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DESIZN CIRCLE
MAXIMUM MARKS- 175 NIFT MOCK TEST 02/02/2015 DURATION: 2 HRS
SECTION A – GK/C.AFFAIRS (50 QUESTIONS)
1. The revolt of 1857 was described as a ‘National Rising’ by which of the following political
leaders of Britain?
[A] Canning
[B] Gladstone
[C] Palmerstone
[D] Disraeli
2. Which among the following tribal leaders was regarded as an incarnation of God and father
of the world ?
[A] Nanak Bhil
[B] Jagia Bhagat
[C] Birsa Munda
[D] Siddhu Santha
3. The play ‘Neeldarpan’ is associated with which among the following revolts?
[A] Santhal Revolt
[B] Pabna Riots
[C] Indigo Revolts
[D] Champaran Satyagraha
4. Kunwar Singh was a leader of the revolt of 1857 in which among the following modern
states?
[A] Bihar
[B] Jharkhand
[C] Rajasthan
[D] Uttarakhand
5. On the suggestion of Rabindra Nath Tagore, the date of partition of Bengal (October 16,
1905) was celebrated as__?
[A] Rakhi Bandhan Day
[B] Brotherhood Day
[C] Solidarity Day
[D] Black Day
6. The Governor General of India at the time of formation of the Indian National Congress was
__?
[A] Lord Chelmsford
[B] Lord Dalhousie
[C] Lord Dufferin
[D] None of these
7. Who wrote ‘Indian War of Independence, 1857’?
[A] R.C Majumdar
[B] V.D. Savarkar
[C] S.B. Chaudhary
[D] S.N. Sen
8. Dalhousie’s worst political blunder was ___?
[A] Annexation of Punjab
[B] Occupation of lower Burma
[C] Abolition of the ‘Doctrine of Lapse’
[D] Annexation of Oudh
9. Who was the inventor of telephone?
[A] Alexander Graham Bell
[B] Thomas Alva Edison [C] James Watt
[D] Charles Darwin
10. What is the total number of bones in the human body?
[A] 108
[B] 196
[C] 206
[D] 204
11. The ratio of width of our National flag to its length is
[A] 3:5
[B] 2:3
[C] 2:4
[D] 3:4
12. 'Dandia' is a popular dance of
[A] Punjab
[B] Gujarat
[C] Tamil Nadu
[D] Maharashtra
13. The words 'Satyameva Jayate' inscribed below the base plate of the emblem of India are
taken from
[A] Rigveda
[B] Satpath Brahmana
[C] Mundak Upanishad
[D] Ramayana
14. Mohiniattam dance from developed originally in which state?
[A] Tamil Nadu
[B] Orissa
[C] Kerala
[D] Karnataka
15. Which of the following folk dance forms is associated with Gujarat?
[A] Nautanki
[B] Garba
[C] Kathakali
[D] Bhangra
16. The Rath Yatra at Puri is celebrated in honour of which Hindu deity
[A] Ram
[B] Jaganath
[C] Shiva
[D] Vishnu
17. Which of the following dances is a solo dance?
[A] Ottan Thullal
[B] Kuchipudi
[C] Yakshagana
[D] Odissi
18. 'Madhubani', a style of folk paintings, is popular in which of the following states in India?
[A] Uttar Pradesh
[B] Rajasthan
[C] Madhya Pradesh
[D] Bihar
19. The dance encouraged and performance from the temple of Tanjore was
[A] Kathakali
[B] Odissi
[C] Kathak
[D] Bharatanatyam
20. The last Mahakumbh of the 20th century was held at
[A] Nasik
[B] Ujjain
[C] Allahabad
[D] Haridwar
21. The National Song of India was composed by
[A] Rabindranath Tagore
[B] Bankim Chandra Chatterji
[C] Iqbal
[D] Jai Shankar Prasad
22. Who composed the famous song 'Sare Jahan SeAchha'?
[A] Jaidev
[B] Mohammad Iqbal
[C] Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
[D] Rabindranath Tagore
23. In which of the following festivals are boat races a special feature?
[A] Onam
[B] Rongali Bihu
[C] Navratri
[D] Pongal
24. Kalchakra ceremony is associated with which of the following ceremonies?
[A] Hinduism
[B] Buddhism
[C] Jainism
[D] Islam
25. Which of the following places is famous for Chikankari work, which is a traditional art of
embroidery?
[A] Lucknow
[B] Hyderabad
[C] Jaipur
[D] Mysore
26. The first CNG train is launched on -
[A] Delhi-Agra Section
[B] Rohtak-Chandigarh Section
[C] Delhi-Chandigarh Section
[D] Rewari-Rohtak Section
27. Pravasi Bharatiya Divas 2015 held at -
[A] Ahmedabad
[B] Mumbai
[C] Jaipur
[D] Gandhinagar
28. Which of the following company has been barred by SEBI for accessing capital market for 3
yrs?
[A] Kingfisher
[B] Spice Jet
[C] Sahara
[D] DLF
29. The first Railway Station in India having WiFi facility is-
[A] New Delhi
[B] Ahmedabad
[C] Mumbai
[D] Bangalore City
30. Which of the following does not belong to the group
[A] snapdeal
[B]Flipcart
[C]Ebay
[D] Big Bazaar
31. XXI Commonwealth Games in 2018 will be hosted by
[A] Capetown(South Africa)
[B] Gold Coast(Australia)
[C] Auckland(New Zealand)
[D] Ottawa(Canada)
32. Who is winner of Miss World 2014?
[A] Megan Young
[B] Edina Kulcsár
[C] Elizabeth Safrit
[D] Rolene Strauss
33. Which date is recently declared as "International Yoga Day" by UN?
[A] June 5
[B] July 21
[C] June 21
[D] October 21
34. Which state celebrate Hornbill festival?
[A] Mizoram
[B] Manipur
[C] Meghalaya
[D] Nagaland
35. Kidambi Srikanth recently on news, he is associated with -
[A] Football
[B] Tennis
[C] Badminton
[D] Squash
36. G20 Summit 2014 held on
[A] Sydney
[B] Brisbane
[C] Melbourne
[D] Canberra
37. Durand Cup Football tournament 2014 won by -
[A] East Bengal Club
[B] Mohan Bagan
[C] Pune FC
[D] Salgaocar FC
38. Who is appointed as National Institute of Public Finance & Policy (NIPFP)?
[A] C. Rangarajan
[B] Raghuram Rajan
[C] Vijay Laxman Kelkar
[D] Arvind Subramanian
39. Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences 2014 winner Jean Tirole belongs to –
[A] France
[B] Germany
[C] USA
[D] Norway
40. Who among the following is the current Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) of India?
[A] K.G. Balakrishnan
[B] Ranjit Sinha
[C] Montek Singh Ahluwalia
[D] V.S. Sampath
41. The production, marketing storage, advertisement and consumption of smokeless tobacco is
banned in
[A] Meghalaya
[B] Assam
[C]Nagaland
[D] Arunachal Pradesh
42. The number of women entrepreneur in small scale industry is highest in the State of -
[A] Karnataka
[B] Kerala
[C] Maharashtra
[D] Tamil Nadu
43. International Girl Child Day celebrate on
[A] 8th October
[B] 11th October
[C] 10th October
[D] 9th October
44. National Postal Week 2014 celebrate from
[A] 2nd - 9th October 2014
[B] 1st - 7th October 2014
[C] 5th - 12th October 2014
[D] 9th - 15th October 2014
45. The 'Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana' launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on -
[A] 2nd October 2014
[B] 5th October 2014
[C] 11th October 2014
[D] 10th October 2014
46. : "World Food Day" is celebrated every year on -
[A] 16th October
[B] 12th August
[C] 4th July
[D] 18th May
47. "Make in India" initiative launched on
[A] 23rd September 2014
[B] 24th September 2014
[C] 25th September 2014
[D] 26th September 2014
48. 2015 cricket World Cup will be held in
[A] England
[B] Australia and New Zealand
[C] South Africa
[D] West Indies
49. Which of the following country won the Women's Hockey World Cup 2014?
[A] Argentina
[B] Australia
[C] Netherland
[D] Spain
50. BRICS Bank's head office will be established in
[A] Brazil
[B]China
[C] India
[D] Russia
SECTION B – QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE (30 QUESTIONS)
51.If a sum of money doubles itself in 8 yr at simple interest, then the rate of interest per annum
is
a) 11.5 b) 12.0 c) 12.5 d) 13.0
52. The ratio between the length and breadth of a rectangular field is 3:2. If the length is
increased by 5 m, the new area of the field will be 2600 sq m. What is the breadth of the
rectangular field?
a) 40 m b) 60 m c) 65 m d) None of these
53. Ten years ago A was half of B in age. If the ratio of their present ages is 3:4 what will be the
total of their present ages?
a) 8 yr b) 20 yr c) 30 yr d) None of these
54. . A retailer buys 30 pens from a wholesaler and pays equal to marked price of 27 pens. If he
sells the pens at the marked price, his profit per cent in the transaction is
a) 9
b) 10% c) 11
d) 20%
55. If the diameter of a cylinder is 20 cm and its height is 20 cm, then the surface area in cm2 is
a) 2993 b) 2992 c) 2292 d) 2229
56. 8
+ 7
x 3
=
a) 2712 b) 34 ½ c) 35 ½ d) 35 1/5
57. 45% of + 21 =
a) 80 b) 100 c) 60 d) None of these
58. 5152 280 + 140 3.5 = ?
a) 58.40 b) 42.93 c) 35.40 d) None of these
59. 46.40 x 3.5 – 2.4 =
17.5 x 4.8 – 4.0
a) .33 b) 2 c)1/2 d) None of these
60. 40 ÷0.80 ÷ 0.25 =
a) 12.5 b) 200 c) 20 d) 250
61. 51/4 x 1250.25
a. √5 b. 25 c. 5 d.
62.A contractor agreeing to finish a work in 150 days employed 75 men, each working for 8 h
daily. After 90 days only 2/7 of the work was completed. How many more men would be
required now, each working 10 h daily so as to finish the work in the stipulated time.
a) 225 b) 75 c) 150 d) 300
63. A horse worth Rs. 9000 is sold by A to B at a loss of 10% B cells the horse back to A at 10%
gain. The result is
a) A makes no profits or loss b) B gains Rs 900 c) A loses Rs 900 d) A loses Rs 810
64. The banks of a river are parallel. A swimmer starts from a point on one of the banks and
swim in a straight line inclined to the bank at 450 and reaches the opposite bank which is 20 m
from the starting point. The breadth of the river is
a. 20m b. 20√2m c. 10√2m d. 40m
65. The prices of sugar increase by 32%. A family reduces its consumption so that the
expenditure of the sugar is up only by 10%. If the total consumption of the sugar before the
price-rise was 10 kg per month, then the consumption of sugar per month at present, in kg, is
a. 8.33 b. 8.5 c. 8.75 d. 9
66. The ratio between the ages of A and B at present is 2:3. Five years hence the ratio their
ages will be 3:4. What is the present age of A in years?
a) 10 b) 15 c) 25 d) None of these
67. In a zoo, the rabbits and pigeons are kept together in a room. If heads are counted, then
number of heads is 100; but if all the legs are counted, then numbered of legs is 288. The
number of pigeons is
a) 56 b) 44 c) 50 d) 65
68. Two trains start simultaneously from A and B and travel towards each other at the rates of
85 km/h and 77.5 km/h respectively. When they meet, one trains has travelled 60 km more than
the other. The distance between A and B is
a) 1300 km b) 1350 km c) 650 km d) None of these
69. The rate of interest on a sum of money is 4 per cent per annum for the first two years 6 per
cent per annum for the next four years and 8 per cent per annum for the period beyond six
years. If the simple interest accrued by the sum for a total period of nine years is Rs. 1120, what
is the sum?
a) Rs. 2000 b) Rs. 4000 c) Rs. 1500 d) None of these
70. The income of A and B are in the ratio 5:3 their expenses are in the ratio 8:5 and their
savings are in the ratio 2:1. If the total annual saving of A and B are Rs. 36000, find the monthly
income of A.
a) Rs. 1000 b) Rs. 5000 c) Rs, 10000 d) None of these
71. 35% of 240 + 30% of 180 = ? % of 552
a) 25 b) 75 c) 50 d) None of these
72. If the outer radius of a metal pipe is 2.84 inches and the inner radius is 1.94 inches, the
thickness of the metal inches is
a) 0.75 b) 0.80 c) 0.90 d) 0.95
73. A shopkeeper marks the price of his goods 20 per cent higher than the original price. After
that he allows a discount of 10 per cent. What profit or loss did he get?
a) Profit 10 per cent b) Profit 8 per cent
c) Profit 5 per cent d) Profit 7 per cent
74. The prices of a scooter and a moped are in the ratio of 9:5. The scooter costs Rs. 4,200
more than the moped. Find the price of the moped.
a) Rs. 5,250 b) Rs. 3,350 c) Rs. 6,500 d) Rs. 5,700
75. 120 is in divide among A, B and C such that A’s share is Rs. 20 more than B’s and Rs. 20
less then C’s. What is B’s share?
a) Rs. 10 b) Rs. 15 c) Rs. 20 d) Rs. 25
76. A man travelled 2/11 of his journey by coach. 17/22 by rail and walked the remaining 1 km.
How far did he go?
a) 22 km b) 20 km c) 33 km d) 27 km
77. Anil invested an amount for three years at a simple interest of 9 percent .p.a. He got an
amount of Rs. 19,050/- at the end of three years. What principal amount did he invest?
a) Rs. 14,500/- b) 11,050/- c) Rs. 15,000/- d) Rs. 10,950
78. ‘Amar started a business investing Rs. 45,000/-. Six months later Prakash joined him with
Rs. 30,000/-. In what ratio should the profit they earn be distributed at the end of the year?
a) 3 : 1 b) 3 : 4 c) 3 : 2 d) data inadequate
79. (331 + 19) x (15 – 11) x (37 + 13) = ?
a) 70,000 b) 73,000 c) 65,000 d) 60,000
80. 0. 245.576 + 2116.8 + 69.44 = ?
a) 2431.816 b) 2430.624 c) 2431.028 d) 2421.096
SECTION C – ‘REASONING ABILITY’ – 30 QUESTIONS
81. 2, 3, 5, 6, 7, 9, 10, 11, 13, ?
a) 12 b) 15 c) 14 d) 16
82. 198, 202, 211, 227, ?
a) 210 b) 212 b) 252 d) 27
83. 210, 195, 175, 150, 120 ?
a) 75 b) 80 c) 85 d) 90
Q No.84 to 89 Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which
is the one that does not belong to that group?
84. a) Lion b) Wolf c) Panther d) Tiger
85. a) Square b) Triangle c) Cube d) Rectangle
86. a) 15 b) 17 c) 23 d) 29
87. a) SU b) IK c) BD d) PN
88. a) Branch b) Leaf c) Root d) Plant
89. a) Ears b) Eyes c) Hands d) Heart
90. If the word PENCIL is coded ad LICNEP, how the word INKPOT would be coded?
a) TOPINK b) JOLQPU c) HMKOPS d) TOPKNI
91. If in a code language “SUDHA” is written as “UWFJC” then how “RAM” will be written in the
same code anguage?
a) AMR b) TCO c) SCN d) TCN
Q No. 92 to 96 Read the following information and answer the questions given below.
• P, Q, R, S, T and U are six members in a family in which there are two married couple.
• T, a teacher is married to the doctor who is mother of R and U.
• Q the lawyer is married to P.
• P has one son and one grandson.
• Of the two married ladies one is a housewife.
• There is also one student and one male engineer in the family.
92. How R is related to U?
a) Brother b) Sister c) Brother or Sister d) Data inadequate
93. How is P related to U?
a) Grandfather b) Mother c) Grandmother d) Data inadequate
94. Who is doctor?
a) P b) S c) R d) Data inadequate
95. Which of the following is true about the granddaughter in the family?
a) She is a student b)She is an engineer c) She is a lawyer d) Data inadequate
96. Who among the following is the housewife?
a) Q b) P c) T d) Data inadequate
97. Which letter will be 6th to the right of the third letter from left of the letter which is exactly in
the middle of the letter in the series given below?
A B C D E Z Y X W V Q R S T U F G H I J K L M N O P A
a) R b) Q c) F d) G
98. From a point P, Samir started walking towards South and walked 40 m. He turned towards
his left and walked 30 m and reached a point Q. The point Q is at what minimum distance and
at what direction from the point P?
a) 50 m South-West b)45 M South-East c) 50 M South-East d) 35 m South-East
99. ‘Bank’ is related to ‘Money’ in the same way ‘Transport’ is related to
a) Goods b) Road c) Movement d) Traffic
100. Which letter will the 5th from right if the first and the second, the third and the fourth and so
on are interchanged from the word COMPANIONATE?
a) I b) O c) A d) N
101. ‘Swim’ is related to ‘Fish’ in the same way as ‘walk’ is related to
a) Man b) Bird c) Legs d) Foot
102. One day John left home and cycled 10 km Southwards turned right and cycled 5 km and
turned right and cycled 10 km and turned left and cycled 10 km. How many kms will he have
cycle to reach his home straight?
a) 10 km b) 15 km c) 20 km d) 25 km
103. In a cricket session, India defeated Australia twice, West Indies defeated India twice.
Australia defeated West Indies twice, India defeated New Zealand twice and West Indies
defeated New Zealand twice. Which country has lost most member of times?
a) India b) Australia c) New Zealand d) West Indies
104. If P is husband of Q, and R is the mother of S and Q, how is R related to P?
a) Mother b) Sister c) Aunt d) Mother-in-law
105. If H = 8, HE = 13 , then “HEN” will be equal to’
a) 22 b) 24 c) 25 d) 27
Q No. 106 to 110 In each question below are given two statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statement to be true even if they seem to be
at variance from commonly logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding
commonly known facts.
Give answer
(a) If only conclusion I follows
(b) If only conclusion II follows
(c) If either I or II follows
(d) If neither I nor II follows
106. Statement
All poets are goats.
Some goats are tr’ees
Conclusions
I. Some poets are trees. II. Some trees are goats
107. Statement
Some pens are tables.
No table is blue.
Conclusions
I. Some tables are pen. II. No pen is blue.
108. Statement
Some hens are cows
All cows are horses.
Conclusions
I. Some horses are hens. II. All hens are horses.
109. Statement
Some dogs are bats.
Some bats are cats
Conclusions
I. Some dogs are cats. II. Some cats are dogs.
110. Statement
All books are pencils.
All pencils are flowers
Conclusions
I. All books are flowers. II. All pencils are books.
SECTION D – ‘COMMUNICATION ’ – 65 QUESTIONS
Q No. 111 to 115 in each of the following questions, out of the given alternatives, choose the
one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.
111. QUIT
a) Continue b) With breaks c) Bring to an end d) leave
112. CAB
a) Bus b) Driver c) Horse d) taxi
113. FLAIR
a) Natural ability b) Creativity c) Hidden quantity d) Strength
114. ZEAL
a) Slow b) Sober c) Enthusiasm d) Simplicity
115. ENVELOP
a) Fold b) Cut c) Wrap d) Open
Q No. 116 to 120 in each of the following questions, out of the given alternatives, choose the
one which best express the meaning of the given word.
116. ISOLATION
a) Seclusion b) Association c) Hardness d) Segregation
117. OPPONENT
a) Rival b) Ally c) Antagonist d) Faithful
118. CONTENT
a) Satisfied b) Disagree c) Proud d) Displease
119. MOBILITY
a) Movement b) Still c) Energy d) Skill
120 HYPOTHESIS
a) Fact b) Theory c) Conjecture d) Suppressed
Q No. 121 to 125 Given below are few sentences along with some blank space. Read the
sentences carefully and fill in the blanks with the help of the words given below.
121. Child labour has become a ______________ burning issue for the ______________ few
past.
a) subtle, past b) particularly, gone c) particularly, past d) dirty, next
122. We cannot ______________ our spiritual teachings from our learning, nor can we separate
our beliefs about who and what we are ______________ our values and our behaviours.
a) separate, from b) see, near c) upset, about d) distinguish, on
123. The Chief Minister ______________ the house that ______________action would be
taken against all those found involved corruption.
a) instructed, preventive b) called, strict c) assured, stringent d) reiterated, strictly
124. Mahesh ______________ me coming to hi table, he smiled and ______________ me a
chair.
a) looked, gave b) welcome, took c) saw, offered d) found, signaled
125. The state government employees ______________ threatened launch an indefinite strike
from next month to ______________ the demands.
a) have, press b) did. get c) were, met d) nearly, fulfill
Q No. 126 to 130 In each of the following questions, a word has been written in four different
ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.
126. a) detergent b) datergent c) ditergent d) detargent
127. a) tarrif b) tariff c) tarif d) taarif
128. a) enterpreneur b) entrepreneur c) entrepreneuer d) entreprneur
129. a) intelligence b) intilligence c) intalligence d) intelligance
130. a) expact b) expactt c) expect d) expait
Q No. 131to 135 In the questions some of the sentence have error and some have none. Find
out which of parts (a), (b), (c) and (d) has an error.
131. While going (a)/ through the report (b)/yesterday I find (c) /several factual mistakes. (d)
132. No sooner did (a)/ the chairman begin speaking, (b)/some participants started 9c)/ shouting
slogans. (d)
133. Although the patient (a)/was rude with the (b)/nurse, the behaved (c)/nice with the doctor.
(d)
134. After the humiliating exposure (a)/he hanged his head (b)/ in shame. (c) No error (d)
135. Sachin is so best (a)/ a player that (b)/ he would be certainly (c)/ included in the team. (d)
Q No. 136 to 140 In the following questions the first and the last sentence of passage are 1 and
6. The rest of the passage is split into four parts and are named P, Q, R, and S. These four
parts are not given in their proper order. Read the passage and find out which of the four
combinations is correct. Then find the correct answer.
136. 1: There is fashion now-a-days
P: as an evil
Q : who is born with a silver spoon
R : to bewail poverty
S :and to pity the young man
6: in his mouth
a) PSQR b) RSQP c) RPSQ d) SQPR
137. 1: Yet so few of us have
P: walls of daily routine
Q: the time or the means
R: that enclose our lives
S: to break through the narrow
6: to yet so know this land
a) SRQP b) RPSQ c) QSPR d) PQRS
138. 1: India has been a land
P: but in the sense that learning has always been very highly valued
Q: not indeed in the sense that education has been universal
R: and the learned man has been held in higher esteem
S: of learning throughout the ages
6: then the warrior or the administrator
a) PQSR b) RQPS c) RSQP d) SQPR
139. 1: It was obvious
P: made by him
Q: submitted at the meeting
R: from the comments
S: on the draft proposals
6: that he was not satisfied with them
a) QRSP b) SQRP c) RPSQ d) PSRQ
140. 1: If all the nations
P: for the common good of mankind
Q: then they will never fight with each other
R: work together
S: and help each other
6: and there will be no war
a) PRQS b) RPSQ c) PQRS d) SQRP
Passage 1
The casual horrors and real disasters are thrown at newspaper reader without discrimination. In
the contemporary arrangements for circulating the news, an important element, evaluation is
always weak and often wanting entirely. There is no point anywhere along the line somewhere
someone put his foot down for certain and says, "This is important and that does not amount to
row of beans; deserves no ones attention, and should travel the wires no farther". The junk is
dressed up to look as meaningful as the real news.
141. Evaluation of news would imply
A. less dependence on modern systems of communication
B. more careful analysis of each news story and its value
C. separating beans from junk
D. discriminating horrors from disasters
142. The writer of the above passage
A. seems to be happy with the contemporary arrangements for circulating news
B. is shocked by the casual stories about horrors and disasters reported in the newspapers
C. wants better evaluation of news before publication
D. wants to put his foot down on news stories
143. In the above passage, the phrase "amounts to a row of beans" means that the news
A. is weak and often wanting entirely
B. deserves no one's attention
C. should travel the wires
D. is junk dressed up as real news
144. Newspapers lack a sense of discrimination because
A. they do not separate the real news from mere sensationalism
B. they have to accept whatever is received on the wires
C. limited manpower makes serious evolution impossible
D. people don't see the difference between 'junk' and 'real' news
145. The passage implies that
A. there has to be censorship on newspapers
B. there is no point in having censorship
C. newspapers always dress up junk to look meaningful
D. one has to be strict in selecting news items
Passage 2
Harold a professional man who had worked in an office for many years had a fearful dream. In
it, he found himself in a land where small slug-like animals with slimy tentacles lived on people's
bodies. The people tolerated the loathsome creatures because after many years they grew into
elephants which then became the nation's system of transport, carrying everyone wherever he
wanted to go. Harold suddenly realized that he himself was covered with these things, and he
woke up screaming. In a vivid sequence of pictures this dream dramatized for Harold what he
had never been able to put in to words; he saw himself as letting society feed on his body in his
early years so that it would carry him when he retired. He later threw off the "security bug" and
took up freelance work.
146. In his dream Harold found the loathsome creatures
A. in his village B.in his own house
C. in a different land D.in his office
147. Which one of the following phrases best helps to bring out the precise meaning of
'loathsome creatures'?
A. Security bug and slimy tentacles
B. Fearful dream and slug-like animals
C. Slimy tentacles and slug-like animals
D. slug-like animals and security bug
148. The statement that 'he later threw off the security bug' means that
A. Harold succeeded in overcoming the need for security
B. Harold stopped giving much importance to dreams
C. Harold started tolerating social victimization
D. Harold killed all the bugs troubled him
149. Harold's dream was fearful because
A. it brought him face to face with reality
B. it was full of vivid pictures of snakes
C. he saw huge elephant in it
D. in it he saw slimy creatures feeding on people's bodies
Passage 3
At this stage of civilization, when many nations are brought in to close and vital contact for good
and evil, it is essential, as never before, that their gross ignorance of one another should be
diminished, that they should begin to understand a little of one another's historical experience
and resulting mentality. It is the fault of the English to expect the people of other countries to
react as they do, to political and international situations. Our genuine goodwill and good
intentions are often brought to nothing, because we expect other people to be like us. This
would be corrected if we knew the history, not necessarily in detail but in broad outlines, of the
social and political conditions which have given to each nation its present character.
150. According to the author of 'Mentality' of a nation is mainly product of its
A. history B. international position
C. politics D. present character
151. The need for a greater understanding between nations
A. was always there B. is no longer there
C. is more today than ever before D. will always be there
152. The character of a nation is the result of its
A. mentality B. cultural heritage
C. gross ignorance D. socio-political conditions
153. According to the author his countrymen should
A. read the story of other nations
B. have a better understanding of other nations
C. not react to other actions
D. have vital contacts with other nations
154. Englishmen like others to react to political situations like
A. us B. themselves
C. others D. each others
Passage 4
Mahatma Gandhi believed that industrialization was no answer to the problems that plague the
mass of India's poor and that villagers should be taught to be self-sufficient in food, weave their
own cloth from cotton and eschew the glittering prizes that the 20th century so temptingly offers.
Such an idyllic and rural paradise did not appear to those who inherited the reins of political
power.
155. The meaning of 'glittering prizes that the 20th century so temptingly offers is
A. pursuit of a commercialized material culture
B. replacement of rural by urban interests
C. complete removal of poverty
D. absence of violence and corruption
156. The basis of 'an idyllic and rural paradise' is
A. rapid industrialization of villages
B. self sufficiency in food clothes and simplicity of the lifestyle
C. bringing to the villages the glittering prizes of the 20th century
D. supporting those holdings powerful political positions
157. Which one of the following best illustrates the relationship between the phrases:
(i) 'eschew the glittering prizes' and
(ii) 'idyllic and rural paradise'?
A. unless you do (i), you cannot have (ii)
B. (i) and (ii) are identical in meaning
C. first of all you must have (ii) in order to do (i)
D. the meaning of (i) is directly opposite to (ii)
158. Mahatma Gandhi's views opposed industrialization of villages because
A. it would help the poor and not the rich
B. it would take away the skill of the villagers
C. it would affect the culture of the Indians
D. it would undermine self-sufficiency and destroy the beauty of life of the villager
159. Mahatma Gandhi's dream of 'an idyllic and rural paradise' was not shared by
A. those who did not believe in the industrialisation of the country
B. those who called him the Father of Nation
C. those who inherited political powers after independence
D. those who believed that villages should be self-sufficient in food and cloth
Passage 5
The assault on the purity of the environment is the price that we pay for many of the benefits of
modern technology. For the advantage of automotive transportation we pay a price in smog-
induced diseases; for the powerful effects of new insecticides, we pay a price in dwindling
wildlife and disturbances in the relation of living things and their surroundings; for nuclear
power, we risk the biological hazards of radiation. By increasing agricultural production with
fertilizers, we worsen water population. The highly developed nations of the world are not only
the immediate beneficiaries of the good that technology can do, hat are also the first victims of
environmental diseases that technology breeds. In the past, the environmental effects which
accompanied technological progress were restricted to a small and relatively short time. The
new hazards are neither local nor brief. Modern air pollution’ covers vast areas of continents:
Radioactive fallout from the nuclear explosion is worldwide. Radioactive pollutants now on the
earth surface will be found there for generations, and in case of Carbon-14, for thousands of
years.
160. The widespread use of insecticides has
A. reduced the number of wild animals
B. caused imbalance in the relationship between living beings and their environment
C. eliminated diseases by killing mosquitoes and flies
D. caused biological hazards
161. The passage emphasis that modern technology
A. is an unmixed blessing
B. has caused serious hazards to life
C. has produced powerful chemicals
D. has benefited highly developed nations
162. According to the passage the increasing use of fertilisers is responsible for
A. abundance of food
B. disturbance in the ecological system
C. water pollution
D. increase in diseases
163. The harmful effects of modern technology are
A. widespread but short-lived B. widespread and long-lasting
C. limited and long-lasting D. severe but short-lived
164. Radioactive pollutants
A. are limited in their effect
B. will infect the atmosphere for thousands of years
C. will be on the surface of earth for a very long time
D. will dissipate in short span of time
Passage 6
Detective glories tend to glorify crime. Murderers, gangsters and crooks all kinds are described
as tough, cunning and courageous individuals who know how to take care of themselves and
how to get what they want. In James McCain's The Postman Always Rings twice, for instance
the villain is much more a impressive character than his victim. He is casual brave smart and
successful with women. It is true that he finally gets caught. But he is punished for a crime that
he did not commit, so that his conviction is hardly a triumph of justice. Besides, looking back
over the exciting life of the criminal, the reader might conclude that it was worth the risk.’’’’’
165. The passage mention James McCain
A. as an author of detective stories
B. as brave, smart, and successful with women
C. as tough cunning and courageous
D. as being more impressive than others
166. Murderers, gangsters and crooks referred to in the passage given above
A. always manage to get away
B. are often glorified in detective stories
C. are wiser than their victims
D. know how to escape from law
167. According to this passage, a criminal in a detective story generally gets caught
A. for the crimes he has committed
B. because of his careless mistakes
C. because the police is smarter than the criminals
D. for the crimes he has not committed
168. According to the passage, the life of a criminal
A. is exciting
B. is hardly worth the risk
C. is seldom presented in the right perspective
D. ends in a triumph of justice
Q No. 169 to 173 In each of the following questions, an idiomatic expression/a proverb has
been given followed by some alternatives. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning
of the given idiom/proverb
169. To turn over a new leaf
a) To change completely one’s course of actions
b) To shift attention to new problems after having studied the old ones thoroughly
c) To cover up one’s faults by wearing new masks
d) To change the old habits and adopt new ones
170. Hobson’s choice
a) Feeling of insecurity b) Accept or leave the offer
c) Feeling of strength d) Excellent choice
171. To get into hot waters
a) To be impatient b) To suffer a huge financial loss
c) To get into trouble c) To be in a confused state of mind
172. Dog in the manager
a) An undersized bull almost the shape of a dog
b) A dog that has no kennel of its own
c) A person who puts himself in difficulties on account of other people
d) A Person who prevents others from enjoying something useless to himself
173. A square peg in a round hole
a) An impossible task b) A scheme that never works
c) A person unsuited to the position he fill d) None of these
‘
Q No174 to175 In each of the following questions, a word has been written in four different ways
out of which only one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.
174. a) Comemorate b) Commemmorate c) Comemmorate d) Commemorate
175 a) Hindrence b) Hindrance c) Hinderence d) Hinserance’