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OPENDEN (II) Entrance Test forDental Programmes 2010 01882
PG Certificate in Endodontics
PG Certificate in Oral Implantology
Total No. of Questions : 90 Time : 120 Minutes
All questions are Compulsory.
Use of calculator is not allowed. Rough work may be done in the space provided at theback of the Test Booklet.
Read the instructions given on the OMR Response Sheet carefully before you start.
OPENDEN (II)/10 1 P.T.O.
How to fill up the information on the OMR Response Sheet
(Examination Answer Sheet)
Write your complete enrolment no. in 9 digits. This should correspond to the enrolmentnumber indicated by you on the OMR Response Sheet . Also write your correct name, addresswith pin code in the space provided. Put your signatures on the OMR Response Sheet withdate. Ensure that the Invigilator in your examination hall also puts his signatures with dateon the OMR Response Sheet at the space provided.
On the OMR Response Sheet student's particulars are to be filled in by pen. However use HBpencil for writing the Enrolment No. and Examination Centre Code as well as for blackeningthe circle bearing the correct answer number against the serial number of the question.
Do not make any stray remarks on this sheet.
Write correct information in numerical digit in Enrolment No. and Examination Centre CodeColumns. The corresponding circle should be dark enough and should be filled in completely.
Each question is followed by four probable answers which are numbered 1, 2, 3 and 4. Youshould select and show only one answer to each question considered by you as the mostappropriate or the correct answer. Select the most appropriate answer. Then by using HBpencil, blacken the circle bearing the correct answer number against the serial number of thequestion. If you find that answer to any question is none of the four alternatives given underthe question, you should darken the circle with '0'.
If you wish to change your answer, ERASE completely the already darkened circle by usinga good quality eraser and then blacken the circle bearing your revised answer number. Ifincorrect answer is not erased completely, smudges will be left on the erased circle and thequestion will be read as having two answers and will be ignored for giving any credit.
No credit will be given if more than one answer is given for one question. Therefore, youshould select the most appropriate answer.
You should not spend too much time on any one question. If you find any particular questiondifficult, leave it and go to the next. If you have time left after answering all the questions,you may go back to the unanswered ones. Thre is no negative marking for wrong answers.
OPENDEN (II)/10 2
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
No cell Phones, calculators, books, slide-rules, note-books or written notes, etc. will be allowedinside the examination hall.
You should follow the instructions given by the Centre Superintendent and by the Invigilatorat the examination venue. If you violate the instructions, you will be disqualified.
Any candidate found copying or receiving or giving assistance in the examination will bedisqualified.
The Test Booklet and the OMR Response Sheet (Answer Sheet) would be supplied to you bythe Invigilators. After the examination is over, you should hand over the OMR ResponseSheet to the Invigilator before leaving the examination hall. Any candidate who does notreturn the OMR Response Sheet will be disqualified and the University may take furtheraction against him/her.
All rough work is to be done on the test booklet itself and not on any other paper. Scrappaper is not permitted. For arriving at an answer you may work in the margins, make somemarkings or underline in the test booklet itself.
The University reserves the right to cancel scores of any candidate who impersonates oruses/ adopts other malpractices or uses any unfair means. The examination is conductedunder uniform conditions. The University would also follow a procedure to verify the validityof scores of all examinees uniformly. If there is substantial indication that your performanceis not genuine, the University may cancel your score.
7. In the event of your qualifying the Entrance Test, the hail ticket should be enclosed with youradmission form while submitting it to the University for seeking admission in Dentalprogrammes along with your testimonials and programme fee. Admission forms receivedwithout hall ticket in original will be summarily rejected.
OPENDEN (II)/10 3 P.T.O.
Patient gives history of brittle bones and you notice blue sclera. What is likely to be thecondition ?
(1) Paget's Disease (2) Osteoporosis
(3) Osteopetrosis (4) Fibrous Dysplasia
Which type of epithelia is the normal lining of the Maxillary Antrum ?
(1) Ciliated columnar (2) Columnar
(3) Transitional stratified (4) Keratinised stratified squamous
Which of the following viruses are most likely to cross placenta and cause foetal defect ?
(1) Herpes Simplex
(2) Mumps
(3) Rubella
(4) Papilloma
Dosage of I.V Diazepam in a Dental Chair is influenced by :
(1) Tinel's sign (2) Verril's sign
(3) Battle's sign (4) Bell's sign
Which of the following drugs is used in the management of Haemophilia ?
(1) Tranexamic Acid
(2) Heparin
(3) Calcium gluconate
(4) Thrombin
Antibiotic cover is mandatory before extraction in the following condition of the heart :
(1) Ischemic heart (2) Hypertension
(3) Congestive cardiac failure (4) Congenital heart disease
7. Anterior open bite occurs in fracture of :
(1) Symphysis (2) Bilateral angles
(3) Bilateral condyles (4) Unilateral condyle
OPENDEN (H)/10 4
In a patient suffering from liver disease, the main complication encountered duringextraction :
(1) Syncope (2) Post - operative infection
(3) Prolonged bleeding (4) Convulsions
For Reimplantation of avulsed tooth :
Curettage of socket is done
Curettage of root surface is done
Mild debridement of socket with saline
Root surface is treated with antibiotics
Advantage of NiTi over stainless steel file is :
(1) Resistance to fracture
(2) Flexible
(3) Cutting efficiency
(4) All
Black's classification of class II caries is :
Single proximal surface on posteriors
Mod cavity
Single proximal surface of anteriors
Both (1) and (2)
Pain in cracked tooth syndrome is :
(1) Continuous in nature (2) Variable as name indicates
(3) Elicited on pressure application (4) Elicited on relieving pressure
All of them are for infection control except :
(1) Surface disinfection
(2) Patient screening
(3) Septic technique
(4) Personal protection
OPENDEN (II)/10 5 P.T.O.
The chelating action of EDTA lasts for :
(1) 15 Min
(2) 1 Hour (3) 1 Week (4) 1 Day
Recommended splint period for avulsed tooth is :
(1) 2 - 8 wks
(2) 8 - 12 wks (3) 1 wk (4) 3 - 4 wks
Broach is used in :
(1) Pecking motion (2) Watch winding motion
3 th
(3) 360° Rotation (4) 4 Turn
In an endodontically treated tooth, the resorption rate is :
(1) More than normal tooth (2) Less than normal tooth
(3) More after 2 years (4) Same
Frozen slab technique of mixing zinc phosphate is used for :
(1) cementing crowns
(2) temporary dressing
(3) base
(4) cementing orthodontic bands
When white opacities are more extensive but do not involve more than 50% of the surfacedean's fluorosis index and grade is :
(1) 0.5 - Questionable (2) 1.0 - Very mild
(3) 2.0 - Mild (4) 3.0 Moderate
20. Anterior cross bite occurs due to all of the following except :
Labially Positioned Supernumerary
Trauma to primary anterior tooth
Arch length deficiency
Low tongue position
OPENDEN (II)/10 6
21. Paraplegia is characterised by involvement of :
Both legs only
One half of the body
All 4 limbs
One limb
22. Acyanotic congenital heart disease includes
Patients with left to right shunt
Patients with right to left shunt
Tricuspid valve atresia
Tetralogy of fallot
23. Endocarditis prophylaxis is recommended during following dental procedures except :
Dental extractions
Initial placement of orthodontic bands but not brackets
Intracanal endodontic treatment
Periodontal procedures
24. One of the following conditions causes speculated new bone formation at right angles to theouter cortical plate in the jaws.
Inflammatory lesions
Primary Intra - osseous carcinoma
Langerhan's cell histiocytosis
Metastatic lesions of prostate malignancy
Characteristic 'Tram - Line' calcifications in skill radiographs is observed in :
(1) Cleidocranial dysostoses (2) Struge - weber syndrome
(3) Paget's Disease (4) Mc Cline - Albright syndrome
Uremic stomatis in a patient with chronic renal failure usually manifest when :
Bun levels are higher than 150mg/dL
Bun levels are lower than 150mg/dL
Normal Bun levels
Not related to bun levels
OPENDEN (II)/10 7 P.T.O.
27. The head TILT procedure while dealing with an unconsious patient in dental chair is done toensure :
Patent airway
Blood circulation to the brain
To clear the foreign body obstacle
To relieve spasm of respiratory muscles
28. One of the following is drug of choice for acute allergic reaction (Anaphylaxis).
(1) Chloram Pheniramine (2) Diphen Hydramine
(3) Epinephrine (4) Nitroglycerin
Following gland is removed in surgery for a ranula.
(1) Submandibular gland
(2) Sublingual gland
(3) Parotid gland
(4) Lacrimal gland
Commonest site for a tuberculous sinus :
(1) Axilla (2) Neck
(3) Inguinal region (4) Foot
Causative organism for gas gangrene is :
(1) Streptococcus (2) Staphylococcus
(3) Fusiform (4) Clostridia
Golden period for treating wounds is upto :
(1) 2 hrs (2) 4 hrs (3) 6 hrs (4) 8 hrs
33. Anaplastic carcinoma of thyroid is treated by :
(1) Surgery (2) Radiotherapy
(3) Chemotherapy (4) None of the above
OPENDEN (H)/10 8
Calcified masses present in periodontal ligaments is known as :
(1) Denticles (2) Cementum
(3) Cementicles (4) Laminin
Predominant inorganic component of supragingival calculus is :
(1) Magnesium phosphate (2) Calcium carbonate
(3) Calcium phosphate (4) Carbon dioxide
36. High prevalence and increased severity of periodontal destruction associated with DownSyndrome is due to :
Poor PMN chemotaxis and phagocytosis
Mental retardation
Malocclusion
Poor oral hygiene
37. Glycosylated hemoglobin assay (HbAic) level of 4% — 6% indicates
(1) Normal value (2) Good diabetes control
(3) Moderate diabetes control
(4) Poor diabetes control
Which scaling instrument makes two point contact on tooth surface :
(1) Hoe scalers (2) Sickle scalers
(3) Chisel scalers (4) Curette
Following statement is true regarding apically displaced flap
It eliminates the pocket
Widens the zone of attached gingiva
It can be full thickness/split-thickness flap
All of the above
40. Bioactive glass (Perio glass) bone graft material is a type of :
(1) Autograft material (2) Allograft material
(3) Xenograft material (4) Non bone graft material
OPENDEN (H)/10 9 P.T.O.
The most common odontogenic cyst is :
(1) Keratocyst
(2) Dentigerous cyst
(3) Radicular cyst
(4) Lateral periodontal cyst
Oral mucosa is lined by :
Stratified squamous epithelium
Transitional epithelium
Simple columnar epithelium
Pseudostratified columnar ciliated epithelium
The cells that secrete dentinal matrix :
(1) Ameloblast (2) Odontoblast (3) Chondroblast (4) Osteoblast
The periodontium does not include :
(1) Cementum
(2) Dentin
(3) Periodontal ligament
(4) Bone lining the socket
Actinomycosis is an infection caused by
(1) Virus (2) Fungus
(3) Bacteria (4) Parasite
The "Starry sky" appearance is seen in :
(1) Burkitt's lymphoma
(2) Ewing's sarcoma
(3) Eosinophilic granuloma
(4) Rhabdomyosarcoma
Cusp of carabelli is seen in :
(1) Permanent maxillary first molar (2) Permanent mandibular first molar
(3) Deciduous maxillary first molar (4) Deciduous mandibular first molar
Tongue deviates to right side on protrusion because of paralysis of :
(1) Right hypoglossal nerve (2) Left hypoglossal nerve
(3) Lingual nerve (4) Right facial
49. Drug of choice for trigeminal neuralgia is :
(1) Carbamazepine (2) Phenobarbitone
(3) Chlorpromazine (4) Indomethacin
OPENDEN (II)/10 10
50. Most important triad of symptoms in portal hypertension :
Splenomegaly, Hepato Megaly, Ascites
Splenomegaly, Esophageal varices and ascites
Piles, splenomegaly and generalised anasarla
Esophageal varices, piles and generalised anasarla
51. Anemia, splenomegaly and structural defects are seen in :
(1) Thalassemia major (2) Thalassemia minor
(3) Mediterranean anemia (4) Polycythemia
All are true about angina except :
(1) Pain commonly retrosternally (2) Pain reduces by rest
(3) Pain mainly stabbing in nature (4) Pain radiates
Tanaka-Johnston analysis, predicts the width of un-erupted canines and premolars based onsum of :
(1) The width of upper incisors (2) The width of lower incisors
(3) The width of molars (4) None of the above
Development of palate begins at the age of :
(1) 4 weeks (2) 6 weeks
(3) 13 weeks (4) 18 weeks
Growth of child in height and eruption of teeth is more in :
(1) Early morning hours (2) Afternoon hours
(3) Evening hours (4) Night hours
56. The term Hollywood smile refers to :
Generalised. spacing in permanent dentition
Generalised spacing in deciduous dentition
Lack of spacing in deciduous dentition
Prosthesis to close anterior spacing
57. Which is type II hypersensitivity ?
(1) Anaphylaxis
(2) Delayed hypersensitivity
(3) Immune complex mediated
(4) Cytotoxic / cytolytic type
58. Rheumatic fever is associated with :
(1) Heart (2) Liver
(3) Bone (4) Kidney
OPENDEN (H)/10 11 P.T.O.
Bacterial cell does not possess :
(1) DNA (2) Ribosome (3) Mitochondria (4)
Which organism causes dental caries ?
Cell wall
(1) Candida tropicalis (2) Staphylococcus pyogenes
(3) Streptococcus mutans (4) Bacillus anthracis
Rubber Gloves and glove powder are sterilised by :
(1) Auto clave (2) Hot-air
(3) Uv rays (4) Formaldehyde
Fibrinogen is converted into fibrin by :
(1) Thrombin (2) Prothrombin activator
(3) Prothrombin (4) Calcium
Normal Tidal volume is :
(1) 500 ml (2) 700 ml (3) 300 ml (4) 1000 ml
Structural and functional unit of nervous system :
(1) Neuron (2) Nephron (3) Neuroglia (4) Giant cell
Hormone responsible for milk ejection :
(1) Oxytocin (2) Estrogen (3) Progesterone (4) Prolactin
The hormone that lowers blood Glucose level :
(1) Cortisol (2) Growth hormone (3) Glucagon (4) Insulin
Number of ATP produced by complete aerobic oxidation of glucose is :
(1) 8 ATP (2) 12 ATP (3) 32 ATP (4) 38 ATP
Lingual plating should be supported :
By the inclined surfaces of the mandibular incisors
With Bracing Arms
With the rests
With minor connector
OPENDEN (II)710 12
The optimum degree of taper for a maxillary molar as an abutment for fixed partial dentureis :
(1) 10° (2) 14°
(3) 17° (4) 19°
Electrolyte used for plating copper dies is :
(1)
Ionic copper
(2) Copper cyanide
(3)
Silver cyanide
(4) Acidic copper sulphate
Denture acrylics contain cross-linking agents, mainly to improve their :
(1)
Internal color
(2) Tissue compatibility
(3)
Surface hardness
(4) Craze resistance
Separating the roots of a maxillary molar without removing a root is known as :
(1) Skyfurcation (2) Trifurcation (3) Bifurcation (4) Bicuspidation
In mandibular guide flange prosthesis, flange extension should be preferably in the region of :
(1) Maxillary IInd molar (2) Maxillary IInd premolar
(3) Anterior to maxillary premolar (4) On any tooth
RPI stands for :
Occlusal rest, proximal guide planes, I BAR
Occlusal rest, proximal plate, I BAR
Occlusal rest, proximal plate, Indirect Retainer
Cingulum rest, proximal guide plane, I BAR
In gothic arch tracing, the apex indicates :
(1) Centric relation
(2) Centric occlusion
(3) Protrusive relation
(4) Physiologic rest position
Tripoding is done :
To record the orientation of the cast to the surveyor
To get the desired path of insertion
To record the undercut areas on the abutment teeth.
To record the orientation of the cast to the articulator.
OPENDEN (II)/10 13 P.T.O.
77. Beyron point is located at :
11 mm anterior to posterior margin of tragus on a line parallel to and 7 mm belowFrankfurt horizontal plane
13 mm anterior to posterior margin of tragus on a line from center of tragus to outercanthus.
13 mm anterior to tragus on a line from base of tragus to outer canthus
(4) 10 mm anterior to posterior margin of tragus on a line from center of tragus to outercanthus.
78. The following statements about verpamil are true except :
It does not produce reflex tachycardia
It is less potent as a coronary vasodilator
It is contraindicated in patients with supraventricular tachycardia
It can cause constipation
79. Use of morphine is contraindicated in the following conditions except :
Head injury
Acute myocardial infardation
Acute abdominal pain before diagnosis
Bronchial asthama
80. Agents used by local application to control bleeding include all of the following except :
(1) Tannic acid (2) Gelatin foam (3) Adrenaline (4) Vitamin-K
Therapeutic uses of calcium salts include the following except :
(1) Osteoporosis (2) Disorders of coagulation
(3) Laryngospasm (4) Extreme hyper-kalemia
Mode of action of sulphonyl ureas include all the following except :
Activating receptors on beta cells of pancreas to release insulin
Inhibiting Gluconeogenesis in liver
Enhancing insulin mediated post receptor enzyme reaction
Decreasing Glucose absorption from the gut.
OPENDEN (II)/10 14
Facial palsy involves :
(1) 5th nerve (2) 6th nerve
(3) 7th nerve (4) 9th nerve
Parotid duct opens :
(1) Lower 2nd molar (2) Upper 2nd molar
(3) Lower anteriors (4) Lower premolars
Ist arch artery is :
(1) Maxillary artery
(2) Mandibular artery
(3) Carotid artery
(4) Stapeded artery
As transverse venous sinus continues as :
(1) Straight sinus
(2) Cavernous sinus
(3) Sigmoid sinus
(4) Ethmoidal sinus
Ascending palatine is branch of artery :
(1) Maxillary (2) Facial
(3) Lingual (4) Pharyngeal
A most unsanitary method that creates public health hazards, nuisance and severe pollutionof the environment is :
(1) Incineration (2) Controlled tipping
(3) Dumping (4) Composting
89. The global monitoring age for caries for international comparison and monitoring diseasetrends.
(1) 7 years (2) 11 years (3) 12 years (4) 14 years
90. The following term is used to describe the impact of school based health education programmeson parents :
(1) Side effect (2) Secondary effect
(3) Ripple effect (4) String effect
- o 0 o -
OPENDEN (II)/10 15 P.T.O.
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
OPENDEN (II)/10 16