this find. Which option most closely corresponds to your conclusion?

a. The find is significant because the dinosaur skeleton is so well preserved.

b. The find is significant because it indicates that dinosaur bones may be a source of iridium.

c. The find is significant because it represents a dinosaur that lived after the Cretaceous

period.

d. The find is not very significant since well-preserved dinosaur skeletons are not particularly

rare.

____ 29. There is good evidence that a meteor hit Earth about 65 million years ago. Which of the following events that

scientists think were triggered by the impact could have caused the simultaneous global extinctions of

multiple species, including all the dinosaurs?

a. The meteor was large enough to trigger powerful earthquakes.

b. The impact itself triggered global tsunamis.

c. Volcanic eruptions were set off by the impact.

d. Atmospheric debris changed global climates for months or years.

____ 30. Which is an accurate statement of the differences between spontaneous generation and biogenesis?

a. Spontaneous generation is the idea that life can only come from life, while biogenesis is

the outdated notion that animals arise from nonliving elements of their environment.

b. Spontaneous generation and biogenesis are two names for the same principle concerning

the origin of life.

c. Spontaneous generation is the idea that life can come from nonliving components, while

biogenesis is the more modern concept that life can only arise from another living

organism.

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d. The concept of spontaneous generation recognizes that species generate offspring when

environmental conditions are favorable, while biogenesis is the idea that life was created

in a single event and has been unchanged ever since.

____ 31. What was the essential experimental difference between the flasks in Pasteur’s demonstration of biogenesis?

a. the contact of the nutrient broth with air

b. the composition of the nutrient broth

c. the angle of tilt of the flasks

d. the contact of the broth with microorganisms

____ 32. Which option places the likely events in the origin of life in the correct order?

a. abiotic synthesis of amino acids and other organic molecules / synthesis of proteins /

development of a genetic code / evolution of cells

b. abiotic synthesis of amino acids and other organic molecules / synthesis of proteins /

evolution of cells / development of a genetic code

c. synthesis of proteins / abiotic synthesis of amino acids and other organic molecules /

development of a genetic code / evolution of cells

d. abiotic synthesis of amino acids and other organic molecules / development of a genetic

code / synthesis of proteins / evolution of cells

____ 33. What evidence is there that modern archaebacteria may be most like the hypothesized earliest cells on Earth?

a. Both archaebacteria and early cells share morphological similarities, including a

membrane-bound nucleus.

b. Photosynthesis allows both archaebacteria and the earliest cells to harness energy from the

Sun.

c. Archaebacteria thrive in extreme environments of intense heat or pressure, and

microfossils suggest early life forms lived in volcanic environments.

d. Archeabacteria can only survive in warm, shallow waters similar to the primordial seas in

which cells evolved on early Earth.

____ 34. Fossil evidence proves that cyanobacteria were thriving as long as 3.5 million years ago. Integrating this

evidence and your own knowledge of cyanobacteria, identify the most significant effect these organisms had

on the ecosystem of the planet as a whole.

a. Cyanobacteria extract energy from inorganic compounds such as hydrogen sulfide, so they

could survive in places like hydrothermal vents at the ocean floor.

b. Cyanobacteria were among the first cells adapted as predators, so they spurred coevolution

among their prey in an early “arms race.”

c. Cyanobacteria were some of the first photosynthetic prokaryotes. The oxygen they

produced formed the protective ozone layer.

d. Cyanobacteria were the first eukaryotic cells. They harbored smaller prokaryotes that

evolved into mitochondria and chloroplasts.

____ 35. Which of these is evidence for the endosymbiont theory?

a. Mitochondria and chloroplasts cannot live on their own outside a cell.

b. Mitochondria and chloroplasts contain their own circular DNA.

c. Mitochondria and chloroplasts are surrounded by a membrane.

d. Mitochondria and chloroplasts both transform energy from one form to another.

____ 36. What implication does the endosymbiont theory have for phylogeny?

a. The origin of eukaryotes is much earlier than previously believed.

b. The phylogenetic tree includes places where the branches separate and come back

together.

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c. Eukaryotes and prokaryotes had independent origins, so there are really two phylogenetic

trees.

d. It will be impossible to trace the phylogenetic relationships of eukaryotes.

____ 37. During phagocytosis of one cell by another, the larger cell engulfs the smaller cell by enclosing it in a part of

its plasma membrane which then pinches off so the cell is then within the larger cell. Given this may have

been the process that brought bacterial cells into the ancestors of eukaryotic cells as endosymbionts, what

structural characteristic might be expected in mitochondria and chloroplasts?

a. amoeboid locomotion c. a double membrane

b. flagella or cilia d. a nucleus

____ 38. Which is a reasonable description of the origin of a photosynthetic eukaryotic cell?

a. An early eukaryote phagocytized a smaller cell, which did not die but provided the cell

with energy.

b. An early eukaryote phagocytized a smaller cell, which did not die but used light to provide

the cell with sugar.

c. An early eukaryote phagocytized a smaller cell, which did not die but provided the cell

with energy. Later, that same cell or its descendents became host to a photosynthetic

prokaryote.

d. An early eukaryote had the ability to photosynthesize. It was parasitized by a smaller

photosynthetic prokaryote that provided the cell with additional sugar.

____ 39. Which evidence has suggested to some researchers that birds and dinosaurs may have evolved from a

common ancestor?

a. Fossil dinosaurs with feathers have been found.

b. Birds and dinosaurs have a fused collarbone.

c. Fossilized true birds have been found from the same time period as feathered dinosaurs.

d. Both dinosaurs and birds have clawed feet.

____ 40. What was the significance of the Cambrian explosion to the evolution of life on Earth?

a. It was a mass extinction during which nearly 90% of marine species were lost.

b. It was a rapid diversification of the ancestors of most major animal groups.

c. It was caused by tectonic instability, resulting in an eruption of multiple volcanoes.

d. It was the event in which life began, but no fossils survive and little is known.

____ 41. What does relative dating depend on to identify similarly aged rocks in different locations?

a. the kinds of fossils found in the rock

b. the radiometric age of the rocks

c. the mineral composition of the rock

d. the position of the rock layer

____ 42. What would you expect the half-life of the isotope used to date the age of Earth at 4.6 billion years to be?

a. 5730 years c. 1,000,000 years

b. 100,000 years d. 1,000,000,000 years

____ 43. Consider a fossil find containing dinosaur nests, broken eggshells, and embryos. The shells and bones appear

to have some original material and some mineralization. How would you classify it regarding fossil type?

a. trace

b. original material

c. permineralized

d. trace, replacement, and original material

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____ 44. One hypothesis argues for a role of clay in the increasing complexity of organic molecules in the pre-life

Earth environment. What role does the hypothesis suggest?

a. acting as a cell membrane

b. assisting replication of molecules

c. filtering out key molecule components

d. stabilizing complex molecules

____ 45. Within a decade of the introduction of a new insecticide, nearly all of the descendants of the target insects are

resistant to the usual-sized dose. What is the most likely explanation for this change in susceptibility to the

insecticide?

a. Eating the insecticide caused the insects to become more resistant to it.

b. Eating the insecticide caused the insects to become less resistant to it.

c. The pesticide destroyed organisms that cause disease in the insects, thus allowing them to

live longer.

d. The insects developed physiological adaptations to the insecticide.

____ 46. Which answer best shows an animal's adaptation to the tropical rain forest?

a. camouflage in a tree frog c. an elephant's long trunk

b. the long neck of a giraffe d. migration of birds in winter

____ 47. Which combination of characteristics in a population would provide the greatest potential for evolutionary

change?

a. small population, few mutations c. large population, few mutations

b. small population, many mutations d. large population, many mutations

____ 48. When investigating shell color of a species of snail found only in a remote area seldom visited by humans,

scientists discovered the distribution of individuals that is shown in the graph in Figure 15-1. Based on the

information shown in the graph, what form of selection is the snail population undergoing?

Figure 15-1

a. stabilizing selection c. artificial selection

b. disruptive selection d. directional selection

____ 49. What type of adaptation is shown in Figure 15-2?

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Figure 15-2

a. mimicry c. artificial selection

b. camouflage d. homologous structure

____ 50. Which term best describes the structures shown in Figure 15-3?

Figure 15-3

a. homologous c. analogous

b. heterologous d. vestigial

Figure 15-4

____ 51. Which type of natural selection shown in Figure 15-4 would favor giraffes that need to reach the tallest

branches to eat?

a. A c. C

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b. B d. D

____ 52. Which of the following is a correct statement about the relationship between natural selection and evolution?

a. Natural selection results from evolution.

b. Natural selection includes evolution as a part of it.

c. Natural selection is one mechanism of evolution.

d. Natural selection and evolution are the same thing.

____ 53. How do fossils demonstrate evidence of evolution?

a. They show that ancient species share similarities with species now on Earth.

b. They show evidence of species that are now extinct.

c. They are the primary source of evidence of natural selection.

d. Fossils reveal that many species have remained unchanged for millions of years.

____ 54. Which of the following is an accurate comparison of derived traits and ancestral traits?

a. Derived traits result from artificial selection; ancestral traits result from natural selection.

b. Derived traits appear in species; ancestral traits appear in genera or higher taxa.

c. Derived traits are primitive; ancestral traits are contemporary.

d. Derived traits are recent features; ancestral traits are more primitive features.

____ 55. Which of the following is the explanation of why bird wings and reptile forelegs are evidence of evolution?

a. Similar functions point to a common ancestor.

b. Analogous structures indicate a common ancestor.

c. Vestigial structures point to a common ancestor.

d. Homologous structures indicate a common ancestor.

____ 56. Superficially similar features molded by natural selection in very different species are classified as what kind

of structures?

a. vestigial c. analogous

b. homologous d. comparative

____ 57. According to Darwin, which of the following best explains why the mara is more similar to other South

American mammals than it is to the rabbit?

a. Its genotype is similar to the South American animals.

b. It shares amino-acid sequences with other South American animals.

c. It shares a closer ancestor with the South American animals.

d. Its geographic distribution indicates very little variation over time.

____ 58. Some features in organisms can be compared to spandrels in architecture in that, although they appear to have

a function, they are really just there because of the evolution of other structures. This analogy is used as an

argument for care in identifying what?

a. homologous structures in organisms

b. natural selection

c. vestigial structures in organisms

d. traits as adaptations

____ 59. When allelic frequencies remain unchanged, a population is in genetic equilibrium. This statement expresses

which of the following?

a. genetic drift c. sympatric speciation

b. Hardy-Weinberg principle d. prezygotic isolating mechanism

____ 60. A population diverges and becomes reproductively isolated. Which of the following is the best description of

that phenomenon?

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a. speciation c. postzygotic isolation

b. bottleneck d. sexual selection

____ 61. What is the term describing the process that occurs when a species evolves into a new species without a

physical barrier separating populations?

a. adaptive radiation c. sympatric speciation

b. coevolution d. allopatric speciation

____ 62. If a species is suddenly introduced into a new habitat, what might occur?

a. habitat speciation c. adaptive radiation

b. coevolution d. selective speciation

____ 63. Which of the following is biochemical evidence for evolution?

a. Embryonic human hemoglobin is different from adult human hemoglobin.

b. Hemoglobin in humans can vary between different individuals.

c. Human hemoglobin is more similar to chimp hemoglobin than mouse hemoglobin.

d. Human hemoglobin is different than mouse hemoglobin.

____ 64. On the islands of Hawaii there are a group of about 30 species of highly variable, but closely related, species

of plant called silverswords. These species appear to be related to a small group of plants in North America.

What are the silverswords an example of?

a. mimicry c. adaptive radiation

b. analogous structures d. vestigial structures

____ 65. The major anatomical difference between hominins and the other apes is that the foramen magnum is ____ in

hominins.

a. less developed c. thicker

b. located at the base of the skull d. all of these

____ 66. Evidence that Homo erectus was more intelligent than its predecessors would include ____.

a. a small cranial capacity as indicated by their skeletal remains

b. involved messages they wrote on cave walls

c. signs of agriculture and tilled fields

d. tools such as hand axes that have been found near their fire pits

____ 67. Which factor may have played a large role in human evolution?

a. a geologic event that released much radiation into the environment, which in time resulted

in an increased mutation rate

b. climatic changes that caused existing primates to search for new food sources

c. flooding due to melting glaciers causing primates to seek refuge in the trees

d. massive grassland fires that caused existing primates to flee to the mountains

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Figure 16-1

____ 68. According to Figure 16-1, which species shares the closest ancestor with humans?

a. A c. C

b. B d. D

____ 69. Where would orangutans fall in Figure 16-1?

a. between gorillas and chimpanzees c. above chimpanzees

b. between gorillas and lemurs d. between lemurs and gibbons

Figure 16-2

____ 70. Which characteristic of the skulls in figure 16-2 shows an increase in intelligence?

a. increased brain cavity size c. smaller eye sockets

b. decreased teeth size d. rounder jaw

____ 71. Which characteristic of the skulls in Figure 16-2 most impacts diet?

a. increased brain cavity size c. smaller eye sockets

b. decreased teeth size d. rounder jaw

____ 72. Primates have eyes that are situated close together on the front of the face. What is the functional result of this

anatomy?

a. acute distance vision c. excellent depth perception

b. superior focus on nearby objects d. improved night vision

____ 73. In which group would you classify primates that are small, often (but not always) nocturnal, with large eyes

and ears, and dependent on their sense of smell?

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a. haplorhines c. New World monkeys

b. strepsirrhines d. anthropoids

____ 74. What function is a prehensile tail associated with?

a. tool use c. tree living

b. fruit eating d. courtship behavior

____ 75. Altiatlasius, an early fossil primate, most closely resembles which of the following animals?

a. gorilla c. tree shrew

b. lemur d. bushbaby

____ 76. What is the best description for the fossil primate Aegyptopithecus?

a. small, nocturnal insect eater with grasping hands and feet

b. the “dawn ape,” about the size of a domestic cat

c. a lemurlike primate with a very small brain

d. an early hominoid, possibly ancestral to humans

____ 77. How do hominoids and hominins differ?

a. Hominoids include only humans and their recent ancestors, while hominins include

humans plus anthropoids.

b. Hominoids include monkeys and apes, while hominins include only humans.

c. Hominoids include all nonmonkey anthropoids, while hominins include only humans and

their extinct relatives.

d. Hominoids include humans and their extinct ancestors, while hominins include all

nonmonkey anthropoids.

____ 78. The location of the foramen magnum in the Taung baby skull led anthropologist Raymond Dart to conclude

that it walked upright. Why did many scientists disagree?

a. It had a small brain, suggesting low intelligence.

b. It had hip structure consistent with quadrupedalism.

c. It had curved finger bones, suggesting an arboreal lifestyle.

d. It had knee joints quite different from those of humans.

____ 79. What features distinguish Australopithecus africanus from A. boseii and A. robustus, which are often

classified in the genus Paranthropus?

a. Australopithecus africanus walked upright, but members of the genus Paranthropus did

not.

b. Paranthropus walked upright, but members of the genus Australopithecus did not.

c. Paranthropus and Australopithecus africanus both walked upright, but Paranthropus had

a significantly larger brain.

d. Members of the genus Australopithecus africanus were slender but Paranthropus were

robust.

____ 80. In what significant way was Homo habilis different from all members of the genus Australopithecus?

a. Homo habilis had the first human nose, but nostrils of Australopithecus opened to the

front.

b. Homo habilis walked upright, unlike Australopithecus.

c. Homo habilis had a larger brain than any Australopithecus.

d. Only Homo habilis migrated to Asia and Europe.

____ 81. Analyze the following sequences. In which list are species arranged chronologically in the order of their

appearance on Earth from earliest to most recent?

a. Homo erectus, Homo habilis, Homo ergaster, Australopithecus africanus

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b. Australopithecus africanus, Homo ergaster, Homo habilis, Homo erectus

c. Homo habilis, Australopithecus africanus, Homo ergaster, Homo erectus

d. Australopithecus africanus, Homo habilis, Homo ergaster, Homo erectus

____ 82. Mitochondrial DNA from Africans was recently discovered to be more variable than mitochondrial DNA

from Europeans. Which of the following ideas is supported by this finding?

a. the Out-of-Africa hypothesis

b. the multiregional theory

c. the hominoid biogeography hypothesis

d. the ancestral neanderthal theory

____ 83. A 1 meter-tall hominin fossil with australopithecine-like body proportions was found on an Indonesian island

in association with stone tools. How was the hominin classified?

a. Australopithecus floresiensis c. Homo ergaster

b. Homo floresiensis d. Homo sapiens

____ 84. A large and heavily muscled hominin with a brain larger than that of modern humans went extinct about

30,000 years ago. How was this hominin classified?

a. Australopithecus africanus c. Homo neanderthalensis

b. Paranthropus robustus d. Homo erectus

____ 85. Which species are believed to have overlapped in time?

a. Homo ergaster and Homo neanderthalensis

b. Homo erectus and Homo floresiensis

c. Homo sapiens and Homo erectus

d. Homo sapiens and Homo neanderthalensis

____ 86. Which statement best summarizes the “mitochondrial Eve” idea?

a. All people alive today are descended from one female Homo sapiens who lived in Africa

about 200,000 years ago.

b. All people alive today are descended from one female Homo erectus who lived in Africa

400,000 years ago.

c. All people alive today are descended from one female Homo neanderthalensis who lived

in Europe 300,000 years ago.

d. All people alive today are descended from one female Homo habilis who lived in Africa

1.4 million years ago.

____ 87. Which of the following is the correct way to write the scientific name of the Northern cardinal?

a. cardinalis cardinalis c. cardinalis Cardinalis

b. Cardinalis cardinalis d. Cardinalis Cardinalis

____ 88. Which of the following is a taxon of related phyla or divisions?

a. class c. kingdom

b. domain d. order

____ 89. Which of the following is the most general taxon?

a. genus c. phylum

b. kingdom d. species

____ 90. Which of the following lists the taxa from broadest to most specific?

a. domain, kingdom, class, order, phylum, family, genus, species

b. species, genus, family, order, class, phylum, kingdom, domain

c. domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species

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d. phylum, kingdom, class, family, order, genus, domain, species

____ 91. To which domain does the American black bear belong?

a. Animalia c. Chordata

b. Carnivora d. Eukarya

____ 92. Which of the following is a limitation of the phylogenetic species concept?

a. It does not account for extinct species.

b. Evolutionary histories are not known for all species.

c. It does not account for asexual species.

d. Some organisms that are different species occasionally reproduce.

____ 93. Which of the following is an example of a morphological character used for classification of taxa?

a. DNA analysis

b. RNA analysis

c. the hip structure of theropods

d. the chromosomes of broccoli and cauliflower

____ 94. Which type of character is found within an entire line of descent of a group of organisms?

a. ancestral c. derived

b. biochemical d. morphological

Figure 17-1

____ 95. Which of the following groups in Figure 17-1 is the outgroup?

a. cats c. fish

b. dogs d. flies

____ 96. What assumption is made when constructing a cladogram?

a. the fewer derived characteristics shared by groups, the more recently the groups share a

common ancestor

b. the more derived characteristics shared by groups, the more recently the groups share a

common ancestor

c. the fewer ancestral characteristics shared by groups, the more recently the groups share a

common ancestor

d. the more ancestral characteristics shared by groups, the more recently the groups share a

common ancestor

____ 97. Which of the following are prokaryotes that contain peptidoglycan in their cell walls?

a. Archaebacteria c. Fungi

b. Eubacteria d. Protists

____ 98. Which domain includes organisms that are called extremophiles?

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a. Animalia c. Bacteria

b. Archaea d. Eukarya

____ 99. Which character distinguishes Fungi from Plantae?

a. presence of membrane-bound organelles

b. presence of membrane-bound nucleus

c. cell walls with chitin

d. multicellular

____ 100. What are the Domain and Kingdom of a paramecium?

a. Domain Bacteria, Kingdom Eubacteria

b. Domain Archaea, Kingdom Plantae

c. Domain Eukarya, Kingdom Protista

d. Domain Archaea, Kingdom Protista

Completion (1 point each)

Complete each statement.

101. If Miller and Urey’s experiment were reproduced with a more accurate mix of gases from the early

atmosphere but with no electricity, you would expect it to produce ____________________ organic

compounds.

102. On average, Earth experiences mass extinctions every 100 million years, so the next one could be predicted to

occur in ____________________ million years.

103. The mass extinction at the end of the Cretaceous period is thought to be due to the impact of a giant asteroid

that left a crater near the Yucatan coast of Mexico. Study of the crater revealed that the asteroid struck at a

low angle from the southeast, sending out white-hot debris that caused massive firestorms. From this we can

infer that mass extinctions would have been worst in ____________________.

104. Scientists believe that ____________________ could have aided in the synthesis of polymers such as proteins

or nucleic acids in the pre-life planet by preventing the newly assembled molecules from breaking down.

105. Life was well established before the evolution of photosynthesis and its accompanying oxygen production. In

time, the action of photosynthetic organisms resulted in the mass extinction of the predominant

____________________ organisms.

106. The transition from the Permian to the Triassic periods is marked by a ____________________.

107. Relative dating in the geological record depends on an assumption about the strata of sedimentary rock called

the law of ____________________.

108. Information on genetics and ____________________ now provide compelling evidence of evolution

that was not available to Darwin.

109. Not all fossils of ____________________ organisms have modern counterparts.

110. The flattened faces of primates contribute to their ____________________ by increasing the degree of

binocular vision.

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111. The group of primates that is divided into New World and Old World monkeys is collectively classified as

____________________.

112. Haplorhines include tarsiers, monkeys, and ____________________.

113. Considering fossils ranging from early Australopithecus through the various Homo species (H. ergaster, H.

erectus, and H. sapiens) a pattern of increasing ____________________ capacity emerges.

114. The larger brains of primates require an extended period of infancy and childhood. This puts some species at

higher risk of extinction because it is associated with a decreased rate of ____________________.

115. In addition to the position of the foramen magnum of the skull, the other bone that would provide the most

conclusive evidence of bipedalism in a fossil hominin is the ____________________.

116. An anatomical feature that distinguishes humans from chimpanzees and enables humans to walk upright is a

pelvis shaped like a ____________________.

117. The Australopithecus fossil known as “Lucy” displays a mosaic pattern of evolution. Its discovery is

important because it indicates that it is possible for different parts of the body to evolve at different

____________________.

118. From extremely large muscle attachments and bowing of the long bones, we can infer that Homo

neanderthalensis had large, powerful, ____________________.

119. Because the two species were found at the same times and places in Europe, we could infer the possibility that

Neanderthals were eventually displaced due to competition with Homo ____________________.

120. ____________________ developed a system of classification that divided organisms into two groups:

plants and animals.

121. A ____________________ reflects the evolutionary history of a species.

122. Feathers are one example of a ____________________ character in animals.

123. Unlike Eubacteria, Archaebacteria do not have ____________________ in their cell walls.

124. Organisms with cell walls containing chitin are part of Kingdom ____________________.

125. Archaea are often found in ____________________ environments.

Short Answer (3 points each)

126. Explain how the evolution of photosynthetic organisms helped protect life from the Sun's ultraviolet radiation.

127. How did Francesco Redi and Louis Pasteur support the concept of biogenesis with their experiments?

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Figure 14-2

128. What major evolutionary event occurred at the point on the graph indicated by Z in Figure 14-2?

Figure 14-3

129. Assuming that the oldest of the strata in Figure 14-3 is layer IV and that the youngest is layer I, name and

describe two techniques that could be used to determine the age of fossil A.

130. How do changes in genetic equilibrium lead to speciation?

131. List and describe the indirect evidence available to support the theory of evolution.

132. How is Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection related to the origin of structural and physiological

adaptations?

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A biologist studying a variety of fly in the rain forest noticed that the types of foods the fly preferred were

located either high in the trees or in the foliage on the ground. There didn't seem to be any of the preferred

foods anywhere in between. An experiment was designed that would select for a genetically determined

behavior known as geotaxis. If a fly shows positive geotaxis, it flies downward. If a fly shows negative

geotaxis, it flies upward. To conduct the experiment, the flies being studied were marked and placed in a

maze (illustrated in Figure 15-6). Each fly was placed in the "start" chamber. To exit from this area, the fly

had to make a decision about which of the three exits to enter. One exit faced upward, indicating negative

geotaxis, and another exit aimed downward, indicating positive geotaxis. A third exit permitted the fly to

remain on middle ground. Each fly was placed in the maze 15 times and its choice of direction recorded.

Some flies consistently went upward and entered the food vial at the end of the exit tube. Others consistently

went downward and entered the food vial at the lower end. Some flies chose the upward and downward exits

equal numbers of times; others went for the middle exit.

Figure 15-6

133. If the selection of direction is a genetic trait, explain what should happen when flies consistently selecting the

upward exit are mated and those selecting the downward exit are mated, and the "no preference" and

middle-choice flies are discarded. Refer to Figure 15-6.

134. Compare allopatric and sympatric speciation. Begin your comparison with a definition of speciation.

135. Why is bipedal locomotion probably the most important of all hominin traits?

136. When African forests declined and were replaced with vast areas of grassland, competition for food among

animal species intensified. In an attempt to survive, hominins radiated outward from small forested areas. A

vegetarian group, the australopithecines, emerged a few thousand years after the cooling period 2.8 million

years ago. These hominins had to rely on seeds and tubers during the harsher seasons and on dense vegetation

along riverbanks during the remainder of the year. Exploiting a variety of habitats at about the same time as

the australopithecines was the first representative of the genus Homo. Members of this group consumed many

kinds of food, including meat. How would a diet of meat select for a different jaw and tooth structure than is

seen in earlier primates?

It is speculated that environmental changes in the African habitat from warm, moist forest to cool, dry

grassland exerted selection pressures on all native species, including prehumans. Of all the theories

attempting to explain hominid evolution, the one presently receiving much attention links the emergence of

humankind to widescale climatic change. Two such major events in human evolution occurred, the first 2.8

million years ago, and the second 1 million years ago.

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Ocean-bottom core samples (see Figure 16-3) taken from the west coast of Africa, the Arabian Sea, and

the Gulf of Aden off the east coast of Africa lend credibility to this theory. A thick layer of dust and silicate

particles has been found in the cores at levels determined to have been deposited 2.8 million and 1 million

years before the present. Scientists attribute the deposits to the fact that grasses draw large quantities of

silicates from the soil and concentrate them in their tissues for structural use. In a grassland environment, as

grasses live, die, and decompose over many years, quantities of silicates accumulate in the surface soil.

Deposits of dust and silicates also coincide with ice sheet formation and the onset of two ice ages in the

Northern Hemisphere. Computer models show that the cooling and ice sheet formation influenced weather in

both hemispheres. The models illustrate how cool, dry winds would have been diverted toward Africa as the

ice sheets grew.

Another important piece of information has been obtained from the Gulf of Aden core. It contains

volcanic ash, along with dust and silicates blown by monsoon winds from the Rift Valley. This type of ash is

also found in association with some hominid fossils discovered in the Rift Valley.

Figure 16-3

137. Describe the African environment that existed approximately 2.8 million and 1 million years ago. Use Figure

16-3 to explain your answer.

138. In what way are fungi and plants alike?

139. In what way are protists and fungi alike?

Organism House cat Red fox Dog Wolf Gopher Fly

Kingdom Animalia Animalia Animalia Animalia Animalia Animalia

Phylum Chordata Chordata Chordata Chordata Chordata Arthropoda

Class Mammalia Mammalia Mammalia Mammalia Mammalia Insecta

Order Carnivora Carnivora Carnivora Carnivora Rodentia Diptera

Family Felidae Canidae Canidae Canidae Geomyidae Muscidae

Genus Felis Vulpes Canis Canis Thomomys Musca

Species domesticus fulva familiaris lupus bottae domestica

Table 17-1

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140. How does Table 17-1 indicate that a dog is more closely related to a red fox than a house cat?

141. At what taxonomic level does the relationship between gophers and house cats diverge? Refer to Table 17-1.

142. Which two animals in Table 17-1 are most closely related? Explain.

143. What kind of animal is Vulpes velox? How do you know? Use Table 17-1.

When a sample solution of DNA is heated to about 80ºC, the DNA "melts," separating into single strands of

nucleotide bases. If the sample is cooled slightly and incubated, matching sequences begin to reassociate. The

solution can then be filtered to allow the single strands to pass through.

One technique for comparing DNA of different species involves the labeling of single strands of DNA

with radioactive iodine and using the labeled DNA to form hybrid DNA. In this procedure, a small amount of

labeled, single-stranded DNA from one organism is mixed with a large amount of unlabeled, single-stranded

DNA from another organism, and the mixture is incubated over time. A percentage of the strands form hybrid

DNA consisting of one labeled and one unlabeled strand (see Figure 17-2A).

The more closely related the organisms, the greater the number of matched sequences there will be along

these strands (see Figure 17-2B). Hybrid DNA with a high proportion of matched sequences melts at higher

temperatures than that with a low proportion of matched sequences.

Figure 17-2

144. A solution containing Hybrid A in Panel C of Figure 17-2 is heated at stages of 2.5 degrees from 55ºC to 95ºC

and filtered at each stage to let single strands of DNA pass through. The radioactivity of the filtered material

is measured at each stage. Would you expect to find higher radioactivity levels at 60ºC or 85ºC? Why?

145. Classify each of the items in Figure 17-3 as a bacterium, protist, or fungus.

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Figure 17-1

Problem (5 points each)

Radioactive isotopes, atoms with unstable nuclei, decay over time, giving off radiation as they break down.

The decay rate of every radioactive element is known; moreover, radioactive decay continues at a steady rate.

Scientists compare the amount of the original radioactive element to the amount of the new element present,

which has formed as a result of the decay. Suppose that you start with 100 g of a certain radioisotope that

decays to half its original amount in 50,000 years.

Amount of

Parent Material

Amount of

Daughter Material

Years Passed

100 grams 0 grams 0

50,000

100,000

150,000

200,000

3.125 grams 96.875 grams 250,000

Table 14-1

146. Complete Table 14-1 so that the amount of parent material (original radioisotope) and the amount of daughter

material (nonradioactive end product) are correct for the number of years passed.

147. On the grid in Figure 14-4, graph the data in Table 14-1 in order to show the relationship between the passage

of time and the amount of original radioisotope. Then, place an X on the graph to indicate the point at which

modern humans first appeared on Earth. Consider time 0 as that point at which the decay of the full amount of

the isotope begins. The 250,000-year point is the present time.

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Figure 14-4

148. In a population of butterflies, the frequency of an allele that causes a dark-colored wing is 0.35, while the

frequency of the alternate allele, which causes a patterned wing, is 0.65. The dark-colored wing allele is

dominant to the patterned-wing allele. If the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, calculate the

expected frequency of individuals with dark-colored wings. Begin by calculating the expected frequency of

each of the three genotypes.

149. An agricultural researcher has carried out a selection regime on corn plants in an attempt to increase the

number of kernels per cob. The researcher is applying directional selection by choosing only the plants with

the top 5% number of kernels per cob to be planted for the next generation. After 20 generations, the rate of

increase in number of kernels per cob has declined greatly suggesting that selection is no longer working.

Given what you know about the requirements for natural selection (artificial selection in this case), what do

you suggest the researcher could do to continue increasing the numbers of kernels per cob?

Table 17-1

150. Create a cladogram from the character information shown in Table 17-1. Label the tips of the branches of the

cladogram with the species letter and indicate the location along the branches at which a character first

evolves. (A plus sign means a character is present, while a minus sign indicates the character is absent.)

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Essay: Answer any 2 (15 points each). To receive full credit you must be thorough and completely answer all the

questions asked.

151. Euphorbia and cacti are plant families that are found in different parts of the world, but whose species are

often similar in structure and function. For example, some species in both families store water in spiny stems

that are leafless. Explain the similarities of these plants in terms of evolution and biogeography.

152. The apple-maggot fly provides a well-studied example of potential sympatric speciation. In this case, female

flies lay their eggs on apple trees, and the maggots develop and metamorphose into adults, at which point they

mate with each other and the females fly off and deposit eggs on a new apple tree. These apple-inhabiting

populations originated from a species that feed on hawthorn. An apple tree might be right next to a hawthorn

tree, but because of the egg-laying preference difference, flies of each population never meet to mate with

each other. The change in preference appears to have been caused by a genetic mutation that is passed on

from one generation to the next. Explain what sympatric speciation is and how this might be an example of

sympatric speciation. Describe the process by which these two new populations will become two new species.

153. Assess the effect of the development of bipedalism on the evolution of hominins. What conclusions can you

draw about the adaptive value of this trait? Could the advent of bipedalism encourage the evolution of other

traits, like intelligence?

154. Compare the major differences between organisms in the three Domains: Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya.

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Evolution & Classification Test Chap 14-17

Answer Section

TRUE/FALSE

1. ANS: T

The isotopes needed are not present in sedimentary layers likely to hold fossils.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level B REF: 396

TOP: 14-2

2. ANS: F

Amino acids and other organic molecules were formed.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level B REF: 403

TOP: 14-5

3. ANS: F

Redi covered the flask to keep flies from landing on the meat inside the flask.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 401

TOP: 14-4

4. ANS: F

There is much left to be learned about early life. Do not confuse lack of evidence with evidence to the

contrary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level F REF: 402

TOP: 14-5

5. ANS: T

Since trace fossils may include nests, footprints, and burrows, they do provide at least a snapshot of the

behavior of an extinct organism.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level F REF: 393

TOP: 14-1

6. ANS: T

Review the endosymbiotic theory to see how eukaryotes are thought to have developed from prokaryotes.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 405

TOP: 14-5

7. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Taxonomy B

REF: 425 NAT: LS_3c TOP: 15-5

8. ANS: F

To develop his understanding of evolution, Darwin used his studies on H.M.S. Beagle and the work that he

did later after his return to England.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Taxonomy B REF: 420–422

TOP: 15-1

9. ANS: F

Vestigial structures are homologous structures and both indicate a shared ancestry.

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PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Taxonomy C REF: 424–425

NAT: LS_3c TOP: 15-5

10. ANS: F

Strepsirrhines are the earliest primates and are present in the Old World (Africa, Asia) only.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level A REF: 453

TOP: 16-2

11. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level A

REF: 456 TOP: 16-2

12. ANS: F

Australia has been isolated for longer than the human species has existed.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level B REF: 473

TOP: 16-7

13. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level E

REF: 470 TOP: 16-9

14. ANS: F

Aristotle’s system was based on his belief that species are distinct, separate, and unchanging.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level A REF: 484–485

TOP: 17-1

15. ANS: T

The class is made up of related orders of organisms.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level C REF: 488

NAT: LS_3e TOP: 17-3

16. ANS: F

Characters can be biochemical or morphological.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level C REF: 492

NAT: LS_3e TOP: 17-4

17. ANS: T

If a population becomes geographically isolated from the rest of the species, it will not be able to reproduce

with the other members of the species. The population may evolve adaptations that allow it to survive within

its specific environment.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level B REF: 491

TOP: 17-4

18. ANS: F

The branches of a cladogram show hypothesized ancestry.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level B REF: 496

NAT: LS_3d TOP: 17-6

19. ANS: F

Viruses are not considered living things and therefore are not classified in the current classification system of

organisms.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level B REF: 503

NAT: LS_3e TOP: 17-9

20. ANS: T

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Most plants produce their own food through photosynthesis. Some plants are parasitic and are unable to

photosynthesize.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level B REF: 502

TOP: 17-9

MULTIPLE CHOICE

21. ANS: C

The Law of Superposition holds that more recent layers are closer to the surface.

Feedback

A Think about what fern and moss fossils above the marine layer indicate. B See the Law of Superposition on p. 394. C Correct! D Consider the presence of terrestrial fossils.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level B REF: 394–395

TOP: 14-1

22. ANS: B

Invertebrates, here represented by jellyfishes, are graphed closest to the original one-celled life forms.

Feedback

A Look carefully at the dates on the horizontal axis of the graph. B Correct! C Land plants didn't appear until the Paleozoic era. D Reptiles are relatively complex and didn't appear until about 245 million years ago.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level C REF: 398

NAT: LS_3c TOP: 14-3

23. ANS: D

This option presents organisms in the order they appear in the graph.

Feedback

A Remember simplest forms of life evolved first. B The earliest life-forms were single-celled. C Complex animals like fish and dinosaurs evolved later than simple prokaryotes. D That's right!

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level A REF: 398–399

NAT: LS_3c TOP: 14-3

24. ANS: A

This is the correct sequence order.

Feedback

A Right! B The specimen is buried in sediment before mineralization can occur. C The organism dies first. D Mineralization happens while the specimen is still encased in sediment.

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PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level B REF: 394

TOP: 14-1

25. ANS: C

Cast fossils are molds that became filled in with minerals.

Feedback

A Look over page 393 in your text. B Are definitions paired with the correct terms? C Correct! D See the definitions on page 393.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level B REF: 393

TOP: 14-1

26. ANS: D

An assumption must be made about the amount of the original isotopes that were present in the material when

it was formed because this cannot be measured or calculated.

Feedback

A This can be measured and is already known for all isotopes. B This will be measured, not assumed. C Not quite, this is what we're going to calculate. D Right!

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level E REF: 395

TOP: 14-2

27. ANS: C

After a period of one half-life (5730 years) there will be 50% of the original isotope left. After the second

half-life (11,460 years) that 50% gets divided in half, leaving the 25% now found in guano.

Feedback

A Review the concept of half-life. After one half-life there would be 50% of the isotope

left. B You're on the right track, but at that age the C-14 would be down to 12.5%. C Good, that's the answer. D See p. 395.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level C REF: 395

TOP: 14-2

28. ANS: C

The iridium-rich layer of material from the meteroid impact marks the boundary between the Cretaceous and

the Tertiary periods This impact is also believed to be the cause of the extinction of the dinosaurs. A dinosaur

fossil from after this period would be quite significant.

Feedback

A Study page 399. B The main source of iridium on Earth is meteorite impacts. C Good job, that's correct! D See text for information on the Mesozoic era.

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PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level F REF: 399

TOP: 14-3

29. ANS: D

Only the atmospheric consequences would have had widespread global effects on living things.

Feedback

A Even a powerful earthquake is a relatively local phenomena, unlikely to cause

extinction on a global scale. B Many species lived inland so tsunamis would not explain global extinctions. C Volcanic eruptions would certainly cause local fatalities but would not explain the

simultaneous extinctions of numerous species all over the planet. D Correct.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 399

TOP: 14-3

30. ANS: C

This statement correctly defines the two ideas.

Feedback

A Are the definitions in the right order? B Review pages 401 and 402. C Good, that's it. D See pages 401 and 402.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level F REF: 401–402

TOP: 14-4

31. ANS: D

Preventing microorganisms from entering kept the broth from spoiling, since of course new microorganisms

were not spontaneously generated.

Feedback

A Review page 402. B There was no difference here. C This is a difference, but it wasn't the essential difference. D That's right!

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 402

TOP: 14-4

32. ANS: A

Simpler components must be created before they can be arranged as components of more complex structures.

Feedback

A Correct. B Review Pages 403-404. C Amino acids make up proteins, so amino acids must have been made first. D The genetic code carries information on what amino acids are added to proteins in

which order, so proteins must have existed before the code.

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PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 403–404

TOP: 14-5

33. ANS: C

These are the two essential pieces of evidence.

Feedback

A Neither the archaebacteria nor the early cells were eukaryotic. B Photosynthesis did not evolve until after the archaebacteria and the first cells. C Correct. D Archaebacteria are noteworthy for their ability to survive in extreme environments.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 405

TOP: 14-5

34. ANS: C

This affected the ecosystem of the entire planet, especially since oxygen is toxic to many anaerobes.

Feedback

A Review page 405. B Cyanobacteria are photosynthesizers. C Right! D Cyanobacteria are prokaryotes.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level E REF: 405

NAT: IS_1e TOP: 14-5

35. ANS: B

The circular DNA found in these organelles resembles the DNA configuration in prokaryotes.

Feedback

A This is true but does not support the theory. B Correct! C This is true, but does not support the theory. D This is not specific enough a trait to support the theory.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level E REF: 406

TOP: 14-6

36. ANS: B

The endosymbiont theory implies that genomes from separate species combined in a single species over time.

Feedback

A This is not an implication of the theory. B Right! C Have a look on page 406. D Think about phylogeny as a genealogy.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level F REF: 406

NAT: LS_3d TOP: 14-6

37. ANS: C

Chloroplasts and mitochondria have double membranes, as might be expected in an endosymbiont that was

engulfed by another larger cell.

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Feedback

A This doesn't seem to follow from the process described. B Have a look at page 406 again. C That's correct! D No, the endosymbiont was a prokaryote.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level F REF: 406

TOP: 14-6

38. ANS: C

This describes the origin of a photosynthetic eukaryote as a two-step process beginning with the

endosymbiotic origin of a mitochondrion and then a chloroplast.

Feedback

A You're on the right track, keep trying. B Hint: it's a two-step process. C Correct, good work. D Remember a photosynthetic eukaryote has mitochondria as well as chloroplasts.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level E REF: 407

TOP: 14-6

39. ANS: C

The timing of a completely evolved bird with a feathered dinosaur suggests that birds evolved much earlier at

a time when dinosaurs were also evolving.

Feedback

A This suggests birds evolved from dinosaurs. B This shared character doesn't tell us either way. C Right! D This shared character doesn't tell us either way.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 408

NAT: LS_3c TOP: 14-3

40. ANS: B

The Cambrian explosion was a significant diversification in which most major animal body plans we see

today began.

Feedback

A A diversification is an increase in the number of species. B Correct. C See page 398. D Review information on the Paleozoic era.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 398

NAT: LS_3c TOP: 14-3

41. ANS: D

Rocks of particular ages in different places are identified by having similar fossil assemblages.

Feedback

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A Review the material on page 394. B The age of a sedimentary rock cannot be determined in this way. C In most cases the composition of a rock does not say anything about its age. D That's right!

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 394–395

TOP: 14-2

42. ANS: D

This is the correct order of magnitude for a half life to determine an age as old as Earth. Recall that carbon-14

is only useful to date objects as old as about 60,000 years

Feedback

A This is the half life of carbon-14, recall the upper limit of age determination for this

isotope. B This is too short. C Still too short, think of the case of carbon-14. D That's right!

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level E REF: 396

TOP: 14-2

43. ANS: D

More than one fossil type appears in this deposit.

Feedback

A Nests are trace fossils, but what about the other specimens? B Not all the specimens are composed of original material. C Review Table 14.1. D Correct!

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 393

TOP: 14-1

44. ANS: D

The clay surface would act to stabilize complex molecules such as proteins, keeping them from breaking

apart.

Feedback

A Clay is not itself an organic substance. B The hypothesis deals with events occurring much before this. C The surface of the clay is the important factor. D That's right!

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level B REF: 404

NAT: IS_1e TOP: 14-5

45. ANS: D

Over time, organisms often adapt to changes in the environment. In this case, the insects adapted to the

insecticide and lost their initial susceptibility.

Feedback

A You are thinking on the right track. Try to be a little more specific in your response.

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B Would eating the insecticide be the actual cause? C Did you consider all the variables? D Good job! You are correct!

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level C REF: 428–430

NAT: LS_3a TOP: 15-3

46. ANS: A

Some species have evolved morphological adaptations that allow them to blend in with their environments

and therefore survive.

Feedback

A Correct! B Do giraffes live in tropical rainforests? Read the question again carefully. C Read the information in the question carefully. D/No, try again! D

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level C REF: 428

TOP: 15-5

47. ANS: B

Darwin’s theory of how traits change in a population over time includes the idea that variations can be

inherited. Mutations in a small population would be inherited and passed to the next generation. The smaller

the population and the more mutations, the more changes would happen in the population.

Feedback

A Almost. Keep trying. B Good job! You are correct! C Think again. Would that cause the most changes? D Try again. Read page 420 of your text.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level C REF: 420

NAT: LS_3a TOP: 15-7

48. ANS: D

If an extreme version of a trait makes an organism more fit, directional selection may occur. This form of

selection increases the extreme versions of a trait in a population.

Feedback

A Try again. Read page 435 in your text again. B Good try. Read page 435 in your text again. C Keep trying. Read page 435 to help with this concept. D Correct!

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level C REF: 435

NAT: LS_3a TOP: 15-7

49. ANS: B

Camouflage is an adaptation that allows species to blend in with the environment and therefore survive.

Camouflage is an adaptation that allows species to reproduce.

Feedback

A Mimicry is an adaptation, but not the one shown in Figure 15-2. Read page 428 again.

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B Correct! C No. Artificial selection isn't an adaptation. Read page 428 again D Keep trying. Read page 428 again.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level A REF: 428

TOP: 15-5

50. ANS: C

Not all anatomically similar structures are evidence of evolution. Analogous structures are not inherited from

a common ancestor.

Feedback

A Good try! Read page 426 of your text again. B Try again! Read page 426 of your text again. C Correct! D You are on the right track. Read page 426 of your text again.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level B REF: 426

NAT: LS_3d TOP: 15-5

51. ANS: C

Natural selection acts to select the individuals that are best adapted for survival and reproduction. That

concept is reflected in C.

Feedback

A Not quite. Try again. B No. Examine the graphs again and compare them to the information on page 434. C Correct! D Sorry. Read about the Hardy-Weinberg principle on page 434.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 434 | 436

NAT: LS_3a TOP: 15-7

52. ANS: C

Natural selection is one of several processes, or mechanisms, that can lead to evolutionary change.

Feedback

A Read page 422 in your text again. B No, they aren't related in this way. C That's right! D If they were, then we wouldn't need two terms!

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Taxonomy D REF: 422

NAT: LS_3a TOP: 15-3

53. ANS: A

Fossils are the main evidence of evolution because they show ancestors of modern species.

Feedback

A Good job! You got it. B Good try. Read page 423 in your text again. C Keep trying. Read page 423 in your text again. D Sorry. Fossils reveal much more than that. Read page 423 in your text again.

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PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Taxonomy C REF: 423

NAT: LS_3c TOP: 15-4

54. ANS: D

Derived traits are recent features, such as feathers in vertebrates; ancestral traits are more primitive features,

such as teeth in vertebrates.

Feedback

A No. This isn't about natural selection or genetics. Read page 424 in your text again. B No. Read page 424 in your text again. C You are on the right track! Read page 424 in your text again. D Correct!

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Taxonomy D REF: 424

NAT: LS_3d TOP: 15-5

55. ANS: D

Evolution predicts that an organism’s body parts are more likely to be modifications of ancestral body parts

than new features.

Feedback

A Try again. Read page 424 in your text again. B You're on the right track. Read page 424 in your text again. C Keep trying. Read page 424 in your text again. D Correct! Nice work.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Taxonomy D REF: 424

NAT: LS_3d TOP: 15-5

56. ANS: C

Analogous structures are evidence of convergent evolution through natural selection.

Feedback

A Try again. Read page 426 in your text again. B This describes structures that are more than superficially similar. C Correct! D No. Read page 426 in your text again.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Taxonomy C REF: 426

NAT: LS_3d TOP: 15-5

57. ANS: C

Darwin recognized that South American animals are more similar to each other than they are to the similar

species in Europe. He decided that this is due to a common South American ancestor.

Feedback

A No. Did Darwin know about genotypes? Read the question again. B Incorrect. Did Darwin know about amino acid sequences? Read the question again. C Correct! D Keep trying. Read about the mara and the rabbit in your textbook.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Taxonomy D REF: 427

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NAT: LS_3d TOP: 15-6

58. ANS: D

This analogy has been used to argue the importance of being careful when saying that a particular structure in

an organism is an adaptation, without evidence of natural selection.

Feedback

A Try again. Read page 430 in your text again. B Keep trying. Read page 430 in your text again. C Try again. Read page 430 in your text again. D Correct!

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Taxonomy D REF: 430

TOP: 15-5

59. ANS: B

The Hardy-Weinberg principle showed mathematically that evolution will not occur in a population unless

allelic frequencies are acted upon by forces that cause change.

Feedback

A Try again. Read page 431 in your text again. B Good job! C Keep trying! Read page 431 in your text again. D Good try. Read page 431in your text again.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Taxonomy B REF: 431

TOP: 15-7

60. ANS: A

Feedback

A Correct! B Good try. Read page 438 in your text again. C Try again. Read page 438 in your text again. D Incorrect. Keep trying. Read page 438 in your text again.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Taxonomy C REF: 438

TOP: 15-8

61. ANS: C

In this case, the ancestor species and the new species live side-by-side during the speciation process.

Feedback

A Try again. Read page 438 in your text again. B Keep trying. Read page 438 in your text again. C Correct! D You're on the right track. Read page 438 in your text again.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Taxonomy B REF: 438

TOP: 15-8

62. ANS: C

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Adaptive radiation occurs when a species is introduced to a new ecosystem or when a species can survive in

an environment that was unreachable before. For example, Darwin’s finches developed from a single species

of finches that reached the islands.

Feedback

A Keep trying! Read page 439 in your text again. B Try again. Read page 439 in your text again C Correct! D Good try. Read page 439 in your text again

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Taxonomy D REF: 439

NAT: LS_3b TOP: 15-7

63. ANS: C

The structure of biochemical traits, such as protein structure, reflects the degree of relationship of different

species in the same way that anatomical traits do.

Feedback

A This is just an example of development. B This is variation, there can be variation without evolution. C That's right! D Have a look at page 427 again.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Taxonomy F REF: 427

NAT: LS_3c TOP: 15-6

64. ANS: C

The silverswords are an example of an adaptive radiation occurring after a single species dispersed to new

habitat in the Hawaiian Islands.

Feedback

A These plants don't look like each other. B Think about the pattern displayed by the species. C Good! D There were none identified in the question.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Taxonomy D REF: 439

NAT: LS_3b TOP: 15-7

65. ANS: B

This change was in response to the bipedalism characteristic of hominins.

Feedback

A See page 463 to learn about the foramen magnum. B Correct! C Review the definition of foramen magnum. D Try again.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level B REF: 463

TOP: 16-4

66. ANS: D

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Evidence such as this suggests the greater intelligence.

Feedback

A Would a small brain make it more intelligent? B See page 469. C Review information on Homo erectus. D Right.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level F REF: 469

NAT: LS_3c TOP: 16-5

67. ANS: B

Climate changes are associated with the evolution of human ancestors.

Feedback

A Does the text support this idea? B Good job. C See page 461. D Try again!

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level B REF: 461

TOP: 16-5

68. ANS: B

The chimpanzee shows the greatest degree of similarity in protein sequence.

Feedback

A Is there a bar that is higher? B Correct! C Is this the highest bar? D This is the lowest bar in the graph.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level C REF: 461

NAT: LS_3d TOP: 16-3

69. ANS: B

The orangutan is the great ape least related to humans.

Feedback

A See page 461. B Right! C Orangutans are not that closely related. D Neither of these is a great ape like the orangutan.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level E REF: 461

NAT: LS_3d TOP: 16-3

70. ANS: A

The greater intelligence is indicated by the larger brain.

Feedback

A Right. B Try again.

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C See page 463. D Review pages 467–471.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 463 | 467–471

TOP: 16-5

71. ANS: B

The form of the teeth directly reflects diet.

Feedback

A Try again. B You're correct! C Try again. D You're on the right track.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 452 | 463 | 467

TOP: 16-5

72. ANS: C

With eyes both facing forward, stereoscopic vision is possible, which provides a sense of depth.

Feedback

A Review page 452. B Do the eyes need to be close together for this? C You're correct! D This is related to the structure within the eye.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level B REF: 452

TOP: 16-1

73. ANS: B

These traits are characteristics of the strepsirrhines.

Feedback

A See page 456 for information on haplorhines. B Right! C See page 456 to learn more about New World monkeys. D Anthropoids are humanlike primates.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level C REF: 455

TOP: 16-2

74. ANS: C

The prehensile tail acts as a fifth grasping limb allowing easier movement through trees.

Feedback

A The tail is not used to handle tools. B Diet is not associated with the prehensile tail. C Correct! D This is not its function.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level C REF: 456

TOP: 16-1

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75. ANS: C

This is an example of a very early primate.

Feedback

A It resembles an early primate, not a later one. B See page 459. C You're correct! D Not early enough.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level B REF: 459

NAT: LS_3c TOP: 16-3

76. ANS: B

Aegyptopithecus has been hypothesized to be an ancestors to the apes.

Feedback

A See page 460. B You're correct! C This fossil is like an ape. D This is a more primitive ancestor.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level A REF: 460

NAT: LS_3c TOP: 16-3

77. ANS: C

These are definitions of the two groups.

Feedback

A Review pages 461–463. B Hominoids don't include monkeys. C Correct. D Are the definitions in the correct order?

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 461–463

TOP: 16-4

78. ANS: A

This was the basis of the argument.

Feedback

A Right! B See page 465. C Only the skull was found. D Only the skull was found.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level E REF: 465

NAT: LS_3c TOP: 16-5

79. ANS: D

The overall body size and jaw morphology is used to justify the distinction between these fossils.

Feedback

A They all walked upright.

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B Review pages 465–466. C Review hominin fossils in your text. D Correct!

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 465–466

TOP: 16-6

80. ANS: C

Brain size was the key difference.

Feedback

A Homo ergaster had the first humanlike nose. B Re-read pages 463–467. C That's right. D Check page 468.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 463–467

TOP: 16-5

81. ANS: D

This is the correct order.

Feedback

A Re-read pages 467–471. B This is the right start. C Homo habilis is not the earliest fossil. D You're correct!

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 465 | 467–471

TOP: 16-5

82. ANS: A

The greater diversity in Africa supports the single-origin in Africa hypothesis.

Feedback

A Correct! B This is the opposing theory. C Try again. D See page 472.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level F REF: 472

NAT: LS_3c TOP: 16-8

83. ANS: B

This is the name given to this recent discovery.

Feedback

A Its name reflects its great similarity to modern humans. B Right. C See page 469. D It was not classified as the same species as modern humans.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level B REF: 469

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TOP: 16-7

84. ANS: C

Homo neanderthalensis disappeared at about this time.

Feedback

A These fossils are from much earlier in time. B Try again. C That's correct! D Review pages 470–472.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level C REF: 470–472

TOP: 16-9

85. ANS: D

Homo neanderthalensis and Homo sapiens overlap in the fossil record.

Feedback

A Homo ergaster is a relatively early species, unlike H. neanderthalensis. B Homo erectus is an early species. C Review page 471. D That's right!

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 471

TOP: 16-7

86. ANS: A

The “mitochondrial Eve” is the earliest human female ancestor with descendents now alive.

Feedback

A You're correct. B The hypothesis pertains to descent within the human species. C See pages 471–472. D The hypothesis pertains to descent within the human species.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level F REF: 471–472

NAT: LS_3d TOP: 16-8

87. ANS: B

A scientific name is italicized with the first letter of the genus capitalized and the first letter of the species in

lower case.

Feedback

A Check page 486. There is a list of rules for scientific names. B Way to go! C You are on the right track. D Look at the choices again.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level C REF: 486

NAT: LS_3e TOP: 17-2

88. ANS: C

A kingdom is divided into more specific phyla or divisions.

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Feedback

A This isn't quite right. Think again. B Watch out. A domain is divided into kingdoms. C Good job! D Check page 488 if you need help.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 488

NAT: LS_3e TOP: 17-3

89. ANS: B

Kingdom is the most general of the taxon listed here. Species is the most specific.

Feedback

A Look at the choices again. B You are right! C Oops. Remember that a kingdom is split into phyla D This is the most specific taxon.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level C REF: 488

NAT: LS_3e TOP: 17-3

90. ANS: C

Domain is the least specific of all taxa and species is most specific.

Feedback

A Remember that phylum is more specific than kingdom but less specific than class. B Look again. This list goes from most specific to least specific. C Good job! D Recall that domain is the most general taxon.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 488

NAT: LS_3e TOP: 17-3

91. ANS: D

Recall that there are three domains: Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya.

Feedback

A Be careful. Animalia is a Kingdom. B The American black bear belongs to order Carnivora. C Chordata is the phylum of this bear. D That's right!

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level C REF: 488

NAT: LS_3e TOP: 17-3

92. ANS: B

The phylogenetic species concept is a classification based on evolutionary history, if the evolutionary history

of a species is unknown, its species status cannot be determined.

Feedback

A This is a limitation of the typological species concept. B Yes! C Not quite. This is one of the limitations of the biological species concept.

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D Oops, this is a limitation of the biological species concept.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level E REF: 491

NAT: LS_3e TOP: 17-4

93. ANS: C

A morphological character has to do with body structure and shape.

Feedback

A Having trouble? Check page 492. B This is a biochemical character. C Correct! D Look at the choices again.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 492

NAT: LS_3e TOP: 17-5

94. ANS: A

Ancestral characters are used to reconstruct the phylogenic history of an organism or group of organisms.

Feedback

A Terrific! B You are close but this isn't quite it. C Not quite. Look again. D Oops. Check page 495 for some more help with this.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 495

NAT: LS_3d TOP: 17-5

95. ANS: D

The outgroup on a cladogram is the species or group that shares ancestral characters with the other organisms.

Feedback

A Look again. B Good job! C No, check page 496 if you need help. D Try again.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 496

NAT: LS_3d TOP: 17-6

96. ANS: B

Derived characters are used to determine relationships. Shared derived characters are evidence of a

relationship.

Feedback

A Oops. Look at the choices again. B Great job! C You want to be discussing derived characteristics, not ancestral characteristics. D Check page 496 for a little more help with this one.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level E REF: 496

NAT: LS_3d TOP: 17-6

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97. ANS: B

The Eubacteria are the only group with this trait.

Feedback

A Try again. B Great! C This is not correct. D A protist does not have this polymer in its cell membrane.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level C REF: 499

NAT: LS_3e TOP: 17-7

98. ANS: B

Extremophiles live in extreme environments such as hydrothermal vents or hot springs.

Feedback

A Animalia is a phylum, not a domain. B That's correct! C Check page 500 for a little more help. D Eukarya includes organisms that have membrane-bound nuclei.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 500

NAT: LS_3e TOP: 17-7

99. ANS: C

The cell walls of Fungi contain chitin, in contrast with those of plants, which contain cellulose.

Feedback

A This is characteristic of both groups. B This is characteristic of both groups. C Yes! D Both groups are mostly multicellular, although Fungi contain unicellular species.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 502

NAT: LS_3e TOP: 17-8

100. ANS: C

Protists are eukaryotic organisms that can be unicellular, multicellular, or colonial.

Feedback

A This is not quite right. Paramecium has a membrane-bound nucleus. B Try again. Paramecium do not contain chlorophyll. C Way to go! D If you need more help, check page 501.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level C REF: 501

NAT: LS_3e TOP: 17-9

COMPLETION

101. ANS: no

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PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level E REF: 403

TOP: 14-5

102. ANS: 35

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 399

TOP: 14-3

103. ANS: North America

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 399

TOP: 14-3

104. ANS: clay

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level C REF: 404

TOP: 14-5

105. ANS: anaerobic

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 405

TOP: 14-5

106. ANS: mass extinction

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level C REF: 399

TOP: 14-3

107. ANS: superposition

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level B REF: 394

TOP: 14-2

108. ANS: biochemistry

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Taxonomy C REF: 427

NAT: LS_3c TOP: 15-6

109. ANS: extinct

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Taxonomy C REF: 423

TOP: 15-4

110. ANS: depth perception

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level B REF: 452

TOP: 16-1

111. ANS: anthropoids

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level C REF: 456

TOP: 16-2

112. ANS: apes

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level A REF: 458

TOP: 16-2

113. ANS: brain

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level B REF: 467–471

TOP: 16-7

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114. ANS: reproduction

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 453

TOP: 16-1

115. ANS: pelvis

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level F REF: 463–465

TOP: 16-5

116. ANS: bowl

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 463

TOP: 16-4

117. ANS: rates

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level E REF: 466

NAT: LS_3c TOP: 16-5

118. ANS: muscles

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 470

TOP: 16-9

119. ANS: sapiens

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 470

TOP: 16-9

120. ANS: Aristotle

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level A REF: 484

TOP: 17-1

121. ANS: phylogeny

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level B REF: 491

NAT: LS_3d TOP: 17-5

122. ANS: derived

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level C REF: 495

NAT: LS_3d TOP: 17-5

123. ANS: peptidoglycan

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level C REF: 499

NAT: LS_3e TOP: 17-7

124. ANS: Fungi

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level C REF: 502

NAT: LS_3e TOP: 17-8

125. ANS: extreme

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level B REF: 500

NAT: LS_3e TOP: 17-7

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SHORT ANSWER

126. ANS:

Photosynthetic organisms produced enough oxygen to support the production of an ozone layer in the

atmosphere. The ozone shielded Earth's surface, and organisms evolving there, from the damaging effects of

ultraviolet radiation.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 405

TOP: 14-5

127. ANS:

Biogenesis is the idea that living things come only from other living things. Redi proved that large organisms,

such as flies, do not spontaneously appear as had been previously thought. Pasteur took Redi's work even

further and showed by experiments with broth that even bacteria do not spontaneously arise.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level C REF: 401–402

TOP: 14-4

128. ANS:

At this stage in Earth's history, aerobic organisms evolved.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level C REF: 405

TOP: 14-2

129. ANS:

To determine the age of fossil A, scientists could use an absolute dating technique called radiometric dating. It

relies on the rate at which unstable radioactive nuclei break down and, over time, give off radiation and

eventually become different, stable elements. The ratio of the amount of unstable radioisotopes to the amount

of the stable end product allows scientists to calculate how much time has passed since the fish was alive.

Another method, relative dating, relies on scientists knowing the age of fossils above, below, or within the

same layer as the unknown specimen. The age of fossil A can then be estimated.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level B REF: 394

TOP: 14-1

130. ANS:

Answers will vary. Allele frequency is altered by genetic drift, natural selection, migration, mutation, or

nonrandom mating. This results in a change in genetic equilibrium in a population that is evolving. Evolution

leads eventually to speciation.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level C REF: 440

TOP: 15-8

131. ANS:

Fossils can show evolutionary changes over time. Anatomical studies indicate evolutionary relationships.

Vestigial structures indicate evolutionary pathways. Embryological development and genetic comparisons

show evolution from a common ancestor.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level C NAT: LS_3c

TOP: 15-4 | 15-5 | 15-6

132. ANS:

Structural and physiological adaptations occur at random within populations because of adaptations. Darwin's

theory explains how these are fixed within populations.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 420

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TOP: 15-2

133. ANS:

You should end up with two different types of flies. One type will consistently fly only upward and the other

will fly only downward.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 434–436

NAT: LS_3a TOP: 15-7

134. ANS:

For speciation to occur, a population must diverge and then be reproductively isolated. There are two forms of

speciation: allopatric and sympatric. In allopatric speciation, a physical barrier divides two or more

populations. Eventually, the populations will no longer be able to breed with one another. In sympatric

speciation, a species evolves into a new species without a physical barrier. As a result, the species is no longer

able to breed with the main population.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Taxonomy D REF: 438

TOP: 15-8

135. ANS:

Being bipedal allowed hominins to use their hands for tasks other than locomotion, such as toolmaking and

food gathering.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level E REF: 465

TOP: 16-5

136. ANS:

The jaw of a vegetarian animal is necessarily heavy with broad, flat teeth. This allows for the chewing and

grinding necessary to prepare the food for further digestion. The tooth and jaw structure of an omnivore or

carnivore does not require the same massive structure. Meat does not require the same amount and kind of

mechanical processing. A meat eater would also need teeth modified for tearing the flesh of the animals

consumed.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 463 | 467

TOP: 16-4 NOT: Repurposed question: answer must be an inference since info not found in text.

137. ANS:

The silicate deposits indicate a relatively dry grassland environment. This hypothesis is reinforced by the

computer models predicting cool, dry air being diverted toward Africa as ice sheets grew in the Northern

Hemisphere.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level C REF: 462–463

TOP: 16-3

138. ANS:

They both remain in one place for their life history.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level C REF: 501–502

TOP: 17-6

139. ANS:

Members can be either unicellular or multicellular. Members have a membrane-bound nucleus.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level B REF: 501

TOP: 17-6

140. ANS:

Dogs and foxes are in the same family, whereas dogs and cats are not.

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PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 496

NAT: LS_3e TOP: 17-4

141. ANS:

Gophers and house cats diverge at the level of order.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level E REF: 496

NAT: LS_3e TOP: 17-4

142. ANS:

The dog and the wolf are most closely related because they have the greatest number of levels of

classification in common, differing only at the species level.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level E REF: 496

NAT: LS_3e TOP: 17-4

143. ANS:

Vulpes velox is a species of fox because it is of the same genus as the red fox, Vulpes fulva.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 496

NAT: LS_3e TOP: 17-4

144. ANS:

The radioactivity levels would be higher at 85ºC. Because Hybrid A has a high proportion of matched

sequences, it has a higher melting temperature; thus, single strands containing radioactive iodine would not be

present at lower temperatures.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level F REF: 495

TOP: 17-5

145. ANS:

protist, bacterium, fungus

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 499–502

NAT: LS_3e TOP: 17-6

PROBLEM

146. ANS:

Amount of

Parent Material

Amount of

Daughter Material

Years Passed

100 grams 0 grams 0

50 grams 50 grams 50,000

25 grams 75 grams 100,000

12.5 grams 87.5 grams 150,000

6.25 grams 93.75 grams 200,000

3.125 grams 96.875 grams 250,000

Table 14-1

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PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level C REF: 395

TOP: 14-2

147. ANS:

See Solution 14-4.

[art note: the “X” is located at point (150,000,12.5)]

Solution 14-4

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level C REF: 394–396

TOP: 14-2

148. ANS:

W is the dark-colored wing allele and w is the patterned-wing allele. The expected frequency of each of the

three genotypes is:

WW : p2 = (0.35) (0.35) = 0.1225

Ww: 2pq = 2 (0.35) (0.65) = 0.4550

ww: q2 = (0.65) (0.65) = 0.4225

Make sure the genotype frequencies sum to 1.0 as a check of your work:

0.1225 + 0.4550 + 0.4225 = 1.0000

Since W is dominant, the frequency of dark-colored winged individuals is the frequency of homozygous

dominant and heterozygous individuals or:

0.1225 + 0.4550 = 0.5775

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level E REF: 432

TOP: 15-7

149. ANS:

The researcher has probably exhausted all of the genetic variation for the trait. Heritable variation in a trait is

one of the requirements for natural selection to work. To continue the experiment, the researcher could

introduce new variation by introducing unrelated plants or by causing mutations in the corn plants.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level F REF: 420 | 435

NAT: LS_3a | IS_1a TOP: 15-2

150. ANS:

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PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level F REF: 495–496

NAT: LS_3d TOP: 17-6

ESSAY

151. ANS:

This is an example of convergent evolution, in which unrelated groups of organisms contain species with

superficial similarities. These similarities result from similar natural selection in geographically separate areas

with environments that are similar. The similarities are not due to recent common ancestry, but result from

selection in the similar environments.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level E REF: 426–427

TOP: 15-7

152. ANS:

Sympatric speciation is the formation of two species through an isolating mechanism that is not geographic.

This might be an example of sympatric speciation because the apple and hawthorn populations of fly are

separated by their preference for host plant, not by geography. The two populations of fly live in the same

area but never meet up because they live and mate on different trees. For speciation to occur, the two

populations must remain isolated. Over time the species will gradually change through adaptation or other

mechanisms until the point when they would no longer be able to produce viable offspring were they allowed

to mate between each other. At this point they would be considered separate species.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level E REF: 438

TOP: 15-8

153. ANS:

Multiple fossil specimens of small-brained, bipedal Australopithecus support the contention that

bipedalism evolved before large brains. Bipedalism might even have encouraged the evolution of intelligence.

Bipedalism is adaptive because it frees the hands to manipulate and carry objects. Logically there

could be a connection between bipedalism and increasing intelligence. After all, a creature that has its hands

free to manipulate things might have more surviving offspring if it could manipulate things in a clever way.

Evolution is based on variability in a population, with the best adapted organisms leaving the most

offspring. For example, an early hominin that was intelligent enough to make crude stone tools might use

those tools to break open animal bones and get the rich marrow. When food was scarce, the more intelligent

hominins might have stayed well fed. They could have continued to reproduce while less intelligent hominins

died out. This could explain the trend of gradually increasing intelligence among hominins over time.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level F REF: 464

NAT: IS_1e TOP: 16-5

154. ANS:

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Organisms within the domain Bacteria are unicellular and do not contain membrane-bound organelles. They

contain peptidoglycan in their cell walls. Some are anaerobic and some are aerobic. Some are autotrophic

but most are heterotrophic. Bacteria are the most abundant organism on Earth.

Organisms within the Domain Archaea are single-celled and do not have membrane-bound nuclei. They do

not have peptidoglycan in their cell walls. Members of the Domain Archaea are very diverse. Some are

autotrophic but most are heterotrophic. They can live in extreme environments such as hydrothermal vents,

hypersaline waters, and in environments that lack oxygen.

Members of Domain Eukarya have a membrane-bound nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles. They

include both autotrophic and heterotrophic individuals. The Domain Eukarya includes all the organisms in the

Kingdoms Animalia, Plantae, Fungi and Protista.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 499–502

NAT: LS_3e TOP: 17-7