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DESIZN CIRCLE MAXIMUM MARKS- 175 NIFT MOCK TEST 02/02/2015 DURATION: 2 HRS SECTION A GK/C.AFFAIRS (50 QUESTIONS) 1. The revolt of 1857 was described as a ‘National Rising’ by which of the following political leaders of Britain? [A] Canning [B] Gladstone [C] Palmerstone [D] Disraeli 2. Which among the following tribal leaders was regarded as an incarnation of God and father of the world ? [A] Nanak Bhil [B] Jagia Bhagat [C] Birsa Munda [D] Siddhu Santha 3. The play ‘Neeldarpan’ is associated with which among the following revolts? [A] Santhal Revolt [B] Pabna Riots [C] Indigo Revolts [D] Champaran Satyagraha 4. Kunwar Singh was a leader of the revolt of 1857 in which among the following modern states? [A] Bihar [B] Jharkhand [C] Rajasthan [D] Uttarakhand 5. On the suggestion of Rabindra Nath Tagore, the date of partition of Bengal (October 16, 1905) was celebrated as__? [A] Rakhi Bandhan Day [B] Brotherhood Day [C] Solidarity Day [D] Black Day 6. The Governor General of India at the time of formation of the Indian National Congress was __? [A] Lord Chelmsford [B] Lord Dalhousie [C] Lord Dufferin [D] None of these

DESIZN CIRCLE MAXIMUM MARKS- 175 NIFT MOCK … ceremony is associated with which of the following ceremonies? [A] Hinduism [B] Buddhism [C] Jainism [D] Islam 25. Which of the following

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DESIZN CIRCLE

MAXIMUM MARKS- 175 NIFT MOCK TEST 02/02/2015 DURATION: 2 HRS

SECTION A – GK/C.AFFAIRS (50 QUESTIONS)

1. The revolt of 1857 was described as a ‘National Rising’ by which of the following political

leaders of Britain?

[A] Canning

[B] Gladstone

[C] Palmerstone

[D] Disraeli

2. Which among the following tribal leaders was regarded as an incarnation of God and father

of the world ?

[A] Nanak Bhil

[B] Jagia Bhagat

[C] Birsa Munda

[D] Siddhu Santha

3. The play ‘Neeldarpan’ is associated with which among the following revolts?

[A] Santhal Revolt

[B] Pabna Riots

[C] Indigo Revolts

[D] Champaran Satyagraha

4. Kunwar Singh was a leader of the revolt of 1857 in which among the following modern

states?

[A] Bihar

[B] Jharkhand

[C] Rajasthan

[D] Uttarakhand

5. On the suggestion of Rabindra Nath Tagore, the date of partition of Bengal (October 16,

1905) was celebrated as__?

[A] Rakhi Bandhan Day

[B] Brotherhood Day

[C] Solidarity Day

[D] Black Day

6. The Governor General of India at the time of formation of the Indian National Congress was

__?

[A] Lord Chelmsford

[B] Lord Dalhousie

[C] Lord Dufferin

[D] None of these

7. Who wrote ‘Indian War of Independence, 1857’?

[A] R.C Majumdar

[B] V.D. Savarkar

[C] S.B. Chaudhary

[D] S.N. Sen

8. Dalhousie’s worst political blunder was ___?

[A] Annexation of Punjab

[B] Occupation of lower Burma

[C] Abolition of the ‘Doctrine of Lapse’

[D] Annexation of Oudh

9. Who was the inventor of telephone?

[A] Alexander Graham Bell

[B] Thomas Alva Edison [C] James Watt

[D] Charles Darwin

10. What is the total number of bones in the human body?

[A] 108

[B] 196

[C] 206

[D] 204

11. The ratio of width of our National flag to its length is

[A] 3:5

[B] 2:3

[C] 2:4

[D] 3:4

12. 'Dandia' is a popular dance of

[A] Punjab

[B] Gujarat

[C] Tamil Nadu

[D] Maharashtra

13. The words 'Satyameva Jayate' inscribed below the base plate of the emblem of India are

taken from

[A] Rigveda

[B] Satpath Brahmana

[C] Mundak Upanishad

[D] Ramayana

14. Mohiniattam dance from developed originally in which state?

[A] Tamil Nadu

[B] Orissa

[C] Kerala

[D] Karnataka

15. Which of the following folk dance forms is associated with Gujarat?

[A] Nautanki

[B] Garba

[C] Kathakali

[D] Bhangra

16. The Rath Yatra at Puri is celebrated in honour of which Hindu deity

[A] Ram

[B] Jaganath

[C] Shiva

[D] Vishnu

17. Which of the following dances is a solo dance?

[A] Ottan Thullal

[B] Kuchipudi

[C] Yakshagana

[D] Odissi

18. 'Madhubani', a style of folk paintings, is popular in which of the following states in India?

[A] Uttar Pradesh

[B] Rajasthan

[C] Madhya Pradesh

[D] Bihar

19. The dance encouraged and performance from the temple of Tanjore was

[A] Kathakali

[B] Odissi

[C] Kathak

[D] Bharatanatyam

20. The last Mahakumbh of the 20th century was held at

[A] Nasik

[B] Ujjain

[C] Allahabad

[D] Haridwar

21. The National Song of India was composed by

[A] Rabindranath Tagore

[B] Bankim Chandra Chatterji

[C] Iqbal

[D] Jai Shankar Prasad

22. Who composed the famous song 'Sare Jahan SeAchha'?

[A] Jaidev

[B] Mohammad Iqbal

[C] Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay

[D] Rabindranath Tagore

23. In which of the following festivals are boat races a special feature?

[A] Onam

[B] Rongali Bihu

[C] Navratri

[D] Pongal

24. Kalchakra ceremony is associated with which of the following ceremonies?

[A] Hinduism

[B] Buddhism

[C] Jainism

[D] Islam

25. Which of the following places is famous for Chikankari work, which is a traditional art of

embroidery?

[A] Lucknow

[B] Hyderabad

[C] Jaipur

[D] Mysore

26. The first CNG train is launched on -

[A] Delhi-Agra Section

[B] Rohtak-Chandigarh Section

[C] Delhi-Chandigarh Section

[D] Rewari-Rohtak Section

27. Pravasi Bharatiya Divas 2015 held at -

[A] Ahmedabad

[B] Mumbai

[C] Jaipur

[D] Gandhinagar

28. Which of the following company has been barred by SEBI for accessing capital market for 3

yrs?

[A] Kingfisher

[B] Spice Jet

[C] Sahara

[D] DLF

29. The first Railway Station in India having WiFi facility is-

[A] New Delhi

[B] Ahmedabad

[C] Mumbai

[D] Bangalore City

30. Which of the following does not belong to the group

[A] snapdeal

[B]Flipcart

[C]Ebay

[D] Big Bazaar

31. XXI Commonwealth Games in 2018 will be hosted by

[A] Capetown(South Africa)

[B] Gold Coast(Australia)

[C] Auckland(New Zealand)

[D] Ottawa(Canada)

32. Who is winner of Miss World 2014?

[A] Megan Young

[B] Edina Kulcsár

[C] Elizabeth Safrit

[D] Rolene Strauss

33. Which date is recently declared as "International Yoga Day" by UN?

[A] June 5

[B] July 21

[C] June 21

[D] October 21

34. Which state celebrate Hornbill festival?

[A] Mizoram

[B] Manipur

[C] Meghalaya

[D] Nagaland

35. Kidambi Srikanth recently on news, he is associated with -

[A] Football

[B] Tennis

[C] Badminton

[D] Squash

36. G20 Summit 2014 held on

[A] Sydney

[B] Brisbane

[C] Melbourne

[D] Canberra

37. Durand Cup Football tournament 2014 won by -

[A] East Bengal Club

[B] Mohan Bagan

[C] Pune FC

[D] Salgaocar FC

38. Who is appointed as National Institute of Public Finance & Policy (NIPFP)?

[A] C. Rangarajan

[B] Raghuram Rajan

[C] Vijay Laxman Kelkar

[D] Arvind Subramanian

39. Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences 2014 winner Jean Tirole belongs to –

[A] France

[B] Germany

[C] USA

[D] Norway

40. Who among the following is the current Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) of India?

[A] K.G. Balakrishnan

[B] Ranjit Sinha

[C] Montek Singh Ahluwalia

[D] V.S. Sampath

41. The production, marketing storage, advertisement and consumption of smokeless tobacco is

banned in

[A] Meghalaya

[B] Assam

[C]Nagaland

[D] Arunachal Pradesh

42. The number of women entrepreneur in small scale industry is highest in the State of -

[A] Karnataka

[B] Kerala

[C] Maharashtra

[D] Tamil Nadu

43. International Girl Child Day celebrate on

[A] 8th October

[B] 11th October

[C] 10th October

[D] 9th October

44. National Postal Week 2014 celebrate from

[A] 2nd - 9th October 2014

[B] 1st - 7th October 2014

[C] 5th - 12th October 2014

[D] 9th - 15th October 2014

45. The 'Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana' launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on -

[A] 2nd October 2014

[B] 5th October 2014

[C] 11th October 2014

[D] 10th October 2014

46. : "World Food Day" is celebrated every year on -

[A] 16th October

[B] 12th August

[C] 4th July

[D] 18th May

47. "Make in India" initiative launched on

[A] 23rd September 2014

[B] 24th September 2014

[C] 25th September 2014

[D] 26th September 2014

48. 2015 cricket World Cup will be held in

[A] England

[B] Australia and New Zealand

[C] South Africa

[D] West Indies

49. Which of the following country won the Women's Hockey World Cup 2014?

[A] Argentina

[B] Australia

[C] Netherland

[D] Spain

50. BRICS Bank's head office will be established in

[A] Brazil

[B]China

[C] India

[D] Russia

SECTION B – QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE (30 QUESTIONS)

51.If a sum of money doubles itself in 8 yr at simple interest, then the rate of interest per annum

is

a) 11.5 b) 12.0 c) 12.5 d) 13.0

52. The ratio between the length and breadth of a rectangular field is 3:2. If the length is

increased by 5 m, the new area of the field will be 2600 sq m. What is the breadth of the

rectangular field?

a) 40 m b) 60 m c) 65 m d) None of these

53. Ten years ago A was half of B in age. If the ratio of their present ages is 3:4 what will be the

total of their present ages?

a) 8 yr b) 20 yr c) 30 yr d) None of these

54. . A retailer buys 30 pens from a wholesaler and pays equal to marked price of 27 pens. If he

sells the pens at the marked price, his profit per cent in the transaction is

a) 9

b) 10% c) 11

d) 20%

55. If the diameter of a cylinder is 20 cm and its height is 20 cm, then the surface area in cm2 is

a) 2993 b) 2992 c) 2292 d) 2229

56. 8

+ 7

x 3

=

a) 2712 b) 34 ½ c) 35 ½ d) 35 1/5

57. 45% of + 21 =

a) 80 b) 100 c) 60 d) None of these

58. 5152 280 + 140 3.5 = ?

a) 58.40 b) 42.93 c) 35.40 d) None of these

59. 46.40 x 3.5 – 2.4 =

17.5 x 4.8 – 4.0

a) .33 b) 2 c)1/2 d) None of these

60. 40 ÷0.80 ÷ 0.25 =

a) 12.5 b) 200 c) 20 d) 250

61. 51/4 x 1250.25

a. √5 b. 25 c. 5 d.

62.A contractor agreeing to finish a work in 150 days employed 75 men, each working for 8 h

daily. After 90 days only 2/7 of the work was completed. How many more men would be

required now, each working 10 h daily so as to finish the work in the stipulated time.

a) 225 b) 75 c) 150 d) 300

63. A horse worth Rs. 9000 is sold by A to B at a loss of 10% B cells the horse back to A at 10%

gain. The result is

a) A makes no profits or loss b) B gains Rs 900 c) A loses Rs 900 d) A loses Rs 810

64. The banks of a river are parallel. A swimmer starts from a point on one of the banks and

swim in a straight line inclined to the bank at 450 and reaches the opposite bank which is 20 m

from the starting point. The breadth of the river is

a. 20m b. 20√2m c. 10√2m d. 40m

65. The prices of sugar increase by 32%. A family reduces its consumption so that the

expenditure of the sugar is up only by 10%. If the total consumption of the sugar before the

price-rise was 10 kg per month, then the consumption of sugar per month at present, in kg, is

a. 8.33 b. 8.5 c. 8.75 d. 9

66. The ratio between the ages of A and B at present is 2:3. Five years hence the ratio their

ages will be 3:4. What is the present age of A in years?

a) 10 b) 15 c) 25 d) None of these

67. In a zoo, the rabbits and pigeons are kept together in a room. If heads are counted, then

number of heads is 100; but if all the legs are counted, then numbered of legs is 288. The

number of pigeons is

a) 56 b) 44 c) 50 d) 65

68. Two trains start simultaneously from A and B and travel towards each other at the rates of

85 km/h and 77.5 km/h respectively. When they meet, one trains has travelled 60 km more than

the other. The distance between A and B is

a) 1300 km b) 1350 km c) 650 km d) None of these

69. The rate of interest on a sum of money is 4 per cent per annum for the first two years 6 per

cent per annum for the next four years and 8 per cent per annum for the period beyond six

years. If the simple interest accrued by the sum for a total period of nine years is Rs. 1120, what

is the sum?

a) Rs. 2000 b) Rs. 4000 c) Rs. 1500 d) None of these

70. The income of A and B are in the ratio 5:3 their expenses are in the ratio 8:5 and their

savings are in the ratio 2:1. If the total annual saving of A and B are Rs. 36000, find the monthly

income of A.

a) Rs. 1000 b) Rs. 5000 c) Rs, 10000 d) None of these

71. 35% of 240 + 30% of 180 = ? % of 552

a) 25 b) 75 c) 50 d) None of these

72. If the outer radius of a metal pipe is 2.84 inches and the inner radius is 1.94 inches, the

thickness of the metal inches is

a) 0.75 b) 0.80 c) 0.90 d) 0.95

73. A shopkeeper marks the price of his goods 20 per cent higher than the original price. After

that he allows a discount of 10 per cent. What profit or loss did he get?

a) Profit 10 per cent b) Profit 8 per cent

c) Profit 5 per cent d) Profit 7 per cent

74. The prices of a scooter and a moped are in the ratio of 9:5. The scooter costs Rs. 4,200

more than the moped. Find the price of the moped.

a) Rs. 5,250 b) Rs. 3,350 c) Rs. 6,500 d) Rs. 5,700

75. 120 is in divide among A, B and C such that A’s share is Rs. 20 more than B’s and Rs. 20

less then C’s. What is B’s share?

a) Rs. 10 b) Rs. 15 c) Rs. 20 d) Rs. 25

76. A man travelled 2/11 of his journey by coach. 17/22 by rail and walked the remaining 1 km.

How far did he go?

a) 22 km b) 20 km c) 33 km d) 27 km

77. Anil invested an amount for three years at a simple interest of 9 percent .p.a. He got an

amount of Rs. 19,050/- at the end of three years. What principal amount did he invest?

a) Rs. 14,500/- b) 11,050/- c) Rs. 15,000/- d) Rs. 10,950

78. ‘Amar started a business investing Rs. 45,000/-. Six months later Prakash joined him with

Rs. 30,000/-. In what ratio should the profit they earn be distributed at the end of the year?

a) 3 : 1 b) 3 : 4 c) 3 : 2 d) data inadequate

79. (331 + 19) x (15 – 11) x (37 + 13) = ?

a) 70,000 b) 73,000 c) 65,000 d) 60,000

80. 0. 245.576 + 2116.8 + 69.44 = ?

a) 2431.816 b) 2430.624 c) 2431.028 d) 2421.096

SECTION C – ‘REASONING ABILITY’ – 30 QUESTIONS

81. 2, 3, 5, 6, 7, 9, 10, 11, 13, ?

a) 12 b) 15 c) 14 d) 16

82. 198, 202, 211, 227, ?

a) 210 b) 212 b) 252 d) 27

83. 210, 195, 175, 150, 120 ?

a) 75 b) 80 c) 85 d) 90

Q No.84 to 89 Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which

is the one that does not belong to that group?

84. a) Lion b) Wolf c) Panther d) Tiger

85. a) Square b) Triangle c) Cube d) Rectangle

86. a) 15 b) 17 c) 23 d) 29

87. a) SU b) IK c) BD d) PN

88. a) Branch b) Leaf c) Root d) Plant

89. a) Ears b) Eyes c) Hands d) Heart

90. If the word PENCIL is coded ad LICNEP, how the word INKPOT would be coded?

a) TOPINK b) JOLQPU c) HMKOPS d) TOPKNI

91. If in a code language “SUDHA” is written as “UWFJC” then how “RAM” will be written in the

same code anguage?

a) AMR b) TCO c) SCN d) TCN

Q No. 92 to 96 Read the following information and answer the questions given below.

• P, Q, R, S, T and U are six members in a family in which there are two married couple.

• T, a teacher is married to the doctor who is mother of R and U.

• Q the lawyer is married to P.

• P has one son and one grandson.

• Of the two married ladies one is a housewife.

• There is also one student and one male engineer in the family.

92. How R is related to U?

a) Brother b) Sister c) Brother or Sister d) Data inadequate

93. How is P related to U?

a) Grandfather b) Mother c) Grandmother d) Data inadequate

94. Who is doctor?

a) P b) S c) R d) Data inadequate

95. Which of the following is true about the granddaughter in the family?

a) She is a student b)She is an engineer c) She is a lawyer d) Data inadequate

96. Who among the following is the housewife?

a) Q b) P c) T d) Data inadequate

97. Which letter will be 6th to the right of the third letter from left of the letter which is exactly in

the middle of the letter in the series given below?

A B C D E Z Y X W V Q R S T U F G H I J K L M N O P A

a) R b) Q c) F d) G

98. From a point P, Samir started walking towards South and walked 40 m. He turned towards

his left and walked 30 m and reached a point Q. The point Q is at what minimum distance and

at what direction from the point P?

a) 50 m South-West b)45 M South-East c) 50 M South-East d) 35 m South-East

99. ‘Bank’ is related to ‘Money’ in the same way ‘Transport’ is related to

a) Goods b) Road c) Movement d) Traffic

100. Which letter will the 5th from right if the first and the second, the third and the fourth and so

on are interchanged from the word COMPANIONATE?

a) I b) O c) A d) N

101. ‘Swim’ is related to ‘Fish’ in the same way as ‘walk’ is related to

a) Man b) Bird c) Legs d) Foot

102. One day John left home and cycled 10 km Southwards turned right and cycled 5 km and

turned right and cycled 10 km and turned left and cycled 10 km. How many kms will he have

cycle to reach his home straight?

a) 10 km b) 15 km c) 20 km d) 25 km

103. In a cricket session, India defeated Australia twice, West Indies defeated India twice.

Australia defeated West Indies twice, India defeated New Zealand twice and West Indies

defeated New Zealand twice. Which country has lost most member of times?

a) India b) Australia c) New Zealand d) West Indies

104. If P is husband of Q, and R is the mother of S and Q, how is R related to P?

a) Mother b) Sister c) Aunt d) Mother-in-law

105. If H = 8, HE = 13 , then “HEN” will be equal to’

a) 22 b) 24 c) 25 d) 27

Q No. 106 to 110 In each question below are given two statements followed by two conclusions

numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statement to be true even if they seem to be

at variance from commonly logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding

commonly known facts.

Give answer

(a) If only conclusion I follows

(b) If only conclusion II follows

(c) If either I or II follows

(d) If neither I nor II follows

106. Statement

All poets are goats.

Some goats are tr’ees

Conclusions

I. Some poets are trees. II. Some trees are goats

107. Statement

Some pens are tables.

No table is blue.

Conclusions

I. Some tables are pen. II. No pen is blue.

108. Statement

Some hens are cows

All cows are horses.

Conclusions

I. Some horses are hens. II. All hens are horses.

109. Statement

Some dogs are bats.

Some bats are cats

Conclusions

I. Some dogs are cats. II. Some cats are dogs.

110. Statement

All books are pencils.

All pencils are flowers

Conclusions

I. All books are flowers. II. All pencils are books.

SECTION D – ‘COMMUNICATION ’ – 65 QUESTIONS

Q No. 111 to 115 in each of the following questions, out of the given alternatives, choose the

one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

111. QUIT

a) Continue b) With breaks c) Bring to an end d) leave

112. CAB

a) Bus b) Driver c) Horse d) taxi

113. FLAIR

a) Natural ability b) Creativity c) Hidden quantity d) Strength

114. ZEAL

a) Slow b) Sober c) Enthusiasm d) Simplicity

115. ENVELOP

a) Fold b) Cut c) Wrap d) Open

Q No. 116 to 120 in each of the following questions, out of the given alternatives, choose the

one which best express the meaning of the given word.

116. ISOLATION

a) Seclusion b) Association c) Hardness d) Segregation

117. OPPONENT

a) Rival b) Ally c) Antagonist d) Faithful

118. CONTENT

a) Satisfied b) Disagree c) Proud d) Displease

119. MOBILITY

a) Movement b) Still c) Energy d) Skill

120 HYPOTHESIS

a) Fact b) Theory c) Conjecture d) Suppressed

Q No. 121 to 125 Given below are few sentences along with some blank space. Read the

sentences carefully and fill in the blanks with the help of the words given below.

121. Child labour has become a ______________ burning issue for the ______________ few

past.

a) subtle, past b) particularly, gone c) particularly, past d) dirty, next

122. We cannot ______________ our spiritual teachings from our learning, nor can we separate

our beliefs about who and what we are ______________ our values and our behaviours.

a) separate, from b) see, near c) upset, about d) distinguish, on

123. The Chief Minister ______________ the house that ______________action would be

taken against all those found involved corruption.

a) instructed, preventive b) called, strict c) assured, stringent d) reiterated, strictly

124. Mahesh ______________ me coming to hi table, he smiled and ______________ me a

chair.

a) looked, gave b) welcome, took c) saw, offered d) found, signaled

125. The state government employees ______________ threatened launch an indefinite strike

from next month to ______________ the demands.

a) have, press b) did. get c) were, met d) nearly, fulfill

Q No. 126 to 130 In each of the following questions, a word has been written in four different

ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.

126. a) detergent b) datergent c) ditergent d) detargent

127. a) tarrif b) tariff c) tarif d) taarif

128. a) enterpreneur b) entrepreneur c) entrepreneuer d) entreprneur

129. a) intelligence b) intilligence c) intalligence d) intelligance

130. a) expact b) expactt c) expect d) expait

Q No. 131to 135 In the questions some of the sentence have error and some have none. Find

out which of parts (a), (b), (c) and (d) has an error.

131. While going (a)/ through the report (b)/yesterday I find (c) /several factual mistakes. (d)

132. No sooner did (a)/ the chairman begin speaking, (b)/some participants started 9c)/ shouting

slogans. (d)

133. Although the patient (a)/was rude with the (b)/nurse, the behaved (c)/nice with the doctor.

(d)

134. After the humiliating exposure (a)/he hanged his head (b)/ in shame. (c) No error (d)

135. Sachin is so best (a)/ a player that (b)/ he would be certainly (c)/ included in the team. (d)

Q No. 136 to 140 In the following questions the first and the last sentence of passage are 1 and

6. The rest of the passage is split into four parts and are named P, Q, R, and S. These four

parts are not given in their proper order. Read the passage and find out which of the four

combinations is correct. Then find the correct answer.

136. 1: There is fashion now-a-days

P: as an evil

Q : who is born with a silver spoon

R : to bewail poverty

S :and to pity the young man

6: in his mouth

a) PSQR b) RSQP c) RPSQ d) SQPR

137. 1: Yet so few of us have

P: walls of daily routine

Q: the time or the means

R: that enclose our lives

S: to break through the narrow

6: to yet so know this land

a) SRQP b) RPSQ c) QSPR d) PQRS

138. 1: India has been a land

P: but in the sense that learning has always been very highly valued

Q: not indeed in the sense that education has been universal

R: and the learned man has been held in higher esteem

S: of learning throughout the ages

6: then the warrior or the administrator

a) PQSR b) RQPS c) RSQP d) SQPR

139. 1: It was obvious

P: made by him

Q: submitted at the meeting

R: from the comments

S: on the draft proposals

6: that he was not satisfied with them

a) QRSP b) SQRP c) RPSQ d) PSRQ

140. 1: If all the nations

P: for the common good of mankind

Q: then they will never fight with each other

R: work together

S: and help each other

6: and there will be no war

a) PRQS b) RPSQ c) PQRS d) SQRP

Passage 1

The casual horrors and real disasters are thrown at newspaper reader without discrimination. In

the contemporary arrangements for circulating the news, an important element, evaluation is

always weak and often wanting entirely. There is no point anywhere along the line somewhere

someone put his foot down for certain and says, "This is important and that does not amount to

row of beans; deserves no ones attention, and should travel the wires no farther". The junk is

dressed up to look as meaningful as the real news.

141. Evaluation of news would imply

A. less dependence on modern systems of communication

B. more careful analysis of each news story and its value

C. separating beans from junk

D. discriminating horrors from disasters

142. The writer of the above passage

A. seems to be happy with the contemporary arrangements for circulating news

B. is shocked by the casual stories about horrors and disasters reported in the newspapers

C. wants better evaluation of news before publication

D. wants to put his foot down on news stories

143. In the above passage, the phrase "amounts to a row of beans" means that the news

A. is weak and often wanting entirely

B. deserves no one's attention

C. should travel the wires

D. is junk dressed up as real news

144. Newspapers lack a sense of discrimination because

A. they do not separate the real news from mere sensationalism

B. they have to accept whatever is received on the wires

C. limited manpower makes serious evolution impossible

D. people don't see the difference between 'junk' and 'real' news

145. The passage implies that

A. there has to be censorship on newspapers

B. there is no point in having censorship

C. newspapers always dress up junk to look meaningful

D. one has to be strict in selecting news items

Passage 2

Harold a professional man who had worked in an office for many years had a fearful dream. In

it, he found himself in a land where small slug-like animals with slimy tentacles lived on people's

bodies. The people tolerated the loathsome creatures because after many years they grew into

elephants which then became the nation's system of transport, carrying everyone wherever he

wanted to go. Harold suddenly realized that he himself was covered with these things, and he

woke up screaming. In a vivid sequence of pictures this dream dramatized for Harold what he

had never been able to put in to words; he saw himself as letting society feed on his body in his

early years so that it would carry him when he retired. He later threw off the "security bug" and

took up freelance work.

146. In his dream Harold found the loathsome creatures

A. in his village B.in his own house

C. in a different land D.in his office

147. Which one of the following phrases best helps to bring out the precise meaning of

'loathsome creatures'?

A. Security bug and slimy tentacles

B. Fearful dream and slug-like animals

C. Slimy tentacles and slug-like animals

D. slug-like animals and security bug

148. The statement that 'he later threw off the security bug' means that

A. Harold succeeded in overcoming the need for security

B. Harold stopped giving much importance to dreams

C. Harold started tolerating social victimization

D. Harold killed all the bugs troubled him

149. Harold's dream was fearful because

A. it brought him face to face with reality

B. it was full of vivid pictures of snakes

C. he saw huge elephant in it

D. in it he saw slimy creatures feeding on people's bodies

Passage 3

At this stage of civilization, when many nations are brought in to close and vital contact for good

and evil, it is essential, as never before, that their gross ignorance of one another should be

diminished, that they should begin to understand a little of one another's historical experience

and resulting mentality. It is the fault of the English to expect the people of other countries to

react as they do, to political and international situations. Our genuine goodwill and good

intentions are often brought to nothing, because we expect other people to be like us. This

would be corrected if we knew the history, not necessarily in detail but in broad outlines, of the

social and political conditions which have given to each nation its present character.

150. According to the author of 'Mentality' of a nation is mainly product of its

A. history B. international position

C. politics D. present character

151. The need for a greater understanding between nations

A. was always there B. is no longer there

C. is more today than ever before D. will always be there

152. The character of a nation is the result of its

A. mentality B. cultural heritage

C. gross ignorance D. socio-political conditions

153. According to the author his countrymen should

A. read the story of other nations

B. have a better understanding of other nations

C. not react to other actions

D. have vital contacts with other nations

154. Englishmen like others to react to political situations like

A. us B. themselves

C. others D. each others

Passage 4

Mahatma Gandhi believed that industrialization was no answer to the problems that plague the

mass of India's poor and that villagers should be taught to be self-sufficient in food, weave their

own cloth from cotton and eschew the glittering prizes that the 20th century so temptingly offers.

Such an idyllic and rural paradise did not appear to those who inherited the reins of political

power.

155. The meaning of 'glittering prizes that the 20th century so temptingly offers is

A. pursuit of a commercialized material culture

B. replacement of rural by urban interests

C. complete removal of poverty

D. absence of violence and corruption

156. The basis of 'an idyllic and rural paradise' is

A. rapid industrialization of villages

B. self sufficiency in food clothes and simplicity of the lifestyle

C. bringing to the villages the glittering prizes of the 20th century

D. supporting those holdings powerful political positions

157. Which one of the following best illustrates the relationship between the phrases:

(i) 'eschew the glittering prizes' and

(ii) 'idyllic and rural paradise'?

A. unless you do (i), you cannot have (ii)

B. (i) and (ii) are identical in meaning

C. first of all you must have (ii) in order to do (i)

D. the meaning of (i) is directly opposite to (ii)

158. Mahatma Gandhi's views opposed industrialization of villages because

A. it would help the poor and not the rich

B. it would take away the skill of the villagers

C. it would affect the culture of the Indians

D. it would undermine self-sufficiency and destroy the beauty of life of the villager

159. Mahatma Gandhi's dream of 'an idyllic and rural paradise' was not shared by

A. those who did not believe in the industrialisation of the country

B. those who called him the Father of Nation

C. those who inherited political powers after independence

D. those who believed that villages should be self-sufficient in food and cloth

Passage 5

The assault on the purity of the environment is the price that we pay for many of the benefits of

modern technology. For the advantage of automotive transportation we pay a price in smog-

induced diseases; for the powerful effects of new insecticides, we pay a price in dwindling

wildlife and disturbances in the relation of living things and their surroundings; for nuclear

power, we risk the biological hazards of radiation. By increasing agricultural production with

fertilizers, we worsen water population. The highly developed nations of the world are not only

the immediate beneficiaries of the good that technology can do, hat are also the first victims of

environmental diseases that technology breeds. In the past, the environmental effects which

accompanied technological progress were restricted to a small and relatively short time. The

new hazards are neither local nor brief. Modern air pollution’ covers vast areas of continents:

Radioactive fallout from the nuclear explosion is worldwide. Radioactive pollutants now on the

earth surface will be found there for generations, and in case of Carbon-14, for thousands of

years.

160. The widespread use of insecticides has

A. reduced the number of wild animals

B. caused imbalance in the relationship between living beings and their environment

C. eliminated diseases by killing mosquitoes and flies

D. caused biological hazards

161. The passage emphasis that modern technology

A. is an unmixed blessing

B. has caused serious hazards to life

C. has produced powerful chemicals

D. has benefited highly developed nations

162. According to the passage the increasing use of fertilisers is responsible for

A. abundance of food

B. disturbance in the ecological system

C. water pollution

D. increase in diseases

163. The harmful effects of modern technology are

A. widespread but short-lived B. widespread and long-lasting

C. limited and long-lasting D. severe but short-lived

164. Radioactive pollutants

A. are limited in their effect

B. will infect the atmosphere for thousands of years

C. will be on the surface of earth for a very long time

D. will dissipate in short span of time

Passage 6

Detective glories tend to glorify crime. Murderers, gangsters and crooks all kinds are described

as tough, cunning and courageous individuals who know how to take care of themselves and

how to get what they want. In James McCain's The Postman Always Rings twice, for instance

the villain is much more a impressive character than his victim. He is casual brave smart and

successful with women. It is true that he finally gets caught. But he is punished for a crime that

he did not commit, so that his conviction is hardly a triumph of justice. Besides, looking back

over the exciting life of the criminal, the reader might conclude that it was worth the risk.’’’’’

165. The passage mention James McCain

A. as an author of detective stories

B. as brave, smart, and successful with women

C. as tough cunning and courageous

D. as being more impressive than others

166. Murderers, gangsters and crooks referred to in the passage given above

A. always manage to get away

B. are often glorified in detective stories

C. are wiser than their victims

D. know how to escape from law

167. According to this passage, a criminal in a detective story generally gets caught

A. for the crimes he has committed

B. because of his careless mistakes

C. because the police is smarter than the criminals

D. for the crimes he has not committed

168. According to the passage, the life of a criminal

A. is exciting

B. is hardly worth the risk

C. is seldom presented in the right perspective

D. ends in a triumph of justice

Q No. 169 to 173 In each of the following questions, an idiomatic expression/a proverb has

been given followed by some alternatives. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning

of the given idiom/proverb

169. To turn over a new leaf

a) To change completely one’s course of actions

b) To shift attention to new problems after having studied the old ones thoroughly

c) To cover up one’s faults by wearing new masks

d) To change the old habits and adopt new ones

170. Hobson’s choice

a) Feeling of insecurity b) Accept or leave the offer

c) Feeling of strength d) Excellent choice

171. To get into hot waters

a) To be impatient b) To suffer a huge financial loss

c) To get into trouble c) To be in a confused state of mind

172. Dog in the manager

a) An undersized bull almost the shape of a dog

b) A dog that has no kennel of its own

c) A person who puts himself in difficulties on account of other people

d) A Person who prevents others from enjoying something useless to himself

173. A square peg in a round hole

a) An impossible task b) A scheme that never works

c) A person unsuited to the position he fill d) None of these

Q No174 to175 In each of the following questions, a word has been written in four different ways

out of which only one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.

174. a) Comemorate b) Commemmorate c) Comemmorate d) Commemorate

175 a) Hindrence b) Hindrance c) Hinderence d) Hinserance’