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Target Scholarship cum Admission Test (TSCAT) Regular Classroom Program for One Year (RCPOY)
Time Allowed: 1½ Hours Maximum Marks: 300
Student’s Name : _______________________________________ Roll No. :
Centre Name : _______________________________________
Contact No. : _______________________________________
INSTRUCTIONS FOR MARKING ON ANSWER SHEET
1. Use only ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.
2. Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
3. Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each question .
4. For each correct answer the candidate will get 4 marks. There is no negative marking for wrong answers.
The maximum marks are 300.
5. Candidate should check the test paper carefully, in case of any discrepancy, the candidate should report
immediately to the invigilator for replacement of the both i.e. the test booklet and answer-sheet.
6. Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet.
SIGNATURE OF THE CANDIDATE SIGNATURE OF THE INVIGILATOR
EAST DELHI CENTER:
106 1ST Floor, Pragati Deep Building ,District Centre, Laxminager,
DELHI-110092, (Near V3S Mall, Nirman Vihar Metro Station)
Contact No: 011-65007177, 43034114, 9268777177 and 9250070177
Email: [email protected]
WWW.TARGETIITJEEPMTCLASSES.COM
1
PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer:
1. Following is a branch of a complete network through which 5. In LCR series circuit, the voltage across each element is
a net current of 3A is passing as shown 20 volt. What will be voltage across the inductor if
2
6V,1W 3
9V,1W 4
capacitor is shortcirculated?
(1) 10V (2) 20V
A
B
3A
(3) 20
V (4) 20
The potential difference between A & B is
2V
2
(1) 27V (2)
30V
6. A ball of mass 10 kg is moving with a velocity of 10 m/s. It
(3) 24V (4) –24V strikes another ball of mass 5 kg which is moving in the
2. Three conducting rods of same material and crosssection same direction with a velocity of 4m/s. If the collision is
elastic, their velocities after the collision will be,
are shown in figure. Temperatures of A, D and C are
respectively
maintained at 30°C, 90°C and 0°C. The ratio of length of
(1) 12 m/s; 25 m/s (2) 12 m/s; 10 m/s
BD and BC, if there is no heat, flow in AB, is
A B C (3) 12 m/s; 25 m/s (4) 6 m/s; 12 m/s
30°C 0°C 7. A white light source is used in Young’s double slit
experiment instead of monochormatic source of light. Then
(1) No fringes will observed
(2) Central fringe will be white surrounded by coloured
D
90°C
fringes in which red coloured fringe occurs first
1
1
(3) Central fringe will be white surrounded by coloured
(1)
(2)
fringes in which violet coloured fringe occurs first
2 3
(4) All fringes will be white
(3) 3
(4)
2
8. A face PR of a prism PQR of angle 30° is silvered. A ray of
1 1
3. The effective capacitance between points A and B of the light is incident of face PQ at an angle of 45° as shown.
The refracted ray retraces its path after striking face PR.
given capacitor network is
The refractive index of the prism is
P
C
30°
C
C
C
A
45°
B
C
C
C
Q
R
(1)
2C (2)
3C (1)
(2)
3
3
2
2
2
(3) 3C (4)
7C
2
2
(3) 1.5
(4)
3
4. A freshly prepared radioactive source of half life 2hr, emits radiation of intensity which is 64 times the permissible safe
9. A graph of the xcomponent of electric field as a function
level. The minimum time after which it would be possible of x in a region of space is shown in the following figure.
The y and zcomponents of electric field are zero in this
to work safely with this source is
region. If the electric potential at the origin is 10V, What is
(1) 6 hr (2) 12 hr
the electric potential at x = 2.0 m
(3) 24 hr (4) 128 hr
2
+20
Ex
O
x(m)
2 4 5
(N/C)
–20
(1) 30V (2) 20V
(3) 40V (4) –10V
10. What is the output waveform (V0) in the given diode
circuit? A R
+5V
D
V0
–5V
B
(1) +5V
(2) +2.5V
(3)
(4)
–5V
–2.5V
11. In the given network of resistances the heat produced in 5W resistor is 10 cal/sec. What is the heat produced
in 4W register? 4W 6W
I
5W
(1) 4 cal/sec (2) 8 cal/sec
(3) 2 cal/sec (4) 10 cal/sec 12. The ratio of minimum to maximum wavelength in
Balmer series of Hydrogen atom is
(1) 5 : 9 (2) 5 : 36
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 3 : 4 13. For the given logic circuit, the output is high, if
A
Y
B
C
(1) A = 0, B = 1, C = 1 (2) A = 1, B = 0, C = 0
(3) A = 0, B = 0, C= 1 (4) All of these
14. In a photoelectric cell, the wavelength of incident
light is changed from 4000 Å to 3600 Å. The change
in stopping potential will be
(1) 0.14V (2) 0.24V
(3) 0.35V (4) 0.44V 15. A uniform rope having mass m hangs vertically from
a rigid support. A traverse wave pulse is produced at
the lower end, the speed v of wave pulse varies, with
height h from the lowest end, as
(1) v (2) v
h h
v
(4) v
(3)
h h
16. Two polarioids are kept crossed to each other. Now one of
the them is rotated through an angle of 90°. The percent
age of incident light now transmitted through the system
is
(1) 0% (2) 25%
(3) 50% (4) 60% 17. A small circular coil of radius r is placed
concentricallywith a bigger circular coil of radius R (R
>> r). If the loops are coplanar, the mutual induction
of the system is directly proportional to
R r (1) (2) r R
(3) R2 (4) r2
r R 18. A magnetised wire of moment M is bent into an arc
of a circle subtending an angle of 60° at the centre,
then the new magnetic moment is
(1) 2M
(2) M
p p
3
3M
(3) 3M
(4)
p p
3 19. Figure shows two concentric conducting shells of
radii r and 2r. the outer shall is given a change Q.
The amount of charge that will flow from inner shell
to earth, when it is grounded, is
Q
r
O
2r
(1) - Q (2) + Q
2 2
(3) –2Q (4) +2Q
20. A force of 20 N is applied on a body of mass 5 kg resting
on a horizontal plane. The body gains a kinetic energy of
10 J after it moves a distance of 2 m. The frictional force is (1) 10 N (2) 30 N
(3) 15 N (4) 20 N
21. The resistance of a galvanometer is 6W . The maximum
of 2A is measured by it. Then the required resistance, to convert it into an ammeter reading upto 6A, will be
(1) 5W (2) 4W
(3) 3W (4) 2W 22. A Zener diode, having breakdown voltage equal to
15 V (also known as Zener voltage Vz = 15V) is used in a voltage regular circuit shown in the figure
250W +
15V 1k W
20V
–
The current through diode is
(1) 10 mA (2) 15 mA
(3) 20 mA (4) 5 mA
23. In LR series circuit, the voltage across R varies as shown in the diagram. Which of the following graph
correctlygives the VL as a function of time t
VR O
t
VL VL
(1) 0 t (2) 0 t
VL VL
(3) 0 t (4) 0 t 24. A ray of light is incident on a transparent sphere of radius
R at an angle of 60° with respect to the diameter AB as
shown. The emergent ray is parallel to the diameter AB.
The refractive index of the material of sphere is
A O B 60°
R sphere
(1) 3
(2) 2
3 (3)
2
1
(4) 2 25. Starting from origin a body oscillates simple
harmonically with period of 2 sec. After what time will
its kinetic energy be 75% of the total energy?
1
(1) 6 sec
1
(2) 4 sec
1
(3) 3 sec
1
(4) 12 sec
4
CHEMISTRY
26. Tautomerism is not possible in 31. The molar conductances of BaCl2, HCl and H2SO4 at
O
infinite dilutions are x1, x2 and x3 respectively. The molar
conductance of BaSO4 at infinite dilution is
||
(1) CH 3 - C- CH = CH2 (1) x1 + x2 - 2 x3 (2) x1 + x3 - 2 x2
(2) –CH=CH–OH (3) x + x - x (4) x1 + x3 - x2
2
(3)
CH2=N–OH
1 3 2
32. Which of the following is an oxide?
(4) CH2=CH–CH2–OH
27. The rate constant, the activation energy and Arrhenius (1) KO2 (2) MnO2
parameter of a chemical reaction at 25ºC are 2×10–4
sec–1
, (3) BaO2 (4) Na2O2
132 kJ mol–1
and 4×1010
sec–1
respectively. The value of 33. In cubic close packed structure of mixed oxides, the lattice
rate constant at T ® ¥ 4×10
10 sec
–1 is made up of oxide ions, 20% of tetrahedral voids are
(1) 2×10–4
sec–1 (2) occupied by divalent X
2+ ions and 50% of the octahedral
(3) 132 sec–1 (4) ¥ voids are occupied by trivalent Y
3+ ions. The formula of
28.
K1
The rate of disappearance of oxide is
2SO + O 2SO
2 2 ˆˆˆ† 3 (1) X YO (2) X Y O
‡ˆˆˆ
K
2 2 4 4 5 10
SO 3 will be (3) X
5Y
4O
10 (4) XY2O4
(1) K1[SO2]2[O2]–K2[SO3]
2
34. A 0.5 molal aqueous solution of weak monobasic acid is
(2) 2K [SO ]2[O ]–2K [SO ]
2 20% ionised. The depression in freezing point of solution
(3)
1 2 2 2 2 2 3 is (Kf = 1.8 kkg mol–1)
2K [SO ] –2K [SO ] [O ]
2 3 1 2 2
(1) 1.08°C
(2) –1.08°C
(4) 2K [SO ]2
2 3
(3) –0.9°C
(4) 0.9°C
29. Saytzeff product becomes major in
35. When HgI2 is added to an aqueous solution of KI
(1)
CH3 - CH2 - CH- CH
alc. KOH
3 ¾¾ ¾¾® (1) Boiling point increases
| D
(2) Boiling point decreases
F
(3) Freezing point decreases
(2)
CH3 - CH2
NaNH2 (4) Osmotic pressure increases
- CH- CH3 ¾ ¾ ¾¾®
| D 36. What would happen when a solution of potassium
Cl
chromate is treated with an excess of dilute HNO3?
CH3
| alc. KOH (1) Cr O2– and H2O are formed
(3)
CH3 - C - CH2 - CH- CH3
¾¾ ¾¾® 2 7
| | D
CH3 Cl (2) CrO42– is reduced to +3 state or Cr
H+
(4) CH3 - CH2 - CH2 - CH2 - OH¾¾® D
30. The voltameter A and B are connected in series. The
efficiency of current is 100% in voltameter A but is 40% in (4) Cr3+
and Cr O2– are formed
2 7
B. If we get 0.04 mole of a Ba at cathode in voltameter A 37. How much AgCl will be formed by adding 200 ml of 5 N
using BaCl2 as electrolyte then what will be the moles of HCl to a solution containing 1.7 g AgNO3
gas evolved at S.T.P. at cathode in voltameter B if (Molar mass = 170)?
electrolyte used is aq. NaCl?
(1) 4.5 g
(2) 1.435 g
(1) 0.016 (2) 0.04
(3) 2.568 g
(4) 2.98 g
(3) 0.16 (4) 0.024
(3) CrO
2–4 is oxidised to +7 state of Cr
5
38. Which of the following compounds show optical (1) a > b > d > c
isomerism? (2) a > b > c > d
(1) cis - [Co(NH3)4 Cl2 ]+ (3) d > c > b > a
(2) trans - [Co(en)2 Cl2 ]+
(4) c > b > a > d
43. For which of the following molecules µ = 0?
(3) cis [Ni(gly)]2– (1) HO OH (2) HS SH
(4) [Cr(ox)3]3–
Cl
1665 K T®
(3)
(4) NC CN
0 Cl
3 Al O
2Al+ ® 2 3
39. 2 O2 44. Number of nodal plane is maximum in
(1) 7s
(2) 6p
DG 1 gO
Mg + ®M
O2
(3) 5d
(4) 4f
2
45. Which one of the following pairs are diastereomers?
Select the correct statement considering the given ellingham
diagram CH3 CHO
(1) MgO can reduce Al2O3 at any temperature
(1) | |
H - C- OH and HO - C - H
(2) MgO can reduce Al2O3 above 1665 K | |
(3) MgO can reduce Al2O3 below 1665 K CH 3 CH 3
CHO
CHO
(4) Mg can reduce Al2O3 below 1665 K
| |
40. Oxidising power of ClO— ,ClO2— ,ClO3
— ,ClO4— is H - C - OH HO - C - H
| |
(1) ClO — < ClO2— < ClO4
— < ClO3— (2) H – C – OH and HO – C – H
| |
(2) ClO — > ClO2— > ClO3
— > ClO4— CH2OH CH2OH
(3) ClO 2— > ClO3— > ClO4
— > ClO— COOH COOH
(4) ClO 3—
> ClO2— > ClO4
— < ClO—
(3) |
and |
H - C- Br Br - C - H
41. The given reaction | |
C6H 5
C6H 5
O O
OH
C H
|| || (i)conc. NaOH / D H
| (4) H3C H3C
and H3C H
5 - C- C- H ¾¾ ¾ ¾ ¾¾® C
5 - CH- COOH C=C C=C
6 Å O 6
H H
H
H3C
(ii)H/OH
46. If thesolubilityof Hg2I2 is x, then the solubility product is
is known as
(1) Intramolecular Cannizzaro reaction (1) x2 (2) 4x
3
(2) Internal cross Cannizzaro reaction (3) 16x4 (4) 2x
2
(3) Intermolecular Cannizzaro reaction 47. Which one of the following compounds is aromatic?
(4) Redox reaction
42. What is the correct order of reactivity of the following
(1)
(2)
carbonyl compounds for nucleophilic addition reaction? O O
(a) O2N
CHO (b) NC
CHO
(3)
(4)
H
NO2
(c) H3C
CHO (d)
CHO
+
6 48. Write the correct order of acidity?
CH3 COOH
COOH
(I) (II)
COOH
COOH
(III) (IV)
NO2
OCH3
(1) II > I > III > II (2) IV > I > III > II
(3) III > I > II > IV (4) IV > II > I > III
49. The stability of the compounds din the decreasing
order is as follows:
(I) (II)
(III) (IV)
(1) I > II > III > IV (2) IV > III > II > I
(3) III > IV > I > II (4) IV > III > I > II 50. A compound (A), C5H10O, forms a phenyl hydrazone and
gives negative Tollen’s and iodoform tests. The compound
on reduction gives npentane. The compound (A) is: (1) Pentanol
(2) Pentanone2
(3) Pentanone3
(4) Amyl alcohol
BIOLOGY
51. Which one of the following is a vascular cryptogam? (3) Through elimination of repetitive DNA
(1) Marchantia (2) Cedrus (4) Deletion of nonessential genes
(3) Equisetum (4) Ginkgo 56. Which one of the following is surrounded by a callose
52. In the DNA molecule wall?
(1) Male gamete (2) Egg
(1) There are two strands which run Antiparallelone in
(3) Pollen grain (4) Microspore mother cell
5¢ 3¢ direction and other in 3¢ 5¢
(2) The total amount of purine nucleotides and pyrimidine 57. Which of the following is a flowering plant with nodules
nucleotides is not always equal containing filamentous nitrogenfixing microorganism?
(1) Crotalaria juncea (2) Cycas revoluta
(3) There are two strands which run parallel in the 5¢ ® 3¢
(3) Cicer arietimum (4) Casuarina equisetifolia
direction
(4) The proportion ofAdenine in relation to thymine varies 58. Which one of the following pairs, is not correctly matched?
with the organism (1) Gibberellic acid – Leaf fall
53. Senescence as an active developmental cellular process in (2) Cytokinin – Cell division
the growth and functioning of a flowering plant, is (3) IAA – Cell wall elongation
indicated in (4) Abscissic acid – Stomatal closure
(1) Floral parts (2) Vessels and tracheid differentiation (3) Leaf abscission (4) Annual plants
54. Cry 1 endotoxins obtained from Bacillus
Thuringiensis are effective against (1) Boll worms (2) Mosquitoes 60. How many organisms in the list given below are
(3) Flies (4) Nematodes autotrophs?
Lactobacillus, Nostoc, Chara, Nitrosomonas, Nitrobacter,
55. The length of DNA molecule greatly exceeds the
Streptomyces, Sacharomyces, Trypanosoma, Porphyra,
dimensions of the nucleus in eukaryotic cells. How is this
Wolfia
DNA accommodated?
(1) Six (2) Three
59. Which one of the following statements about Mycoplasma is wrong?
(1) They are pleomorphic
(2) They are sensitive to penicillin
(3) They cause diseases in plants
(4) They are also called PPLO
(1) Supercoiling in nucleosomes
(3) Four (4) Five
(2) DNase digestion
7
61. Which one of the following statements is wrong in case 69. In myopia image form
of Bhopal tragedy? (1) Behind the retina (2) Before retina
(1) Methyl isocyanate gas leakage took place (3) At retina (4) At choroid
(2) Thousands of human beings died 70. Identify the correctly matched pairs of the germs layers
(3) Radioactive fall out engulfed Bhopal and their derivatives
(4) It took place in the night of December 2/3, 1984 I. Ectoderm : Epidermis
62. More than 70% of world’s fresh water in contained in II. Endoderm : Dermis
III. Mesoderm : Muscles
(1) Polar ice (2) Antarctica
IV. Mesoderm : Notochord
(3) Green land (4) Glaciers and mountains
V. Endoderm : Enamel of teeth
63. Both, hydrarch and xerach successions lead to
(1) I, III and IV only (2) I, II, III and V only
(1)
Medium water conditions
(3) I and IV only (4) I and II only
(2)
Xeric conditions
71. By the time of _____________ mya, invertebrates were
(3)
Highly dry conditions
formed and active
(4)
Excessive wet conditions
(1) 500 (2) 350
64 Deposition of cholesterol/lipid cap over head of sperm (3) 200 (4) 320
leads to 72. Match the causative organisms with their diseases
(1)
Decapacitation of sperm
ColumnI Column II
(2)
Capacitation of sperm
A. Haemophilus influenza (i) Malignant malaria
(3) Decapitation of sperm B. Entamoeba histolytica (ii) Elephantiasis
(4) Necrosis of sperm C. Plasmodium falciparum (iii) Pneumonia
65. __________ and __________ have same ploidy D. Wuchereria bancrofti (iv) Typhoid
(1) Primary oocyte and secondary spermatocyte E. Salmonella typhi (v) Amoebiasis
(2) Primary oocyte and spermatid (1) Ai, Bv, Ciii, Dii, Eiv
(3) Spermatid and second polar body (2) Aiii, Bv, Ci, Dii, Eiv
(4) Second polar body and primary oocyte (3) Av, Bi, Ciii, Div, Eii
66. Hodgkins disease is (4) Ai, Biii, Cii, Dv, Eiv
(1) Cancer of the lymphoid tissue 73. Mark the correct statement/s for Polio vaccine
(a) Sabin is OPV
(2) Cancer of the mammary gland
(b) Salk is live attenuated vaccine
(3) Cancer of the WBC
(c) Salk is given orally
(4) Cancer of the liver
(d) Sabin is killed vaccine
67. Isinglass, a type of by product of fish industry is principally
(1) a and b (2) b and c
used for
(3) b, c and d (4) a only
(1) Feeding cattle, pigs and poultry
74. Drugs that cause malformations in embryo during
(2) Preparation of paints and varnishes
pregnancy are called
(3) Clarification of vinegar, wines and beer
(1) Tranquilizer (2) Tetratogens
(4)
Production of insulin
(3) Alcoholic beverages (4) Nicotine
68. Number of meiotic divisions are required to produce 101 75. Circular mouth, scales absent, cartilagenous endoskeleton
and 105 zygote and mostly ectoparasites are features of
(1) 101 and 26 (2) 132 and 127
(1) Chondrichthyes (2) Osteichthyes
(3) 101 and 105 (4) 127 and 132 (3) Cyclostome (4) Cephalochordate
ANSWER SHEET
1. (2) 14. (3) 27. (2) 40. (2)
2. (3) 15. (1) 28. (3) 41. (2)
3. (1) 16. (3) 29. (4) 42. (1)
4. (2) 17. (4) 30. (1) 43. (4)
5. (3) 18. (4) 31. (2) 44. (4)
6. (4) 19. (2) 32. (2) 45. (4)
7. (3) 20. (3) 33. (2) 46. (2)
8. (1) 21. (3) 34. (1) 47. (1)
9. (1) 22. (4) 35. (2) 48. (3)
10. (3) 23. (3) 36. (1) 49. (2)
11. (3) 24. (1) 37. (2) 50. (3)
12. (1) 25. (1) 38. (4) 51. (3)
13. (4) 26. (4) 39. (4) 52. (1)
53. (3) 66. (1)
54. (1) 67. (3)
55. (1) 68. (4)
56. (4) 69. (2)
57. (4) 70. (1)
58. (1) 71. (1)
59. (2) 72. (2)
60. (1) 73. (4)
61. (3) 74. (2)
62. (1) 75. (3)
63. (1)
64 (1)
65. (3)