Upload
others
View
3
Download
0
Embed Size (px)
Citation preview
Test CodeBooklet
Important Instructions:l. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take
out the Answer Sheet and ? ll in the particulars on and carefully with Side-l Side-2 blue/blackballpoint pen only.
2. The test is of duration and Test Booklet contains questions. Each question carries 3 180 hour 4marks 4 one . For each correct response, the candidate will get marks. For each incorrect response, mark will be deducted from the total score. The maximum marks are .720
3. Use for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.Blue/Black Ballpoint Pen only4. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.5. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator before
leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away Test Booklet only with them.6. The CODE for this Test Booklet is . Make sure that the CODE printed on of the Answer DG S de-2i
Sheet is the same as that on this Test Booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet.
7. The candidate should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the speci? ed space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
8. Use of white ? uid for correction is permissible on the Answer Sheet.not9. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit Card to the Invigilator.10. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her
seat.11. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to
the Invigilator on duty and sign the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second time will be deemed Dot to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case.
12. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.13. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regard to their conduct
in the Examination Hall, All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Board.
14. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.15. The candidates will write the correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet
in the Attendance Sheet.
Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) :
Roll Number
in Words :
Centre of Examination (in Capitals) :
Candidate’s Signature : Invigilator’s Signature :
Facsimile Signature Stamp of Centre Superintendent :
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
This Booklet contains 24 pages
CTN
05No. :
21. Which of the following phyla are included in enterozoa ?
(1) Annelida, mollusca, porifera(2) Porifera, arthropoda(3) Mollusca, arthropoda(4) Porifera, hemichordata
2. Triploblastic, unsegmented, coelomate, bilateral symmetryreproduction by sexual method.All above characters are valid for :(1) Neopilina(2) Aphrodites(3) Aplysia(4) Both 1 & 3
3. The body cavity of "Euplactella" is lined by :(1) Collenocytes(2) Coller cells(3) Amoebocytes(4) Interstitial cells
4. Choose the incorrect statement from following :-(1) Pteridophytes are used as soil binders and medicinal
purposes(2) Xylem vessel & companian cell are absent in
pteridophyta and gymnosperm(3) Pteridophytes are the first terrestrial plants to possess
xylem and phloem.(4) Most of the pteridophytes produce two kinds of
spores macro (Large) and micro(small) spore bymeiotic division.
5. Heterosporous pteridophyte are :-(1) Lycopodium and pteris(2) Selaginella and psilotum(3) Selaginella and salvinia(4) Dryopteris and Adiantum
6. Contractile vacuole of Amoeba is analogous to :(1) Typhlosole of earthworm(2) Sweat gland of human(3) Uriniferous tubules of frog(4) Gastrovascular cavity of hydra
7. Unique character of insects :-(1) Three pairs of legs(2) Large abdomen(3) Compound eyes(4) Two wings
8. All mammals have hairs on body except :-(1) Cetacea(2) Chiroptera(3) Primates(4) Rodentia
9. Which is the smallest taxonomic group having cranium,vertebral column, ventral heart, gills and fins?(1) Pisces(2) Gnathostomata(3) Vertebrata(4) Tetrapoda
10. Which of the following statement is not correct regardingthe adjacent figure?
(1) Umbrella shaped and free swimming from(2) Dominates in life cycle of Aurelia(3) Produces polyps sexually in Adamsia(4) Shows alternation with polyp in Obelia
11. One example of animals having a single opening to theoutside that serves both as mouth as well as anus is :-(1) Hydra(2) Arenicola(3) Both 1 and 2(4) Ascaris
12. Retrogressive metamorphosis occur in :-(1) Hemichordate(2) Cephalochordate(3) Urochordate(4) Vertebrate
13. Find out correct option for the given figure :-
(1) It is Asterias, it has ambulacral system.(2) It is Ophiura, it is marine.(3) It is Asterias, it is radially symmetric.(4) It is Ophiura, it has direct development.
314. Flat body and suckers is the distinctive feature of :-
(1) Ctenophora(2) Annelida
(3) Platyhelminthes(4) Arthopoda
15. How many of the following animals are not example ofprotochordates?
Ascidia, Branchiostoma , Salpa, Balanoglossus,Saccoglossus, Doliollum, Ophiura. Antedon, herdmania.
(1) Three
(2) Four(3) Five
(4) Two
16. How many informations are correct about the given animal?
(i) Triploblastic, bilateral symmetry.
(ii) Metamerically segmented and coelomate animals.
(iii) Dioecious
(iv) Closed circulatory systems present
(v) Lateral appendages parapodia present
(1) Five
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Three
17. Presence of the bioluminesence is the characterstic featureof :-(1) Annelida(2) Ctenophora(3) Porifera(4) Echinodermeta
18. A marine cartilaginous fish can produce electric current is :-(1) Pristis(2) Torpedo(3) Trygon(4) Scoliodon
19. Identify the following animals and the classes to whichthey belong :-
(1) A = Salamandra, Amphibia ClassB = Echidina, Mammalia ClassC = Chamelian, Reptiles Class
(2) A = Lizard, Reptilia ClassB = Chelon, Reptilia ClassC = Psittacula, Aves Class
(3) A = Chameleon, Reptilia ClassB = Ornithorhynchus, Mammalia ClassC = Salamandra, Amphibia Class
(4) A = Salamandra, Amphibia ClassB = Ornithorhynchus, Mammalia ClassC = Chameleon, Reptilia Class
20. Which one of the following is a matching pair of a bodyfeature and the animal possessing it?(1) Ventral heart – Scorpion(2) Post-anal tail – Octopus(3) Ventral – Leech nervous system(4) Pharyngeal gill slits – Chamaeleon absent in embryo
21. Besides four chambered heart, few group of animalspossesses two chambered heart. Which one of the animalsinclude under this category :-(1) Calotes(2) Rhinoceros(3) Torpedo(4) Both 1 and 3
22. Which one is not a character of hemichordata?(1) Bilateral symmetry(2) Closed circulatory system(3) Deuterostometa(4) Coelomates
423. Identify the correct match from column I, II & III.
(1) 4-c-ii, 3-d-i, 2-a-iii, 1-b-iv(2) 3-c-iii, 2-a-ii, 1-b-i, 4-d-iv(3) 1-b-iii, 2-a-iv, 3-c-i, 4-d-ii(4) 2-a-iv, 1-b-iii, 4-c-i, 3-d-ii
24. Consider the following statements and select the optionwhich include all correct statements :(a) Radial symmetry is exhibited by sedentary animals(b) Scales, jaw and laterals fins are absent in cyclostomates(c) All triploblastic animals have bilateral symmetry(d) In ascaris blind sac body plan is present(1) a, b correct(2) b, c correct(3) a, b and c correct(4) c, d correct
25. Which of the following is not an insect ?(1) Ant(2) Mosquito(3) Scorpion(4) Locusts
26. Which of the following snakes is non-poisonous?(1) Cobra(2) Krait(3) Viper(4) Python
27. A group of animals having marsupiul is :-(1) Monotremata(2) Eutheria(3) Metatheria(4) Prototheria
28. In which of the following notochord is absent :(1) Adult Herdmania & Balanoglossus(2) Adult Herdmania & adult Branchiostoma
(3) Larva of Herdmania & Branchiostoma(4) Larva of Herdmania & Balanoglossus
29. In which one of the following sets of animals do all the fourgive birth to young ones?(1) Lion, Bat, Whale(2) Platypus, Penguin, Bat, Hippopotamus(3) Shrew, Bat, Cat, Kiwi(4) Kangaroo, Camelus, Dolphin, Loris, A ptenodytes
30. Which one of the following is the most unique mammaliancharacteristic feature?(1) Presence of diaphragm(2) Hairs are present on skin(3) Presence of mammary gland(4) External ear or pinnae are present
31. Read the following features :-(a) The forelimbs are modified into wings(b) Endoskeleton is fully ossified and the long bones are
hollow with air cavities(c) Respiration is by lungs along with air sacs(d) Digestive tract has additional chambers i.e. crop &
gizzardOut of these, find out the suitable features according toflying adaptation in birds?
Option :-(1) a, b(2) a, c(3) b, c, d(4) a, b, c
32. Water canal system is characteristic feature of :(1) sponges(2) helminthes(3) echinoderms(4) coelenterates
33. Which one of the following is correct option.(1) Species is a group of individual organism with
fundamental similarities but can not able to interbreedin natural condion.
(2) Families like convolvulaceae, Solanaceae and canidaeare include in order polymonials.
(3) Potato and brinjal are two different specias butbelongs to same genous.
(4) monkey, gorilla, rabbit and gibban are placed in orderprimeta.
534. Read the following four features (A-D) :-
(A) Gill-slits are not covered by "operculum"(B) The skin is tough, containing minute placoid scales.(C) In male, pelvic fins bear claspers(D) Air bladder is present which regulates buoyancy.Out of these how many features are exhibited bycartilagenous fishes?(1) Four(2) Three(3) One(4) Two
35. Cross section of animal body is given below.
Which of the following animals will satisfy the above crosssection?(1) Fasciola(2) Pleurobrachia(3) Ascaris(4) Nereis
36. Which of the following is/are similarity between periplanetaand Pheretima?(A) Open blood vascular system(B) Internal fertilisation(C) Dioecious(D) Double ventral nerve cord(E) Triploblastic(1) Only B(2) B, C and E(3) D and E(4) A, C and D
37. Which of the following part of given figure ofBalanoglossus represents collar?
(1) A(2) B(3) C(4) D
38. Besides the Annelida and Arthropoda the metamerism isexhibited by :-(1) Chordata(2) Aschelminthes(3) Mollusca(4) Echinodermeta
39. Ornithorhynchus is a :-(1) fossil bird(2) flightless bird(3) Connecting link between reptiles and aves(4) Prototherian mammal
40. Which of the following is correct(1) Salvinia and Azolla are aquatic fern while Adiantum
is xerophytic(2) In Pteridophyte, roots are adventitious.(3) Selaginella is microphyllous while fern is
macrophyllous(4) All of these
41. Which of the following is incorrect(1) Wolfia is the member of angiosperm
(2) Among the plant kingdom cycas has largest ovule
(3) Cycas antherozoids are - Heart shaped
(4) In fern, sex organ are found on - Prothallus
42. Mark the incorrectly matched pair?(1) Parapodia – Nereis(2) Muscular pharynx – Ascaria(3) Closed circulation – Pheretima(4) Book gills – Scorpion
43. The cells of endosperm have 24 chromosomes.What will be the number of chromosomes in gametes?(1) 8(2) 16(3) 23(4) 32
644. In which of the following gametes are pear shaped and
biflagellated :-(1) Gracilaria(2) Udorina(3) Ectocarpous(4) Chara
45. Read the following five statements (A – E) and answer asasked next to them :-(A) In Equisetum the female gametophyte is retained on
the parent sporophyte(B) In pteridophyta antheridia are completely embedded
in the prothallus while archegonia are in completelyembedded.
(C) The sporophyte in Riccia is more developed thanthat in Polytrichum
(D) Sexual reproduction in - Volvox is isogamous(E) The spores of slime molds lack cell wallsHow many of the above statements are correct ?(1) Four(2) One(3) Two(4) Three
46. Selaginella and Salvinia are considered to represent asignificant step toward evolution of seed habit because :-(1) Embryo develops in female gametophyte which is
retained on parent sporophyte for variable period(2) Female gametophyte is free and gets dispersed like
seeds.(3) Female gametophyte lacks archegonia(4) Megaspores possess endosperm and embryo
surrounded by seed coat.
47. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched?(1) Viroids - RNA(2) Mustard - Synergids(3) Pteropsida - Azolla(4) Salvinia - Prothallus
48. Megasporophylls of pteridophytes are comparable towhich structure of angiosperms :-(1) Carpel(2) Microsporophyll(3) Stamen(4) Megasporangium
49. Two kingdom classification system used for a long timewas inadequate, so a need was felt for including besidesgross morphology, other characteristics also. Which of thefollowing characters are the base of five kingdom?(a) Cell structure(b) Mode of nutrition(c) Methods of reproduction(d) Evolutionary relationships
Options :-(1) a & b(2) a, b & c(3) a, c & d(4) a, b, c & d
50. Identify A,B,C and D and select the right option :-
51. Which of the followings is an example of bryophyta thathas more elaborate mechanism of spore dispersal?(1) Polysiphonia(2) Marchantia(3) Polytrichum(4) Dryopteris
52. Which of following is not bacterial disease ?(a) Typhoid(b) Common-cold(c) Pneumonia(d) Malaria(1) b,d(2) c,d(3) b,c,d(4) a,b,c,d
753. Read the following statements regarding Euglenoids and
select the incorrect one :-(i) These are mostly fresh water organisms found in
stagnant water.(ii) Their body is covered by a protein rich layer called
pellicle which makes their body flexible.(iii) They are photosynthetic in presence of sunlight but
become heterotrophs in the absence of sunlight.(iv) They usually possess two flagella, one long and one
short.(v) Euglenoids are multicellular ciliated protists.(1) (i) and (v)(2) (iv) and (v)(3) (iii) only(4) (v) only
54. Which one is an incorrectly matched pair ?(1) Phycomycetes – Mucor, Albugo, Rhizopous(2) Ascomycetes – Penicillium, Morels, Truffles(3) Basidiomycetes – Puccinia, Agaricus, Amantia(4) Deuteromyectes – Aspergillus, Colletotrichum
55. Match the column-I with column-II and find out correctanswer :
Column – I Column – II(A) Non – Vascular cryptogams(B) Phanerogams(C) Vascular cryptogams
(i) Gynmosperm(ii) Pteridophytes(iii) Bryophytes
(1) A-iii, B-ii, C-i(2) A-iii, B-i, C-ii(3) A-i, B-ii, C-iii(4) A-ii, B-iii, C-i
56. Which of the following statement is not true?(1) Bacterial cell has a chemically complex cell envelope(2) The vast majority of the bacteria are heterotrophs(3) Bacterial photosynthesis is anoxygenic type as they
lack PSI(4) Cell membrane is made up of lipoproteins
57. Mycoplasma is resistant to which of the antibiotic :-(1) Tetracycline(2) Penicillin(3) Chloramphenicol(4) All of these
58. Which of the following structure is related with asexualreproduction :-
(1) A(2) B(3) C(4) D
59. Phycoerythrin is present in :-(1) Euglena(2) Polysiphonia(3) Chlamydomonas(4) Polytrichum
60. In which of the following the lipid of the membrance arebranched chain, which decreases membrane fluidity andincreases tolerance to extrene condition -(1) Archaebacteria(2) Mycoplasma(3) Bacteria(4) Cyanobacteria
61. ______ is a life process that is not essential for anindividuals survival but for survival of the species :-(1) Growth(2) Reproduction(3) Respiration(4) Nutrition
62. Which one of the following is correctly matched?(1) Microsporum - Malaria(2) Wuchereria bancrofti - Filariasis(3) Entamoeba histolytica - Leishmaniasis(4) Stertococcus pneumoniae - Sleeping sickness
63. Mycelium of Basidiomycetes is :-(1) Branched and septate(2) Unbranched and aseptate(3) Branched and coenocytic(4) Unbranched and coenocytic
864. Read the following five features (a - e) :-
(a) Notochord is present in any stage of life cycle(b) Central nerve cord is present at midventral surface
which is solid and double in animals(c) Gills slits are present in any stage of life cycle(d) A "post anal tail" is present in animals(e) Dorsal heart is present in body of animals.From above features which are suitable features for chordateanimal?
Option :-(1) 'b' and 'e'(2) 'a', 'c' and 'd'(3) Only 'b'(4) 'c' and 'd'
65. Select the incorrect option in respect of classification ofTriticum aestivum :-(1) Family - Poaceae(2) Order - Sapindales(3) Class - Monocotyledonae(4) Division - Angiospermae
66. The needle like leaves, reduced surface area, thick cuticleand sunken stomata are the characteristics feature of thewhich group of plants :-(1) Pteridophyte(2) All bryophytes(3) Gymnosperm(4) Angiosperm
67. Read the following statement. Find out how manystatements are correct :-(A) Dikaryotic stage occurs in - claviceps Neurospora
puccinia(B) Gymnosperms are homosporous(C) Unlike Bryophyta and pteridophyta in gymnosperms
the male and female gametophyte do not have anindependent free-living existence.
(D) Brown leaf spot of r ice is caused byHelminthosporium
(1) Three(2) Four(3) One(4) Two
68. Which of the following statement is incorrect?(1) Fungi prefer to grow in cold and humid places.(2) Karyogamy in fungi occurs after plasmogamy(3) Yeast are used to make bread and beer.(4) Fungi bodies consist of long slender thread like
structure called mycelium
69. Read the following characters find out which one is notrelated with Gymnosperm :-(1) Association with N2 fixing cyanobacteria(2) Mycorrhyza(3) More than one archegonia(4) Independent free living gametophyte
70. Which of the following would appear as the pioneerorganisms on bare rocks?(1) Lichen(2) Liver worts(3) Mosses(4) Green algae
71. Best example of helotism is :-(1) Epiphytes(2) Slime mould(3) Lichen(4) Pollinators
72. Which of the following plant roots absorb water andminerals from soil through symbiotic association?(1) Funaria(2) Pea(3) Pinus(4) All angiosperm
73. Which of the following occupies sixth position in rankingof obligate categories?(1) Mangifera(2) Angiosperm(3) Anacardiaceae(4) Sapindales
74. Which of the following is correct(1) Purple sulpher bacteria - chromatium.(2) Trichodesmium erythreum impart red colour to red
sea.(3) Concept of antiseptic surgery - Joseph Lister(4) All of these
975. Which of the following is incorrect
(1) A large number of pollen grains are released forminga yellow cloude in the pine forest, it is often calledsulpher shower
(2) In cycas mature embryo has two cotyledon(3) Pinus are dioecious(4) Azolla is used as biofertiliser
76. Which of the following is correct(1) Isogamous motile algae - Chlamydomonas, ulothrix(2) Anisogamous algae - Udorina(3) Oogamous algae - Polysiphonia , volvox(4) All of these
77. Which of the following is incorrect(1) Outside the host cells viruses exist as individual
particles called virions. (2) In 1971 T. O. Diener discovered a new infectious
agent - viroids
(3) Term taxonomy was given by - Linnaeus(4) Biological species concept was given by - Ernst
mayer
78. Which of the following is correct(1) Chlorella an unicellular algae rich in protein and are
used as food supplement(2) Cephaleuros is a parasitic algae causes red rust of
tea.(3) The sex organ in Bryophytes are multicellular and
non jacketed.(4) In Marchantia, sex organs are present on the dorsal
surface of the thallus
79. The diploid sporophyte is represented by a dominant,independent, photosynthetic, vascular plant body. Italternates with multicellular, saprophytic / autotrophic,independent but short-lived haploid gametophyte. This
type of pattern is exhibited by(1) Sphagnum and Polytrichum(2) Selaginella and Lycopodium
(3) Fucus, Chara and Polysiphonia
(4) Seed plants (gymnosperms and angiosperms)
80. Select the correct statements.
a. Methanogens arearchaebacteria which produce
methane in marshy areas.
b. Interferons was discovered by alliac Issacs and
Lindeman
c. Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria synthesize
cellulose from glucose.
d. Mycoplasma lack cell wall and can survive without
oxygen.
(1) b, c
(2) a, b, c
(3) b, c, d
(4) a, b, d
81. "Body is covered by calcareous shell and is unsegmentedwith distinct head, muscular foot and visceral hump. Thisstatement true for :-(1) Arthropoda(2) Mollusca(3) Echinodermeta(4) Annelida
82. Which of the following is an example of a true fish?
(1) Star fish
(2) Cuttle fish
(3) Silver fish
(4) Pristis
83. Poison sting is found in :-
(1) Scoliodon
(2) Rohu
(3) Trygon
(4) Catla
84. Which of the following animal was earlier considered as
chordate but now it is considered as non-chordate.
(1) Asterias
(2) Branchiostoma
(3) Tongue worm
(4) Ascidia
1085. Which of the following combination of characters is true
for slime moulds?(1) Parasitic, plasmodium with true walls, spores
dispersed by air currents(2) Saprophytic, plasmodium without walls, spores
dispersed by water(3) Parasitic, plasmodium without walls, spores
dispersed by water(4) Saprophytic, plasmodium without walls, spores
dispersed by air currents.
86. Which of the following statements is not correct forviruses?(1) Viruses are obligate parasites(2) Viruses can multiply only when they are inside the
living cells.(3) Viruses cannot pass through bacterial filters.(4) Viruses are made up of protein and DNA or RNA
(never both DNA and RNA)
87. Match the coloumn I and II, and choose the correctcombination from the options given.
Column I Column IIa. Selaginella i. Psilopsidab. Equisetum ii. Lycopsidac. Adiantum and Pteris iii. Sphenopsidad. Dryopteris iv. Pteropsida(1) i–a, ii–b, iii–c, iv–d(2) iii–d, iv–c, i–b, ii–a(3) ii–a, iii–b, ii–d, iv–c(4) iv–c, ii–a, iii–b, iv–d
88. Branched rhizoids and leafy gametophytes are thecharacrteristic of(1) Liverworts
(2) Mosses(3) Ferms(4) Conifers
89. Which one of the following is a saprophytic bryophyte?(1) Riccia(2) Buxbaumia(3) Funaria(4) Sphagnum
90. Which of the following is correct(1) The cell wall of fungi are composed of chitin & their
stored food is glycogen.(2) Diatoms are the chief producer in the ocean.(3) Trypanosoma causes sleeping sickness, it’s vector
is tse-tse fly.(4) All of these
91. How many 20 Hydrogen atoms are present in the givenfollowing compounds ?
Cl
(1) 2
(2) 5
(3) 7
(4) 8
92. Identify which functional group is Not present in the givenfollowing compound?
O O
OO
NH
(1) Ketone
(2) Ester
(3) Amide
(4) Ether
93. Select the response that correctly identifies the number ofcarbon atoms of each type of hybridization in the compound
2H C C CH CH O
sp3 sp2 sp
(1) 2 2 0
(2) 1 3 0
(3) 0 3 1
(4) 1 2 1
1194. In which of the following options the order of arrangement
does not agree with the variation of property indicatedagainst it?
(1) Al+3 < Mg+2 < Na+ < F- (increasing ionic size)
(2) B < C < N < O (increasing first ionisation enthalpy)
(3) I < Br < F < Cl (increasing electron gain. enthalpy)(4) Li < Na < K < Rb ( increasing metallic radius)
95. Which one of the following arrangement represents thecorrect order of electron gain enthalpy of the given atomicspecies(1) S < O < Cl < F(2) Cl < F < S <O(3) F < Cl < O < S
(4) O < S < F < Cl
96. Which have largest size(1) Li+
(2) Cl-
(3) H-
(4) F-
97. Four successive members of the first row transition elementsare listed below with their atomic numbers.Which one of them is expected to have the highest thirdionization enthalpy:-(1) Vanadium (Z=23)(2) Manganese (Z=25)(3) Chromium (Z=24)(4) Iron (Z=26)
98 Which of the following element was absent in the Mendeleev’speriodic table:-(1) Tc(2) Si (3) B(4) F
99. The homologue of phenol is-
(1)2CH OH
(2)OH
3CH
(3)OH
OH
(4) OH
100. All the following IUPAC names are correct except:(1) 1-Chloro-1-ethoxy propane(2) 1-Amino-1-ethoxypropane(3) 1-Ethoxy-2-propanol(4) 1-Ethoxy-1-propanamine
101. Which set does not show correct matching(1) Sc3+[Ne] 3s2 3p6 zero group(2) Fe2+[Ar] 3d6 8th group(3) Cr [Ar] 3d5
4s1 6th group(4) All of the above
102. The atomic number of the metallic and non-metallic elementswhich are liquid at room temperature respectively are:-(1) 55,87(2) 33,87(3) 35,80(4) 80,35
103. Which existing element would the chemistry of element 119most resemble?(1) Rn (Z=86)(2) Fr (Z=87)(3) Ra (Z=88)(4) Ac (Z=89)
104. Which element has the greatest electricals conductivity?(1) As(2) Ge(3) P(4) Sn
105. For which pair of species is the difference in radii thegreatest?(1) Li and F(2) Li+ and F-
(3) Li+ and O2-
(4) O2- and F-
12106. The values of of IE(I), IE(II), IE(III) and IE(IV) of an atom
are respectively 7.5 ev, 25.6eV, 48.6 eV and 170.6 eV. Theelectronic configuration of the atom will be :(1) 1s2,2s2 2p6 3s1
(2) 1s2,2s2 2p6 ,3s23p1
(3) 1s2,2s2 2p6 ,3s23p3
(4) 1s2,2s2 2p6 ,3s2
107. The first ionization enthalpy (H) values of the third periodelements,Na, Mg and Si are respectively 496, 737 and 786 kJmol-1. Predict the first ionisation enthalpy(H) value of Al:-(1) 350(2) 860(3) 575(4) 1125
108. If 21
22
X(g) X(g) 3e ΔH 900kJ
X(g) X(g) ΔH 650kJ
Then find
Heg of X.(1) -250 kJ(2) -1550 kJ(3) 250 kJ(4) +1550 kJ
109. Which of the following order is correct for indicatedproperty?(1) I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2 (Reactivity)(2) Li(aq.) > Na (aq.) > K+ (aq.) (electrical conductivity)(3) Na > Mg > Cu (Electropositive character )(4) N-3 > O-2 > Mg+2 > Na+ ( Ionic size)
110. The order of first electron affinity of O, S and Se is:(1) O > S > Se(2) S > Se > O(3) Se > O > S(4) S > O > Se
111. Following are the values of the electron gain enthalpy ( inkJ mol-1) of the formation of O– and O2– from O:(1) -142,-744(2) -142, 744(3) 142, 744(4) -142,-142
112. Select the amphoteric oxide.(1) Na2O(2) Al2O3
(3) Cl2O7
(4) CO
113. What is the empirical formula of Xe which is 67.2% Xe and32.8% O by mass?(1) XeO2
(2) XeO3
(3) XeO4
(4) XeO5
114. The number of gram atoms of oxygen present in 0.3 grammole of (COOH)2 . 2H2O is(1) 0.6(2) 1.8(3) 1.2(4) 3.6
115. Ratio of Cp and Cv of gas X is 1.4, the number of atoms ofthe gas ‘X’ present in 11.2 litres of it at NTP will be(1) 6.02 x 1023
(2) 1.2 x 1023
(3) 3.01 x 1023
(4) 2.01 x 1023
116. Cortisone is a molecular substance containing 21 atoms ofcarbon per molecule. The molecular weight of cortisone is360.4. What is the percentage of carbon in cortisone?(1) 59.9%(2) 75%(3) 69.98 %(4) None of these
117. For the reaction X 2Y Z , 5 mol of X and 9mol of Ywill produce(1) 5 mol of Z(2) 8 mol of Z(3) 14 mol of Z(4) 4.5 mol of Z
118. The weight of one molecule of compound C60H122 is:-
(1) 201.2 10 g
(2) 211.4 10 g
(3) 235.02 10 g
(4) 236.02 10 g
13119. A mixture containing 100g H2 and 100g O2 is ignited so that
water is formed according to the reaction,
2 2 22H O 2H O How much water will be formed?
(1) 112.5 g(2) 50 g(3) 25 g(4) 200 g
120. First four successive Ionisation energy of an element (x) is23, 38, 50, 334, 360. Then:(1) x is inert gas(2) x is alkali metal(3) formula of oxide of x=x2o3
(4) x is alkaline earth metal
121. From 44.4 milli gram of CaCl2, 201.2046 10 molecules areremoved. How many moles of CaCl2 are left?
(1) 42 10
(2) 31.2 10
(3) 34 10
(4) 31.5 10
122. How many moles of magnesium phosphate Mg3(PO4)2 willcontains 0.25 mole of oxygen atoms?(1) 2.5 × 10-2
(2) 0.02(3) 3.125 × 10-2
(4) 1.25 × 10-2
123. If formula of a gas is (AB2)n and its vapour density is 88.Then determine the value of n?[Given : Atomic wt. of A = 12Atomic wt. of B = 16](1) 4(2) 6(3) 8(4) 1
124. Tertiary butyl amine is:-(1) Primary amine(2) Secondary amine(3) Tertiary amine(4) None
125. Number of moles in 1.8 g H2O is equal of moles inI. 3.2 gm O2;II. 6g ureaIII. 34.2 g sucrose(1) I, II, III(2) I, II(3) I, III(4) II, III
126. If in urea [CO(NH2)2] there are 20 g atoms of nitrogen presentthen the mass of urea will be(1) 600 g(2) 60 g(3) 6 g(4) 120 g
127. 8 litre of H2 and 6 litre of Cl2 are allowed to react to maximumpossible extent.Find out the final volume of reaction mixture.Suppose P and T remains constant throughout the course ofreaction(1) 7 litre(2) 14 litre(3) 2 litre(4) None of these
128. P and Q are two elements which form P2Q3 and PQ2molecules. If 0.15 mole of P2Q3 and PQ2 weighs 15.9 g and9.3 g respectively, what are atomic mass of P and Q?(1) P=36, Q=48(2) P=48, Q=36(3) P=26, Q=18(4) P=18, Q=26
129. Calculate the atomic radius of Cl in HCl if radius of H is 0.8A0
and electronegativities of H & Cl are 2.1 & 3.0 respectively(Given Bond length of HCl is 2.08 A0)(1) 2.0A0
(2) 2.08 A0
(3) 1.92 A0
(4) 1.40 A0
130. Correct equation of Pauling electronegativity scale whenBond energies are given in KJ
(1) A BX X 0.208 Δ
(2) A BX X 0.102 Δ
(3) 6A BX X 0.102x10 Δ
(4) 2A BX X 0.208Δ
14131. No of σ bonds in a compound C10H8 are 19 than Number of
bonds are
(1) 7
(2) 6
(3) 5
(4) 8
132. The mixture of N2 and H2 is caused to react in a closedcontainer to form NH3. If two mole of each components arepresent after reaction. The mole of N2 and H2 originallypresent is respectively are?
(1) 3 and 4
(2) 3 and 5
(3) 3 and 6
(4) 4 and 5
133. In the reaction 4A + 2B + 3C A4B2C3, what will be thenumber of moles of product formed, starting from one moleof A, 0.6 mole of B and 0.72 mole of C?
(1) 0.25
(2) 0.3
(3) 0.24
(4) 2.32
134. Correct IUPAC Name of the compound
Br
FCl
(1) 1-Bromo-4-Chloro-3-Flouro Cyclohexane
(2) 4-Bromo-1-Chloro-2-Flouro Cyclohexane
(3) 1-Chloro-2-Flouro-4-Bromo Cyclohexane
(4) None
135. Write the correct IUPAC name of the following spiro
compound :
(1) Spiro [4,5] deca-1,7-di-ene
(2) Spiro [4,5] deca-2,7-di-ene
(3) Spiro [4,5] deca-1,6-di-ene
(4) Spiro [4,5] nona-1,6-di-ene
136. The horizontal range and the maximum height of a projectileare in ratio 2:1 then the angle of projection of the projectileis
(1) = tan–1 (2)
(2) = 45º
(3)
41tan 1
(4) = tan–1 (4)
137. An explosion blows a rock into three parts. Two parts gooff at right angles to each other. These two are, 1 kg firstpart moving with a velocity of 12 ms–1 and 2 kg second partmoving with a velocity of 8 ms–1. If the third part flies offwith a velocity of 5ms–1, its mass would be
(1) 5 kg
(2) 4 kg
(3) 17 kg
(4) 3 kg
138. A block A of mass 2 kg is placed on another block B ofmass 5 kg and the block rests on a smooth horizontal table.For start to sliding the block A on B, a horizontal force of 12N is required to be applied on it. The maximum horizontalforce that can be applied on B so that both A and B movetogether
F
A
B
m1
m2
(1) 25 N
(2) 27 N
(3) 30 N
(4) 15 N
139. Three identical balls are joined together by a thread asshown in figure. All the three balls are moving in a horizontalcocentric circles. Then the ratio of tensions in the threesections of the string from center O is :
l l lO A B C
T1 T2 T3
(1) 3 : 2 : 1
(2) 3 : 4 : 5
(3) 6 : 5 : 3
(4) 3 : 5 : 6
15140. Two masses m and M are connected by a light string that
passes through a smooth hole O at the centre of a table.Mass ‘m’ lies on the table and ‘M’ hangs vertically, m ismoved round in a horizontal circle with O as the centre. If is the length of the string from O to m then the timeperiod with which m should revolve so that M remainsstationary is :
mlO
M
(1) mMg
21
(2) mMg2
(3) Mgm2
(4) Mgm1
141. A ball of mass 0.6 kg attached to a light inextensible stringrotates in a vertical circle of radius 0.5 m such that it has aspeed of 5 m/s when the string is horizontal. Tension instring (g = 10m/s2)
(1) 30 N
(2) 20 N
(3) 26 N
(4) 6 N
142. A missile is fired for maximum range with an initial velocityof 24.5 m/s. If g = 10 m/s2, the range of the missile is
(1) 40 m
(2) 50 m
(3) 60 m
(4) 20 m
143. A gun fires 40 bullets per second. The mass of each bulletis 20 g and the velocity of the bullet when it leaves the gunis 300 ms–1. The force required to hold the gun while firingis
(1) 6 N
(2) 8 N
(3) 24 N
(4) 240 N
144. A block of mass m is kept on a frictionless inclined surfaceof mass M with angle of inclination ‘’. The incline is givenan acceleration to keep the block stationary. Then force onincline
FM
m
(1) (m+M) g
(2) mg tan
(3) Mg
(4) (m+M)g tan
145. A string of length L is fixed at one end and carries a mass Mat the other end. The string makes 1/2 revolution persecond around the vertical axis through the fixed end asshown in the figure, then tension in the string is :
TL
R
S
M
(1) ML
(2) 2 ML
(3) 4 ML
(4) 16 ML
146. A block B is pushed momentarily along a horizontal surfacewith an initial velocity V. If µ is the coefficient of slidingfriction between B and the surface, block B will come torest after a time :
B V
(1) g µ/V
(2) g/V
(3) V/g
(4) V/(gµ)
16147. A ball of mass 0.25 kg attached to the end of a string of
length 1.96 m is moving in a horizontal circle. The stringwill break if the tension is more than 25N. What is themaximum speed with which the ball can be moved :
(1) 14 rad/s
(2) 3 rad/s
(3) 7.14 rad/s
(4) 5 rad/s
148. A train is moving along a straight line with a constantacceleration ‘a’. A boy standing in the train throws a ballforward with a speed of 10 ms–1, at an angle of 60º to thehorizontal. The boy has to move forward by 2.66 m insidethe train to catch the ball back at the initial height. Theacceleration of the train is
(1) 4 m/s2
(2) 5 m/s2
(3) 6 m/s2
(4) 7 m/s2
149. A lift of mass 1000 kg starts moving from rest in the upwarddirection. The figure shows veritation of speed of lift. If T1,T2, T3 represent the tension in the cable supporting the lift,when moving with uniform acceleration uniform velocity,and uniform retardation respectively, then :
t(sec.)
A CB
O 2
4
6 74
ms-1Spe
ed
D
v
(1) T1 : T2 : T3 : :1 : 1 :1
(2) T1 : T2 : T3 : :6 : 5 :3
(3) T1 : T2 : T3 : :3 : 5 :6
(4) T1 : T2 : T3 : :6 : 5 :6
150. A car starts from rest to cover a distance s. The coefficientof friction between the road and the tyres is µ. The minimumtime in which the car can cover the distance is proportionalto :
(1) µ
(2)
(3) 1/µ
(4) 1/
151. Two masses M and m hang at the two ends of a string thatpasses through a smooth tube as shown. The mass mmoves in a circular path which lies in a horizontal plane.The length of the string from m to the top of the tube is land is the angle this length makes with the vertical. Whatshould be the frequency of revolution of m so that Mremains stationary :
M
l
m
(1) mMg
21
(2) cosm
Mg21
(3) Mgcosm
21
(4) Mgm1
152. A particle moves along a circle of radius
20
m with
constant tangential acceleration. If the velocity of theparticle is 80 m/s at the end of the one revolution aftermotion has begun, the tangential acceleration is :
(1) 40 m/s2
(2) m/s2
(3) 640 m/s2
(4) 80 m/s2
153. A heavy uniform chain lies on a horizontal table top. If thecoefficient of friction between the chain and the tablesurface is 1/3, then the maximum fraction of the length ofthe chain that can hang over one edge of the table is :
(1) 20%
(2) 25 %
(3) 35 %
(4) 15 %
17154 A projectile is given an initial velocity )j2i( m/s, where
i is along the ground and j is along the vertical. If g = 10m/s2, the equation of its trajectory is
(1) 4y = 2x - 5x2
(2) 4y = 2x - 25 x2
(3) y = x – 5x2
(4) y = 2x – 5x2
155. A 3 kg ball strikes a heavy rigid wall with a speed of 10 m/s at an angle of 60º. It gets reflected with the same speedand angle as shown in figure. If the ball is in contact withthe wall for 0.20 s, what is the average force exerted on theball by the wall :
60º
60º
(1) zero
(2) 150 N
(3) 1503 N
(4) 300N
156. Two forces F1 and F2 (where F2 > F1) act on a rod of lengthL and mass M as shwon in the figure. What is the tensionin the rod at a distance x from F2 :
x
F1 F2
L
(1)
Lx1F
LxF 21
(2)
Lx1F
LxF 21
(3)
LxF
Lx1F 21
(4)
LxF
Lx1F 21
157. Three weight A, B and C are connected by string as shownin the figure. The system moves over a frictionless pulley.The tension in the string connecting A and B is (where g isacceleration due to gravity)
5 kg 3 kg
1 kg
C A
B
(1) g
(2) 9g
(3) 9g8
(4) 9g10
158. A heavy small sized sphere is suspended by a string oflength l. The sphere rotates uniformly in a horizontal circlewith the string making an angle with the vertical. Thenthe time period of this concial pendulum is :
(1)
g2T
(2)
gsin2T
(3)
gcos2T
(4)
cosg
2T
159. A 1000 kg lift is supported by a cable that can support 2000kg. The shortest distance in which the lift can be stoppedwhen it is descending with a speed of 2.5 m/s is : (g = 10ms2)
(1) 5/16 m
(2) 5/32 m
(3) 1 m
(4) 2 m
18160. A stone is projected from the ground with velocity 50 m/s
at an angle of 30º. It crosses a wall after 3s. How far beyoundthe wall the stone will strike the ground? (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 90.2 m
(2) 89.6 m
(3) 86.6 m
(4) 70.2 m
161. Two weights w1 and w2 are connected by a light threadwhich passes over a light smooth pulley. If the pulley israisedupwards with an acceleration equal to g, then theforce on the pully will be :
(1)21
21
wwww2
(2)21
21
wwww8
(3)21
21
wwww4
(4)21
21
wwww4
162. A uniform rod of mass m and length l lies flat on africtionless horizontal surface. It is acted upon by a systemof forces as shown in the figure. The tension in the rod atpoint P is :
l/4l/2
F
P
F
2F
(1) F
(2) 4 F
(3) 3F/2
(4) 7F/4
163. The monkey B shown in figure is holding on to the tail ofthe monkey A which is climbing up a rope. The masses ofthe monkeys A and B are 4 kg and 2 kg respectively. If Acan tolerate a tension of 30 N in its tail, what force shouldit apply on the rope in order to carry the monkey B with it?Take g = 10 m/s2 :
A
B
4 kg
2kg
(1) between 50 N and 80 N
(2) between 30 N and 80 N
(3) between 70 N and 105 N
(4) between 60 N and 90 N
164. After one second the velocity of a projectile makes an angleof 45º with the horizontal. After another one second it istravelling horizontally. The magnitude of its initial velocityand angle of projection are (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 14.62 m/s. 60º
(2) 14.62 m/s, tan–1 (2)
(3) 22.36 m/s, tan–1 (2)
(4) 22.36 m/s, 60º
165. A man of mass m stands on a frame of mass M. He pulls ona light rope, which passes over a pulley. The other end ofthe rope is attached to the frame. For the system to be inequilibrium, what force must the man exert on the floor:
mM
(1) g)mM(21
(2) (M+m)g
(3) g)Mm(21
(4) (M+2m)g
166. A particle originally at rest at the highest point of a smoothvertical circle is sligtly displaced. It will leave the circle at avertical distance h below the highest point, such that :
(1) h = R
(2) h = R/3
(3) h = R/2
(4) h = 2R
19167. In the figure, the ball A is released from rest when the spring
is at its natural (unstretched) length. For the block B, ofmass M to leave contact with the ground at some stage,the minimum mass of A must be :
A
B M
(1) 2M
(2) M
(3) M/2
(4) a function of M and the force constant of the spring
168. A ball is projected with velocity v0 at an angle with theground. The time after which the velocity of the ball isperpendicular to its initial direction of motion is :
(1) cosgv0
(2) singv0
(3) tangv0
(4) cotgv0
169. Three blocks of masses 2 kg, 3 kg and 5 kg are connectedto each other with light string and are then placed on africtionless surface as shown in the figure. The system ispulled by a force F = 10 N, then tension T1 =
T1 3kg
T2 10N 2kg 5kg
(1) 1N
(2) 5 N
(3) 8 N
(4) 10 N
170. A 5000 kg rocket is set for vertical firing. The exhaust speedis 800 m/s. To give an initial upward acceleration of 20 m/s2,amount of gas ejected per second to supply needed thrustwill be (g = 10 m/s2)(1) 127.5 kg/s(2) 187.5 kg/s(3) 185.5 kg/s(4) 137.5 kg/s
171. A body of mass M is kept on a rough horizontal surface(friction coefficient = µ). A person in trying to pull the bodyby applying a horizontal force but the body is not moving.The force by the surface on A is F where :(1) F = Mg(2) F = µ Mg
(3) 2µ1MgFMg
(4) 2µ1MgFMg
172. The horizontal range of a projectile is R and the maximumheight attained by it is h. A strong wind now begins toblow in the direction of the motion of the proejctile, givingit a constant horizontal acceleration g/4. Under the samecondictions of projection, the horizontal range of theprojectile will now be :(1) R + h/2(2) R + h(3) R + 3h/2(4) R + 2h
173. Two blocks are connected by a string as shown in thediagram. The upper block is hung by another string. Aforce F applied on the upper string produces an accelerationof 2m/s2 in the upward direction in both the blocks. If Tand T’ be the tensions in the two parts of the string, then(g = 9.8 m/s2 )
F T
1 kg
4 kg
T'
(1) T = 70.8 N and T’ = 47.2 N(2) T = 58.8 N and T’ = 47.2 N(3) T = 70.8 N and T’ = 58.8 N(4) T = 70.8 N and T’ = 0
20174. A tube of length L is filled completely with an
incompressible liquid of mass M and closed at both theends. The tube is then rotated in a horizontal plane aboutone of its ends with a uniform angular velocity . The forceexerted by the liquid at the other end is :
(1) M L 2/2
(2) M L 2
(3) M L 2/4
(4) M L2 2/2
175. A 4 kg block A is placed on the top of a 12 kg block B whichrests on a smooth table. A just slips on B when a force of 12newton is applied on A. Then the maximum horizontal forceF required on B to make both A and B move together, is :
(1) 12 N
(2) 24 N
(3) 36 N
(4) 48 N
176. If a projectile having horizontal range of 24 acquires amaximum height of 8, then its intital velocity and the angleof projection are :
(1) 5g, sin–1 (0.6)
(2) 5g, sin–1 (0.8)
(3) 24g, sin–1 (0.6)
(4) 8g, sin–1 (0.8)
177. Three equal weights of mass 2 kg each are hanging on astring passing over a fixed pulley as shown in the figure?What is the tension in the string connecting the weights Band A :
A B
C
(1) 26 N
(2) 13 N
(3) 3.3 N
(4) 19.3 N
178. A roller coaster is designed such that riders experienceweightlessness as they go round the top of a hill whoseradius of curvature is 20 m. The speed of the car at the topof the hill is :
(1) 12 m/s
(2) 10 m/s
(3) 13 m/s
(4) 14 m/s
179. A block rests on a rough inclined plane making an angle of30º with the horizontal. the coefficient of static frictionbetween the block and the plane is 0.8. If the frictionalforce on the block is 10 N, the mass of the block (in kg) is(take g = 10 m/s2) :
(1) 2.0
(2) 4.0
(3) 1.6
(4) 2.5
180. A stone projected with a velocity u at an angle with thehorizontal reaches maximum height H1.When it is projected
with velocity u at an angle
2 with the horizontal, it
reaches maximum height H2. The relation between themaximum horizontal range R of the projectile, H1 and H2 is:
(1) 21HH4R
(2) )HH(4R 21
(3) )HH(2R 21
(4) 22
21
HHR
- 0 0 0 -
Space For Rough Work