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I. ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING
A. Electricity/Magnetism Fundamentals
1. Protons are about ___________ heavier than electrons.a. Less than thrice c. Twice
b. Less d. 1,800 times
2. How many neutrons does a Uranium 238 have?a. 147 c. 149
b. 146 d. 148
3. Ion is _________________?a. Free Electron c. Proton
b. An atom with unbalanced charges d. Nucleus with protons
4. In electricity, positive electric charge refers to ___________a. Electrons c. Neutrons
b. Protons d. Atoms
5. Amount of additional energy required for electronic emission of metals. a. MeV c. Electron volt
b. Band Gap d. Work function6. Find the charge in coulombs of dielectric that has a positive charge of 14.5 x 10 to the 18th power
protons.
a. 14.5 x 1018
Coulombs c. 14.5 x 1016
Coulombs
b. 29 x 1016
Coulombs d. 29 x 1018
Coulombs
7. When an atom gains an additional __________, it results to a negative ion. a. Neutron c. Atom
b. Electron d. Proton
8. What is the smallest element of a matter? a. Atom c. Electron
b. Neutron d. Proton
9. What is the ratio of electrons charge to its mass?a. 0 Coul/kg c. Infinite Coul/kg
b. 9.58 x 107
Coul/kg d. 1.759 x 1011
Coul / kg
10. It is the energy of the highest energy electron of a metal at 0 K. a. 1 Joule c. Work Function
b. 1 eV d. Fermi characteristic energy
11.What is the law that determines polarity of an induced voltage? a. Thevenins Law c. Faradays Law
b. Lenzs Law d. Nortons Law
12.What is the term called magnetic field? a. Current flow through space around a permanent magnet
b. The force that drives current through a resistor
c. The force between the plates of charge capacitord. A force set up when current flows through a conductor
13.Current carried by each of two long parallel conductors is doubled, if their separation is alsodoubled, the force between them would
a. Increase four-fold c. Become halfb. Increase two-fold d. Remain the same
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14. Which of the following refers to a characteristic of a magnetic line of force?a. Travels back and forth between the north and south pole of a bar magnet
b. Travels from north to the south through the surrounding medium of a bar magnet
c. Travels from south to north through the surrounding medium of a bar magnet
d. Stay stationary between the north and the south of a bar magnet15. ________ is the physical motion resulting from the forces of magnetic fields.
a. Rotation c. Torque actionb. Motor action d. Repulsion
16. The magnitude of the core loss is directly proportional to ___________. (n=no. of laminations)a. n c. 1/nb. n
2d. 1/ n
2
17. This type of magnetic core is usually made up an L-shaped laminations.
a. Shell type c. Cylindrical type
b. Wound-core type d. Core type
18.The power dissipated in the core due to hysteresis and eddy current losses.
a. Iron loss c. Copper loss
b. Friction loss d. Winding loss
19.What is the unit of magnetic of magnetic flux in SI system?
a. Gauss c. Weber
b. Tesla d. Maxwell
20. In applying the right hand rule by holding a conductor with your right hand so that the thumbrepresents the current, the encircling fingers around the conductor represent ____________.
a. Electronic field of forceb. Electric lines of forcec. Electromagnetic field intensityd. Magnetic lines of force
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B. Electrical Circuit1. A radio equipment will be used 70 % at 50 A rating for 5 hrs., how much capacity of a dry battery
is needed?
a. 17.5 c. 35
b. 250 d. 175
2. The objective of a capacitor is to
a. Block AC and pass DC currentb. Block DC and pass AC currentc. Block AC currentd. Store AC current
3. If two 0.25 F capacitors are connected in series, what will be the total effective capacitance?
a. 0.0624 F c. 0.125 F
b. 2.5 F d. 0.50 F
4. If you need an LC circuit to be resonant at 2500 Hz and use a 150 mH coil, what should thecapacitance value be?
a. 0.015 F c. 0.15 F
b. 0.027 F d. 27 F
5. A parallel plate capacitor has the following values : k=81; d=0.025 in.; A=6 in2. What is the
capacitance of the capacitor?a. 4.372 pF c. 437.2 pF
b. 43.72 pF d. 4372 pF
6. Find the required battery capacity needed to operate an equipment of 30 A at 5 hrs.
a. 6 Ah c. 3 Ah
b. 150 Ah d. 30 Ah
7. The bigger the diameter of a wire, the ________is its resistance.
a. Lesser c. Unstable
b. Higher d. Stable
8. The area of conductor whose diameter is 0.001 inch is equal to
a. One steradian c. One angstrom
b. One micron d. One circular mil
9. Why is the resistance of a conductor different for RF current than DC?a. Because of the insulation conductsb. Because of skin effectc. Because of the Heisenberg effectd. Current at radio frequency
10. ___________ is the reciprocal of capacitance in electronics.
a. Conductance c. Permeability
b. Elastance d. Permittivity
11. How much is the equivalent power in watts can a 3 horse power provide?
a. 248.66 Watts c. 2238 Watts
b. 1492 Watts d. 300 Watts12. The reciprocal of capacitance is called
a. Permeability c. Elastance
b. Permittivity d. Conductance
13. What term in electronics is used to express how fast energy is consumed?
a. Volt c. Power
b. Load d. Conductance
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14. Given the two voltages: S (t) = 10 cos (t Q (t) = 15 cos (t + 45) volts + 30) Find V(t) = S (t) + Q(t)voltsa. V (t) = 24.8 cos (t + 39) voltsb. V (t) = 5.9 cos (t + 71) voltsc. V (t) = 25 cos (t + 75) voltsd. V (t) = 13.6 cos (t + 75) volts
15. _____________is used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic field.
a. An inductor c. A capacitor
b. A transformer d. A battery
16. The impedance in the study of electronics is represented by resistance and ____________.
a. Reactance c. Inductance and Capacitance
b. Capacitance d. Inductance
17.Term used for an out-of-phase, non-productive power associated with inductors and capacitors.
a. True power c. Peak envelope power
b. Reactive power d. Effective power
18. Characteristics of the current in a series R-L-C circuit at resonance.
a. It is zero c. It is at maximum
b. It is dc d. It is a minimum19. Is a layer of insulating medium that separates the plates of a capacitor.
a. Dielectric c. Core
b. Insulator d. Space
20. Current in a chemical cell refers to the movement of ___________.
a. Negative hole charge c. Positive ions only
b. Negative ions only d. Negative and positive ions
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C. Solid State Devices/Circuits
1. Which of the following best describes an intrinsic semi conductor?
a. It is monocrystalline
b. There is no hole and free electron
c. It is only composed of only one kind of elementd. The concentration of holes and free electrons are equal
2. What is the atomic number of germanium?
a. 4 c. 14
b. 6 d. 32
3. Electrical classification of materials having 5 to 8 valence electrons.
a. Compound c. Insulator
b. Conductor d. Semi-conductor
4. A hole is electrically _________.
a. Negative c. Positive
b. Neutral d. Neutron5. Another name for band gap energy.
a. Barrier potential c. Energy gap
b. Conduction energy d. Built-in potential
6. What happens to the conductivity of the semiconductor when temperature increases?
a. Increases c. Remains the same
b. Cannot be predicted d. Decreases
7. In semiconductor physics, it is another word for impure.
a. Extrinsic c. Alloy
b. Molecule d. Mixture
8. _________ are electrons at the outer shell.a. Valence electrons c. Conductor electrons
b. Inside the shell electrons d. Outside the shell electrons
9. What elements possess four valence electrons?
a. Semi-insulators c. Conductors
b. Insulators d. Semi conductors
10.How much is the resistance of germanium slag 10 cm long and cross sectional area of 1 squaredcm?
a. 550 k c. 5.5 k
b. 55 k d. 550
11.The term use to describe sudden reverse conduction of an electronic component cause byexcess reverse voltage across the device.
a. Cut-off c. Saturation
b. Revertion d. Avalanche
12. It is the factor by which the capacitance of the varactor changes from one specified value ofreverse voltage to another.
a. Capacitance factor c. Variance factor
b. Reactance factor d. Capacitance ratio
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13.A high power, low frequency diode is normally _________ than a low power, high frequencydiode.
a. Heavier c. Smoother
b. Smaller d. Larger
14.The term cut-off for a transistor refers to _________.
a. Maximum current flow from emitter to collectorb. No current flow from emitter to collector
c. There is no base current
d. The transistor is at its operating point
15. It is a diode whose central material is made up of intrinsic silicon sandwiched by P and N typematerials.
a. Zener c. Tunnel
b. Schottky d. PIN
16.The arrow in the symbol of a transistor indicates the direction of ____________. a. Electron current in the collector
b. Hole current in the emitter
c. Electron current in the emitterd. Donor ion current
17.Meaning of the term transition region with regard to a transistor.
a. The area of maximum P-type charge
b. The point where wire leads are connected to the P-or-N type material
c. The area of maximum N-type charge
d. An area of low charge density around the P-N junction
18.The base of transistor serves as a purpose to what element of the FET?
a. Ground c. Substrate
b. Gate d. Source
19.A circuit that is used to increase the strength of and AC signal.
a. Amplifier c. Rectifier
b. Attenuator d. Transformer
20. In semiconductor technology, the characteristic of a transistor in cut-off refers to a condition when__________.
a. There is no base current
b. No current flows from emitter to collectorc. The transistor is at its operating pointd. Maximum current flows from emitter to collector
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D. Power Generator/Sources/Principles/Applications
1. Single device that converts chemical energy into electrical energy is called _____________.a. Cell c. Generator
b. Battery d. Solar
2. Which statement is not true?a. The negative terminal of a chemical cell has a charge of excess electrons.b. The internal resistance of a cell limits the amount of output current.c. Secondary cell can be recharged.d. Two electrodes of the same metal provide the highest voltage output.
3. Which of the following is not a primary type cell? a. Zinc-Chloride c. Carbon-Zinc
b. Silver-Oxide d. Silver-Zinc
4. Which of the following is not a secondary type cell?
a. Silver-Cadmium c. Silver-Zinc
b. Lithium d. Lead-acid
5. When batteries have cells connected in series, the effect is
a. Reduced internal resistance
b. Increased voltage supplyc. Increased current supplyd. Reduced output voltage
6. _____________ is the specific gravity reading for a good lead-acid cell.
a. 1070 c. 1270
b. 1370 d. 1170
7. How much power does electronic equipment consume, assuming a 5.50 A current flowing and a120 Volt power source?a. 660 Watts c. 60 Watts
b. 66 Watts d. 125.5 Watts
8. If a dry cell has an internal resistance of 0.50 and an emf of 2 V, find the power delivered in
one-ohm resistor.
a. 1.77 Watts c. 1.33 Wattsb. 3.66 Watts d. 1.66 Watts
9. Which has the largest diameter of the following dry cells?
a. Type D c. Type C
b. Type AA d. Type AAAA
10. One of the following items below is not one of the main components of an alternating current
power supply.
a. Voltage Regulator c. Rectifier
b. Power Transformer d. Filter
11. When the cells are in series voltage add, while current capacity is
a. The same as one cell c. Zero
b. Infinite d. The sum of each cell
12. One of the following is a characteristic of a direct current dc supply voltage.a. Its value cannot be stepped up or down by transformer
b. Fluctuates
c. Its output reverses polarity
d. Easier to amplify
13. What type of transformer that is used to protect technicians from deadly electrical shock?
a. Absorber Transformer c. Step-up Transformer
b. Step-up Transformer d. Isolation Transformer
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14. How many lithium cells in series are needed for a 12 V battery?
a. 12 cells c. 10 cells
b. 4 cells d. 8 cells
15. What is the other term for the secondary cells considering its capability to accept recharging
a. Reaction Cell c. Storage Cell
b. Primary Cell d. Dry Cell
16. A battery should not be charged or discharged at a high current in order to avoid this defect.
a. Corrosion c. Buckling
b. Sulphation d. Sedimentation
17. The purpose of cells connected in parallel is to
a. Increase internal resistance
b. Increase in voltage outputc. Increase in current capacity
d. Decrease current capacity
18. How long will a battery need to operate 240 Watts equipment, whose capacity is 100 Ah and 24 V
rating?
a. 5 hrs c. 10 hrs
b. 0.10 hr d. 1 hr19. ____________ is the output voltage of a carbon-zinc cell.a. 1.5 V c. 3.5 V
b. 2.5 V d. 0.5 V20. How many Silver-zinc cells in series are needed for a 9 V battery?
a. 9 c. 7
b. 3 d. 6
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E. Electronic (Audio/RF) Circuit/Analysis/Design1. In order to obtain the best temperature stability, what should be the operating voltage of the
reference diode in a linear voltage regulator?a. Approximately 6.0 Volts c. Approximately 10.0 Voltsb. Approximately 2.0 Volts d. Approximately 3.0 Volts
2. Discrete optical waves that can propagate in optical waveguide are called ____________.
a. Modes c. Nodesb. Wavefront d. Step index3. Refers to digital interface in which data characteristics are individually synchronized and may be
sent at a time.a. Synchronous c. Asynchronous
b. Simplex d. Half-duplex4. A variation of Colpitts oscillator which employs a small capacitance in addition to the two
capacitors to reduce the effect of stray capacitance.a. Hartley Oscillator c. Wien-bridge Oscillator
b. Armstrong Oscillator d. Clapp Oscillator5. An oscillator in which a piezoelectric crystal is connected in a tank circuit between the input and
output.a. Pierce c. Armstrong
b. Colpitts d. Clapp Oscillator6. The condition that product of the feedback fraction and the open-loop gain should be 1 for
oscillation is known as _____________.a. Osci requirement c. Negative feedback
b. Positive feedback d. Barkhausen criterion7. A circuit that is used to connect a low current output to a relatively high current device.
a. Router c. Follower
b. Driver d. Buffer8. A crystal with its major flat surfaces cut so that they are perpendicular to a mechanical axis of the
original quartz crystal is called __________a. A Z cut crystal c. A Y cut crystalb. An XY cut crystal d. An X cut crystal
9. Which of the following crystals is not commonly used as oscillator?
a. Rochelle salt c. Quartzb. Tourmaline d. Carbon
10. It is the ability of some material to convert electrical energy to mechanical energy and vice versa.
a. Coercitivity c. Conductivityb. Piezoelectrictricity d. Magnetostrictivity
11. Which of the following oscillators employs crystal?
a. Pierce oscillator c. Armstrong oscillatorb. Colpitts oscillator d. Hartley oscillator
12. Oscillator that employs a transformer in parallel with a capacitor.
a. Clapp c. Armstrong Oscillatorb. Colpitts oscillator d. Hartley Oscillator
13. The energy of an oscillator can be sourced by __________.
a. Connecting capacitors across the supplyb. Inserting a resistor in the grid circuitc. Capacitive or inductive coupling from tuned circuitd. Coupling a small coil close to the tube
14. Find, which type network, provides the greatest harmonic suppression.a. L-network c. Pi-L-networkb. Pi-network d. Inverse Pi-network
15. Two low pass filter sections each has a roll-off rate of -6 dB/octave. If they are connected incascade, what will be the overall roll-off rate?a. -12dB/octave c. 6dB/octave
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b. -6dB/octave d. 36dB/octave
16. What condition does resonance occurs in an electrical circuit?a. When the square root of the sum of the capacitive and inductive reactances equal to the
resonant frequencyb. When power factor is at minimumc. When the square root of the product of the capacitive and inductive reactances is equal to the
resonant frequencyd. When the inductive and capacitive reactances are equal17. High Audio frequencies usually handled by a tweeter in a sound system.
a. Alto c. Bassb. Treble d. Tone
18. What is the effect in terms of bandwidth when the Q of a single-tune stage is doubled?a. Broader c. Higherb. Lower d. Selective
19. What is the resonant frequency of a circuit when L=2 H and C=30 pF are in series?a. 2.65 MHz c. 20.5 MHzb. 20.5 kHz d. 2.65 kHz
20. Device that increases power content from an input signal.a. Transformer c. Oscillatorb. Attenuator d. Amplifier
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F. Tests and Measurements1. Another name of PMMC instrument.
a. Ferromagnetic c. DArsonvalb. Iron vane d. Electrodynamometer
2. It is composed of a moving coil which is free to rotate in reaction the magnetic field generated bypassing current through 2 stationary field coils.a. Iron vane c. Ferromagneticb. Electrodynamometer d. DArsonval
3. Low sensitive DC voltmeter provides accurate reading when measuring __________ circuits.a. Low resistance c. Zero resistanceb. At any resistance d. High resistance
4. What is the common type of meter movement?a. DArsonval c. Fixed Coilb. Digital d. Farad
5. Type of power-line frequency meter composed of vibrating iron reeds placed in alternatingmagnetic field.a. Resonant type c. Electrodynamic typeb. Vibrating reed type d. Induction type
6. What should be the resolution of a digital voltmeter having three digit 0-3 V?a. 3 mV c. 30 mV
b. V d. 15 V7. An AC bridge that measures mutual inductance.
a. Schering bridge c. Murray loopb. Kelvin bridge d. Owens bridge
8. A _________ is a device that can test all pins of an IC at the same time.a. Pulser c. Logic probeb. Current tracer d. Logic clip
9. What is the degree of exactness of measurement when compared to the expected value of thevariable being measured?a. Precision c. Accuracyb. Deviation d. Error
10. What test instrument will you use to make a modulated envelope visible?a. Frequency c. Logic Pulser
b. Oscilloscope d. VOM11. What type of tube is used to display signals on an oscilloscope?
a. Filament tube c. Tetrodeb. Cathode ray tube d. Pentode
12. Which is not a part of cathode ray-tube oscilloscope?a. Electron gun c. Digital panel meterb. Deflection plates d. Aquadag coating
13. An iron vane is used to measurea. Dynamic resistance c. DCb. AC d. AC and DC
14. It is the reciprocal of the full scale current of a meter.a. Dynamic resistance c. Sensitivityb. Selectivity d. Transconductance
15. Type of waveform generated by the sweep generator of the CRT.a. Sine wave c. Sawtoothb. Spike d. Square wave
16. What is being controlled at the potentials between anodes of an oscilloscope?a. Focus c. Voltageb. Harmonics d. Amplitude
17. The voltmeter is connected _________________ with the component whose voltage is to bemeasured directly.a. Not connected c. In parallelb. In series d.Either in parallel or series
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18. It consists of a diode and an op-amp and has the ability to clip low level signals.a. Precision diode c. Window comparatorb. Window comparator d.Level detector
19. An electronic measuring device that provides instantaneous visual indication of voltageexcursions.a. Oscilloscope c. Power meterb. Voltmeter d. Power line meter
20. What kind of voltage is applied to the horizontal deflection plates of the oscilloscope?a. Sweep voltage c. Signal voltageb. Supply voltage d. Trigger voltage
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G. Microelectronics1. When a logic circuit rejects an unwanted signal, this is termed as _________.
a. Power consumption c. Propagation delayb. Noise margin d. Logic levels
2. What is the feedback element of a differentiator?a. Resistor c. Capacitorb. RC Network d. Inductor
3. Which of the following bipolar digital IC families is the fastest?a. TTL c. I2Lb. DTL d. ECL
4. A separately packed circuit element with its own external connections is called a ____________component.a. Discrete c. Integratedb. Active d. Passive
5. Which of the following can be used as a square to spikes wave converter?a. Level detector c. Integratorb. Differentiator d. Schmitt trigger
6. An IC constructed entirely on a single silicon chip.a. Monolithic c. Hybridb. Thick-film d. Thin-film
7. A program written in machine languagea. Language c. Source programb. Object program d. Database
8. A circuit whose output is the continuous summation of a signal over a period of time.a. Level detector c. Differentiatorb. Integrator d. Schmitt trigger
9. __________ refers to circuits with 10 to 100 integrated circuits.a. SSI c. Monolithicb. IC d. MSI
10. Another name for attenuation factor?a. dB c. Negative gainb. feedback fraction d. Loss
11. What technique below is used to increase the gain in linear ICs?
a. Use of high resistance transistorb. Use of transistor with narrow basesc. Use of transistor with wide based. Resistor ratio design
12. A CMOS with parallel PMOS and complementary series NMOS is equivalent to logical.a. NOR Gate c. NAND Gateb. AND Gate d. OR Gate
13. Which of the following circuits is the least probable building block of an op-amp?a. Differential amplifier c. Current sourceb. Tuned circuit d. Level source
14. Pin 3 of 555 timers.a. Reset c. Outputb. Trigger d. Ground
15. It is the current source used for very low current applications.a. Widlar current source c. 2-transistor current sourceb. 3-transistor current source d. Wilson current source
16. Another name of sacrifice factor.a. Loss factor c. Feedback fractionb. Feedback factor d. Multiplier
17. In a system with MOS devices, the main bus loading factor is likely to be ________.a. Capacitive c. Static Chargeb. Current d. Resistive
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18. Digital ICs are mostly __________.a. Hybrid c. Thick-filmb. Monolithic d. Thin-film
19. Ratio of the voltage gain of an op-amp for differential signals to its voltage gain for common modesignals.a. Differential gain c. Closed loop gainb. Common mode gain d. Common mode rejection ratio
20. Is a data manipulated by a computer programa. Language c. Object programb. Source program d. Data base
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H. Industrial Electronics Principles / Applications1. What happens to the output resistance of an amplifier employing voltage-shunt feedback?
a. It is increased c. It remains the sameb. It is decreased d. Equals infinity
2. If the gain of an amplifier without feedback is 10 and with negative feedback is 8, then thefeedback fraction isa. 0.8 c. 0.025b. 0.25 d. 0.9
3. What happens to the output resistance of an amplifier employing current-shunt feedback?a. It is increased c. It is decreasedb. It remains the same d. Equals infinity
4. What happens to the input resistance of an amplifier employing current - series feedback?a. Equals infinity c. It is increasedb. It remains the same d. It is decreased
5. What happens to the input resistance of an amplifier employing voltage - shunt feedback?a. It is increased c. It is decreasedb. Equals infinity d. It remains the same
6. What happens to the input resistance of an amplifier employing voltage - series feedback?a. It is increased c. Equals infinityb. It remains the same d. It is decreased
7. What happens to the output resistance of an amplifier employing current-series feedback?a. It remains the same c. Equals infinityb. It is decreased d. It is increased
8. What happens to the output resistance of an amplifier employing voltage - series feedback?a. Equals infinity c. It is increasedb. It is decreased d. It remains the same
9. The basic difference between feedbacks in biasing and amplifier circuit is _________.a. Biasing circuit have high input impedance while amplifier circuits have low output impedanceb. In biasing circuits AC negative feedback is provided while amplifiers employ DC negative
feedbackc. In biasing circuits DC negative feedback is provided while amplifiers employ AC negative
feedbackd. Biasing circuit may employ positive feedback while amplifier circuits use negative feedback.
10. What happens to the input resistance of an amplifier employing current-shunt feedback?a. Equals infinity c. It is increasedb. It remains the same d. It is decreased
11. Which is not an end effector of an industrial robot?a. Welder c. Gripperb. Grinder d. Chain knuckle
12. A movement of the wrist of the robot pivoting around the horizontal axis running from left to right.a. Roll c. Yawb. Slide d. Pitch
13. It is a robot which is capable of decision-making and has memory.a. Voltes V c. Roboratb. Pick and place manipulator d. Intelligent robot
14. Refers to the system that has no feedback and is not self-correcting.
a. Feed forward control system c. Coal slurry systemb. Open-loop system d. Closed-loop system15. It is a robot that is capable of point-to-point operation.
a. Roborat c. Pick and place manipulatorb. Voltes V d. Intelligent robot
16. Robots that are principally designed for assembly.a. Autobots c. Decepticonsb. JTA d. SCARA
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17. A movement of the wrist of the robot pivoting around the vertical axis running from top to bottom.a. Pitch c. Yawb. Roll d. Slide
18. The two kinds of relays in programmable controller area. Input and output relay c. Output relay and control relayb. Electrical and mechanical d. Feedback and open loop
19. What is the reason why robot actuators have lesser capabilities than electric or hydraulic robotactuators?a. It has high initial cost c. It always has oil leaksb. It has a quick response d. It always has all or nothing motion
20. Which of the following robot drive mechanism is the most expensive to buy but can handle heavypayloads and cheap maintenance?a. Hydraulic c. Electricb. Pneumatic d. Thermionic
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I. Computer Principles1. __________ refers to BCD counter.
a. Decade counter c. Frequency dividerb. Binary counter d. Shift divider
2. Convert 17B.8C16 to decimal.a. 379.578645 c. 379.546875b. 973.546875 d. 973.578645
3. A detailed step by step of the direction telling a computer exactly how to proceed to solve aspecific problem or process a specific taska. Flowchart c. Computer programb. Sequence d. Process
4. For a supply voltage of 10 V, what is the minimum voltage at the input of a CMOS 4000 and74C00 IC series representing logic 1?a. 9.95 V c. 7 Vb. 3 V d. 0.05 V
5. _____________ is a segment register which normally access variables in the program.a. Data c. Codeb. Stack d. Extra
6. _______________ are non-semiconductor devices still used in digital memories.a. Gates c. Relay
b. Magnetic cores d. Flip-Flops7. What level is used to represent logic 0 in a negative logic circuit?
a. Negative Transition Level c. Low Levelb. High Level d. Positive Transition Level
8. One of the following can program PROMs.a. Biasing bipolar transistor c.Blowing a fuseb. Charging a gate d. Effusing input
9. Speed of a logic circuit is normally expressed as __________________.a. Logic levels c.Propagation Delayb. Power Consumption d. Speed Immunity
10. The rapidly flashing logic probe tip tells you that the logic node being probea. Has an unstable logic activityb. Is struck
c. Has rapidly changing logic activityd. Is at an illegal logic level
11. What is the decimal equivalent of 143.44 to decimal?a. 84.69 c. 48.69b. 84.96 d. 48.96
12. A JK flip-flop whose 2 inputs are both logical 0 is operating in what mode?a. Reset c.Toggleb. Set d. Hold
13. A 4-bit digital word is calleda. Byte c. Dibitb. Quarter d. Nibble
14. For a supply voltage of 10 V, what is the maximum voltage at the output of a CMOS 4000 and74C00 IC series representing logic 0?
a. 7 V c. 0.05 Vb. 9.95 V d. 3 V15. What does ALU which carries arithmetic and logic operations process?
a. Hexadecimal Numbers c. Binary Numbersb. Octal Numbers d. Binary coded decimal
16. Octal coding involves grouping of bits intoa. 2 c. 8b. 3 d. 4
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17. What is the gray code for 35?a. 00110101 c. 100011b. 01011011 d. 110010
18. In binary counting, the counter right after 0,1,10,11 isa. 110 c. 111b. 12 d. 100
19. ______________ is a sequence of instruction that tells the computer machine on how availabledata shall be processed.a. Command c. Programb. RAM d. Flowchart
20. A half-adder is composed ofa. 2 OR Gates c. 1 XOR and 1 AND Gatesb. 2 AND Gates d. 1 AND and 1 OR Gates
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II. ELECTRONIC SYSTEMS AND TECHNOLOGIESA. Radio Communication System
Transmission Fundamentals1. What is the name of the microwave transmission line that is used with printed circuits?
a. coax c. waveguideb. ferrite loop d. microstrip
2. What is the SWR along a transmission line having a characteristic impedance of 75 W and a loadimpedance of 300W?a. 0.25 c. 2b. 0.5 d. 4
3. A major and basic advantage for the used of a klystron.a. Efficiency c. Lesser Noiseb. Cheaper d. High Power
4. Transmission lines are either balanced or unbalanced with respect to _____.a. Positive Terminal c. Groundb. Negative Terminal d. Input
5. Which of the following is not a method of coupling into or out of a waveguide?a. Holes c. Slotb. Probe d. Loop
6. Which tester is used to measure SWR?
a. Multimeter c. Reflectometerb. Spectrum Analyzer d. Oscilloscope
7. What is the effect of standing waves on a transmission line?a. increase in the power fed to antennab. decrease in the power fed to antennac. prevention of arcingd. a cooler operating line
8. Which of the following determines the characteristics of a transmission line?a. Length c. Inductanceb. Physical dimensions d. Capacitance
9. Transmission line must be matched to the load toa. transfer maximum current to the loadb. reduce the load current
c. transfer maximum voltage to the loadd. transfer maximum power to the load
10. Two 2-mm-diameter wires held 6 cm apart center-to-center has a characteristic impedance of_____.a. 491 Ohms c. 250 Ohmsb. 75 Ohms d. 500 Ohms
11. A shorted transmission line less than l / 4 in length will exhibit _____ reactance.a. Inductive c. Maximumb. Capacitive d. Minimum
12. What determines the velocity factor in transmission line?a. The termination impedanceb. Dielectrics in the linec. The center conductor resistivity
d. The termination impedance13. When a transmission line uses ground return, it is called a (n) _____ line.a. balanced c. groundedb. unbalanced d. ungrouped
14. A waveguide acts as a _____.a. LPF c. BRFb. Resonator d. HPF
15. What is the phase shift corresponding to wavelenght/4 in standing wave pattern?a. 40 c. 90b. 0 d. 180
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16. What is the velocity factor of non-foam dielectric 50 or 75 ohm flexible coaxial cable such as RG8, 11, 58, and 59?a. 0.10 c. 0.66b. 2.67 d. 0.30
17. Best choice of transmission line component to couple a coaxial line to a parallel wire line.a. Slotting c. Slotted Lineb. Directional Amplifier d. Balun
18. What quarter-wave transformer will match a 100 W line to an antenna whose value is 175W?a. 132.29 Ohms c. 137.5 Ohmsb. 150 Ohms d. 16.58 Ohms
19. What is the function of a resistive pyramid or vane at the end of a waveguide section?a. absorber c. reflectorb. termination d. dummy load
20. Energy that has neither been radiated into space nor completely transmitted.a. Incident Waves c. Modulated Wavesb. Captured Waves d. Standing Waves
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Acoustics1. Where is the single-button microphone used most?
a. Intercom c. Paging Systemb. Broadcast Studio d. Telephone
2. What is the meaning of kinescope?a. Color CRT c. Enhanced CRTb. Wide screen CRT d. TV Picture Tube
3. A relatively rigid extended surface surrounding an acoustic source.a. Panel Board c. Screenb. Baffle d. Dash Board
4. _____ used to measure speech volume.a. Speech meter c. Audio Frequency Meterb. Volume Unit Meter d. Volume Meter
5. The typical output voltage from a magnetic microphone isa. 1 mV c. 10 mVb. 50 mV d. 5 mV
6. Complex number, equal to the ratio of a complex pressure amplitude to the complex amplitude ofthe volume velocitya. Acoustic Intensity c. Acoustic Impendanceb. Acoustic Pressure d. Air Elasticity
7. How often must remote control instrumentals be calibrated?a. Weekly c. Yearlyb. Daily d. Monthly
8. What is the unit of Loudness?a. Phon c. Soneb. dB d. Mel
9. It is an underwater acoustic pressure sensor.a. Hydrophone c. SLMb. Geophone d. Sonar
10. Sound is a wave motion of varying air____.a. Pressure c. Resistanceb. Density d. Viscosity
11. A car horn outdoors, produces a sound intensity level of 90 dB at ft away. At this distance, what is
the sound power in watt?a. 1.2 W c. 12 Wb. 0.12 W d. 0.012 W
12. Sound intensity is given asa. df/dp c. dP/dAb. dE/dP d. dA/dP
13. What is the most common application of carbon microphone?a. TV Transmitter c. AM Radiob. FM Radio d. Telephone
14. Which type of microphone has a high Z output?a. Carbon c. Ribbonb. Dynamic d. Crystal
15. A device used for abating the noise accompanying the flow of gas through a pipe.
a. Acoustic Chamber c. Mufflerb. Helmholtz Resonator d. Acoustic Filter16. Designated the sensation of low and high in the sense of the bass and treble
a. Pitch c. SPLb. Intensity d. Frequency
17. One-hundred twenty bars of pressure variation is equal toa. 115.56 dBSPL c. 120 dBSPLb. 41.58 dBSPL d. 57.78 dBSPL
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18. Tendency of sound energy to spreada. Refraction c. Diffractionb. Rarefaction d. Reflection
19. What is the process where some of the medium through which it impinges?a. absorption c. refractionb. diffraction d. reflection
20. Lowest frequency produced by musical instrument.a. Harmonic c. Periodb. Midrange d. Fundamental
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Modulation1. What circuit is used to create vestigial transmission?
a. Duplexer c. LPFb. HPF d. Diplexer
2. Pilot carrier transmission, meansa. Only one sideband is transmittedb. Two sidebands as well as a trace of carrier are transmittedc. Only two sidebands are transmittedd. One sideband and carrier are transmitted
3. A carrier signal has _____.a. The information c. A varying amplitudeb. Frequency range 20-20000 Hz d. Constant peak amplitude
4. What is gained by operating an oscillator on some subharmonic of the transmission frequency?a. Frequency Sensitivity c. High Sensitivityb. Good Selectivity d. Frequency Stability
5. How does a SSB transmitter output power normally expressed?a. Peak Power c. In terms of Peak Envelope Powerb. In terms of Peak-to-Peak Power d. Average Power
6. If the percentage of modulation of an AM amplifier is 88% and the modulation signal is 1 volt, thecarrier has amplitude of _____.
a. 1.14 Volts c. 1.88 Voltsb. 0.12 Volt d. 0.88 Volt
7. The total power content of an AM signal is 600 W. What is the percentage modulation if eachsideband contains 100 W?a. 83.3 % c. 33.3 %b. 100 % d. 66.7%
8. In Frequency Modulation ______.a. The frequency of carrier varies according to the frequency of the modulating signal.b. The amplitude of the carrier according to the amplitude of the modulating signal.c. The frequency of carrier varies according to the phase of the modulating signal.
d. The frequency of carrier varies according to the amplitude of the modulating signal.
9. What percent of the radiated power is in the sidebands with 50% sinusoidal modulation (AM)?a. 11 % c. 20 %
b. 16.67 % d. 33 %10. An FM signal has a frequency deviation of 2000 Hz caused by modulating signal of 500 Hz. What
is the modulation index?a. 2 c. 4b. 5 d. 8
11. A third symbol emission which represent television.a. D c. Cb. F d. A
12. In a transmitted AM wave, state where the information is contained?a. Envelope c. Carrierb. Modulating Signal d. Sidebands
13. What pattern of modulation must used when neutralizing an operating transmitter?a. 100 % or over c. 50 %
b. 80 % d. 10 %14. What is the percent modulation of an AM wave that has a power content of 12 kW in each
sideband when modulated by a single tone?a. 66 % c. 75 %b. 30 % d. 82 %
15. What is the difference between phase and frequency modulation?a. Is too great to make two systems compatibleb. Is purely theoretical because they are the same in practicec. Lies in the different definitions of the modulation indexd. Lies in poorer audio response of phase modulation
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16. A method of generating SSB signal; that utilizes only one balanced modulator circuit.a. Third Method c. Weaver Methodb. Filter Method d. Phase-Shift Method
17. An AM transmission of 1000 W is fully modulated. Calculate the power transmitted as a SSBsignal.a. 1000 W c. 333 Wb. 167 W d. 667 W
18. The third symbol radio emission which represent telephone transmission including soundbroadcasting.a. C c. Wb. E d. F
19. For an unmodulated carrier of 1000V and a modulated peak value of 1800 V, what is themodulation index?a. 0.8 c. 0.9b. 0.7 d. 0.5
20. What is emission C3F?a. Television c. Facsimileb. RTTY d. Modulated CW
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Noise1. Considered as the main source of an internal noise.
a. Flicker c. Facsimileb. Thermal Agitation d. Modulated CW
2. Two resistor, 20 kohms and 50 kohms are at ambient temperature. Calculate for a bandwidthequal to 100 kHz, the thermal noise voltage for the two resistors connected in parallel.a. 47.8 V c. 4.78 Vb. 4278 V d. 0.4782 V
3. The noise power generated by a resistor depends upona. Its operating temperature c. Both a and bb. None of the above d. Its resistance value
4. Quantization noise is produced ina. PCM c. FSKb. All modulation system d. All pulse modulation system
5. Unit of noise power of psophometera. dBm c. pWpb. dBmo d. dBa
6. The equivalent noise temperature of the amplifier is 25 K. What is the noise figure?a. 1.86 c. 10.86b. 0.1086 d. 1.086
7. Background noise is the same as the following excepta. Thermal Noise c. Gaussian Noiseb. Impulse Noise d. White Noise
8. The type of device noise, which is important at high frequencies, is ___ noise.a. flicker c. shotb. Johnson d. Transit-Time
9. The signal in a channel is measured to be 23 dB while noise in the same channel is measured tobe 9 dB. The signal to noise ratio therefore is ____. a. 9/23 c. 23/9b. 14-dB d. 32-dB
10. Which is better, an NF of 20 or 10 dB?a. Either c. 10 dBb. Neither d. 20 dB
11. Find the noise voltage for a 1-kohms resistor at 170C tuned by an LC circuit with a BW of 1MHz.a. 15 V c. 50 Vb. 15.01 V d. 5.01 V
12. Extra-terrestrial noise is observable at frequencies froma. 5 to 8 GHz c. Above 2 GHzb. 8 to 1.43 GHz d. 0 to 20 kHz
13. What source of noise is related to system temperature?a. Thermal Noise c. Pink Noiseb. Shot Noise d. Burst Noise
14. An amplifier with NF= 6 dB has (S/N), of 25 dB. What is the output S/N?a. 6 dB c. 31 dBb. 19 dB d. 25 dB
15. Determine the equivalent noise bandwidth for a single RC low-pass filter if R=20 kohms and C=0.1 uFa. 125 Hz c. 250 Hzb. 200 Hz d. 500 Hz
16. Which of the following must not be included?a. Solar Noise c. Cosmic Noiseb. Galactic Noise d. Atmospheric Noise
17. A decibel notation relative to a reference noise level.a. dBa c. dBpwpb. dBf d. dBrn
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18. What happens to noise when you increase the bandwidth of an amplifier?a. fluctuates c. Remain constantb. it decreases d. it increases
19. Which of the following is not associated with transistors?a. jitter c. Transit-timeb. flicker noise d. shot noise
20. It is the interference of a signal from one channel into another channel.a. Sidebnd Splatter c. Inter-modulation distortionb. Crosstalk d. Spur
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Radiation and Wave Propagation1. *Nominal voice channel
a. 3 to 3 kHz c. 4 kHzb. 16 to 16 kHz d. 20 to 20 kHz
2. *The lowest layer in the ionosphere.a. E c. Db. F2 d. F1
3. Tropospheric scatter may be used in what frequency range?a. UHF c. VLFb. VHF d. HF
4. *____ is the upper portion of the earths atmosphere, which absorbs large quantities of sunsradiation.a. Plutoshpere c. Ionosphereb. Troposphere d. Stratosphere
5. Tropospheric scatter uses the frequencies in the ____ band.a. VHF c. UHFb. UF d.VLF
6. *The lowest resistance ground on earth.a. Sand c. Clayb. Limestone d. Surface loam soil
7. *When the transmitting and receiving antennas are in line-of-sight with each other, the mode ofpropagation is ____ wave.a. Space or direct c. Groundb. Surface d. Sky
8. *How often does sunspot (short term) activity repeat?a. 365 days c. 366 daysb. 27 days d. 60 days
9. *____ waves can propagate on piezoelectric substrates.a. Wavelets c. Skyb. Surface d. Space
10. *Scatter transmission is used at what frequencies?a. ELF and SHF c. HF and LFb. MF and HF d. VHF and UHF
11. *In what region of the world is sporadic-E most prevalent?a. The arctic regions c. The polar regionsb. The northern hemisphere d. The equatorial regions
12. The relative permittivity of air is much ____ that of empty space.a. None of the above c. Less thanb. Greater than d. The same
13. To install an antenna with a line-of-sight transmission at a distance of 75 miles, determine theheight of a receiving antenna if the transmitting antenna is 250 ft. a. 1385 ft. c. 400 ft.b. 255 ft. d. 600 ft.
14. *In what unit is field intensity measured?a. W/m
2c. mW/m
2
b. mV/m d. V/m2
15. *It is described as the MUF factora. Cos c. Csc b. Sec d. Sin
16. *The type of wave propagation in the UHF banda. Space wave c. Ground waveb. Sky wave d. Surface wave
17. *The critical frequency is ____ the maximum usable frequency.a. Equal to c. Lower thanb. Has no relation with d. Higher than
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18. *What happens to the wave velocity as it passes from air to ionosphere?a. Remain the Same c. Fluctuatesb. Decreases d. Increases
19. A field of 25 mV/m develops 2V in a certain antenna. What is its effective height?a. 80 m c. 160 mb. 50 m d. 12.5 m
20. *A transmitting antenna is on a 50-ft. tower and the receiving antenna is on an identical tower.How far apart is the potential distance between them?a. 60 mi c. 20 mib. 57 mi d. 100 mi
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Antennas1. What is the ability of an antenna to concentrate radiated energy in a desired direction?
a. Directivity c. Efficiencyb. ERP d. Beamwidth
2. *What is the term for the ratio of the radiation resistance of an antenna to the total resistance ofthe antenna system?a. Effective radiated power c. Beamwidthb. Radiation conversion loss d. Antenna Efficiency
3. Why is a half-wavelength antenna always shorter than that computed by = v/f? a. Air resistance c. Ground planeb. End effects d. Top loading
4. *A method used in determining the feed-point impedance of a vertical antenna.a. Delta match c. Impedance bridgeb. Top loading d. Sleeve bridge
5. Radiation pattern of a discone.a. Bidirectional c. Uniderctionalb. Omnidirectional d. Figure of eight
6. *The main advantage of dielectric lens antennas over a parabolic reflector is that they _____.a. Have low dielectric lossesb. Can be zoned to reduce weight
c. Have large frequency ranged. Have no primary antenna mount to obstruct radiation
7. What is the bridge circuit used in conjunction with a turnstile antenna for the purpose of feedingtwo separate signals to a single antenna?
a. Circulator c. Duplexerb. Isolator d. Diplexer
8. *A device that radiates electromagnetic energy and/ or intercepts electromagnetic radiation.a. Antenna c. Transmitterb. Transceiver d. Transmission Line
9. The angle measured between the 3 dB down points on the major lobe of an antennas radiationpattern.a. Azimuth c. Beamwidthb. Null Angle d. Bandwidth
10. Which reactance would a dipole have if it is 0.6 long?a. Inductive c. Resistiveb. Capacitive d. Conductance
11. The frequency of operation of a dipole antenna cut to length of 3.4m.a. 38.5 MHz c. 42.9 MHzb. 53.5 MHz d. 61.3 MHz
12. What is an inverted V antenna?a. Dipole array c. A-antennab. Parasitic antenna d. Drooping dipole
13. *What is meant by a driven element of an array?a. Not connected to the transmitter c. Shortest elementb. Directly connected to the transmitter d. Longest element
14. *An antenna which is not resonant at particular frequencies and so can be used over a wide band
of frequencies is called _____.a. Periodic c. Cassegrainb. Top-loaded d. Boresight
15. Which of the following has circularly polarization?a. Parabolic Reflector c. Circular Hornb. Helical d. Small Circular Hoop
16. *Determine the gain of a 6 ft. parabolic dish operating at 1800 MHz.a. 15.5 dB c. 30 dBb. 28.17 dB d. 11.2 dB
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17. *The antenna used at microwave frequencies to focus its waves is a(n) ____ antenna.a. Log-periodic c. Hornb. Periodic d. Loop
18. The approximate impedance of a half-wave floded dipole antenna is ____ .a. 150 c. 75b. 600 d. 300
19. What is the resistance of a lossless Hertz antenna in free space?a. 50 c. 36.5 b. 300 d. 73
20. How is capacitive reactance compensated in an antenna?a. Add series inductance c. Using electron ballb. Use counterpoise d. Use earth mat
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Wire and Wireless Communication System1. In a telephone system, the handset;
a. converts electrical movement into soundb. does both A and Bc. reconstructs the original voiced. converts the voice into electrical movement
2. _____ are transmission circuits interconnecting two different switching centers.a. Trunk circuits c. PBXb. Crossbar switch d. Strowger switch
3. A form of distortion that occurs on terminal equipment channels due to different propagationspeeds of signals at the different voice frequencies.a. Harmonic distortion c. Phase delay distortionb. Envelope delay distortion d. Intermodulation distortion
4. In a cellular telephone communications, the term MTSO stands for:a. Metered Time Storage Operationsb. Main Transmitting and Sending Officec. Mobile Transmitting and Shipping Operationsd. Mobile Telephone Switching Office
5. What is the part of a switching system that establishes transmission paths between pairs ofterminals?
a. Switching network c. Switching trunkb. Switching bridge d. Switching array
6. In what frequency range might radio-telegraph transmitter operate?a. 3 - 30 GHz c. 5 20 kHzb. 15 30 kHz d. 10 kHz 200 MHz
7. Station in the mobile service not intended to be used while in motion.a. Coast station c. Base stationb. Land station d. Fixed station
8. A telephone channel has a bandwidth of about _____.a. 50 kHz c. 4 kHzb. 10 kHz d. 20 kHz
9. A BER tester sends bits at 2000 baud for 10 s. There are total of 50 errors. What is the BER?a. 1 in 2000 bits c. 1 in 1000 bits
b. 1 in 500 bits d. 1 in 400 bits10. It is a partition located within the E field or H field of a waveguide for the purpose of introducing a
capacitance or inductance in the guide structure.a. slot c. irisb. cornea d. creep
11. An important operational point with the SPADE system is that the carriers are _____.a. Voice operated c. filteredb. Always present d. suppressed
12. In a telephone system, the customers telephone directory numbering is from 000 to 99, what isthe capacity of the system?a. 1000 lines c. 100,000 linesb. 10,000 lines d. 100 lines
13. What is the method of diversity reception where the signal is transmitted on 2 different
frequencies over the same path?a. Polarization c. Frequencyb. Space d. Quadruple
14. In the normal loop design the maximum value of loop resistance must not exceed _____.a. 1500 Ohms c. 75 Ohmsb. 100 Ohms d. 1300 Ohms
15. A digital carrier facility used to transmit a DSI-formatted signal at 1.554 Mbps.a. T3 c. T1b. T2 d. T4
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Microwave Communications and Principles1. A microwave link between the earth station and the down-town terminal
a. Uplink c. STLb. Terrestrial Link d. Downlink
2. A microwave link uses only _____ propagation.a. Sky wave c. Space waveb. Surface wave d. Ground wave
3. What diode makes a good low-noise detector at higher microwave frequencies?a. PIN c. Ledb. Gunn d. Schottky
4. In a microwave system, what part is considered to have a gain?a. Speaker c. Transmission Lineb. Parabolic Antenna d. IF Tuner
5. MASER is used in communications ata. Light frequencies c. X-raysb. Microwave frequencies d. Infrared
6. Microwave system usesa. Long-wave antennas c. Rhombic antennasb. Paraboloidal antennas d. loop antennas
7. A waveguide flange used to suppress wave reflections by acting like a short across mating flange
discontinuities.a. Ferrite flange c. bunchesb. SAW d. Choke flange
8. It is a microwave oscillator capable of being tuned over a wide range of frequencies.a. BWO c. Magnetronb. Klystron d. VCO
9. A microwave communications system space loss calculation formula isa. 94.2 + 10 log F + 20 log D c. 92.4 + 10 log F + 20 log Db. 92.4 + 20 log F + 20 log D d. 94.2 + 20 log F + 20 log D
10. Space diversity transmission means transmitting and receiving ona. two or more antennas operating on two different frequenciesb. two or more different frequenciesc. two or more antennas operating on the same frequencies
d. two or more identical frequencies11. Radio fading resulting from obstruction losses.
a. Multi-path fading c. Log normal fadingb. Rayleigh fading d. none of these
12. Microwave systems use ______ transmission.a. Surface wave c. Ground waveb. Sky wave d. line-of-sight
13. Which of the following is most commonly used for microwave links?a. discone c. Log-periodic antennab. V-antenna d. paraboloidal dish
14. For what are PIN codes used in microwaves?a. Amplifier c. Modulatorb. Buffer d. Detector
15. It is a major source of thermal noise in microwave system.a. Waveguide feeder c. Receiver mixerb. FM demodulator d. TWT amplifier in transmitter
16. It is generally a hallow-metallic structure through which microwave energy propagates byreflection rather than conduction.a. Micro Strip c. Waveguideb. Pipeline d. Optical Fiber
17. A type of diversity reception, where the output of a transmitter is fed to two or more antennas thatare physically separated by an appreciable number of wavelengths.a. Space Diversity c. Frequency Diversity
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b. Angle Diversity d. Polarization Diversity18. What is the linear propagation velocity of a wave down a waveguide?
a. Speed of light c. Group velocityb. Phase velocity d. Linear velocity
19. The K-factor under normal atmospheric conditions in a microwave radio data profile calculation isequal to _____.a. 4 / 3 c. infinityb. 2 / 3 d. 0
20. A material used as an absorber of microwave energy consisting of a highly conductivesuspension of graphite.a. aquadag c. YAGb. ferrite d. YIG
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17.The middle marker of the ILS has a modulation frequency of _____. a. 1300 Hz c. 75 MHzb. 400 Hz d. 3000 Hz
18.LORAN is a navigational system used primarily for_____. a. Approach controlb. Blind landing
c. Obtaining your fixes location over large distancesd. Automatic collision warning19. Loran C operates at a frequency of
a. 100 MHz c. 100 kHzb. 1 kHz d. 10.02 kHz
20.A type of radar using the Doppler Effect to remove clutter and render moving targets visible. a. Pulse Radar c. PPIb. Doppler Radar d. MTI
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B. Digital and Data CommunicationsDigital Communication Networks
1. Is the transmission of digital information subject to noise?a. Cannot be answered c. sometimesb. no d. Yes
2. What is the most common modulation technique used for radio telegraphy? a. Two-tone modulation c. PCMb. Single-tone modulation d. FSK
3. A ____ interconnects LAN having identical protocols at the physical and data link layers.a. router c. bridgeb. gateway d. All of these
4. The process of assigning PCM codes to absolute magnitude.a. All of these c. Overloadingb. Quantizing d. Multiplexing
5. The series of periodically recurrent pulses is modulated in amplitude by the correspondinginstantaneous samples.a. PFM c. PAMb. PWM d. PDM
6. A block size is typically ___ character(s).a. 1 c. 256b. 64 d. 8
7. _____ is the method of encoding audio signals used in US standard 1544 kbit / s 24 channelPCM system.a. Newtons law c. Shannon lawb. Mu-law d. A-law
8. It is the number of errors in a given number of transmitted bits.a. FEC c. BERb. GOS d. TER
9. ____ is a 7-bit code used for representing alphanumeric symbols with a distinctive code word.a. ASK c. EBCDICb. ASCII d. Baudot
10.What is the number of pairs in the RS-232C interface? a. 21 c. 15b. 25 d. 20
11. An invitation from primary to a secondary to transmit a messege.a. Polling c. Selectionb. Reuse d. Retransmission
12.What do you call the condition when two or more stations attempt to use the same channel at thesame time?a. contention c. crosstalkb. demand assignment d.checksum
13. Another name for delta modulation is ____.a. Quadrature Modulation c. Slope Modulationb. PCM d. PPM
14.What is the parity for the bit pattern 11001011? a. 1100011-1 c. 11001011-0b. 1100011-0 d. 11001011-1
15.What is the channel capacity of a standard phone line that has an S/N of 511? a. 312 kbps c. 27 kpsb. 256 kbps d. 511 kps
16.What is the minimum sampling frequency for a modulating signal of 10 kHz? a. 15 kHz c. 10 kHzb. 20 kHz d. 40 kHz
17.Responsible for some local area network standards.
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a. ITU c. CCRb. IEEE d. ENIAC
18. What is the principal difference between asynchronous and synchronous transmission?a. The clocking is mixed with the data in synchronous transmissionb. The pulse height are difficultc. The clocking is derived from the data in synchronous transmissiond. The bandwidth required is difficult
19. _____ manages traffic on the link.a. Data Link Control c. Network Layerb. Transport Layer d. Application Layer
20. A device that connects two dissimilar networks performs the protocol conversion.a. Gateway c. Transformerb. Converter d. Coupler
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Fiber Optics1. What is the critical angle (of incidence) at a glass/fused-quartz interface?
a. 76.7 c. 63.6b. 45 d. 30
2. Which of the following is not used as an optical detector? a. Avalanche photodiode c. Photodiode
b. ILD d. PIN diode3. It is an optical network transmission standard that has an international connectivity.a. STS c. SDHb. SONET d. PDH
4. (Nov 1996) The different angles of entry of light into an optical fiber when the diameter of the coreis many times the wavelength of the light transmitted is known as _____. a. Sensor c. Modeb. Refraction d. Emitter
5. What are the rays which do not pass though the core axis, but follow a spiral path of reflectingsegments down the fiber core?a. Skew rays c. Meridional raysb. Convergent rays d. Divergent rays
6. Which of the following is contained in a fiber optic transmitter?
a. Fiber-to-detector connector c. Light sourceb. An output circuit d. Light detector7. Which of the following is used to send multiple signals over a single optical fiber?
a. FDM c. TDMb. Sync-encoding d. Manchester code
8. Where can one found a fiber-to-detector connector?a. Light emitting diodes circuit block c. Transmitterb. Analog transmitter circuit block d. Receiver
9. Which of the following is not a class of laser radiation? a. Class X c. Class IIb. Class IV d. Class I
10.The amount of power per unit area in optical fiber is called _____. a. Reflectance c. Irradianceb. Discerneance d. Permeance
11.The measurement of the strength of the light source is called _____. a. Radiance c. Permeanceb. Scerneance d. Reflectance
12.The main cause of attenuation in an optical fiber is _____. a. Ideal Waveguide c. Resistance and capacitanceb. Wavelength d. Scattering and absorption
13. Which of the following is not a major section required by laser?a. Output c. Feedbackb. Monitor d. Exciter
14. What is the most common type of damage to the skin by laser radiation?a. Excema c. Espedemab. Erythema d. Burn
15.Which of the following will indicate the distance to a faulty fiber-optic connection?a. Fiber-optic light source c. Fiber-optic power meterb. Digital voltmeter d. Optical time-domain reflectometer
16. (Nov 1998) An advantage of optic fiber rejecting an induced noise signals from magnetic field orsolar storms flux.a. Shielding c. Cross talkb. Immunity to noise d. Electric hazard
17. (Apr 1997) Fiber optic cable operates near _____ frequencies.a. 20 MHz c. 800 THzb. 2 GHz d. 200 MHz
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C. Satellite, Broadcasting and Cable TV SystemsSatellite System
1. The access technique employed in most modern digital telecommunication satellite system is_____.
a. FDMA c. DAMAb. CDMA d. TDMA
2. Satellite systems may be _____ in character.a. domestic c. globalb. all the above d. regional
3. What was the name of the first space satellite?a. Apollo 13 c. Agila 1b. Sputnik d. Telstar
4. Known to be the first satellite capable to receive and transmit simultaneouslya. Echo I c. Scoreb. Telstar I d. Syncom I
5. A band where most military satellite often operate.a. Ku c. Xb. C d. L
6. What is the frequency range of C-band?a. 3.4 to 6.424 GHz c. 1.53 to 2.7 GHz
b. 10.95 to 14.5 GHz d. 27.5 to 31 GHz7. The complete GPS system consists of what segment?
a. Space segment c. All of the aboveb. Control segment d. user segment
8. In satellite communications, the operating frequency should be _____ the critical frequency of theionosphere.
a. Greater than c. infiniteb. Less than d. equal to
9. 100% of the earths surface can be covered with a single satellite in a (n) _____ orbit.a. polar c. inclinedb. geostationary d. equatorial
10. The most common application of satellites.a. Reconaissance c. Defense systems
b. Surveillance d. Communication11. The first passive satellite transponder.
a. Score c. Sputnikb. Moon d. Early Bird
12. Satellite _____ refers to the satellite orientation with respect to the earth.a. footprint c. planeb. orbit d. attitude
13. What is the delay time for satellite transmissions from earth transmitter to earth receiver?a. 500 ms c. 1500 secb. 1 Hr d. 50 sec
14. The simplest type of satellite is a (n) ______.a. moon c. sunb. active reflector d. passive reflector
15. The control routine necessary to keep the satellite in position is referred to as _____.a. Satellite Tracking c. Satellite Altitudeb. Satellite Keeping d. Satellite Orbit
16. Known as the satellite transmitted signal from a satellite transponder to earths station.a. RHCP c. Uplinkb. Vertically polarized d. Downlink
17. Geo-stationary satellite is located above the surface of the earth at a distance of about _____ mi.a. 28,000 c. 22,300b. 50,000 d. 15,000
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18. Which of the following refers to the first active satellite?a. Telstar I c. Sputnik Ib. Echo I d. Intelsat I
19. The minimum number of geostationary satellites required for a global coverage is _____.a. 4 c. 10b. 1 d. 3
20. What do you call the single booster installed on the antenna dish of satellite receiver?a. Noise amplifier c. Rectifierb. Single amplifier d. Low noise amplifier
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Broadcasting and Cable TV Systems1. Which band does channel 14 of the television channel belongs?
a. EHF Band c. High VHF Bandb. UHF Band d. Low VHF Band
2. Is the information used to represent a TV picture transmitted at the same time?a. No c. Yesb. None of the Above d. Sometimes
3. Which subcarrier leads by 90 in TV system?a. R c. Yb. I d. Q
4. Short-wave broadcasting uses ____ wave.a. sky c. groundb. strong d. space
5. In television broadband vivid strong color are often referred as ____.a. saturation c. hueb. luminance d. chrominance
6. In a TV picture tube, what is the purpose of the large tube voltage?a. repels electrons away from tubeb. produce good quality of picturec. create huge magnetic field
d. attracts electrons towards face of tube7. Does the video transmitter at a TV BC station employ FM or AM?
a. PM c. FMb. Both AM and FM d. AM
8. Where does the AM broadcast band located in the spectrum band?a. VHF Band c. LF Bandb. HF Band d. MF Band
9. What is the deviation ratio for commercial FM?a. 5 c. 10b. 2 d. 1
10. The device that prevents aural RF from entering the video transmitter and vice versa iscalled____.a. tuner c. coupler
b. diplexer d. duplexer11. To increase the coverage area of a TV station, the height of the transmitting antenna must be
____.a. increased c. retainedb. decreased d. clamped
12. What AF range is required of the aural transmitter of a TV BC station?a. 50 Hz 15,000 Hz c. 5 50 kHzb. 20 Hz 2 kHz d. 20 Hz 20 kHz
13. What major principle prevents the TV viewer from observing flicker?a. persistence of the picture tube and human eyeb. light reflectionsc. scanningd. drowsiness
14. What is the picture carrier frequency for channel 7?a. 178.83 MHz c. 174 MHzb. 175.25 MHz d. 179.75 MHz
15. Noise reduction system used for film sound in movie.a. dBx c. dBmb. Dolby d. dBa
16. The maximum power suggested by the KBP on 919 1312 kHz AM broadcast station I MetroManila isa. 10 kW c. 20 kWb. 15 kW d. 5 kW
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17. What determines the rate of frequency swing for an FM broadcast transmitter?a. Modulation Amplitude c. Modulation Frequencyb. Carrier Amplitude d. Carrier Frequency
18. Type of modulation used in TV broadcast visual transmitter.a. Pulse Modulation c. DSBFCb. Vestigial Sideband d. SSBFC
19. In TV system, black and white are complementary colors.a. neither a nor b c. falseb. true d. either a or b
20. How many cathodes are there in a shadow-mask tube?a. 4 c. 2b. 1 d. 3
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III. GENERAL ENGINEERING & APPLIED SCIENCES
A. Engineering Mechanics
1. Which of the following is not a vector quantity? a. force c. energyb. weight d. Velocity
2. A mass is revolving in a circle which is in the plane of paper. The direction of centripetal
acceleration is along the radius:a. Toward the center c. at the right angle to angular velocityb. None of the above d. away from the center radius
3. What keeps an earth satellite moving on its orbit?a. burning of fuelb. Ejection gases from the exhaust of the satelitec. Gravitational attraction between satellite and earthd. Gravitational attraction of sun
4. The moment of inertia of a triangle with respect to to its base "b" isa. bh12 c. bh6b. bh3 d. bh12
5. A measure of the resistance of the body it offers to any change in its angular velocity determinedby its mass and distribution of its mass about the axis rotation is known a _____.
a. Angular acceleration c. torsionb. friction d. Moment of inertia
6. It shows the forces acting on an isolated object. a. Force polygon c. Free body diagramb. Schematic diagram d. Force diagram
7. Whenever a net force act on a body, it is produces a acceleration in the direction of the resultantforce,an acceleration that is directly propotional to the mass of the body. This theory is popularlyknown asa. Newtons First Law of Motion c. Hooke's Law of Equilibriumb. Faraday's Law of Force d. Newtons Second Law of Motion
8. Moment is the product of mass and_____.a. velocity c. timeb. force d. acceleration
9. Which of the following is not a scalar quantity? a. temperature c. workb. time d. Displacement
10.One newton is equivalent toa. m/s per kilogram c. kg-m/sb. kg-m/m/s d. kg-m/s/s
11.The value of universal gravitational constant G depends upon:a. Heat content of two bodies c. Nature of material of two bodiesb. None of these d. Acceleration of two bodies
12. The radial distance from the axis to the point of application of the force is calleda. Lever arm c. displacementb. radius d. Normal
13. Centrifugal force is______.
a. directly proportional to the radius of the curvatureb. inversely proportional to the square of the weight of the objectc. inversely proportional to the mass of the objectd. directly proportional to the square of the tangential velocity
14.When the total kinetic energy of a system is the same as before and after collision of two bodies,it is called
a. Inellastic collision c. Elastic collisionb. Static collision d. Plastic collision
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15. A wagon is uniformly accelerating from rest. The net force acting on the wagon is
a. decreasing c. constantb. increasing d. zero
16. When to objects collide, which of the following is always true?a. there is no change in the displacement of each objectb. there is no net change in the kinetic energy of each object
c. there is no net change in the total momentum of the objectsd. the velocity of each object does not change17. If the mass of an object coud be doubled, then its inertia would be
a. doubled c. unchangedb. quadrupled d. halved
18.What is the charge in the gravitational attraction between the orbiting object and the earth if thedistance between them is doubled?
a. double c. One fourthb. one half d. no change
19. The moment of inertia of a triangle with respect to the base how many time its moment of inertiawith respect to its centroidal axis
a. c. 5b. 3 d.
20.The study of motion without reference to the force that causes the motion is known as ______. a. kinetics c. kinematicsb. dynamics d. static
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B. Strength of Materials
1. which of the following is a method of determining the bar force of a truss member a. method of joints c. All of the aboveb. method of virtual work d. Method of section
2. stress caused by forces perpendicular to the areas on which they act is called a. simple stress c. Normal stress
b. tangential stress d. Shearing stress3. at the highest or lowest on the moment diagram
a. maximum moment is twice the shearb. maximum shear occurc. shear is negatived. shear is zero
4. the highest ordinate on the stress-strain curve is calleda. rupture stress c. Elastic limitb. proportional limit d. ultimate stress or ultimate strength
5. the ratio of the unit lateral deformation to the unit longitude deformation is called a. shear modulus c. Bulk modulusb. poison ratio d. Compressitivity
6. modulus of elasticity is also known as
a. youngs modulus c. Bulk modulusb. rigidity d. Shear modulus
7. the point on the stress-strain diagram at which there is an appreciable elongation or yielding ofthe material without any corresponding increase of load is called a. ultimate stress or ultimate strength c. Yield pointb. proportional limit d. Elastic limit
8. shearing stress is also known asa. shearing stress c. Normal stressb. simple stress d. tangential stress
9. it describes the length elasticity of the materiala. Bulk modulus c. Modulus of compressibilityb. youngs modulus or tensil modulus d. Shear modulus
10.who introduced the modulus of elasticity "also known as young's modulus in 1807? a. Lord Young c. Thomas Youngb. William Young d. James Young
11. the ratio of the ultimate stress to the allowable of the material is calleda. factor of safety c. strengthb. elastic limit d. modulus of elasticity
12. it describes the shape elasticity of the material a. young\'s modulus or tensil modulus c. compressibilityb. shear modulus d. Bulk modulus
13. the moment produced by the two equal and opposite and collinear forces is known as a a. torque c. resultantb. equilibrant d. Couple
14. the condition under which under the stress is constant or uniform is known as a. shearing stress c. tangential stressb. compressitivity
15. it describes the volume elasticity of the materiala. bulk modulus c. shear modulusb. young\'s modulus or tensil modulus d. Modulus of compressibility
16. the straight-line portion of the stress-strain diagram has slope equal to the ____________ of themateriala. modulus of rigidity c. shear modulusb. modulus of elasticity d. Compressitivity
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17. what type of stress is produced whenever the applied load caused one section of a body to tendto slide past is adjacent section?a. normal stress c. shearing stressb. bearing stress d. sliding stress
18. the reciprocal of bulk modulus isa. compressibility c. young's modulus or tensil modulus
b. bulk modulus d. shear modulus19. the maximum safe stress a material may carry is called a. true stress c. Normal stressb. allowable stress d. Working stress
20.modulus of elasticity in shear is also known as a. modulus of rigidity c. strainb. young's modulus d. Hookes modulus
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C. College Physics
1. At the boiling point of a liquid, the vapor pressure a. is less than the atmospheric pressureb. can have any valuec. is equal to external pressure on the surface of the liquidd. is greater than the atmospheric pressure
2. 500 gm of water at 4C occupies a certain volume V. Which of the following statements iscorrect?a. Its volume will decrease when its temperature is loweredb. its volume will increase when its temperature is lowered or raisedc. It will weigh less than one pound of water at 0Cd. It will weigh more than 500 gm of water at 0C
3. In Physics, if LF and LV are latent heat of fusion and vaporization, respectively, which of thefollowing equations apply in determing the amount of energy needed to freeze a liquid.a. Q=mlv c. Q=-mlvb. Q=-mlf d. Q=mlf
4. Normal range of the frequency of sound, which the human beings can hear, is a. more than 25,000 Hz c. 20Hz to 20,000 Hz
b. all of these d. Less than 20 Hz
5. The work done by all forces except the gravitational force is always equal to the _____of thesystem.a. total potential energy c. total mechanical energyb. total momentum d. total kinetic energy
6. The amount of heat needed to change solid to liquid is a. Solid fusion c. condensation
b. cold fusion d. latent heat of fusion7. When the two waves of the same frequency speed and amplitude traveling in opposite directions
are superimposed.a. Distractive waves are eliminated
b. constructive interference always resultsc. distractive waves are producedd. the phase difference is always zero
8. The scientist who systematically demonstrated the equivalence of mechanical energy and heatwasa. Kelvin c. Boltzmann
b. Faraday d. Joule9. The energy stored in a stretched elastic material such as spring is
a. Kinetic energy c. Internal energy
b. Mechanical energy d. elastic potential energy10. Sound waves in air are
a. Transverse c. Longitudinalb. Neither longitudinal or transverse d. Stationary
11. the density of water isa. maximum at 4C c. minimum at 4Cb. maximum at 0C d. same at all temperature
12. It is hotter over the top of a fire than at the same distance on the sides because of:a. convection of heat c. conduction, convection and radiation of heatb. conduction of heat d. radiation of heat
13. The minimm temperature which can be measured with a mercury thermometer isa. negative 39C c. 0Cb. negative 143C d. negative 273C
14. When common salt is sprinkled on ice the temperature of icea. increase c. Remains unaffectedb. decreases d. none of these
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15. The boiling point of water on plains is 100C. At hills it will bea. may be any of the above c. more than 100Cb. 100C d. less than 100C
16.Heat will flow from one body to another in thermal contact with it, when they differ in a. mass c. Specific heatb. temperature d. density
17.Which of the following is not true about sound waves? a. they transmit the energyb. they produce interferencec. they travel faster in air than in solidsd. they are propagated as a series of compression and rare fractions
18. When waves go from one place to another they transporta. Frequency only c. Energy and matterb. Energy only d. wavelength and matter
19. When a substance is heated, itsa. there is no change in the speed of its moleculesb. molecules move more slowlyc. its temperature always increasesd. molecules move more rapidly
20.The amount of heat which is absorbed during the change of state of a substance without rise inits temperature is called itsa. Latent heat c. Specific heatb. Water equivalent d. Thermal conductivity
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D. General Chemistry1. the mass of an alpla particle is how many times more than that of electron?
a. 1837 times c. 7300 timesb. 1567 times d. 1829 times
2. refers to the degree of arangement among several measurement of the same quality a. margin c. error
b. accuracy d. precision3. the horizontal arrangement of elements of increasing atomic number in a periodic table is called.a. Row c. familyb. group d. period
4. atoms or ions which have the same electronic configuration.
a. isotope c. isometricb. isoionic d. isoelectronic
5. a reaction in which heat is produced is calleda. exothermic c. pyrothermicb. isothermic d. endothermic
6. the atoms which have the same number of neurtrons but different mass numbers are called a. homologues c. isobarsb. isotopes d. isotones
7. what kind of chemical bond will from in binary compounds where the electronegativity differencebetween atoms is greater than 2.0a. super bond c. electrovalent bondb. ionic bond d. covalent bond
8.the word electron comes from the greek word "elktron" which meansa. cannot be cut c. negativeb. unique d. amber
9. a solid which has no crystalline is calleda. immiscible c. fusedb. amorphous d. non-crystalline
10. which group of periodic table is known as the halogens?a. Group VII c. Group IVb. Group IV d. Group VI
11. the isotope of hydrogen isa. all of the above c. deuteriumb. tritium d. protium
12. neutron was discovered bya. j.j thompson c. rutherfordb. einstein d. Chadwick
13. the number of orbiting electrons is normally__________the number of protons in the nucleus of an
atoma. half c. More thanb. less than d. equal
14. the atoms having different atomic numbers but the same mass number are calleda. homologues c. isotonesb. isobars d. isotopes
15. under normal state, an atom is said to bea. positively or negative charged c. negatively chargedb. electrically neutral d. positively charged
16. the principle of a constant composition of compounds, originally called "proust law" is known as.a. the law of conservation of mass c. the law of definite proportionb. the law of compounds d. the law of multiple proportion
17. The statement "mass neither created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction" is known as. a. The law of chemical reaction c. the law of multiple compositionb. the law of constant composition d. the law of conservation in mass
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E. Thermodynamics1. With the reference to the thermodynamic diagram of temperature-entropy (TS) what is
represented by the area under the diagram?
a. enthalpy c. Temperature differenceb. work done d. heat transferred
2. The transfer of energy due to the emission of electromagnetic waves (or photons) is called
a. emission c. radiationb. conduction d. Convection
3. During actual expansion and compression process of gases, pressure and volume ate oftenrelated by PV
n=C, where n and C are constant. A process of this kind is called
a. adiabatic process c. isentropic processb. isochoric process d. polytropic process
4. The h-s diagram is also called a
a. Euler diagram c. Mollier diagramb. Argand diagram d. Grolier diagram
5. A process during which, the pressure P remains constant is calleda. isometric process c. isobaric processb. isothermal process d. isovolumic process
6. At a given pressure, the temperature at which pure substance changes phase is called
a. critical temperature c. saturation temperatureb. triple point d. kindling temperature
7. A liquid that is about to vaporize is calleda. saturated vapor c. plasmab. superheated vapor d. saturated liquid
8. An "open system" is also known asa. Control mass c. control boundaryb. isolated system d. control volume
9. A process during which, the specific volume V remains constant is calleda. Isochoric c. All of the aboveb. isometric d. Isovolumic
10. An isentropic process on a T-S diagram is easily recognized as aa. oblique line segment c. parabola
b. horizontal line segment d. vertical line segment11. The condition in which the mass of each phase reaches an equilibrium level and stays there.a. Phase equilibrium c. Chemical equilibrium
b. Thermal equilibrium d. Mechanical equilibrium12. Mass per unit volume is
a. Specific gravity c. densityb. weight d. pressure
13. The energy that a system possesses as a result of its elevation in a gravitational field is calleda. gravitational energy c. mechanical energyb. kinetic energy d. Potential energy
14. In what form can energy cross the boundaries of a closed system?a. Magnetic waves c. lightb. heat d. sound
15. A series of states through which a system passes during a process is called the of the processa. course c. pathb. state d. Condition
16. The difference between the absolute pressure and the local atmospheric pressure is called thea. gauge pressure c. vacuum pressureb. relative pressure d. standard pressure
17. The amount of energy absorbed during melting and is equivalent to the amount of energyreleased during freezing is calleda. latent heat of fusion c. latent heat of vaporizationb. melting energy d. Specific heat
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18. At a given temperature, the pressure at which pure substance changes phase is calleda. critical pressure c. saturation pressureb. vacuum pressure d. Absolute pressure
19. a "closed system" wherein even energy is not allowed to cross the boundary is called ana. control boundary c. Control massb. control volume d. isolated system
20. The condition in which the temperature is the same throughout the entire system is called:a. Chemical equilibrium c. Phase equilibriumb. Thermal equilibrium d. Mechanical equilibrium
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F. Engineering Materials1. the property of some crystals of absorbing light to different extents,thereby giving to the crystalsdifferent colors according to the direction of the incident light is known as
a. brittle c. diastrophismb. dichromatism d. chromaticity
2. interaction between the surfaces of two closely adjacent bodies which causes them to cling together isknown as
a. friction c. viscosityb. cohesion d. Adhesion
3. emission of radiations from a substance during ilumination by radiations of higher frequency is calleda. flourescence c. Illuminanceb. radioluminuscence
4. the tendency of a body to return to its original size or shape after having been deformed is calleda. elastance c. anelastivtyb. elastivity d. Elasticity
5. property of some pure metals and their alloys at extremely low temperatures of having negligible
resistance to the flow of an electric current is calleda. supercharging c. superconductivity
b. superfluidity d. Supercalling
6. solids which break above the elastic limit are calleda. malleable c. ductile
b. brittle d. Plastic7.the progressive decrease of a property as a result of repeated stress is called
a. fatigue c. Elastic deformationb. debility d. Rigidity
8. the property of an object that determines the direction of heat flow when in contact with another
object is called
a. caloric c. temperatue
b. calidity d. Pyrexia9. if the properties of a body are the same in all directions ,it is called
a. isodynamic c. isogonic
b. isotropic d. Isotopic10. if a material is feebly repelled by a magnet it isa. paramagnetic c. ferromagnetic
b. ferromagnetic d. Diamagnetic11. the rate of flow of thermal energy through a material in the presence of a temperature gradient is
called
a. thermal conductivity c. thermal radiationb. thermal convention d. thermal capacity
12. the property of metals that allows them to be drawn into thin wires beyond their elastic limit
without being rupture is called
a. hardness c. malleability
b. ductility d. elasticity
13.the property by virtue of which a body resist any attempt to change its state of rest or motion iscalled
a. inactivity c. passivity
b. accumulation d. torpidity14. which of the following statements is correct concerning the passage of white light into a glass
a. greater the wavelenght,slower the speed of colorb. the violet color travels slower than the red colorc. the violet color travels faster than red colord. all the colors of white light travel with the same speed
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15. the emission of light by a material cause of its high temperature is known as
a. phosphorescence c. incandescenceb. scintellation d. luminescence
16. the property which permits the flow of current under the action of a potential difference is called a. permeance c. resistanceb. conductance d. impedance
17. the property of some elementary particles that causes themto exert force on one another is known asa. nuclear reaction c. Potential differenceb. charge d. specific change
18. the property of an isolated conductor to store electric charge is
a. accumulation c. conductivityb. capacitance d. permeability
19. when a body resistant to heat, is calleda. thermoduric c. thermotropicb. thermosphic d. thermoplastic
20. the property of fluids by virtue of which they offer resistance to flow is known asa. viscosity c. gummosityb. viscidity d. glutinosity
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G. Engineering Economics
1. a series of equal payments made at equal interval of time.
a. depreciation c. amortizationb. annuity d. bonds
2. a market situation where there is only one seller and one buyer.
a. bilateral monopoly c. oligopolyb. bilateral monopoly d. monopoly
3. the condition in which the total income equals the total operating expenses.a. Break even c. check and balanceb. tally d. par value
4. estimated value of the property at the end of the useful life.a. Fair value c. Salvage valueb. Market value d. book value
5. it is defined to be the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human wanta. luxuries c. utilityb. discounts d. necessity
6. the length of time which the property may be operated at a profit. a. Operating life c. Life span
b. Economic life d. profitable life7. it has the stock to prior rightto dividends. It usually does not bring voting right to the owners and thedividend is fixed and cannot be higher than the specified amount
a. Non par value stock c. preferred stockb. common stock d. voting stock
8. an association of two or more idividuals for the purpose of engaging business for profit.a. partnership c. partyb. corporation d. single proprietorship
9. the sum of all the costs necessary to prepare a construction project for operation.a. depletion cost c. operation costb. production cost d. construction cost
10. a wrongful act that causes injury to a person or property and for which the law allows a claim ny theinjured party to recover damages.
a. Libel c. tort
b. fraud d. scam11. the difference between the present value and the worth of money at some time in the future is called
a. interest c. discountb. net value d. market value
12.the type of annuity where the first payment is made after several periods, after the beginning of thepayment.
a. annuity due c. Deferred annuityb. perpetuity d. ordinary annuity
13. these are products or services that are required to support human life and activities that will bepurchased in somewhat the same quantity event though the price varies considerably.
a. Demands c. necessitiesb. commodities d. luxury
14. the right and privilege granted to an individual or corporation to do business in a certain region.
a. permit c. royaltyb. license d. franchise
15. a written contract by a debtor to pay final redemption value on an indicated date or maturity date andto pay a certain sum periodically.
a. annuity c. amortizationb. collateral d. bond
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16. the quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a certain price at a given place and time.a. Stocks c. utilityb. goods d. supply
17. a series of uniform payment over an infinite period of time a. inflation c. Capitalized costb. depletion d. perpetuity
18. the amount that the property would give if sold for junk.a. Junk value c. Scrap valueb. Salvage value d. book value
19. the amount which has been spend or capital invested which for some reasons cannot be retrieved. a. Fixed cost c. Construction costb. Sunk cost d. depletion cost
20. decreases in the value of a physical property due to the passage of time. a. declination c. deflationb. depletion d. depreciation
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H. Engineering Management1. When a person compels with orders through treats or punishment.
a. Legitimate Power c. Referent powerb. Reward power d. Coercive power
2. This is appropriate for a large corporation with many product lines in several related industries.a. Matrix Organization c. Functional Organizationb. Divisible Organization d. Product or market Organization
3. Refers t
