Class XIII (Spartan Batch)

Class XIII (Spartan Batch)XI NCERT Unit 14-Oscillations (SHM) | XI NCERT Unit 15-Waves

2GCI DTS (Diamond Test Series Part-I) for NEET - 2021 | 21/06/2021

1. A particle perform SHM. Its motion is given by

42

2

d x

dt + 320x = 0. Find out time period of oscillation -

(1) 2

5 3

sec

(2)

3 2 sec

(3)

2 5 sec

(4) 2

3

sec

2. Graph between velocity (v) and displacement (x) of a

particle performing SHM is shown in figure. Find time period

of oscillation -

–10 +10

–40

+40

x(cm)

v(cm/s)

(1) 2

sec

(2) sec

(3) 2 sec

(4) 3 sec

3. Find ratio of amplitude of given equation of SHM -

y1 = 6 cos 6

6

t

F

HG

I

KJ ; y

2 = 3( 3 sin 3t + cos 3t)

(1) 1

(2) 1 : 2

(3) 2 : 1

(4) 1 : 4

1.

42

2

d x

dt + 320x = 0

(1) 2

5 3

sec

(2)

3 2 sec

(3)

2 5 sec

(4) 2

3

sec

2. (v) (x)

–10 +10

–40

+40

x(cm)

v(cm/s)

(1) 2

sec

(2) sec

(3) 2 sec

(4) 3 sec

3.

y1 = 6 cos 6

6

t

F

HG

I

KJ ; y

2 = 3( 3 sin 3t + cos 3t)

(1) 1

(2) 1 : 2

(3) 2 : 1

(4) 1 : 4

https://www.print-driver.com/?demolabel-en



4. If acceleration of SHM is given by a = – 32 cos (4t) m/s2

then find out amplitude of SHM -

(1) 2.0 m

(2) 8.4 m

(3) 16.8 m

(4) 17.64 m

5. A body of mass 'm' hangs from three springs, each of spring

constant 'K' as shown. If the mass is slightly displaced and

released, the mass will oscillate with time period -

m

K

KK

(1) 23

m

K

(2) 23

2

m

K

(3) 22

3

m

K

(4) 23

K

m

6. A particle is performing SHM with amplitude 'a' and time

period 4 sec. Find out time taken by it to move from extreme

position to mean position -

(1) 1 sec

(2) 1

3 sec

(3) 2

3 sec

(4) 4

3 sec

4. a = – 32 cos (4t) m/s2

(1) 2.0 m

(2) 8.4 m

(3) 16.8 m

(4) 17.64 m

5. 'm'

'K'

m

K

KK

(1) 23

m

K

(2) 23

2

m

K

(3) 22

3

m

K

(4) 23

K

m

6. a 4 sec

(1) 1 sec

(2) 1

3 sec

(3) 2

3 sec

(4) 4

3 sec




7. A particle is performing SHM. The average velocity in one

complete oscillation will be -

(1) A

(2) A2

(3) A

2

(4) Zero

8. At what displacement from mean position, kinetic energy

of a particle executing SHM is double of its potential energy–

(amplitude of ocillation is A)

(1) A

2

(2) 2

3A

(3) A

2

(4) A

3

9. A particle starts SHM from mean position at time t = 0. If

its amplitude is A and time period is T, the distance travelled

by the particle in the time interval from t = 0 to t = 5

4

T is-

(1) 5

4A

(2) A

(3) 5A

(4) 4

5A

10. A platform performs simple harmonic oscillations in a vertical

direaction. The amplitude of oscillations is 20 cm. A coin

placed on the top of the platform dose not separate from it,

the least time period of these oscillation is (g = 9.8 m/s2)

(1) 0.3 sec

(2) 0.6 sec

(3) 0.9 sec

(4) 1.2 sec

7.

(1) A

(2) A2

(3) A

2

(4)

8. SHM

( A )

(1) A

2

(2) 2

3A

(3) A

2

(4) A

3

9. t = 0

A T t = 0

t = 5

4

T

(1) 5

4A

(2) A

(3) 5A

(4) 4

5A

10.

20 cm

(g = 9.8 m/s2)

(1) 0.3 sec

(2) 0.6 sec

(3) 0.9 sec

(4) 1.2 sec




11. A mass attached to one end of a spring perform SHM

horizontally with frequency of 1

2Hz and total energy of

40 J. if maximum speed is 0.8 m/s, spring constant of the

spring is -

(1) 250 N/m

(2) 500 N/m

(3) 125 N/m

(4) 1000 N/m

12. A particle is performing SHM with amplitude A and its

maximum speed is V0. Find out its speed when its

displacement from mean position is 3

4

A -

(1) 7

4V

0

(2) V0

2

(3) V0

(4) 3

2V

0

13. The time period of oscillation of simple pendulum is 1 minute.

If its length is increased by 44%, then its new time period

of oscillation will be -

(1) 84 sec

(2) 104 sec

(3) 72 sec

(4) 60 sec

14. The circular motion of particle with constant speed is –

(1) Simple harmonic but not periodic

(2) Periodic and simple harmonic

(3) Neither periodic nor simple harmonic

(4) Periodic but not simple harmonic

11.

1

2Hz 40 J

0.8 m/s

(1) 250 N/m

(2) 500 N/m

(3) 125 N/m

(4) 1000 N/m

12. A

V0

3

4

A

(1) 7

4V

0

(2) V0

2

(3) V0

(4) 3

2V

0

13. 1

44%

(1) 84 sec

(2) 104 sec

(3) 72 sec

(4) 60 sec

14. –

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)




15. A 2.5 kg block is attached to a spring of spring constant

250 Nm–1. It slides without friction over a horizontal surface.

It is displaced from its equilibrium position by 20 cm and

released. Calculate the maximum speed of oscillation.

(1) 2 ms–1

(2) 4 ms–1

(3) 1 ms–1

(4) 8 ms–1

16. For a body in SHM as it moves from extreme position to

the mean position then its –

(1) Potential energy decreases, kinetic energy increases

(2) Kinetic energy decreases, potential energy increases

(3) Both potential energy and kinetic energy increases

(4) Both potential energy and kinetic energy decreases

17. A simple pendulum of length l is hanging from the ceiling

of an elevator moving up with a constnat velocity v. The

time period of the oscillation of simple pendulum is –

(1) 2

g v

(2) 2

g

(3) 2v

g

(4) 2

v

18. In damped oscillations, the amplitude after 5 s. is 0.6 a0,

where a0 is the initial amplitude, then determine amplitude

after next 5 s -

(1) 0.216 a0

(2) 0.36 a0

(3) 0.64 a0

(4) 0.88 a0

15. 2.5 kg 250

Nm–1

20 cm

–

(1) 2 ms–1

(2) 4 ms–1

(3) 1 ms–1

(4) 8 ms–1

16. SHM

–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17. l v

(1) 2

g v

(2) 2

g

(3) 2v

g

(4) 2

v

18. 5 s 0.6 a0 a

0

5 s

(1) 0.216 a0

(2) 0.36 a0

(3) 0.64 a0

(4) 0.88 a0




19. For the stationary wave y = 4 sin x

15

F

HGI

KJ cos (96 t), the

distance between a node and the next antinode is -

(1) 7.5

(2) 15

(3) 22.5

(4) 30

20. A tuning fork whose frequency as given by manufacturer is

512 Hz is being tested with an accurate oscillator. It is found

that the fork produces a beat of 2 Hz when oscillator reads

514 Hz put produces a beat of 6 Hz when oscillator reads

510 Hz. The actual frequency of the fork is -

(1) 508 Hz

(2) 512 Hz

(3) 516 Hz

(4) 518 Hz

21. Two sound waves of wavelengths 5m and 6m formed 30

beats in 3 seconds. The velocity of sound is -

(1) 300 ms–1

(2) 310 ms–1

(3) 320 ms–1

(4) 330 ms–1

22. Consecutive frequencies emitted from an organ pipe are

75 Hz, 125 Hz and 175 Hz, the frequency of the 10th overtone

will be -

(1) 275 Hz

(2) 175 Hz

(3) 525 Hz

(4) 575 Hz

23. The echo of a gunshot is heard 8 sec after the gun is fired.

How far from him is the surface that reflects the sound

(velocity of sound in air = 350 m/s)

(1) 1400 m

(2) 2800 m

(3) 700 m

(4) 350 m

19. y = 4 sin x

15

F

HGI

KJ cos (96 t)

(1) 7.5

(2) 15

(3) 22.5

(4) 30

20. 512 Hz

514 Hz

2 510 Hz 6

(1) 508 Hz

(2) 512 Hz

(3) 516 Hz

(4) 518 Hz

21. 5m 6m 3 sec 30

(1) 300 ms–1

(2) 310 ms–1

(3) 320 ms–1

(4) 330 ms–1

22. 75 Hz, 125

Hz 175 Hz 10

(1) 275 Hz

(2) 175 Hz

(3) 525 Hz

(4) 575 Hz

23. 8 sec

( = 350 m/s)

(1) 1400 m

(2) 2800 m

(3) 700 m

(4) 350 m




24. On pruducing the waves of frequency 1000 Hz in a Kundt's

tube, the total distance between 6 successive nodes is 85

cm. Speed of sound in the gas filled in the tube is -

(1) 330 m/s

(2) 340 m/s

(3) 350 m/s

(4) 300 m/s

25. A source of sound of frequency 450 cycles/sec is moving

towards a stationary observer with 34 m/s speed. If the

speed of sound is 340 m/s, then the apparent frequency

will be -

(1) 410 cycles/sec

(2) 500 cycles/sec

(3) 550 cycles/sec

(4) 450 cycles/sec

26. At which temperature the speed of sound in hydrogen will

be the same as that of the speed of sound in oxygen at

100°C -

(1) – 148 °C

(2) – 212.5 °C

(3) – 317.5 °C

(4) – 249.7 °C

27. A plane wave is represented by x = 1.2 sin (314t + 12.56y)

Where x and y are distances measured along x and y

direction in meters and t is time in seconds. This wave has

(1) A wavelength of 0.25m and travels in positive x-direction.

(2) A wavelength of 0.25m and travels in positive y-direction.

(3) A wavelength of 0.5m and travels in negative y-direction.

(4) A wavelength of 0.5m and travels in negative x-direction.

28. A point source emits sound equally in all directions. Two

points P and Q are at distances of 2 m and 3 m respectively

from the source. The ratio of the intensities of the waves

at P and Q is -

(1) 9 : 4

(2) 2 : 3

(3) 3 : 2

(4) 4 : 9

24. 1000 Hz 6

85 cm

(1) 330 m/s

(2) 340 m/s

(3) 350 m/s

(4) 300 m/s

25. 450 cycles/sec

34 m/s 340 m/s

(1) 410 cycles/sec

(2) 500 cycles/sec

(3) 550 cycles/sec

(4) 450 cycles/sec

26. 100°C

(1) – 148 °C

(2) – 212.5 °C

(3) – 317.5 °C

(4) – 249.7 °C

27. x = 1.2 sin (314t + 12.56y)

x y, x y (m ) t

(1) x- 0.25m

(2) y- 0.25m

(3) y- 0.5m

(4) x- 0.5m

28.

P Q 2 m 3 m

P Q

(1) 9 : 4

(2) 2 : 3

(3) 3 : 2

(4) 4 : 9




29. A bat emits an ultrasonic sound of frequency 1000 kHz in

air. If the sound meets a water surface, what is the

wavelength of the reflected sound (Speed of sound in air is

340 m/s and in water 1486 m/s)

(1) 3.4 × 10–4 m

(2) 1.4 × 10–3 m

(3) 2.5 × 10–4 m

(4) 1.8 × 10–3 m

30. Two identical stringed instruments have a frequency 100

Hz. If the tension in one of them is increased by 4% and

they are sounded together then the number of beats

produced in one second is -

(1) 1

(2) 8

(3) 4

(4) 2

31. A uniform rope of mass 0.1 kg and length 2.45 m hangs

from a ceiling. Find the speed of transverse wave in the

rope at a point 0.4 m distant from the lower end -

(1) 1 m/s

(2) 2 m/s

(3) 3 m/s

(4) 4 m/s

32. Which property of the medium helps to generate a

mechanical wave in a medium or helps in energy transfer-

(1) elastic forces

(2) inertia

(3) both (1) and (2)

(4) None

33. An observer moves towards a stationary source of sound

of frequency n. The apparent frequency heard by him is

2n. If the velocity of sound in air is 332 m/sec, then the

velocity of the observer is -

(1) 166 m/s

(2) 664 m/s

(3) 332 m/s

(4) 1328 m/s

29. 1000 kHz

( 340 m/s

1486 m/s )

(1) 3.4 × 10–4 m

(2) 1.4 × 10–3 m

(3) 2.5 × 10–4 m

(4) 1.8 × 10–3 m

30. 100 Hz

4%

1

(1) 1

(2) 8

(3) 4

(4) 2

31. 0.1 kg 2.45 m

0.4 m

(1) 1 m/s

(2) 2 m/s

(3) 3 m/s

(4) 4 m/s

32.

(1)

(2)

(3) (1) (2)

(4)

33. n

( =332 m/sec)

(1) 166 m/s

(2) 664 m/s

(3) 332 m/s

(4) 1328 m/s




34. One meter long tube (open at one end) with a movable

piston at the other end, shows resonance with a fixed

frequency source (A tuning fork of frequency 340 Hz). When

the tube length is 25 cm and 75 cm estimate. The speed of

sound in air -

(1) 330 m/s

(2) 320 m/s

(3) 340 m/s

(4) 280 m/s

35. When the observer moves towards stationary source then

which of the following is true regarding frequency and

wavelength of wave observed by the observer -

(1) More frequency, less wavelength

(2) More frequency, more wavelength

(3) Less frequency, more wavelength

(4) More frequency, constant wavelength

36. Beates are produced by two waves given by

y1 = a sin 2000 t and y

2 = a sin 2008 t

The number of beats heard per second is -

(1) Zero

(2) 1

(3) 4

(4) 8

37. A tuning fork of frequency 700 Hz is vibrating at one side of

a tube as shown. If no sound is heatd at the other end,

then the velocity of sound is -

40cm

(1) 329 m/s

(2) 319 m/s

(3) 339 m/s

(4) 160 m/s

34. 1 m

340 Hz

25 cm 75 cm

(1) 330 m/s

(2) 320 m/s

(3) 340 m/s

(4) 280 m/s

35.

(1) ,

(2) ,

(3) ,

(4) ,

36. y1 = a sin 2000 t y

2 = a sin 2008 t

(1)

(2) 1

(3) 4

(4) 8

37. 700 Hz

40cm

(1) 329 m/s

(2) 319 m/s

(3) 339 m/s

(4) 160 m/s




38. Third overtone of a closed organ pipe is unison with fourth

overtone of an open organ pipe. Find the ratio of the length

of closed pipe to open pipes -

(1) 8

7

(2) 7

8

(3) 7

10

(4) 10

7

39. Which relation is correct for speed of sound wave in solid(s),

liquid (l) and gases (g) -

(1) Vs < V

l < V

g

(2) Vs = V

l = V

g

(3) Vs > V

l > V

g

(4) Vg > V

l > V

s

40. Two sitar strings A and B playing the note 'Dha' are slightly

out of tune and produces beats of frequency 5 Hz. The

tension of the string B is slightly increased and the beat

frequency is found to decrease to 3 Hz. What is the original

frequency of B. If the frequency of A is 427 Hz -

(1) 422 Hz

(2) 432 Hz

(3) 424 Hz

(4) 430 Hz

41. Equation of travelling wave on a stretched string of linear

density 5 g/m is y = 0.03 sin (450 t – 9x), where distance

and time are measured in SI units. The tension in the string

is -

(1) 10 N

(2) 12.5 N

(3) 7.5 N

(4) 5 N

38.

(1) 8

7

(2) 7

8

(3) 7

10

(4) 10

7

39. (s), (l)

(g)

(1) Vs < V

l < V

g

(2) Vs = V

l = V

g

(3) Vs > V

l > V

g

(4) Vg > V

l > V

s

40. A B ' '

5 Hz B

3 Hz B

A 427 Hz

(1) 422 Hz

(2) 432 Hz

(3) 424 Hz

(4) 430 Hz

41. y = 0.03 sin (450

t – 9x) x y t

5 g/m

(1) 10 N

(2) 12.5 N

(3) 7.5 N

(4) 5 N




42. In interference, two individual intensity is I0 each. Find

resultant intensity at a point, where path differene between

two waves is /3 -

(1) I0

(2) 2I0

(3) 3I0

(4) 4I0

43. The ratio of intensities of two waves is 9 : 16. If these, two

waves interfere, then determine the ratio of the maximum

and minimum possible intensities -

(1) 16

25

(2) 25

16

(3) 49

1

(4) 1

49

44. If intensity of sound wave at a point is found 2 × 10–6 Watt/

m2. Then find loudness at that point (log10

2 = 0.3)

(1) 60 dB

(2) 63 dB

(3) 65 dB

(4) 70 dB

45. Two sources of sound S1 and S

2 produce sound wave of

same frequency 660 Hz. A listener is moving from source

S1 towards S

2 with a constant speed u m/s and he hears

10 beat/s. The velocity of sound is 330 m/s. Then u is -

(1) 2.5 m/s

(2) 15 m/s

(3) 5.5 m/s

(4) 10 m/s

42. I0

/3

(1) I0

(2) 2I0

(3) 3I0

(4) 4I0

43. 9 : 16

(1) 16

25

(2) 25

16

(3) 49

1

(4) 1

49

44. 2 × 10–6 Watt/m2

(log10

2 = 0.3)

(1) 60 dB

(2) 63 dB

(3) 65 dB

(4) 70 dB

45. S1

S2

660 Hz

S1

S2

u m/s

10 beat/s 330 m/s

u

(1) 2.5 m/s

(2) 15 m/s

(3) 5.5 m/s

(4) 10 m/s


13GCI

Class XIII (Spartan Batch)XI NCERT Unit 17 -Breathing and Exchange of Gases

DTS (Diamond Test Series Part-I) for NEET - 2021 | 21/06/2021

46. Given below is a graph which represents percentage

saturation of haemoglobin with O2, which graph represent

high amount of free hemoglobin -

(1) graph 1, Left shift

(2) graph 1, Right shift



47. As carbon dioxide produced in the tissues combines with

water in the blood then following process occurs -

(1) Carbonic acid is formed

(2) Cl– enters into the RBC from plasma

(3) Most of the HCO–3 from the carbonic acid leaves the

RBCs to the blood plasma

(4) All of the followings

48. Binding of xygen with haemoglobin is primarliy related to

which of the following factor-

(1) Partial pressure of CO2

(2) Partial pressure of O2

(3) H+ concentration

(4) Temperature

49. Receptors associated with aortic arch and carotid artery can

recognise changes in -

(1) pO2 and H+ ions levels in CSF

(2) pCO2 and pH levels in arterial blood

(3) pCO2 and pH levels in venous blood

(4) pO2 and pCO

2 levels in venous blood

46. O2





47. RBCs

(1)

(2) Cl– RBC

(3) HCO–3 , RBCs

(4)

48.

(1) CO2

(2) O2

(3) H+

(4)

49. aortic arch carotid artery

(1) pO2 H+ CSF

(2) pCO2 pH

(3) pCO2 pH

(4) pO2 pCO

2


14GCI



50. In a pre-mature child pneumocyte type II become non-

functional in this condition -

(1) Lungs get infected with large number of microorganism.

(2) Large number of alveoli get collapsed.

(3) Whole respiratory tree get collapsed.

(4) Trachea get collapsed.

51. Identify the wrong differences between inspiration and

expiration-

Inspiration Expiration

(a) EICM Contract Relax

(b) Size of thoracic cavity Decreases Increases

(c) Shape of diaphragm Dome shaped Flat

(d) Movement of Air Atmosphere Lungs to

to lunges atmosphere

(1) a, b (2) b, c (3) b, d (4) c, d

52. The contraction of IICM in man causes -

(1) Inspiration (2) Forced expiration

(3) Expiration (4) All of these

53. The chloride shift in RBC indicates the movement of :-

(1) Cations into the cell to balance its uptake of Cl– ions

(2) Cl– ions into the cells to balance H+ ions

(3) Cl– ions out fo RBC to balance Na+ ions

(4) Cl– ions into the RBC to balance HCO–3 ions

54. The direction of concentration gradient for CO2 is from -

(1) Tissues to blood and blood to alveoli

(2) Blood to tissues and tissues to alveoli

(3) Alveoli to blood and blood to tissues

(4) Tissues to blood and alveoli to blood

55. Read the following and arrange according to the correct

sequence of inspiration –

a. Contraction of diaphragm.

b. Increase volume in the dorso-ventral axis.

c. Contraction of external inter-costal muscles.

d. Contraction of internal inter-costal muscles.

e. Decreased the intra-pulmonary pressure.

f. Increase pulmonary volume.

g. Increase volume in the anterior-posterior axis.

(1) a g f e

(2) c b f e

(3) Both (1) and (2) are correct and alternative

(4) Both (1) and (2) are correct and simultaneous

50. II

-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

51.

(a) EICM

(b)

(c)

(d)

(1) a, b (2) b, c (3) b, d (4) c, d

52. IICM

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

53. RBC

(1) Cl–

(2) H+ Cl-

(3) Na+ Cl- RBC

(4) HCO–3 Cl- RBC

54. CO2

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

55.

a.

b.

c.

d.

e.

f.

g.

(1) a g f e

(2) c b f e

(3) (1) (2)

(4) (1) (2)


15GCI



56. Carbon monoxide has greater affinity for haemoglobin as

compared to xoygen -

(1) 2 times (2) 20 times

(3) 200 times (4) 1000 times

57. Match the followings correctly–

Animals Respiratory Organs

A. Earthworms I. Lungs

B. insect II. Tracheal capillary

C. Fishes III. Gills

D. Birds and Reptiles IV. Moist cuticle.

E. Scorpion V. Book lung

(1) A–IV, B–II, C–III, D–I, E–V

(2) A–IV, B–III, C–III, D–I, E–I


(4) A–II, B–III, C–III, D–I, E–V

58. Following diagram represent oxygen dissociation curve.

Which factors responsible to increase P50

value -

Partial pressure of oxygen (mm Hg)

(1) High H+ concentration, high pCO2

(2) Low H+ concentration, high pCO2

(3) High H+ concentration, Low pCO2

(4) High H+ concentration, high pO2

59. The machanism of breathing depends on animals -

(1) Habitat (2) Level of organisation

(3) Both A and B (4) Body segmentation

56. CO O2

-

(1) 2 (2) 20

(3) 200 (4) 1000

57.

A. I.

B. II.

C. III.

D. IV.

E. V.


(2) A–IV, B–III, C–III, D–I, E–I


(4) A–II, B–III, C–III, D–I, E–V

58.

P50

Partial pressure of oxygen (mm Hg)

(1) H+ , pCO2

(2) H+ , pCO2

(3) H+ , pCO2

(4) H+ , pO2

59.

(1) (2)

(3) A B (4)


16GCI



60. In normal conditions how many ml of CO2 is transported

per 100 ml of blood, from blood to alveoli -

(1) 0.3 ml (2) 5.0 ml

(3) 4.0 ml (4) None

61. The volumes of air present in lungs at the end of normal

expiration -

(a) T.V. (b) IRV

(c) ERV (d) R.V

(1) a and b

(2) a,b and c

(3) a, b and d

(4) c and d

62. Which of the following statements about the mechanism of

ventilation/breahing is false -

(1) As the diaphragm relaxes, air is expelled from the res-

piratory system

(2) During inspiration the lungs act as suction pump

(3) Inspiration is a passive and expiration is an active pro-

cess

(4) For normal breathing external intercostal muscles and

diaphragm play an important role

63. Partial Pressure (in mm Hg) of Oxygen and Carbon dioxide

at Different Parts Involved in Diffusion is given in table then

identify the A, B, C and D-

Respiratory Gases O2

CO2

Atmospheric Air 159 0.3

A 104 40

Blood (Deoxygenated) 40 B

Blood (Oxygenated) C 40

Tissues 40 D

(1) A – Pulmonary artery, B – 45, C – 95, D – 45

(2) A – Pulmonary vein, B – 45, C – 104, D – 40

(3) A – Alveoli, B – 45, C – 95, D – 45

(4) A – Alveoli, B – 40, C – 104, D – 45

64. When the oxygen supply to the tissue is inadequate, the

condition is -

(1) Dyspnoea (2) Hypoxia

(3) Asphyxia (4) Apnoea

60. 100 ml CO2

(1) 0.3 ml (2) 5.0 ml

(3) 4.0 ml (4)

61.

(a) T.V. (b) IRV

(c) ERV (d) R.V

(1) a b

(2) a,b c

(3) a, b d

(4) c d

62.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

63. O2

CO2

A, B, C D

O2

CO2

159 0.3

A 104 40

( ) 40 B

( ) C 40

40 D

(1) A – , B – 45, C – 95, D – 45

(2) A – , B – 45, C – 104, D – 40

(3) A – , B – 45, C – 95, D – 45

(4) A – , B – 40, C – 104, D – 45

64.

(1) Dyspnoea (2) Hypoxia

(3) Asphyxia (4) Apnoea


17GCI



65. Which of the following factors favour the formation of

oxyhaemoglobin in lungs ?

(1) PO2 = , PCO

2 = , H+ = , Temperature =

(2) PO2 = , PCO

2 = , H+ = . Temperature =

(3) PO2 = , PCO

2 = , pH = , H+ = . Temperature =

(4) PO2 = , PCO

2 = , pH = , Temperature =

66. Intercostal muscles are found attached with :

(1) pelvic cavity (2) ribs

(3) space between fingers (4) digits

67. O2 and CO

2 are exchanged at the alveolar level by simple

diffusion mainly due to the

(1) Pressure gradient (2) Pulmonary volume

(3) Thoracic pressure (4) Atmospheric pressure

68. Which one protects the lungs?

(1) Ribs (2) Vertebral column

(3) Sternum (4) All the above

69. The trachea, bronchi and bronchioles of man, have all of

the following functions except

(1) Increasing the surface area available for gas exchange

(2) Moistening the incoming air

(3) conducting mucus away from the alveoli

(4) warming the incoming air upto body temperature

70. When P50 value of Hb is increased, the union of O2 with Hb

will -

(1) remain unchanged

(2) increase

(3) decrease

(4) not definite

71. Which of the following constitute the exchanging part of

the respiratory system -

(1) External nostril to trachea

(2) External nostrils to primary bronchioles

(3) Respiratory bronchioles to Alveoli

(4) External nostrils to terminal bonchioles

72. During inspiration there is .......... pressure in the lungs

w.r.t. atmospheric pressure -

(1) Positive

(2) Negative

(3) Neither positive nor negative

(4) All of these

65.

(1) PO2 = , PCO

2 = , H+ = , =

(2) PO2 = , PCO

2 = , H+ = . =

(3) PO2 = , PCO

2 = , pH = , H+ = . =

(4) PO2 = , PCO

2 = , pH = , =

66.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

67. O2 CO

2

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

68.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

69.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

70. P50

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

71.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

72.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


18GCI



73. Highly vascularised air sacs present in the lungs are called

(1) trachea (2) alveoli

(3) bronchioles (4) bronchus

74. The following parts are the parts of human respiratory

system -

i. Glottis ii. Trachea

iii. External nostrils iv. Larynx

v. Nasal chambers vi. Bronchi

vii. Alveoli viii. Bronchioles

Arrange them in correct sequence through which inhaled

air reaches the alveoli -

(1) iii, v, i, iv, vi, ii, viii, vii (2) vii, viii, vi, ii, iv, i, v, iii

(3) v, i, iv, ii, vi, viii, vii, iii (4) iii, v, i, iv, ii, vi, viii, vii

75. Pulmonary ventilation is due to -

(1) intercostal muscles only

(2) walls of lung

(3) bronchioles

(4) intercostal muscles and diaphragm

76. The volume of air inspired or expired by a healthy man per

minute is -

(1) 1000 ml - 1100 ml (2) 2500 ml - 3000 ml

(3) 6000 ml - 8000 ml (4) 400 ml - 500 ml

77. Binding of O2 with haemoglobin can be affected by -

(1) partial pressure of CO2

(2) H+ ion concentration

(3) temperature

(4) all of these

78. How the transport of O2 and CO

2 by blood happens -

(1) With the help of WBCs and blood serum

(2) With the help of platelets and corpuscles

(3) With the help of RBCs and blood plasma

(4) With the help of RBCs and WBCs

79. Neural signal from which centre reduces the duration of

inspiration -

(1) Respiratory rhythm centre in pons

(2) Pneumotaxic centre in pons

(3) Respiratory rhythm centre in medulla

(4) Respiratory centre in cerebrum

73.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

74.

i. ii.

iii. iv.

v. vi.

vii. viii.

(1) iii, v, i, iv, vi, ii, viii, vii (2) vii, viii, vi, ii, iv, i, v, iii

(3) v, i, iv, ii, vi, viii, vii, iii (4) iii, v, i, iv, ii, vi, viii, vii

75.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

76.

(1) 1000 ml - 1100 ml (2) 2500 ml - 3000 ml

(3) 6000 ml - 8000 ml (4) 400 ml - 500 ml

77. O2

(1) CO2

(2) H+

(3)

(4)

78. O2 CO

2

(1) WBCs

(2)

(3) RBCs

(4) RBCs WBCs

79.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


19GCI



80. Which of the following is incorrect about haemoglobin -

(1) It is an iron containing pigment in RBCs.

(2) O2 binds with haemoglobin to form oxyhaemoglobin

(3) CO2 is carried by haemoglobin as carboxyhaemoglobin

(4) Haemoglobin molecule carries maximum four molecules

of oxygen

81. Premature infants may develop respiratory distress and can

land up in respiratory failure sometimes needing an

intensive care for such infants. This may be due to -

(1) the sudden change from the uterine environment to the

air

(2) the incomplete development of the lung surface

(3) inadequate production of surfactant

(4) mutations in the gens involved in lung formation

82. Contraction of diaphragm -

(1) Increases the volume of the thoracic chamber in the

antero-posterior axis

(2) Increases the volume of the thoracic chamber in the

dorso-ventral axis

(3) Decreases the volume of the thoracic chamber in the

antero-posterior axis

(4) Decreases the volume of the thoracic chamber in the

dorso-ventral axis

83. The respiratory centre in the brain is stimulated by -

(1) CO2 concentration in venous blood

(2) O2 concentration in artery blood

(3) CO2 concentration in artery blood

(4) O2 concentration in venous blood

84. When under certain conditions (like high temperature) then

P50 value of hemoglobin ........... and the affinity of the

pigment of combining with O2 will ..........

(1) Remain same (2) Fall, increases

(3) Rise, decrease (4) First rise then fall

85. Hemoglobin that is bonded to carbon monoxide and there

fore cannot transport oxygen is called -

(1) Carboxy hemoglobin (2) Methemoglobin

(3) Reduced hemoglobin (4) Carbamino hemoglobin

80.

(1) RBCs

(2) O2

(3) CO2

(4)

81.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

82.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

83.

(1) CO2

(2) O2

(3) CO2

(4) O2

84. ( ) P50

O2

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

85. CO

(1) (2)

(3) (4)


20GCI



86. Volume of air that will remain in the lungs after a normal

expiration is about ........ ml, and called -

(1) 1200, RV (2) 2300, FRC

(3) 4600, IC (4) 5800, Vc

87. The C-shaped cartilagenous rings around the trachea are

open posteriorly to -

(1) allow for expansion of the oesophagus during swallowing

(2) allow the vocal cords to relax

(3) prevent food from entering the nosal cavity during swal-

lowing

(4) prevent food from entering the trachea

88. What is vital capacity of our lungs -

(1) Inspiratory reserve volume plus tidal volume

(2) Total lungs capality minus expiratory reserve volume

(3) Inspiratory reserve volume plus expiratory reserve vol-

ume

(4) Total lung capacity minus residual volume

89. Chemosensitive area of respiratory centre medulla is

affected by -

(1) Less CO2 and H+ ions (2) Less O

2 and H+ ions

(3) Excess CO2 and H+ ions (4) Excess O

2 and H+ ions

90. How many of the following invertebrates exchange O2 with

CO2 by simple diffusion -

(Sponge, coelentrate, flatworm, annelids, arthropods,

mollusca, pisces)

(1) 6 (2) 5

(3) 4 (4) 3

86.

(1) 1200, RV (2) 2300, FRC

(3) 4600, IC (4) 5800, Vc

87. C-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

88.

(1) (+)

(2) (–)

(3) (+)

(4) (–)

89.

(1) CO2 H+ (2) O

2 H+

(3) CO2 H+ (4) O

2 H+

90. O2 CO

2

( , , , , , , )

(1) 6 (2) 5

(3) 4 (4) 3


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Class XIII (Spartan Batch)