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Essentials of Anatomy and Physiology, 9e (Marieb) Chapter 6
1
The Muscular System
Short Answer
Figure 6.1
Using Figure 6.1, match the following: 1)
2
The I band within a skeletal muscle fiber is indicated by letter __________. Diff: 1
3
Page Ref: 188
2)
4
The A band within a skeletal muscle fiber is indicated by letter __________. Diff: 2
5
Page Ref: 188
3)
6
The lighter central area of the A band is indicated by letter __________. Diff: 2
7
Page Ref: 188
4)
8
The thin filament is indicated by letter __________. Diff: 2
9
Page Ref: 188
Figure 6.2
Using Figure 6.2, match the following: 5)
10
The connective tissue "overcoat" that wraps the entire muscle is indicated by letter __________.
Diff: 1
11
Page Ref: 185
6)
12
The connective tissue that wraps a fascicle, or bundle of muscle fibers, is indicated by letter __________.
Diff: 2
13
Page Ref: 185
7)
14
The muscle fiber is indicated by letter __________. iff: 1
15
Page Ref: 185
8)
16
The endomysium that wraps individual muscle fibers is indicated by letter __________. Diff: 1
17
Page Ref: 185
Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 9)
18
Only __________ muscle cells are cylindrical and multinucleated. Diff: 1
19
Page Ref: 184
10)
20
The muscle tissue that normally exhibits voluntary contractions is __________ muscle. Diff: 1
21
Page Ref: 185
11)
22
Only __________ muscle cells possess intercalated discs. Diff: 1
23
Page Ref: 186
12)
24
Skeletal muscle is often attached to bone by strong, cordlike structures called __________. Diff: 1
25
Page Ref: 185
13)
26
The __________ zone of a sarcomere contains no actin filaments while the skeletal muscle is at rest (noncontractile state).
Diff: 1
27
Page Ref: 187; 189
14)
28
The heads of the myosin myofilaments are called __________ when they link the thick and thin filaments together during skeletal muscle contraction.
Diff: 1
29
Page Ref: 189
15)
30
The gap between the motor neuron and the muscle fiber it supplies at the neuromuscular junction is called the __________.
Diff: 1
31
Page Ref: 189
16)
32
When a skeletal muscle is fully contracted, the __________ are closer to the thick filaments. Diff: 2
33
Page Ref: 192
17)
34
The only energy source that can be used to directly power muscle activity is __________. Diff: 2
35
Page Ref: 195
18)
36
A smooth, sustained contraction is called __________. Diff: 1
37
Page Ref: 194
19)
38
The __________ of a muscle is attached to the immovable or less movable bone. Diff: 1
39
Page Ref: 198-199
20)
40
The movement that is commonly seen in a ball-in-socket joint, that includes a combination of flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction, is called __________.
Diff: 2
41
Page Ref: 199
21)
42
The muscle that has the major responsibility for causing a particular movement is the __________.
Diff: 1
43
Page Ref: 202
22)
44
The arrangement of fascicles in orbicularis oris is __________. Diff: 1
45
Page Ref: 204; 207
46
23)
47
The muscle referred to as the "smiling" muscle because it raised the corners of the mouth upward is the __________.
Diff: 2
48
Page Ref: 207
24)
49
The __________ muscle runs deep to the external oblique muscle. Diff: 1
50
Page Ref: 209
25)
51
The quadriceps femoris muscle group is composed of the three vastus muscles and the __________ muscle.
Diff: 2
52
Page Ref: 214
Multiple Choice
1)
53
Muscle tissue that has involuntary regulation of contraction is: A)
54
cardiac muscle only B)
55
smooth muscle only C)
56
skeletal muscle only D)
57
cardiac muscle and smooth muscle E)
58
cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle Diff: 2
59
Page Ref: 185-186
2)
60
The muscle tissue type that consists of single, very long, cylindrical, multinucleate cells with very obvious striations is:
A)
61
cardiac muscle only B)
62
smooth muscle only C)
63
skeletal muscle only D)
64
cardiac and smooth muscle E)
65
cardiac and skeletal muscle Diff: 2
66
Page Ref: 183-185
67
Figure 6.3
3)
68
The type of muscle tissue pictured in Figure 6.3 is: A)
69
skeletal muscle B)
70
voluntary C)
71
striated D)
72
found only in the heart E)
73
smooth muscle Diff: 2
74
Page Ref: 184
4)
75
The plasma membrane of a muscle cell is called the: A)
76
sarcolemma B)
77
sarcomere C)
78
myofilament D)
79
sarcoplasm E)
80
sarcoplasmic reticulum Diff: 3
81
Page Ref: 187
5)
82
Which of the following does not describe cardiac muscle tissue: A)
83
uninucleate B)
84
striations C)
85
involuntary D)
86
rhythmic contractions E)
87
attached to bones Diff: 2
88
Page Ref: 186
6)
89
What type of membrane wraps a fascicle: A)
90
endomysium B)
91
epimysium C)
92
aponeuroses D)
93
perimysium E)
94
tendons Diff: 2
95
Page Ref: 185
96
7)
97
Which of the following is NOT a function of the muscular system: A)
98
production of movement B)
99
maintenance of posture C)
100
stabilization of joints D)
101
generation of heat E)
102
hematopoiesis Diff: 1
103
Page Ref: 187
8)
104
A sarcomere is: A)
105
the nonfunctional unit of skeletal muscle B)
106
the contractile unit between two Z discs C)
107
the area between two intercalated discs D)
108
the wavy lines on the cell, as seen in a microscope E)
109
a compartment in a myofilament Diff: 2
110
Page Ref: 187
9)
111
Which one of the following is composed of myosin protein: A)
112
thick filaments B)
113
thin filaments C)
114
all myofilaments D)
115
Z discs E)
116
light bands Diff: 2
117
Page Ref: 187-189
10)
118
Place these structures of the skeletal muscle in order from largest to smallest:1. fascicle2. myofilament3. muscle fiber (cell)4. myofibril5. sarcomere
A)
119
1, 3, 4, 5, 2 B)
120
1, 4, 3, 2, 5 C)
121
2, 5, 4, 3, 1 D)
122
3, 1, 2, 4, 5 E)
123
3, 2, 5, 4, 1 Diff: 3
124
Page Ref: 185-189
11)
125
The axon terminals of a nerve cell and the sarcolemma of a skeletal muscle cell join at the: A)
126
motor unit B)
127
neuromuscular junction C)
128
synaptic cleft D)
129
action potential E)
130
myofibril Diff: 3
131
Page Ref: 189
12)
132
Which one of the following functions do calcium ions perform during skeletal muscle contraction:
A)
133
increase the action potential transmitted along the sarcolemma B)
134
release the inhibition on Z discs C)
135
expose myosin binding sites on the actin D)
136
cause ATP binding to actin E)
137
bind to regulatory proteins on the myosin filaments, changing both their shape and their position on the thick filaments
Diff: 2
138
Page Ref: 193
13)
139
The mechanical force of contraction is generated by: A)
140
shortening of the thick filaments B)
141
shortening of the thin filaments C)
142
a sliding of thin filaments past thick ones D)
143
the "accordian-like" folding of thin and thick filaments E)
144
the temporary disappearance of thin filaments Diff: 2
145
Page Ref: 192
14)
146
Acetylcholine is: A)
147
an ion pump on the postsynaptic membrane B)
148
a source of energy for muscle contraction C)
149
a component of thick myofilaments D)
150
an oxygen-binding protein E)
151
a neurotransmitter that stimulates skeletal muscle Diff: 1
152
Page Ref: 189
15)
153
The gap between the axon terminal of a motor neuron and the sarcolemma of a skeletal muscle cell is called the:
A)
154
motor unit B)
155
sarcomere C)
156
neuromuscular junction D)
157
synaptic cleft E)
158
cross bridge Diff: 2
159
Page Ref: 189
16)
160
Neurotransmitters are released upon stimulation from a nerve impulse by the: A)
161
myofibrils B)
162
motor unit C)
163
thick filaments D)
164
axon terminals of the motor neuron E)
165
sarcolemma of the muscle cell Diff: 2
166
Page Ref: 189
167
17)
168
An elaborate and specialized network of membranes in skeletal muscle cells that function in calcium storage is the:
A)
169
sarcolemma B)
170
mitochondria C)
171
intermediate filament network D)
172
myofibrillar network E)
173
sarcoplasmic reticulum Diff: 1
174
Page Ref: 189
18)
175
During skeletal muscle contraction, myosin cross bridges attach to active sites of: A)
176
myosin filaments B)
177
actin filaments C)
178
Z discs D)
179
thick filaments E)
180
the H zone Diff: 1
181
Page Ref: 192
19)
182
The major function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum in skeletal muscle contraction is to: A)
183
make and store phosphocreatine B)
184
synthesize actin and myosin myofilaments C)
185
provide a source of myosin for the contraction process D)
186
regulate intracellular calcium concentration E)
187
store ATP Diff: 2
188
Page Ref: 189
20)
189
The striations that give skeletal muscle its characteristic striped appearance are produced, for the most part, by:
A)
190
a difference in the thickness of the sarcolemma B)
191
the arrangement of myofilaments C)
192
the sarcoplasmic reticulum D)
193
the T tubules E)
194
the "cocked" positions of the heads of the thick filaments Diff: 2
195
Page Ref: 189
21)
196
Which of these events must occur first to trigger the skeletal muscle to generate an action potential and contract:
A)
197
sodium ions rush into the cell B)
198
acetylcholine (ACh) causes temporary permeability to sodium C)
199
diffusion of potassium ions out of the cell D)
200
operation of the sodium-potassium pump E)
201
acetylcholinesterase (AchE) breaks down acetylcholine (ACh) Diff: 3
202
Page Ref: 189-190
203
22)
204
A skeletal muscle twitch differs from a tetanic contraction in that: A)
205
the tetanic contraction is considered abnormal, while the twitch is a normal muscle response
B)
206
the tetanic contraction is caused by a single stimulus, while the twitch is caused by very rapid multiple stimuli
C)
207
the muscle twitch is prolonged and continuous while a tetanic contraction is brief and "jerky"
D)
208
the muscle twitch occurs only in small muscles while a tetanic contraction occurs in large muscle groups
E)
209
the muscle twitch is a brief and "jerky" movement, while the tetanic contraction is prolonged and continuous
Diff: 3
210
Page Ref: 194
23)
211
Creatine phosphate (CP) functions within the muscle cells by: A)
212
forming a temporary chemical compound with myosin B)
213
forming a chemical compound with actin C)
214
inducing a conformational change in the myofilaments D)
215
storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP as needed E)
216
storing energy that will be transferred to ATP to resynthesize ADP as needed Diff: 2
217
Page Ref: 195
24)
218
The condition of skeletal muscle fatigue can be best explained by: A)
219
the all-or-none law B)
220
the inability to generate sufficient quantities of ATP due to feedback regulation of synthesis C)
221
insufficient intracellular quantities of ATP due to excessive consumption D)
222
a total lack of ATP E)
223
inadequate numbers of mitochondria Diff: 1
224
Page Ref: 195-196
25)
225
Which one of the following muscle actions would NOT be classified as an ISOTONIC contraction:
A)
226
pushing against a stationary wall B)
227
lifting a glass of water to your mouth C)
228
writing a letter D)
229
tying your shoe E)
230
throwing a ball
231
26)
232
Anaerobic glycolysis occurs without: A)
233
ATP B)
234
oxygen C)
235
lactic acid D)
236
carbon dioxide E)
237
glucose Diff: 3
238
Page Ref: 195
27)
239
Which of these pathways to regenerate ATP during muscle activity is the fastest: A)
240
direct phosphorylation of ADP by creatine phosphate B)
241
aerobic respiration C)
242
anaerobic glycolysis and lactic acid formation D)
243
oxidative phosphorylation E)
244
both aerobic respiration and anaerobic glycolysis Diff: 3
245
Page Ref: 195
28)
246
The insertion of the gluteus maximus is the: A)
247
sacrum B)
248
tibia C)
249
ilium D)
250
calcaneus E)
251
femur Diff: 2
252
Page Ref: 211
29)
253
Which of the following muscles closes the jaw: A)
254
the buccinator B)
255
the masseter C)
256
the frontalis D)
257
the sternocleidomastoid E)
258
the masseter and the temporalis Diff: 2
259
Page Ref: 207
30)
260
Sandra is playing the piano for her recital. Which muscle is not involved in the movement of her hands and/or fingers:
A)
261
flexor carpi radialis B)
262
flexor carpi ulnaris C)
263
extensor digitorum D)
264
extensor digitorum longus E)
265
extensor carpi radialis Diff: 2
266
Page Ref: 219
267
31)
268
Which of the following muscles inserts on the calcaneus: A)
269
the semitendinosus B)
270
the sartorius C)
271
the tibialis anterior D)
272
the soleus E)
273
the iliopsoas Diff: 2
274
Page Ref: 214; 219
32)
275
Which one of the following does NOT compress the abdomen: A)
276
internal oblique B)
277
external oblique C)
278
transversus abdominis D)
279
latissimus dorsi E)
280
rectus abdominis Diff: 2
281
Page Ref: 209
33)
282
A muscle located on the ventral (anterior) side of the body is the: A)
283
pectoralis major B)
284
occipitalis C)
285
gastrocnemius D)
286
gluteus medius E)
287
latissimus dorsi Diff: 1
288
Page Ref: 208
34)
289
A nursing infant develops a powerful sucking muscle that adults also use for whistling or blowing a trumpet called the:
A)
290
platysma B)
291
masseter C)
292
zygomaticus D)
293
buccinator E)
294
temporalis Diff: 1
295
Page Ref: 207
35)
296
Which of these muscles is not responsibile for flexion or extension of the arm? A)
297
biceps brachii B)
298
triceps brachii C)
299
brachialis D)
300
platysma E)
301
latissimus dorsi Diff: 3
302
Page Ref: 210; 211
303
36)
304
A muscle group that works with and assists the action of a prime mover is a(n): A)
305
antagonist only B)
306
fixator only C)
307
synergist only D)
308
antagonist and synergist E)
309
antagonist and fixator Diff: 1
310
Page Ref: 202
37)
311
Which of the following muscles is not involved in dorsiflexion and/or plantar flexion of the foot:
A)
312
gastrocnemius B)
313
tibialis anterior C)
314
extensor digitorum longus D)
315
soleus E)
316
iliopsoas Diff: 3
317
Page Ref: 212; 214
38)
318
Which one of the following is the action of the orbicularis oris: A)
319
closes, purses, and protrudes the lips B)
320
pulls the lower lip down and back C)
321
draws the eyebrows together D)
322
allows blinking, squinting, and various other protective mechanisms for the eye E)
323
closes the jaw Diff: 1
324
Page Ref: 207
39)
325
Paralysis of which of the following would make an individual unable to flex the thigh: A)
326
biceps femoris B)
327
vastus medialis C)
328
vastus lateralis D)
329
vastus intermedius E)
330
iliopsoas and rectus femoris Diff: 2
331
Page Ref: 212; 214
40)
332
Which one of the following muscles is involved in abduction of the arm at the shoulder joint:
A)
333
deltoid B)
334
biceps brachii C)
335
triceps brachii D)
336
latissimus dorsi E)
337
pectoralis major Diff: 2
338
Page Ref: 210
339
41)
340
Which of the following muscles adducts the thigh: A)
341
peroneus muscles B)
342
gluteus maximus C)
343
sartorius D)
344
quadriceps group E)
345
adductor muscles Diff: 1
346
Page Ref: 214
42)
347
While doing "jumping jacks" during an exercise class, your arms and legs move laterally away from the midline of your body. This motion is called:
A)
348
extension B)
349
flexion C)
350
abduction D)
351
adduction E)
352
circumduction Diff: 1
353
Page Ref: 199
43)
354
Which of the following muscles are antagonists: A)
355
biceps brachii and triceps brachii B)
356
bicpes femoris and biceps brachii C)
357
vastus medialis and vastus lateralis D)
358
masseter and temporalis E)
359
gastrocnemius and soleus Diff: 3
360
Page Ref: 211
44)
361
Paralysis of which of the following would make an individual unable to flex the knee: A)
362
hamstring muscle group B)
363
gluteal muscle group C)
364
gastrocnemius D)
365
sartorius E)
366
iliopsoas Diff: 3
367
Page Ref: 214
45)
368
Which one of the following is NOT a criteria generally used in naming muscles: A)
369
relative size of the muscle B)
370
number of origins of the muscle C)
371
shape of the muscle D)
372
method of attachment of the muscle to bone E)
373
action of the muscle Diff: 2
374
Page Ref: 204
Matching
Match the following: 1)
375
The distance between two Z discs
376
A)
377
I band Diff: 2
378
Page Ref: 187-188
379
B)
380
myosin filaments
2)
381
Otherwise known as thick filaments
382
C)
383
actin filaments Diff: 2
384
Page Ref: 189
385
D)
386
Z discs
3)
387
Contains only the actin filaments
388
E)
389
sarcomere Diff: 2
390
Page Ref: 187-188
391
F)
392
H zone
4)
393
Both actin and myosin are found in this band
394
G)
395
A band Diff: 1
396
Page Ref: 187-188
5)
397
The type of filament that is studded with myosin heads Diff: 1
398
Page Ref: 189
6)
399
Tiny contractile unit that shortens during muscle contraction Diff: 2
400
Page Ref: 187; 192
7)
401
Actin filaments are anchored to these disclike membranes Diff: 1
402
Page Ref: 189
8)
403
Lighter central portion of the A band Diff: 2
404
Page Ref: 187
Match the following: 9)
405
Serves as the actual "go" signal for muscle contraction
406
A)
407
creatine phosphate Diff: 2
408
Page Ref: 193
409
B)
410
acetylcholine
10)
411
Neurotransmitter substance released at motor end plates by the motor neuron
412
C)
413
enzymes D)
414
potassium ions Diff: 2
415
Page Ref: 189
416
E)
417
calcium ions
11)
418
Normally stored in the sarcoplasmic reticulum
419
F)
420
aerobic respiration Diff: 2
421
Page Ref: 189
422
G)
423
anaerobic respiration
12)
424
A metabolic pathway that produces water, carbon dioxide, and ATP, and provides for a large amount of ATP per glucose because oxygen is used
425
H)
426
sodium ions Diff: 3
427
Page Ref: 195
13)
428
A reserve, high-energy compound used to convert ADP to ATP by the transfer of a high-energy phosphate group
Diff: 2
429
Page Ref: 195
14)
430
Destroys acetylcholine (ACh) Diff: 2
431
Page Ref: 190
Match the following: 15)
432
Type of movement that decreases the angle of the joint
433
A)
434
supination B)
435
extension Diff: 2
436
Page Ref: 199
437
C)
438
pronation
16)
439
Type of movement that results when the forearm rotates laterally so that the palm faces anteriorly
440
D)
441
rotation E)
442
adduction Diff: 2
443
Page Ref: 202
444
F)
445
flexion
17)
446
The movement of a limb toward the body midline
447
G)
448
abduction Diff: 2
449
Page Ref: 199
18)
450
Type of movement that increases the angle of the joint Diff: 2
451
Page Ref: 199
19)
452
The movement of a bone around its longitudinal axis Diff: 2
453
Page Ref: 199
20)
454
The movement of a limb away from the body midline Diff: 2
455
Page Ref: 199
22)
456
Primary action of the deltoid Diff: 2
457
Page Ref: 210
23)
458
Primary action of the adductor muscles Diff: 2
459
Page Ref: 214
24)
460
Primary action of the erector spinae Diff: 2
461
Page Ref: 210
25)
462
Primary action of the rectus abdominis
463
