Cisco.Selftestengine.350-080.v2015-04-02.by.Frankie€¦ · 2/4/2015 · where the entire OTV configuration is applied. Which statements are true about OTV overlay interface? (Choose

Selftestengine.350-080.290 questions.

Number: 350-080Passing Score: 800Time Limit: 120 minFile Version: 21.5

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Cisco 350-080

CCIE Data Center Written Exam

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Exam A

QUESTION 1A network administrator has installed an N7K-F248-25XP module into an existing chassis. The module is powered on, but the interfaces are all in VDC0. What isthe reason for this?

A. The chassis needs an EPLD upgrade to support the new module type.B. The default VDC cannot support F2 modules.C. The interfaces must be allocated into a VDC for F2 modules only.D. The module has failed GOLD diagnostics, and the switch has isolated the ports to protect the integrity of the system.

Correct Answer: CSection: (none)Explanation

Explanation/Reference:authenticated answer.

QUESTION 2VLAN configuration using DCNM can be completed by which two supported methods? (Choose two.)

A. Copy and paste the VLAN, along with its VLAN ID, name, type, admin state, and admin status, from one device to another.B. Create a single VLAN or a range of VLANs.C. A VLAN is created only after choosing File > Deploy to apply changes.D. After a VLAN is created, it requires the state to be enabled.E. Modify the existing VLAN by choosing Interface > VLAN > VLAN Settings.

Correct Answer: ABSection: (none)Explanation

Explanation/Reference:Explanation:

QUESTION 3Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV) overlay interface is a logical multiaccess and multicast- capable interface that must be explicitly defined by the user andwhere the entire OTV configuration is applied.

Which statements are true about OTV overlay interface? (Choose two.)

A. When an OTV edge device receives a Layer 2 frame destined for a remote data center site, the frame is logically forwarded to the overlay interface.B. The OTV edge device performs the dynamic OTV encapsulation on the Layer 2 packet and sends it to the join interface toward the routed domain.C. When the OTV edge device receives a Layer 2 frame destined for a remote data center site, the frame is logically forwarded to the join interface.D. The OTV edge device performs the dynamic OTV encapsulation on the Layer 2 packet and sends it to the overlay interface toward the routed domain.



QUESTION 4


Refer to the exhibit.

Real 11Cisco 350-080 Exam

The network administrator is seeing N7K-1 having issues with VLAN 11, and interface VLAN 11 is resetting, causing frequent HSRP state changes. Which twoactions would reduce HSRP state changes? (Choose two.)

A. On N7K-1, configure the HSRP extended hold timer to 180, extending the HSRP hello message hold time.B. On N7K-2, configure the HSRP extended hold timer to 180, extending the HSRP hello message hold time.C. On N7K-1, configure the pre-empt delay minimum to 180 in order to delay N7K-1 from taking over as the HSRP active router.D. On N7K-2, configure the pre-empt delay minimum to 180 in order to delay N7K-2 from taking over as the HSRP active router.E. On N7K-2, increase the HSRP priority to 150.F. On N7K-2, decrease the HSRP priority to 50.

Correct Answer: CESection: (none)Explanation

Explanation/Reference:best suitable answer.

QUESTION 5Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV) join interface is used to source the OTV encapsulated traffic and send it to the Layer 3 domain of the data center network.

Which statements are true about OTV join interface? (Choose three.)

A. Join interface is a Layer 3 entity, and with the Cisco NX-OS release 6.0, it can only be defined as a physical interface, physical subinterface, Layer 3 portchannel, or Layer 3 port channel Real 12Cisco 350-080 Examsubinterface.

B. A single join interface can be defined and associated with a given OTV overlay.C. Multiple overlays can also share the same join interface.D. Join interface can be a loopback interface.E. The join interface is a Layer 3 entity that can be defined as a physical interface but not as a logical one.

Correct Answer: ABCSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 6Cisco NX-OS Software supports SNMPv1, SNMPv2c, and SNMPv3. Both SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c use a community-based form of security. SNMPv3 providessecure access to devices by a combination of authenticating and encrypting frames over the network. Which security features are provided in Cisco NX-OSSNMPv3? (Choose three.)

A. encryption--scrambles the packet contents to prevent them from being seen by unauthorized sourcesB. password--a password (community string) sent in clear text between a manager and agent for added protectionC. authentication--determines that the message is from a valid sourceD. message integrity--ensures that a packet has not been tampered with while it was in transitE. user--to determine if user authentication is used instead of community strings

Correct Answer: ACDSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 7Smart Call Home provides an email-based notification for critical system policies. A range of message formats are available for compatibility with pager services,standard email, or XML- based automated parsing applications. Destination profiles are used by Smart Call Home when sending notifications. Which of these arepredefined destination profiles supported by Cisco NX- OS Software? (Choose three.)

A. short-text-destinationB. prerecorded audio alertsC. CiscoTAC-1D. dial911E. full-text-destination

Correct Answer: ACESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 8Real 14Cisco 350-080 ExamWhich description is correct for a private VLAN community port with respect to Layer 2 communications?

A. It communicates with all other community ports in the private VLAN domain.B. It communicates with only isolated ports in the private VLAN domain.C. It communicates only with other community ports in the same community and associated promiscuous ports.D. It communicates only with associated promiscuous and isolated ports.



QUESTION 9Which two are benefits of using remote AAA services for Cisco Nexus products? (Choose two.)

A. They make it easier to manage user logins and passwords across devices.

B. They enable automated configuration backup for devices.C. They centrally manage user attributes and permissions.D. Local console access is never included in AAA and can be used for access when the AAA servers are down.

Correct Answer: ACSection: (none)Explanation



QUESTION 10What does the mac packet-classify command do when applied to an interface configuration?

A. It enables MAC ACLs to be applied to only IP packets that enter the interface.B. It enables MAC ACLs to be applied to only non-IP packets that enter the interface.C. It enables MAC ACLs to be applied to all packets that enter the interface.D. It enables MAC ACLs to be used for QoS settings.



QUESTION 11In a virtual port channel (vPC) configuration, VRRP exhibits which characteristic?

A. VRRP does not work with vPC due to industry standard requirementsB. VRRP works with vPC in traditional active/standby modesC. VRRP works with vPC in an active/active modeD. VRRP work with vPC as long as vPC peer-gateway is configured to address non-standard replies to the physical MAC address




QUESTION 12On Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches, where are the virtual output queues implemented, and what is the main purpose of virtual output queues?

A. on all ingress interfaces; to ensure maximum throughput on a per-egress, per-CoS basisB. on all ingress interfaces; to provide independent congestion management and 16 queuesC. on all egress interfaces; so that a congested egress port does not affect traffic directed to other egress portsD. on all egress interfaces; to prevent head-of-line blocking by utilizing multiple virtual output queuesE. on all egress interfaces; to be able to use EEE 802.1p CoS

Correct Answer: ASection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 13On the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, Control Plane Policing is enforced on which component?

A. The supervisor module enforces CoPP before out-of-policy traffic reaches the CPUB. The fabric modules enforce CoPP in the fabric before out-of-policy traffic reaches the CPUC. The linecards enforce CoPP locally before out-of-policy traffic reaches the CPUD. The egress virtual output queue enforces CoPP locally before out-of-policy traffic reaches the CPU



QUESTION 14

2012 Feb 23 23:00:08.676710 pim: [16132] (default-base) Received unauthenticated hello- message from 10.1.1.2 on Ethernet1/18, message discarded

2012 Feb 23 23:00:12.528763 pim: [16132] (default-base) Send Hello with AH on Ethernet1/18 from 10.1.1.1, holdtimE. 105 secs, dr-priority: 1


You are troubleshooting a PIM neighbor adjacency that is not coming up. You issued the command show ip pim neighbor e1/18 and confirmed there is no PIMneighbor on the interface.

What is the problem based on the debug output?

A. The peer router 10.1.1.2 has PIM disabled on its interface connecting to Ethernet1/18.B. The peer router 10.1.1.2 has the wrong PIM password configured on its interface connecting to Ethernet1/18.C. The local router 10.1.1.1 has the wrong PIM password configured on Ethernet1/18.D. The peer router 10.1.1.2 does not have PIM hello authentication enabled on its interface connecting to Ethernet1/18.E. The local router 10.1.1.1 does not have PIM hello authentication enabled for Ethernet1/18.

Correct Answer: DSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 15What is the benefit of using Anycast RP via RFC 4610 for IP multicast RP redundancy?

A. Improves convergence of the multicast network due to enhanced RPF checksB. Simplifies the number of control plane protocols over other RP redundancy methodsC. Eliminates the use of Protocol Independent Multicast (PIM) in the topologyD. Increases the administrative distances in Multicast Source Discovery Protocol (MSDP) configuration

Correct Answer: BSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 16Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV) uses the Authoritative Edge Device (AED) to perform which tasks?

A. The AED is responsible for sending all unicast traffic in a site, while either node in a site can transmit multicast and broadcast.B. The AED is responsible for load balancing all traffic for all VLANs across the transport network.C. The AED is responsible for handling all unicast, broadcast, and multicast traffic for a given VLAN within a site.D. The AED is responsible for MAC address dispute contention for a given VLAN.


Explanation/Reference:correct answer.

QUESTION 17Nexus# sh ip igmp snooping vlan 120

IGMP Snooping information for vlan 120

IGMP snooping disabled

Optimised Multicast Flood (OMF) disabled

IGMP querier none

Switch-querier enabled, address 1.1.1.1, currently not running

IGMPv3 Explicit tracking enabled

IGMPv2 Fast leave disabled

IGMPv1/v2 Report suppression enabled

IGMPv3 Report suppression disabled

Link Local Groups suppression enabled

Router port detection using PIM Hellos, IGMP Queries

Number of router-ports: 0

Number of groups: 0

Active ports:

Po100 Po111

Which statement best describes what is depicted in the show command output?

A. IGMP snooping is not active for VLAN 120 because the IGMP feature has not been enabled on the switch with the feature igmp command.B. The IGMP snooping querier for VLAN 120 is not in a running state because the Loopback interface configured with 1.1.1.1/32 is currently in a down state.C. IGMP snooping has been disabled on the VLAN 120 SVI.D. IGMP snooping has been disabled for VLAN 120 in VLAN configuration mode.


E. IGMP snooping is not active for VLAN 120 because VLAN 120 does not exist in the VLAN database.


Explanation/Reference:actual answer.

QUESTION 18What is the default Time to Live (TTL) value in Cisco FabricPath?

A. 128B. 32C. 64D. Dependent on the number of switch IDs in the topology



QUESTION 19When using Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV), how do L2 multicast frames traverse the overlay?

A. The L2 multicast frames are encapsulated in an OTV packet using the configured control-group multicast address for transportB. The L2 multicast frames are dropped because multicast cannot be carried across the overlayC. The L2 multicast frames are encapsulated in an OTV packet using the configured data-group multicast address for transportD. The L2 multicast frames are forwarded natively across the overlay based on their multicast IDs



QUESTION 20Which three statements best describe multicast operation on Cisco Nexus switches in a data center? (Choose three.)

A. Cisco NX-OS Software does not support PIM dense mode.B. The command ip multicast-routing must be enabled in Cisco NX-OS Software before any multicast configuration is possible on the switch.C. PIM CLI configuration and verification commands are not available until you enable the PIM feature with the feature pim command.D. Cisco NX-OS Software supports multicast routing per Layer 3 VRF instance.E. The default PIM operational mode on the Cisco Nexus 7000 switch is SSM.



QUESTION 21Where is a typical request in the Cisco UCS XML API placed in the data management engine, and, after the request is confirmed, what is updated?

A. The request is placed in the transactor queue in FIFO order and the management information tree is updated.B. The request is placed in the replicator and persistifier and the store is updated.C. The request is placed in the data management engine and the application gateway is updated.

D. The request is placed in the buffer queue and the commit buffer queue is updated.



QUESTION 22In the Cisco FabricPath domain, one switch becomes the root for the multidestination tree. Cisco FabricPath switches compare which three parameters to select theroot? (Choose three.)

A. Root priorityB. System IDC. Bridge IDD. Switch IDE. Port IDF. Subswitch ID

Correct Answer: ABDSection: (none)Explanation



QUESTION 23By default, what type of SSH server key is generated by Cisco NX-OS Software?

A. DSA key generated with 512 bitsB. RSA key generated with 768 bitsC. RSA key generated with 1024 bitsD. DSA key generated with 1024 bitsE. RSA key generated with 2048 bits



QUESTION 24Refer to the exhibit.

Which statements are true about the subswitch ID that is filled in the header? (Choose three.)

A. FabricPath switches running vPC use this field to identify the specific virtual switch.B. FabricPath switches running vPC+ use this field to identify the specific vPC+ PortChannel on which traffic is to be forwarded.C. The subswitch ID field is locally significant to each vPC+ switch pair.D. The subswitch ID field must be unique within the FabricPath domain.E. In the absence of vPC+, this field is set to 0.

Correct Answer: BCESection: (none)Explanation




vPC+ is configured between which switches?

A. Switch-ID 13 and Switch-ID 23B. Switch-ID 11 and Switch-ID 12C. Switch-ID 100 onlyD. Switch-ID 13 and Switch-ID 100




QUESTION 26SNMPv3 authorizes management operations only by configured users and encrypts SNMP messages. Which authentication protocols does Cisco NX-OS Software

use for SNMPv3? (Choose two.)

A. NMAC-SHA-96 authentication protocolB. HMAC-MD5-96 authentication protocolC. Community String Match protocolD. NMAC-MD5-96 authentication protocolE. HMAC-SHA-96 authentication protocol

Correct Answer: BESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 27Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV) provides an overlay that enables Layer 2 connectivity between separate Layer 2 domains, while keeping these domainsindependent and preserving the fault isolation, resiliency, and load-balancing benefits of an IP-based interconnection.

Which statements are true about OTV Adjacency Server? (Choose two.)

A. Adjacency Server is required when OTV is deployed with unicast-only transport.B. Adjacency Server is required when OTV is deployed with multicast-enabled transport.C. Each OTV device wishing to join a specific OTV logical overlay needs to first register with the Adjacency Server.D. Each OTV device trying to join a specific OTV logical overlay needs to be configured as an Adjacency Server.


Explanation/Reference:true answer.

QUESTION 28Which two statements about a "Virtual PortChannel graceful consistent check" are true?

A. Graceful consistency check is enabled by default.B. When graceful consistency check is enabled, only the links on the secondary peer device are suspended.C. Graceful consistency check is disabled by default, so to enable this feature, use graceful consistency-check command under VPC domain configuration mode.

D. When graceful consistency check is enabled, only the inconsistent VLANs on the secondary peer device are suspended.



QUESTION 29Which attribute is used to pass the user role back to the Nexus when remote AAA is enabled?

A. Cisco AV-pairB. TACACS+ or RADIUS ack frame role attributeC. DH-CHAP challenge attributeD. privilege level attribute



QUESTION 30Each port that is configured to use LACP has an LACP port priority. Which statements are true about LACP port priority? (Choose three.)


A. Port priority value can be configured between 1 and 65535.B. A higher port priority value means a higher priority of LACP.C. Port priority can be configured so that specific links can be chosen as active links rather than the hot standby links within the port channel.D. LACP uses the port priority with the port number to form the port identifier.E. LACP Port priority default value should always be changed



QUESTION 31Nexus7000# config t

Nexus700(config)# interface ethernet 2/11

Nexus700(config-if)# switchport mode private-vlan host

Nexus700(config-if)# switchport private-vlan host-association 14 50

Nexus700(config-if)# exit

Nexus700(config)#

What will this command sequence achieve?

A. associate interface E2/11 to community VLANs 14 and 50B. associate interface E2/11 to secondary VLANs 14 and 50C. associate interface E2/11 to primary VLAN 50 and secondary VLAN 14D. associate interface E2/11 to primary VLAN 14 and secondary VLAN 50



QUESTION 32Which command will allow you to display the configured QoS group and the ingress buffer allocated to each QoS group?

A. show interface priority-flow-controlB. show interface queuing


C. show queuing interfaceD. show policy-map system type queuing

E. show policy-map interface ethernet <x/y> type queuing




During troubleshooting of Virtual PortChannel (vPC), it is observed that Virtual PortChannel 2 is in a down state. What's the cause of this issue?

A. Virtual PortChannel is down because LACP is not enabled on the remote switch.Real 35Cisco 350-080 Exam

B. Virtual PortChannel is down because of a VLAN mismatch.C. Virtual PortChannel is down because of an MTU mismatch.D. Virtual PortChannel is down because of VLAN and MTU mismatch.



QUESTION 34With Cisco NX-OS on a Cisco Nexus platform, which command shows memory usage, total processes, and CPU state?

A. show memory detailedB. show process cpu sortedC. show system resourcesD. show hardware capacity



QUESTION 35What is the difference between the Ethanalyzer and the SPAN feature in Cisco NX-OS?

A. The Ethanalyzer captures control-plane traffic, while SPAN captures all traffic.B. The Ethanalyzer captures all traffic including control-plane traffic, while SPAN captures only the control-plane traffic.C. The Ethanalyzer captures only data traffic, while SPAN captures all traffic.D. The Ethanalyzer captures only control traffic, while SPAN captures data traffic.


Explanation/Reference:fine answer.

QUESTION 36Virtual PortChannels (vPCs) allow links that are physically connected to two different Cisco switches to appear to a third downstream device as coming from asingle device and as part of a single port channel. Which of the following are components of a Virtual PortChannel system? (Choose four)


A. Two peer devices: the vPC peers of which one is primary and one is secondary and are part of a vPC domain.B. A Layer 3 Gigabit Ethernet link called peer-keepalive link to resolve dual-active scenariosC. A redundant 10 Gigabit Ethernet PortChannel called a peer link to carry traffic from one system to the other when neededD. vPC member ports forming the PortChannelE. A dot1q trunk between the vPC peersF. A management port that can be used as peer-keepalive link to resolve dual-active scenarios.

Correct Answer: ABCDSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 37Which two Fibre Channel features are not supported in Cisco Nexus 5500 and Nexus 5000 platforms? (Choose two.)

A. port securityB. fabric bindingC. IVRD. port trackingE. FICON

Correct Answer: CE

Section: (none)Explanation



Given this FCoE topology, host VFC interface and FC storage are in the same VSAN (VSAN 10). The VSAN is in the allow list for both ISLs. Both ISLs are up at 4GB.


Which command can be issued on the N5K command line to confirm that SCSI traffic from the host to the storage will flow across both links, as opposed to usingonly one link?

A. show fspf traffic vsan 10B. show vsan 10C. show trunk protocolD. show fcroute unicast vsan 10


Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:

QUESTION 39What is the correct order for FIP virtual establishment?

A. VLAN discovery, FCF discovery, FLOGI and FDISC, FC commandB. FCF discovery, VLAN discovery, FLOGI and FDISC, FC commandC. VLAN discovery, FCF discovery, FLOGI and FDISCD. FCF discovery, solicitation and advertisement, FLOGI and FDISC, FC command



QUESTION 40Which statement about the Adapter FEX feature on the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches is true?

A. Adapter FEX is a software feature that can be configured on any CNA as long as the Nexus 5000 is running a version of code that supports Adapter FEX.B. Adapter FEX can be thought of as a way to divide a single physical link into multiple virtual links or channels.C. Packets on each channel are tagged with an 801.Q header that has a specific source VIF.D. When using a dual-homed NIC on the server, active/standby is not supported. Only active/active is supported.




QUESTION 41Which statement describes the below output from an MDS switch?

Flow ID. 44

Initiator VSAN: 200

Initiator WWN: 50:06:04:8a:cc:19:12:db

Target VSAN: 200

Target WWN: 50:06:04:8c:de:ad:be:ef

Target LUN: ALL LUNs

Flow Verification Status:

-------------------------

Initiator Verification Status: success

Target Verification Status: WWN was not found in name server

Initiator Linecard Status: success

Target Linecard Status: Status not yet checked

Feature Status:

---------------

Write-Acceleration enabled

Write-Acceleration Buffers: 1024

Configuration Status: flow verification failed

A. The zone containing both the initiator and target does not existB. The zone set has not been activatedC. The target is not logged into the fabricD. The pWWN used for the target is invalid


Explanation/Reference:Real 39Cisco 350-080 Exam

Explanation:

QUESTION 42Which statement is correct about the number of available QoS system classes in FCoE?

A. It's hard-set and cannot be disabledB. It's configurable, with an upper limit of 16C. It's hard-set but cannot disable best-effort and Fibre ChannelD. It's hard-set but can disable all but one classE. It's configurable with an upper limit of eight



QUESTION 43When building a NIC team (virtual port channel) between a host and a pair of Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches that will carry FCoE traffic, what is the maximumnumber of physical links that can exist in the team?

A. 1B. 2C. 4D. 5


E. 16



Explanation:

QUESTION 44Which statement is true about The QoS Class Fibre Channel?

A. Cannot be disabledB. Cannot have the CoS changedC. Can have "Packet Drop" enabledD. Is multicast optimizedE. Can have the MTU changed



QUESTION 45Which command is used to determine if a host has logged in to the Fibre Channel fabric?

A. show flogi databaseB. show system fc loginC. show npv flogi-table


D. show npv fcns databaseE. show interface vfc X flogiF. show interface flogi


Explanation/Reference:Explanation:In a Fibre Channel fabric, each host or disk requires an FCID. Use the show flogi database command to verify if a storage device is displayed in the Fabric login(FLOGI) table as in the examples below. If the required device is displayed in the FLOGI table, the fabric login is successful. Examine the FLOGI database on aswitch that is directly connected to the host HBA and connected ports.

ExamplesThe following example displays details on the FLOGI database.switch# show flogi database--------------------------------------------------------------------------- INTERFACE VSAN FCID PORT NAME NODE NAME--------------------------------------------------------------------------- sup-fc0 2 0xb30100 10:00:00:05:30:00:49:63 20:00:00:05:30:00:49:5e fc9/13 1 0xb200e221:00:00:04:cf:27:25:2c 20:00:00:04:cf:27:25:2c fc9/13 1 0xb200e1 21:00:00:04:cf:4c:18:61 20:00:00:04:cf:4c:18:61 fc9/13 1 0xb200d1 21:00:00:04:cf:4c:18:6420:00:00:04:cf:4c:18:64 fc9/13 1 0xb200ce 21:00:00:04:cf:4c:16:fb 20:00:00:04:cf:4c:16:fb fc9/13 1 0xb200cd 21:00:00:04:cf:4c:18:f7 20:00:00:04:cf:4c:18:f7

Total number of flogi = 6.

ReferencE. http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/storage/san_switches/mds9000/sw/rel_2_x/san- os/command/reference/CR02_sh.html#wp1248139

QUESTION 46Traffic drop for FCoE is experienced across a Nexus 5548 switch. What is a possible cause?

A. Server's CNA does not support DCBX and PFC TLV was not negotiated.B. A "no-drop" class has not been configured for FCoE.C. The system is running with the default QOS policies.D. The link is oversubscribed.




QUESTION 47On a Nexus 5000 Series Switch, when a VFC is not online, what are the causes? (Choose three.)

A. LLDP transmit and receive are disabledB. The initiator server has no connectivity to the target storageC. FIP negotiation timingD. Peer does not support LLDPE. VSAN trunk protocol has been enabled

Correct Answer: ABD



QUESTION 48Which statement describes the FIP function of the FCoE Initiation Protocol?

A. It is required to establish the point-to-point FCoE links with the first switch in the path.B. It is required to establish the point-to-point FCoE links with any switch across multiple Ethernet segments.C. It is not used to build the FCoE links.D. It is used to ensure lossless transport.




QUESTION 49What are the two parallel SCSI specifications? (Choose two.)

A. Up to 25 m bus lengthB. Only one device per SCSI busC. Up to 16 devices per SCSI busD. Half-duplex operationE. Full-duplex operation



QUESTION 50Which statement describes multihop FCoE function when an FCoE switch receives an FCoE frame from the directly connected FCoE host?

A. The switch receives the FCoE frame and forwards it to another switch over its VE port.B. The switch receives the FCoE frame, deapsulates it, and sends the Fibre Channel frame to the fabric over its Fibre Channel uplink port.C. The switch receives the FCoE frame, deapsulates it, and sends the Fibre Channel frame to the Real 44

Cisco 350-080 ExamFibre Channel target over its Fibre Channel port.

D. The switch receives the FCoE frame and forwards it to another FCoE device over its VN port.


Explanation/Reference:best answer.

QUESTION 51A Host connected to an NPV switch is not able to see the storage connected to the core switch. Given the output of the show command below, what is the reason ofthis issue?

switch# show npv status

npiv is enabled

External Interfaces:

===============

InterfacE. fc1/1, VSAN: 1, FCID. 0x000000, StatE. Other

Number of External Interfaces: 4

A. NPV is not enabled on the core switch?B. The interface connected to the Core switch is in admin down stateC. The local host interface belongs to the wrong VSAN?D. The local host interface is not able to login

Correct Answer: BSection: (none)

Explanation


QUESTION 52Which three are valid methods to monitor and trend SAN port channels with DCNM? (Choose three.)

A. use summary view in the device managerB. from the DCNM-SAN client, view ISLs in real time from the Performance drop-down listC. for each port channel, select Monitor ContinuallyD. configure traps for each port channel to utilize RMONE. set up flows with the DCNM-SAN client and use the Performance Manager web client for Real 45

Cisco 350-080 Examperformance collections

Correct Answer: ABESection: (none)Explanation


Topic 2, Volume B

QUESTION 53A VSM is actually a virtual machine that requires how many vNICs for functioning?

A. 0B. 1C. 2D. 3E. 4



Explanation:

QUESTION 54When configuring vPC-HM CDP with multiple links to the same switch, are port-channels required?

A. Each link between the upstream switch and the VEM is an individual subgroup.B. Connections that go to the same upstream switch must be configured with the command Real 46

Cisco 350-080 Examchannel-group <number> mode active.

C. Connections that go to the same upstream switch must be configured with the command channel-group <number> mode passive.D. With vPC-HM CDP, the user can pin traffic from a specific VM to a specific uplink.E. Connections that go to the same upstream switch must be configured with the command channel-group <number> mode on.

Correct Answer: ESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 55How many VSM modes are there in a Cisco Nexus 1000V environment?

A. 0B. 1

C. 2D. 3E. 4F. 5



QUESTION 56Cisco IOS NetFlow gathers data that can be used in which three of these? (Choose three.)

A. accountingB. authenticationC. authorizationD. network monitoringE. network planning

Correct Answer: ADESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 57Real 47Cisco 350-080 ExamWhich port channel command is recommended for N1KV on Cisco UCS?

A. channel-group auto mode onB. channel-group auto mode activeC. channel-group auto mode on sub-group cdpD. channel-group auto mode on sub-group manualE. channel-group auto mode on mac-pinning


Explanation/Reference:valid answer.

QUESTION 58vPath is a critical component in the VNS architecture. Which two are functions of vPath? (Choose two.)

A. intelligent traffic steering to the VSGB. offloading the processing from the VSG to the VEMC. intelligent traffic steering to the VNMCD. offloading the processing from the VSG to the flow managerE. deep packet inspection



QUESTION 59n1kv-l3(config)# show lacp offload status

Current Status : Enabled

Running Config Status : Enabled

Saved Config Status : Disabled

What two facts does the output signify? (Choose two.)

A. LACP is enabled on the Nexus 1000v.B. LACP will be offloaded to the upstream switch.C. LACP will be negotiated to the VM.


D. LACP is negotiated by the VSM.E. LACP is negotiated by the VEM in all instances.

Correct Answer: AESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 60The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches are virtual machine access switches that are an intelligent software switch implementation for VMware vSphereenvironments running the Cisco NX-OS Software operating system. Together with the VMware ESX hypervisor, the Nexus 1000V supports Cisco VN-Link servervirtualization technology, which provides mobile virtual machine security and network policy for VMware View components, including the DHCP snooping feature.DHCP snooping is disabled on the Nexus 1000V by default.

When the DHCP snooping feature is enabled on the Nexus 1000V, what are the default trust settings for the vEthernet and uplink ports?

A. All vEthernet ports are trusted, and all Ethernet ports such as uplinks and port channels are trusted.B. All vEthernet ports are not trusted, and all Ethernet ports such as uplinks and port channels are not trusted.C. All vEthernet ports are trusted and all Ethernet ports such as uplinks and port channels are not trusted.D. All vEthernet ports are not trusted and all Ethernet ports such as uplinks and port channels are trusted.



QUESTION 61


Given the following configuration, what command can be used to determine the physical path that traffic will be sent out upon?

Port-profile type Ethernet name vm-data

Switchport mode trunk

Switchport trunk allowed vlan 200-210

Channel-group auto mode on mac-pinning

State enabled

Vmware port-group

No shut

Port-profile type vethernet name vlan-200

Switchport mode access

Switchport vlan 200

State enabled

Vmware port-group

No shut

A. module vem X execute vemcmd show trunkB. show module 3 internal pinningC. module vem X execute vemcmd show portD. show module vem mappingE. show interface vethX pinning



Real 50

Cisco 350-080 Exam

QUESTION 62What are the four vPath packet flow steps? (Choose four.)

A. perform flow lookupsB. intercept packets on service enabled portsC. run packets through the vPath flow managerD. classify the packetsE. flow manager emits an action for the packetsF. enforce the action determined by the flow manager

Correct Answer: BCEFSection: (none)Explanation

Explanation/Reference:genuine answer.

QUESTION 63A Cisco switch has this configuration for a port channel connecting to an ESXi using dual NICs and is intended for use with an N1Kv.

Interface fastethernet 1/10


Switchport trunk allowed vlan all

Channel-group 10 mode on

No shut

Interface fastethernet 1/11


Switchport trunk allowed vlan all

Channel-group 10 mode on

No shut

Real 51Cisco 350-080 ExamInterface port-channel10


Switchport allowed vlan all

No shut

Which Port Channel configuration must be used on the Nexus 1000v port-profile?

A. MAC pinningB. Cisco Discovery Protocol pinningC. Mode OnD. Mode ActiveE. No port channel configuration



QUESTION 64DHCP snooping on Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches acts like a firewall between untrusted hosts and trusted DHCP servers by doing which of these? (Choosethree.)

A. validates DHCP messages received from untrusted sources and filters out invalid response messages from DHCP serversB. intercepts all ARP requests and responses on untrusted portsC. builds and maintains the DHCP snooping binding database, which contains information about untrusted hosts with leased IP addressesD. uses the DHCP snooping binding database to validate subsequent requests from untrusted hostsE. limits IP traffic on an interface to only those sources that have an IP-MAC address binding table entry or static IP source entry



QUESTION 65Given a host with two NICs assigned to a N1k profile, which topologies are suitable for this type of configuration (Choose three.)

port-profile type Ethernet name VM-Data

vmware port-group

switchport mode trunk

switchport allowed vlan 400-410

channel-group auto mode active

no shut

state enabled

A. Cisco UCS fabric interconnectsB. Pair of N5K's in VPC.C. Standalone N5KD. Pair of N5K's in non-VPCE. Cisco Catalyst 6000 Switch in VSS

Correct Answer: BCESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 66Real 54Cisco 350-080 ExamWhich statements are valid for a local SPAN configuration? (Choose two.)

A. Source and destination interface must be on the same host

B. Source and destination interfaces can be on different hostsC. Destination vEthernet interface can be on a different VLAN than the sourceD. Destination interface can be a physical portE. Destination interface cannot be a physical port

Correct Answer: ADSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 67What is the use of ERSPAN on N1kv?

A. Send monitored traffic to a VLANB. Send monitored traffic to a remote VEM over L2C. Receive monitored traffic on a vEthernet interfaceD. Send monitored traffic to an IP destination



QUESTION 68The network administrator is adding a new N1Kv to the vCenter, however, the administrator does not see the new switch under the networking tab of vCenter.

The administrator issues the following command on the VSM to troubleshoot:

VSM# show svs connections

connection VC:

ip address: 10.10.10.30

remote port: 80

protocol: vmware-vim https

certificatE. default

datacenter namE. DC1

Real 56Cisco 350-080 ExamDVS uuiD. 67 32 30 50 a6 d2 49 64-9e 1c 5f 49 e3 af 55 99

config status: Disabled

operational status: Disconnected

sync status: -

version: -

When attempting to fix the issue, the following error is seen:

VSM-PRI-188# conf

VSM-PRI-188(config)# svs connection VC

VSM-PRI-188(config-svs-conn)# connect

ERROR: [VMWARE-VIM] Extension key was not registered before its use

What is the cause of the error?

A. Missing control VLAN in VSM configurationB. Missing packet VLAN in VSM configurationC. VSM has no network connection to vCenterD. VSM extension key is not installed on vCenterE. vCenter extension key is not installed on VSM



proper answer.



An ESX host is added to a distributed switch but is never seen as a module in VSM. Given below configuration from VSM, what is the cause of this issue? (Choosetwo.)

VSM# show svs domain

SVS domain config:

Domain iD. 111

Control vlan: 500

Packet vlan: 501

L2/L3 Control modE. L2

L3 control interfacE. NA

Status: Config push to VC successful.

A. Missing VLAN 500 on Switch1 trunk to Switch2B. Missing VLAN 501 on Switch1 trunk to Switch 2C. VLAN 500 is not created on Switch2D. Interface VLAN 500 is missing on Switch1E. Interface VLAN 501 is missing on Switch1F. VLAN 111 is missing on all switches




QUESTION 70Why is a Cisco UCS B250 server unable to support 16-GB DIMMs?

A. Dual-rank DIMMs are not supported.B. 16-GB DIMMs are too slow.C. The largest DIMM an Intel 55xx or 56xx CPU can address is 32 GB.D. The memory bus would be too long.E. The blade would run too hot.



QUESTION 71On a Cisco UCS B250 M2 server that is fully populated with 1333-MHz memory and an E5640 CPU, what is the fastest speed the memory can run at?

A. 800 MHzB. 900 MHzC. 1066 MHzD. 1333 MHzE. 1666 MHz



QUESTION 72Which two servers support memory extension technology and give list? (Choose two.)

A. B200B. C210C. B250D. C260E. C460


Correct Answer: CDSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 73Which two statements about NPIV are true? (Choose two.)

A. After enabling NPIV, switch interfaces can only be placed into NP, F, or SD modes of operation.B. NPV devices log in to NPIV devices.

C. NPIV requires the Enterprise License Package.D. NPIV is supported on the Cisco MDS, N7K, and N5K families of switches.E. A director class switch should not be placed into NPIV mode.

Correct Answer: BDSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 74On a Cisco UCS B250 server, how many physical DIMM slots make up one logical DIMM?

A. 2B. 3C. 4D. 6E. 12


Explanation/Reference:well answered.

QUESTION 75Which statement about NPIV is true?

A. NPIV provides a means to assign multiple Fibre Channel IDs to a single N-port.B. NPIV can be enabled on a per-VSAN basis.C. NPIV requires a "write erase" and then reload the switch in order to come up into NPIV mode.D. NPIV is a Cisco proprietary feature and as such works only between two Cisco switches.E. NPIV must not be enabled on a switch that is also running N-port virtualization.




QUESTION 76Which two statements about end-host mode in SAN connectivity in a Cisco UCS environment are true? (Choose two.)

A. End-host mode is synonymous with NPV mode.B. In end-host mode, only hard pinning of vHBAs to Fibre Channel uplink ports is allowed.C. Making configuration changes between Fibre Channel switching mode and end-host mode is nondisruptive.D. End-host mode is the default Fibre Channel switching mode.



QUESTION 77What is the appliance port used to connect to in a Cisco Unified Computing System?

A. Fibre Channel storageReal 64Cisco 350-080 Exam

B. UCS C-Series serversC. NFS storageD. UCS chassisE. Other fabric interconnect



QUESTION 78Which are valid statements about Cisco Virtual Interface Card (VIC)? (Choose two.)

A. The Cisco VIC can create an unlimited number of Virtual NICs.B. The number of vNICs on the Cisco VIC that can be created is determined by the number of chassis uplinks.C. vNICs are created using software on the host operating system.D. The host operating system sees a vNIC as a physical PCIe device.E. The host operating system sees a vNIC as a sub-interface of a primary NIC.F. The Cisco VIC can create 1024 vNICs.



QUESTION 79Real 65Cisco 350-080 ExamGiven a Cisco Unified Computing System, which is a valid port type in end-host mode?

A. ServerB. End deviceC. NodeD. HostE. Virtual



QUESTION 80Given the following output:

san-port-channel 12 is up

Hardware is Fibre Channel

Port WWN is 24:0c:00:0d:ec:d3:5c:00

Admin port mode is NP, trunk mode is on

Port mode is NP

Port vsan is 1

Speed is 8 Gbps

Member[1] : fc2/3

Member[2] : fc2/4

What does "Speed is 8 Gbps" indicate?

A. The speed of the slowest interface in the port channelB. The combined speed of all interfaces configured in the port channelC. The combined speed of all interfaces in the port channel that are upD. The speed that can be achieved if all buffers are used




QUESTION 81Given a Cisco Unified Computing System, which is a valid port type in end-host mode?

A. TrunkB. Physical

C. UplinkD. SwitchE. End host



QUESTION 82In a Cisco Unified Computing System, where are SAN port channels connected to?

A. Only to Cisco Fibre Channel switchesB. Only to Cisco Fibre Channel switches in NPIV modeC. To any Fibre Channel switchD. Directly to storage arraysE. Only to Nexus Switches



Explanation:

QUESTION 83When will an "all configuration" backup be imported into the Cisco UCS Manager?

A. During the initial configuration from the consoleB. Once the basic configuration has been appliedC. To restore the configuration on a secondary fabric interconnectD. To upgrade the firmware on a replacement fabric interconnect

Correct Answer: B


Explanation/Reference:well exhibited answer.

QUESTION 84Which statement is true regarding Backup tasks in Cisco UCS?

A. They are created automatically and stored on the FIB. They are created manually and exported to a remote serverC. They are automatically scheduled to run every 24 hoursD. They are manually scheduled and stored on the FI



QUESTION 85Which statement is true about "full state backup" in a Cisco Unified Computing System?

A. An XML file containing all details of the system, including IP address and cluster detailsB. A binary file containing only service profiles, pools, and other items configured after initial configurationC. A binary file containing all details of the system, including IP address and cluster detailsD. An XML file containing only service profiles, pools, and other items configured after initial configurationE. A text file with the NX-OS running configuration



QUESTION 86An administrator is creating a service profile but receives an error when applying to a blade. The administrator checks the faults tab of the service profile and finds

the following error (Refer to the exhibit).


What is the cause of this error?

A. vNIC has a Fibre Channel QoS policy assignedB. vHBA is assigned to a "best-effort" QoS policyC. vHBA has no QoS policy assignedD. vHBA is assigned to an incorrect VSANE. vNIC has been assigned to an FCoE VLAN


Explanation/Reference:real answer.

QUESTION 87What would be the cause for the following fault in UCS Manager?

"ether VIF x / xxx down, reason: ENM source pinning failed"

A. The associated VLANs of a vNIC are not found on an uplink.B. Overlapping VLAN IDs exist on upstream disjoint networks.C. The vNIC was not configured for fabric failover.D. The vNIC is pinned to the wrong fabric.E. Overlapping VSAN IDs exist on upstream SAN switches.F. The vHBA was not configured for failover.

Correct Answer: A



QUESTION 88Which three statements are possible causes for the "fltAdaptorHostIfLink-down" fault in UCS Manager? (Choose three.)

A. The fabric interconnect is in the end-host mode, and all uplink ports have failed.B. The server port to which the adapter is pinned has failed.C. A transient error has caused the link to fail.


D. The fabric interconnect is in the switch mode, and all uplink ports have failed.E. The link for a network-facing host interface is missing.



QUESTION 89On a Cisco Unified Computing System (UCS), which two statements regarding Ethanalyzer are true? (Choose two.)

A. Interface inbound-low handles Rx and Tx of low-priority control packetB. Interface inbound-lo handles Rx and Tx of high-priority control packetC. Interface inbound-low maps to internal interface eth3D. Interface inbound-low maps to internal interface eth4



QUESTION 90Which statements are true regarding the Cisco UCS fabric failover feature? (Choose three.)

A. FabricSync is used to synchronize MAC addresses to an adjacent fabric interconnect after a server interface failover.B. Gratuitous ARPs are sent on fabric interconnect uplinks after a server interface failover.C. Fabric failover can be used on vNICs and vHBAs.D. Fabric failover is configured as part of the service profile.E. Fabric interconnects in end-host mode use fabric failover instead of spanning tree to provide redundancy on uplink ports.



QUESTION 91A Cisco UCS fabric interconnect in end-host mode learns MAC addresses on which port types? (Choose four.)

A. Uplink Ethernet ports or border portsReal 72Cisco 350-080 Exam

B. Appliance portsC. Server portsD. Fabric portsE. Backplane portsF. vEth interfacesG. A Fabric Interconnect doesn't learn MAC addresses in End Host mode. Pinning is used instead.

Correct Answer: BCEFSection: (none)Explanation

Explanation/Reference:answer is accurate.


All Ethernet ports are trunked with VLANs 2 thru 10. The Cisco UCS domain is in end-host mode. Host A transmits a single broadcast frame on VLAN 4.

Which statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Nexus 5548 A and Nexus 5548 B send a copy of the broadcast frame down all six ports to Fabric Interconnect A and Fabric Interconnect B.B. The deja vu mechanism on the fabric interconnects prevents the fabric interconnects from Real 73

Cisco 350-080 Examreceiving multiple copies of the broadcast frame.

C. All four vNICs receive a single copy of the broadcast frame.D. All four vNICs receive multiple copies of the broadcast frame on VLAN 4 but no broadcasts on any other VLAN.E. The spanning tree process prevents the vNICs from receiving multiple copies of the broadcast frame.F. The Reverse Path Forwarding mechanism prevents the vNICs from receiving multiple copies of the broadcast frame.




Fabric Interconnect A, operating in end-host mode, receives an ingress frame with source MAC address 0025.b500.0035 on uplink Eth1/19.


A. The frame will be accepted. Fabric Interconnect A will update its MAC address table to show that 0025.b500.0035 is dynamically learned on Eth1/19 and nolonger dynamically learned on Eth5/1/6.

B. Fabric Interconnect A will transmit a Gratuitous ARP for 0025.b500.0035 since it has moved ports, and the upstream network needs to be notified of the newlocation.

C. Fabric Interconnect A will drop the frame.Real 74Cisco 350-080 Exam

D. The MAC address table will not be updated as a result of receiving this frame on an uplink.E. Reverse Path Forwarding will determine whether or not this frame is dropped by Fabric Interconnect A.F. Deja vu will determine whether or not this frame is dropped by Fabric Interconnect A.



Explanation:

QUESTION 94Which GSS "source access list" is used to allow access to GSS by clients when GSS is being used as the DNS?

A. Client IPB. Proxy IPC. Client and proxy IPD. Neither client nor proxy IP



QUESTION 95In the event of a GSS failure in a GSS cluster, which is true?

A. The current connections are rerouted via the backup GSSB. Secondary GSS cannot be used to configure the GSS clusterC. All remaining GSSs in the cluster continue responding to any new queriesD. All records in the GSS database are flushed and reconstructed again using a new master GSS


Explanation/Reference:answer is right.

QUESTION 96Real 84Cisco 350-080 ExamA Cisco Application Control Engine Appliance (ACE) non-admin context does not support "sticky" configuration. What is the reason for this issue?

A. ACE sticky license is not installedB. ACE stickiness is not supported in a non-admin context

C. ACE stickiness resources are not defined in an admin contextD. Stickiness is configured properly in the CCIE virtual context



QUESTION 97Which is true when describing a connection replication in Cisco ACE?

A. It is not supported for SSL connections.B. It is not supported for non-SSL connections.C. It can only be configured manually.D. It has a maximum limit of 50,000 replicated connections.



QUESTION 98Which of the following are supported in Cisco Global Site Selector? (Choose three.)

A. Full DNS functionality as a replacement of a DNSB. Responds to a DNS query with A-recordC. Forwards queries to a name serverD. Multiple A-recordsE. DHCP functionality for the local hosts

Correct Answer: BCDSection: (none)Explanation


Explanation:

QUESTION 99Real 85Cisco 350-080 ExamKAL-AP on the Cisco ACE allows communication with Cisco ACE Global Site Selector, to report virtual IP and real server availability. Which statement is true aboutKAL-AP?

A. It is a Cisco propriety keepalive.B. It supports a maximum of 256 KAL-AP entries.C. It supports a maximum of 256 KAL-AP keepalives.D. It is used for both Cisco and non-cisco load balancers


Explanation/Reference:valid answer.

QUESTION 100What is the purpose of this command in a Cisco Application Control Engine?

switch/Admin# show np 1 me-stats "-F0 v"

A. It displays the status of the internal SSL proxy structure associated with a vserver.B. It displays the crypto-related statistics for a single NP.C. It is the same output of a "show stats crypto" client/server.D. It shows details on HTTP session entries.



QUESTION 101How many concurrent GUI logins are possible per user account on Cisco UCS Manager?

A. 128B. 96C. 64D. 32



QUESTION 102Real 88Cisco 350-080 ExamACE can check the health of servers and server farms by configuring health probes (sometimes referred to as keepalives). There are several types of probes.Which three options are valid ACE probes? (Choose three.)

A. TCPB. ICMPC. HTTPD. IPsec



QUESTION 103Which option is a benefit of virtualized Application Networking Manager?

A. Static workload scalingB. Local authorizationC. High availabilityD. Health monitor probeE. Distributed backup




Real 89Cisco 350-080 ExamWhich command would produce this output?

A. show stats HTTPB. show stats loadbalanceC. show stats probe typeD. show parameter map


Explanation/Reference:good choice of answer.


Real 90Cisco 350-080 ExamWhile attempting to modify a management firmware package, you receive the error that is shown in the exhibit. Which two statements explain this error? (Choosetwo.)

A. The management firmware package that is referenced by the service profile has been deleted.B. The Cisco UCS Manager version is 2.1 or later.C. Cisco Integrated Management Controller firmware should be managed via the host firmware policy.D. You cannot modify the management firmware directly when a policy has been assigned.E. The user that is logged into Cisco UCS Manager does not have sufficient privileges.

Correct Answer: BCSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 106Which three concepts influenced the evolution of data centers? (Choose three.)

A. ConsolidationB. ExpansionC. AutomationD. VirtualizationE. CommoditizationF. Economics



QUESTION 107Which three technologies enable lossless Ethernet? (Choose three.)

A. Priority Flow ControlB. Enhanced Transmission SelectionC. Ethernet CreditsD. Congestion Notification

E. VLAN-Aware TransmissionF. IP Type of Server Field



Explanation/Reference:Satisfied answer.

QUESTION 108What are two benefits of a FabricPath network? (Choose two.)

A. Simplicity of configurationB. Automatic OSPF routingC. ScalabilityD. Dynamic link selectionE. Spanning tree loop prioritization.




The interface remains in a down state after entering the command that is shown in the exhibit.What is the cause of the problem?

A. The feature interface-vlan command must be configured.B. The VDC contains only F1 interfaces.C. There are IP address conflicts.D. The VDC is "type OTV."E. The command copy run start was not entered.



QUESTION 110What are the three prerequisites for enabling FCoE on a Cisco Nexus 7000? (Choose three.)

A. M Series moduleB. F Series moduleC. no-drop QoS policyD. NPIV featureE. FCoE module licenseF. Fabric Extender configured

Correct Answer: BCESection: (none)

Explanation


QUESTION 111How many virtual interfaces do the Cisco UCS 1280, 1240, and 1225 Virtual Interface Cards support?

A. 128B. 64C. 256D. 1024E. 100




QUESTION 112Consistency checks and compatibility checks are performed before a vPC is created. During a compatibility check, one vPC peer conveys configuration informationto the other vPC peer to verify that vPC member ports can actually form a port channel. Which two statements about virtual port channel graceful consistencychecks are true? (Choose two.)

A. Graceful consistency check is enabled by default.B. When graceful consistency check is enabled, only the links on the secondary peer device are suspended.C. Graceful consistency check is disabled by default. To enable this feature, use the graceful consistency-check command under the vPC domain configuration

mode.D. When graceful consistency check is enabled, only the inconsistent VLANs on the secondary peer device are suspended.E. Graceful consistency check is disabled by default.


Explanation/Reference:great answer.

QUESTION 113Consistency checks and compatibility checks are performed before a vPC is created. During a compatibility check, one vPC peer conveys configuration informationto the other vPC peer to verify that vPC member ports can actually form a port channel. Which option is considered as a

Real 97Cisco 350-080 ExamType-2 misconfiguration?

A. port MTU mismatchB. native VLAN mismatchC. STP interface settingsD. VLAN mismatch



QUESTION 114Which three statements about Cisco FabricPath are correct? (Choose three.)

A. Only F1 or F2 ports can be used as FabricPath core ports.B. Only F1 or F2 ports can be used as edge ports to connect a legacy spanning tree domain (to switch traffic over the FabricPath domain).C. A FabricPath VLAN can exist on F1 or F2 ports only.D. Only M1 or M2 ports can be used as FabricPath core ports.E. Only F2 ports can be used as edge ports to connect a legacy spanning tree domain (to switch traffic over the FabricPath domain).F. A FabricPath VLAN can exist on F1 ports only.



QUESTION 115Which PIM mode is supported in Cisco NX-OS?

A. sparse modeB. dense modeC. sparse-dense modeD. dense-sparse mode





Which configuration command (or commands) will produce the output that is shown in the exhibit?

A. no feature igmpB. no feature igmp snoopingC. vlan 201

no ip igmp snoopingD. vlan configuration 201

no ip igmp snoopingE. interface vlan 201

no ip igmp snooping





The following message output was displayed while configuring PIM on Nexus 7000. Which command should be configured on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switchto allow the desired configuration?

A. feature multicastB. feature pimC. ip multicast-routingD. ip pim routing


Explanation/Reference:correct answer.


When the engineer tried to check CoPP on the switch, the engineer observed the error that is shown in the exhibit. Which option describes the reason for thedisplayed output?

A. The Cisco NX-OS version that is running does not support CoPP.B. The CoPP feature is not enabled on this switch.C. The CoPP CLI is available from the default VDC.D. CoPP is enabled by default but not configured.




QUESTION 119How many ACL capture sessions can be configured on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch?

A. ACL capture is not supported on the Cisco Nexus 7000 switch.B. Only one ACL capture session can be active at any given time in the system across virtual device contexts.

C. Only one ACL capture session can be active in each virtual device context.D. The number of ACL capture sessions depends on the space that is available within the ACL Ternary Content Addressable Memory.E. Only one ACL capture session is supported per VLAN.


Explanation/Reference:no doubt at answer.

QUESTION 120On a Cisco Nexus 7000 device, on which port type can port security be configured?

A. Access portsB. SPAN destination portC. trunk portsD. public VLAN-enabled ports



QUESTION 121Which statement is true about DHCP snooping on the Cisco Nexus 7000 platform?

A. DHCP snooping cannot be enabled globally and on a per-VLAN basis.B. By default, DHCP snooping is disabled globally and on all VLANs.C. You can enable DHCP snooping on a single VLAN only.D. For DHCP snooping to function properly, all DHCP servers must be connected to the device through untrusted interfaces.



Explanation:


QUESTION 122Which two statements about VDC configuration and limitations are true? (Choose two.)

A. Standard VDCs cannot share interfaces, VLANs, or VRF tables.B. Any user can create VDCs.C. Only the network administrator role can use the switchto vdc command.D. After a network administrator uses the switchto vdc command, the network administrator becomes a VDC administrator for the new VDC.E. There is no CLI command to return to the original VDC.




You configured a port on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch as a trunk port. Which VLANs are allowed on the trunk port based on the port configuration in the exhibit?

A. No VLANs are allowed by default. Use the switchport trunk allowed vlan 1-4094 command to allow all VLANs.B. Only Native VLAN 1 will be allowed.C. VLANs 1 to 3967, and 4048 to 4094 are allowed.D. VLANs 1 to 3900, and 4048 to 4094 are allowed.E. VLANs 1 to 4094 are allowed.

Correct Answer: C




QUESTION 124Which three prerequisites must be met before configuring FabricPath on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch? (Choose three.)

A. Ensure that the Enhanced Layer 2 license is installed on the switch.B. The FabricPath feature set must be installed on the default and non-default VDCs.C. Spanning tree must be disabled on the switch.D. Ensure that you are working on the F Series module.E. Ensure that you are working on the M Series module.F. The FabricPath feature set must be installed only on the default VDC.



QUESTION 125Which two types of multicast trees are supported by Cisco NX-OS? (Choose two.)

A. private treesB. shared treesC. unicast treesD. anycast treesE. unidirectional treesF. bidirectional trees

Correct Answer: BFSection: (none)Explanation



Real 103Cisco 350-080 ExamThe engineer needs to check if keepalive messages between two servers in the address range 9.9.9.0/24 arrive from the device that is directly connected via thetrunk interface. Which two configurations should be applied on the switch port to achieve displayed output? (Choose two.)

A. ip access-list LO_FILTERstatistics per-entry10 permit ip 9.9.9.0 0.0.0.255 any20 permit ip any any

B. ip access-list LO_FILTER10 permit ip 9.9.9.0 0.0.0.255 any20 permit ip any any

C. ip access-list LO_FILTER10 permit ip 9.9.9.0 0.0.0.255 any20 deny ip any any

D. Nexus5K(config)# interface Ethernet1/1Nexus5K(config-if)# ip access-group LO-FILTER in

E. Nexus5K(config)# interface Ethernet1/1Nexus5K(config-if)# ip port access-list LO-FILTER in

F. Nexus5K(config)# interface Ethernet1/1Nexus5K(config-if)# ip port access-group LO-FILTER out

Correct Answer: AESection: (none)

Explanation


QUESTION 127Which two statements about Fibre Channel Class 2 are true? (Choose two.)

A. Fibre Channel Class 2 provides a connection-oriented class of service.B. The F_BSY frame is part of Class 2.C. Class 2 acknowledges frame delivery.D. BB_Credits do not exist in Class 2.E. Dedicated bandwidth is allocated when using Class 2.



QUESTION 128Which two options describe the results of a switch sending an RCF SW_ILS frame to neighbor switches? (Choose two.)


A. All traffic in all VSANs is suspended.B. Zone merging is reinitiated.C. The principal switch remains the same.D. New Fibre Channel domains can be allocated.E. The switch name is changed.


Explanation/Reference:satisfied by the answer.

QUESTION 129Which statement about ESS SW_ILS frames is true?

A. ESS SW_ILS frames are addressed from the management server of a requesting switch to the Management Server of a responding switch.B. ESS SW_ILS frames are addressed from the name server of a requesting switch to the Name Server of a responding switch.C. ESS SW_ILS frames are addressed from the domain controller of a requesting switch to the Domain Controller of a responding switch.D. ESS SW_ILS frames are addressed from the alias server of a requesting switch to the Alias Server of a responding switch.E. ESS SW_ILS frames are addressed from the time server of a requesting switch to the Time Server of a responding switch.



QUESTION 130Which three parameters are carried by an iSCSI TCP session? (Choose three.)

A. control messagesB. SCSI commandsC. parameters that specify redundant pathsD. iSCSI PDUsE. primitive signals




QUESTION 131Which two statements about Fibre Channel over IP are true? (Choose two.)

A. FCIP links consist of a maximum of one TCP connection between two FCIP link endpoints.B. Each FCIP link carries encapsulated FCoE frames.C. The FCIP link is established between two peers, and the VE Port initialization behavior is identical to a normal E Port.D. The FCIP profile contains information about the local IP address and TCP parameters.E. The local IP address of the FCIP profile is the IP address of the management interface of the Cisco MDS switch.



QUESTION 132Which two statements about Fibre Channel over TCP/IP are true? (Choose two.)

A. A connection request is made to Port 3225 or configured port.B. A connection request is made to Port 3260 or configured port.C. Fibre Channel over TCP/IP uses the TCP window management and sliding window for flow control.D. A special frame is always used to identify peers.




Real 106Cisco 350-080 ExamHow is the VLAN configuration accomplished in the Device Manager?

A. This configuration is done under the IP selection.B. This configuration is done under Interface selection.C. This configuration cannot be done in Device Manager.D. This configuration is done by clicking the VSAN drop-down list and choosing VLAN All.



QUESTION 134What is the default FSPF cost of a port channel that consists of four 2-Gb/s links, with one link down because of an error?

A. 500B. 166C. 250D. 125E. 1000


Explanation/Reference:best possible answer.


Which two options describe possible causes of the failure shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

A. Two switches have the same zone set name, but different zone names and different zone members.Real 107Cisco 350-080 Exam

B. Two switches have the same zone set name and zone name, but different zone members.C. The zoneset export interface command is used for the wrong interface.D. The zoneset merge command can only be executed for VSAN 1.E. The adjacent switch is down at the point of the zone merge.


Explanation/Reference:reliable answer.

QUESTION 136Which two statements about Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches are correct? (Choose two.)

A. When VSM interfaces are created for a virtual machine, the VMware vSwitch port-group configuration is used initially, which requires the creation of a port-groupname for these interfaces and an appropriate VLAN. The simplest configuration is to create a single port group (for example, VSM-Interfaces), that includes allthe interfaces that use this port group and the same VLAN.

B. The mgmt0 interface on the VSM does not necessarily require its own VLAN. In fact, you can use the same VLAN to which the VMware vCenter Server belongs.The VSM management VLAN is really no different from any other virtual machine data VLAN. Alternatively, network administrators can designate a specialVLAN for network device management.

C. Always deploy the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series VSM in pairs, with one VSM that is defined as the primary module and the other that is defined as the secondarymodule on two separate hosts.

D. The service console is a critical interface that resides on every logical server.



QUESTION 137Real 111Cisco 350-080 ExamWhich two methods can be used to install the Cisco Nexus 1000V VEM on an ESXi host? (Choose two.)

A. Installation using VMware Update ManagerB. Iinstallation via the esxupdate/esxcli command with a tar.gz fileC. Installation via the esxupdate/esxcli command with a .vib fileD. Copying VEM executable files to ESXi host /binE. Installation from the VSM using the vem install host commandF. Installation from the VSM using FTP and the vem auto-install command



QUESTION 138Which two methods can be used in communications between the Cisco Nexus 1000V VEM and the VSM? (Choose two.)

A. routed TCP traffic using HTTPSB. routed UDP traffic using port 4785C. routed UDP traffic using port 7845D. Layer 2 direct traffic using MAC addressesE. Layer 2 broadcast trafficF. routed TCP traffic using port 4785G. routed TCP traffic using port 7845





An administrator is setting up the VSM and VEM in Layer 3 mode. The administrator adds a host to the distributed switch in VMware, but does not see the modulejoin the VSM. Given the configuration in the exhibit, which three configuration items must be included in the configuration? (Choose three.)

A. The vEthernet Port Profile parameter must be set to Capability I3control.B. The vEthernet Port Profile parameter must be set to VSM l3control.C. The Ethernet Port Profile parameter must be set to System VLAN 1400.D. The Ethernet Port Profile parameter must be set to VLAN 1400 in the allowed trunk.E. The Ethernet Port Profile parameter must be set to Capability l3control.F. The vEthernet Port Profile parameter must be set to Mode Trunk.G. The vEthernet Port Profile parameter must be set to VEM l3control.




Real 113Cisco 350-080 ExamAn administrator is setting up the VSM and VEM in Layer 3 mode. The administrator adds a host to the distributed switch in VMware, but does not see the modulejoin the VSM. Given the configuration in the exhibit, which configuration needs to be included?

A. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.1B. vrf context control

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.1C. vrf context management

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.1D. ip route vrf management 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.1



QUESTION 141Where can port profiles be created for the Cisco Nexus 1000V?

A. on the VSM onlyB. on vCenter onlyC. on VSM and vCenterD. on VSM and VEME. on VSM, VEM, and vCenter

Correct Answer: ASection: (none)

Explanation


QUESTION 142The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series implementation has two main components. Which two components together make up the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch?(Choose two.)

A. virtual supervisor moduleB. virtual Ethernet moduleC. virtual machine NICsD. virtual machine kernel NICs




A port profile is created in the VSM, but it is not seen in vCenter and cannot be assigned to a virtual machine. Given the configuration in the exhibit, which VSMcommand will resolve this issue?

A. vmware port-groupB. vmware port-activeC. profile-activeD. port-group activeE. shutdown / no shutdown


Explanation/Reference:obvious answer.

QUESTION 144Real 115Cisco 350-080 ExamWhich two statements about dynamic port binding are true? (Choose two.)

A. The port is connected when the VM is powered on and disconnected when the VM is powered off.B. The port is created when the VM is powered on and destroyed when the VM is powered off.C. The max-port limits are enforced.D. The max-port limits are not enforced.E. The port is always connected.




Which option is valid for connecting the fabric interconnect to the I/O module?

A. A, B, C, and D are valid.B. A and B are valid.C. A, B, and D are valid.D. Only A is valid.



Explanation:

QUESTION 146Which two server models support single-wire management for Cisco UCS C-Series integration with Cisco UCS Manager? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco UCS C200 M2 serverB. Cisco UCS C250 M2 serverC. Cisco UCS C260 M2 serverD. Cisco UCS C240 M3 serverE. Cisco UCS C240 M2 server



Explanation/Reference:accurate answer,

QUESTION 147You have configured a Cisco UCS C460 M2 Rack-Mount Server with two VIC 1225 adapters for single-wire management with Cisco UCS Manager. Whichstatement correctly describes the operation of these adapters?

A. One VIC is designated to carry management, and the other VIC is designated to carry data traffic.B. Both VICs will be used for management and data traffic.C. One VIC will carry management, and both VICs will carry data traffic.D. The Cisco UCS C460 M2 does not support two VIC 1225 adapters simultaneously.





Which option describes the output that is shown in bold in the exhibit?

A. This output represents a standby VIF.B. This output indicates that fabric failover has been enabled on vNIC 3.C. This output represents a reserved system VIF.D. This output represents an unpinned interface.


Explanation/Reference:satisfactory.

QUESTION 149Which two FEX connection modes are correct? (Choose two.)

A. hard-pinning modeB. soft-pinning modeC. port channel modeD. physical-pinning mode

E. vlan pinning mode




QUESTION 150What is the default MTU for Fibre Channel on Cisco UCS Manager?

A. 2112B. 2240C. 2000D. 9216




Real 120Cisco 350-080 ExamHow many additional chassis equipped with Cisco UCS 2204XP I/O Modules could be connected at maximum bandwidth without exceeding the existing portlicenses?

A. 1B. 2C. 3D. 4E. 5



QUESTION 152Which two items have an impact on the maximum number of virtual interfaces that can be created on a virtual interface card? (Choose two.)

A. number of blades in the chassisB. number of acknowledged links between the Fabric Interconnect and the I/O module

C. number of connected uplinksD. number of Fabric Interconnect port ASICs used by uplinksE. number of Fabric InterconnectsF. number of VIC



QUESTION 153Which feature must be enabled on the upstream Fibre Channel switch if the fabric interconnect is configured in end-host mode?

A. NPVB. NPIVC. ZoningD. Smart Zoning





Which two statements about the output and diagram are true? (Choose two.)

A. FI-A is configured in FC switch mode.B. VSAN trunking is enabled on FI-A.C. The native VSAN should be VSAN 1.D. Cisco UCS will allow all VSANs by default when FC trunking is enabled.E. FI-A requires VSAN pruning.F. Interface fc1/8 on MDS-A should be configured as a TE Port.



Explanation:

QUESTION 155You are about to assign a static UUID to a service profile. This particular UUID is also defined within the range of a UUID pool. The duplicate UUID in the pool hasnot yet been allocated. What will be the result of applying the static UUID?

A. Applying the static UUID will fail with an error stating that the UUID exists within a defined resource pool.Real 122Cisco 350-080 Exam

B. Applying the static UUID will succeed with no warnings.C. Applying the static UUID will succeed and a minor fault will be raised.D. Applying the static UUID will succeed and an information fault will be raised.E. Applying the static UUID will fail with an error stating that the UUID is a duplicate UUID.


Explanation/Reference:good answer.

QUESTION 156What is the purpose of the management interface monitoring policy?

A. to monitor the management interface counters for errors and dropsB. to prevent VM traffic from being black-holed during a cluster switchoverC. to sync MAC address tables between peer fabric interconnectsD. to ensure that the management interface of the managing fabric interconnect can reach the gateway



QUESTION 157How many traffic monitoring sessions can you create on Cisco UCS Manager?

A. 16B. 8C. 24D. 32


Explanation/Reference:Okay.

QUESTION 158Fault suppression allows you to suppress SNMP trap and Call Home notifications during a planned maintenance period. Which three commands are necessary toactivate these suppression polices in Cisco UCS Manager? (Choose three.)


A. default-chassis-all-maintB. default-chassis-phys-maintC. default-fex-all-maintD. default-FI-phys-maintE. default-blade-phys-maintF. default-vic-phys-maint




Assume that there is no disjoint Layer 2 configuration. Based on the output, what will happen if uplink eth1/7 on FI-A fails?

A. The host will lose Ethernet uplink connectivity on FI-A.B. Fabric failover will force the vNIC that is bound to FI-A to use uplink eth1/7 on FI-B.C. Cisco UCS Manager will disable the host vNIC that is connected to FI-A.D. Traffic from any hosts using this pin group will use e1/8 on FI-A.





Which two statements about the exhibit are true? (Choose two.)

A. The domain ID for SAN A is 0x64.B. fc1/8 and fc1/9 on the MDS-A are configured as E Ports.C. fc1/8 and fc1/9 on the MDS-A are configured as TE Ports.D. fc1/8 and fc1/9 on the MDS-A are configured as F Ports.E. FC trunking is enabled on the Fabric Interconnect.F. The domain ID for SAN A is 0x640.





Based on the output, what is the most likely reason for the failure of the iSCSI boot?

A. There is no gateway configured on the iSCSI vNIC.B. The LUN is not masked correctly on the storage array.C. CHAP authentication is not configured correctly.D. The latency between the imitator and target is too high.



QUESTION 162A load balancer performs an operation on a predefined parameter, such as the IP address, HTTP cookie, or URL, when a new connection is made so that anotherconnection with the same parameter will always reach the same server. Which load-balancing predictor does this statement describe?

A. round robinB. least-connectionsC. hashingD. least-loaded


Explanation/Reference:genuine answer.

QUESTION 163Real 126Cisco 350-080 ExamRefer to the exhibit.

Which type of address-port translation is shown?

A. server NATB. dual NATC. port redirectionD. transparent mode


Explanation


QUESTION 164Which option describes the default predictor on ACE to select the best server to fulfill a client request?

A. the hash cookie, which selects the server by using a hash value that is based on a cookie nameB. least bandwidth, which selects the server that processed the least amount of network trafficC. round robin, which selects the next server in the list of real serversD. the hash DNS, which selects the server using a hash value that is based on FQDN


Explanation/Reference:answer is updated.

QUESTION 165Real 127Cisco 350-080 ExamWhich three options are valid ACE probes? (Choose three.)

A. HTTPB. TelnetC. Java scriptingD. TCL scriptingE. XML scriptingF. SSH



QUESTION 166What are the three benefits of SSL offload? (Choose three.)

A. total offload of encryption from the serversB. partial offload of encryption from the serversC. Layer 5 to 7 awareness for Layer 7 switchingD. Layer 5 to 7 awareness for Layer 5 to 7 switchingE. public certificates required on both load balancer and the real serverF. public certificate required only on load balancer

Correct Answer: ACFSection: (none)Explanation




Which type of SSL offload configuration is shown in the output?

A. SSL terminationB. SSL initiationC. end-to-end SSL

D. SSL testing



QUESTION 168Real 129Cisco 350-080 ExamWhich protocol message does the Cisco ACE module use to insert or withdraw all RHI routes?

A. ICMPB. SCPC. IPv4D. SCTP



QUESTION 169In the basic DNS resolution process, which component receives the query and sends it to the location that knows the IP address for the destination?

A. DNS resolverB. D-proxyC. root serverD. intermediate serverE. authoritative server



QUESTION 170OTV is a MAC-in-IP method that extends Layer 2 connectivity across a transport network infrastructure. Which three options are high-availability features? (Choosethree.)

A. OTV fast convergenceB. fast failure detectionC. added the track-adjacency-nexthop command to enable overlay route trackingD. added support for unicast cores using an adjacency serverE. added support for IPv6 unicast forwarding and multicast flooding across the OTV overlay



QUESTION 171Real 140Cisco 350-080 ExamWhich three statements about FabricPath are true? (Choose three.)

A. Only FabricPath VLANs can cross a FabricPath domain.B. A vPC+ peer link can be formed out of F1 or F2 ports only.C. With FabricPath, vPC must be changed to vPC+.D. F1 ports must be placed into a separate VDCs.E. A vPC+ peer link can be formed out of F2 ports only.


Explanation/Reference:sophisticated answer.

QUESTION 172

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the purpose of this command on the Cisco Nexus 7000 switch?

A. The command enables conversational learning on FabricPath VLANs 1 through 10 for the F Series module.B. The command enables the FabricPath protocol on VLANs 1 through 10.C. There is no need for this command because conversational learning is enabled by default for all VLANs.D. The command enables conversational learning on a classic Ethernet VLAN for the F Series module.





Which three statements describe the use of the vPC peer link in this topology? (Choose three.)

A. The peer link is used for synchronizing MAC addresses between SW1 and SW2.B. The peer link is used for control plane traffic only.C. The peer link provides necessary transport for multicast traffic.D. The peer link is used for the communication of orphaned ports.E. The peer link does not prevents the loops in the topology.F. The peer link always consists of two 10GB ports in a port-channel.


Explanation/Reference:selection of answers is correct.

QUESTION 174What is the default vPC peer-keepalive timeout on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch?

A. 5 secondsB. 256 millisecondsC. 500 millisecondsD. 1 second




QUESTION 175On the Cisco Nexus 7000 switch, ACL capture sessions are supported on which two modules? (Choose two.)

A. M1 modulesB. M2 modulesC. F1 modulesD. F2 modulesE. M3 modules



Explanation:

QUESTION 176Which three configurations for ACL capture are valid? (Choose three.)

A. on a VLAN interfaceB. in the ingress direction on all interfacesC. in the ingress direction only on the M2 moduleD. in the egress direction on all interfacesE. in the egress direction on all Layer 3 interfacesF. in the ingress direction only on M1 module


Explanation/Reference:fine



A new Nexus device, Router-B, was recently added to the network. The engineer wants to make Router-B the designated IGMP querier for this network. Which twoconfigurations should be applied to the devices on the network to accomplish this goal? (Choose two.)

A. Router-B(config)# interface Ethernet1/1Router-B(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.251 255.255.255.0

B. Router-B(config)# interface Ethernet1/1Router-B(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.249 255.255.255.0 Router-B(config)# feature igmp

C. Router-B(config)# interface Ethernet1/1Router-B(config-if)# ip igmp version 2Router-B(config)# feature igmp

D. Router-B(config)# interface Ethernet1/1Router-B(config-if)# ip igmp querierRouter-B(config)# feature pim

E. Router-B(config)# interface Ethernet1/1Router-B(config-if)# ip pim sparse-mode





The customer is trying to configure a rendezvous point, but for some reason it is failing. Which configuration should be applied on both Nexus devices to configurethe rendezvous point?

A. RT-2(config)#ip pim send-rp-discovery loopback10

RT-2(config)#interface lo0B. RT-2(config-if)#ip pim-sparse

RT-2(config)#ip pim send-rp-announce lo10 group-list 239.0.0.0/24 RT-2(config)#interface lo0RT-2(config-if)#ip pim-sparse

C. RT-2(config)#ip pim send-rp-discovery loopback10RT-2(config)#interface lo0RT-2(config-if)#ip pim-sparse

D. RT-1(config)#interface Vlan106E. RT-1(config-if)#no ip pim border

RT-2(config)# ip pim send-rp-announce lo10 group-list 239.0.0.0/24 RT-2(config)#interface lo0RT-2(config-if)#ip pim-sparse

F. RT-1(config)#interface Vlan106G. RT-1(config-if)#no ip pim border

RT-2(config)# ip pim send-rp-discovery loopback10H. RT-1(config)#interface Vlan106

RT-1(config-if)#no ip pim border




QUESTION 179Which of the following is a feature of Fabric Extender?

A. The Fabric Extender provides two user queues for its QoS support, one for all no-drop classes and one for all drop classes.B. The class-all-flood and class-ip-multicast class maps are used on the Fabric Extender.C. The Fabric Extender inherits the CoS configured on the upstream switch.D. For a Cisco Nexus 2248PQ 10GE Fabric Extender, all fabric interfaces can be bundled into a single fabric port channel.



QUESTION 180You have a customer with an MDS fabric that is experiencing a performance problem. You suspect that the problem is due to a BB credit starvation issue with ahost HBA. The customer has both a DS-PAA-2 and a Fibre Channel Analyzer on location. You want to collect a trace and look at the R_RDY flows between theMDS and the host. Which of the following actions is the best way to start troubleshooting this problem?

A. Collect a Fibre Channel Analyzer local brief trace on the MDS and look for missing R_RDYs.B. Collect a Fibre Channel Analyzer local trace with full detail on the MDS, because the detail is needed to examine the R_RDY flow.C. Use the DS-PAA-2 and the MDS span feature to capture a trace and examine the R_RDY flow between the host and MDS.D. Use the Finisar and the MDS span feature to capture a trace because the DS-PAA-2 cannot decode R_RDYs.E. Break the physical connection between the host and MDS and insert the Fibre Channel Analyzer inline.



QUESTION 181Basic zoning changes are accomplished through the use of four SW_ILS frames. Which option identifies these frames in the correct order?


A. RCA, UFC, SFC, ACAB. ACA, RCA, SFC, UFCC. SFC, UFC, ACA, RCAD. ACA, SFC, UFC, RCAE. UFC, SFC, RCA, ACA


Explanation/Reference:proper answer.

QUESTION 182Which SCSI action returns a list of logical unit numbers to which additional commands may be issued?

A. Read CapacityB. Test Unit ReadC. Report LUNsD. ReadE. Inquiry


Explanation/Reference:very well.

QUESTION 183Which statement about the FCIP Tape Acceleration feature is true?

A. Cisco MDS SAN-OS provides only tape write acceleration.B. After receiving all the data, the host-side MDS FCIP Tape Acceleration-enabled switch proxies the successful completion of the SCSI WRITE operation.C. Cisco SAN-OS provides increased performance of data delivery to the remote FCIP connected tape drives by using UDP over the WAN.D. The FCIP Tape Acceleration feature can be used with multilink port channels if the port channels are constructed with a port channel protocol.E. WRITE FILEMARKS operations are proxied by the host-side MDS FCIP Tape Acceleration- enabled switch.




QUESTION 184Which statement about the SAN Extension Tuner is true?

A. The SET configuration is persistent across reboots.B. The virtual N Ports that are created will register the FC4 features that are supported with the name server.C. Only SCSI read and write commands are implemented.D. SET cannot be used if iSCSI is enabled.E. The data pattern that is used for the data that is generated between the virtual N Ports can be an all-zero pattern or an all-ones pattern. No other data patterns

can be used.



QUESTION 185Which two statements about FCIP Tape Acceleration are true? (Choose two.)

A. FCIP Tape Acceleration enables time stamp control on an FCIP interface.B. The Cisco MDS switch proxies a transfer ready to signal the host to start receiving data.C. FCIP Tape Acceleration uses TCP window management and a sliding window for flow control.D. FCIP Tape Acceleration reduces each I/O processing time by two RTT.E. FCIP Tape Acceleration only supports the read acceleration.


Explanation/Reference:Explanation:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/mds9000/sw/5_0/configuration/guides/i psvc/nxos/ipsvc/cfcip.html#pgfId-2465141

QUESTION 186Which of the following is an advanced networking function performed by VEM?

A. QOS.B. Snooping.C. VSAN creation.D. VLAN pruning.




Which three statements about the exhibit are true? (Choose three.)

A. The differentiating characteristic of the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series is that it does not run Spanning Tree Protocol. This characteristic may seem to be asignificant departure from other Ethernet switches, which might potentially cause catastrophic network loops. However, in reality, the Cisco Nexus 1000V Seriesimplements a simple and effective loop-prevention strategy that does not require Spanning Tree Protocol.

B. Because the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series does not participate in Spanning Tree Protocol, it does not respond to BPDU packets, nor does it generate them. BPDUpackets that are received by Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches are dropped.

C. The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series uses a simple technique to prevent loops. Like a physical Ethernet switch, the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch performssource and destination MAC address lookups to make forwarding decisions. The VEM applies loop-prevention logic to every Real 150Cisco 350-080 Examincoming packet on Ethernet interfaces.

D. The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series uses a simple technique to prevent loops. Like any logical Ethernet switch, the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch performs

source and destination MAC address lookups to make forwarding decisions. The VEM applies loop-prevention logic to every incoming packet on Ethernetinterfaces.

E. Because the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series participates in Spanning Tree Protocol, it responds to BPDU packets, and it generate them. BPDU packets that arereceived by Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches are dropped.



QUESTION 188Which two options correctly display IOM-to-Fabric Interconnect connectivity? (Choose two.)

A.

B. Real 151Cisco 350-080 Exam

C.

D. Real 152Cisco 350-080 Exam

A. Option AB. Option BC. Option CD. Option D


Explanation/Reference:right answer.

QUESTION 189What is the default burst in a LAN QoS policy?


A. 10240B. 9216C. 20480D. 1548

Correct Answer: ASection: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:Answer is updated.

QUESTION 190Which two statements about disjoint Layer 2 networks are true? (Choose two.)

A. Ethernet Switching mode must be end-host mode.B. Overlapping vlans are supported.C. Each vNIC can communicate with all the disjoint Layer 2 networks.D. Symmetrical configuration is recommended for high availability.E. Default VLAN 1 can be configured explicitly on an Uplink Ethernet Port or Port ChannelF. Appliance port cannot be configured with the same VLAN as Uplink Ethernet Port or Port Channel.




Real 161Cisco 350-080 ExamDuring troubleshooting of vPCs, it is observed that virtual port channel 2 is in the down state. Based on the show command output, what is a possible cause of thisissue?

A. The virtual port channel is down because LACP is not enabled on the remote switch.B. The virtual port channel is down because of a VLAN mismatch.C. The virtual port channel is down because of an MTU mismatch.D. The virtual port channel is down because of a VLAN and MTU mismatch.



QUESTION 192Which three options are valid SPAN sources? (Choose three.)

A. VLANs, because when a VLAN is specified as a SPAN source, all supported interfaces in the VLAN are SPAN sourcesB. fabric port channels connected to the Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric ExtenderC. Layer 2 subinterfacesD. satellite ports and host interface port channels on the Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric ExtenderE. Layer 3 subinterfacesF. Remote Span Ethernet Ports



QUESTION 193Which three statements about the configuration of vPC+ are true? (Choose three.)

A. The FabricPath switch ID must be configured under the vPC domain.

B. The virtual switch ID of vPC+ must be configured under the FabricPath domain.C. On the Cisco Nexus 7000 switch, F1 interfaces must be used as the vPC+ peer links.D. The vPC+ peer link must be configured as a Cisco FabricPath core port.E. The FabricPath subswitch ID must be configured under the vPC domain.F. There has to be atleast 4 virtual switches in the FabricPath domain.




Which statement about the interface that is connected to the NPV core switch is true?

A. The switch that connects to the hosts is identified in the design as an NPV edge switch, and the port that connects to the core is an NP port.Real 163

Cisco 350-080 ExamB. The interface that is connected to the NPV switch will need to be configured as an N-Port.C. The interface that is connected to the NPV core will become an FP port.D. The link between the NPV core switch and edge will come up as an E port.



QUESTION 195When an NP port becomes operational, the NP switch first logs itself into the core switch by sending a FLOGI request (using the port WWN of the NP port). Whatwill occur next?

A. The switch registers with the fabric name server.B. The switch will perform a PLOGI to the port login server.C. The switch will register parameters using FDISC.D. The NPV switch will perform a PLOGI using FDISC to register with the fabric name server.



QUESTION 196The FCoE VLAN is used to carry FIP and FCoE traffic for the corresponding VSAN. Which two statements about this mapping are true? (Choose two.)

A. The VLAN-VSAN mapping must be configured consistently in the entire fabric.B. This mapping can only carry Fibre Channel control and data traffic.C. There must be same VLANs on the A and B SANs.D. IP traffic is allowed if the interface is set to Shared.E. The VLAN must match the CNA setting.

Correct Answer: AB





Which option describes the capability that the FCoE setting allows?

A. configures the FEX to send FCoE traffic only to this switchB. allows mapped VLAN-VSAN traffic to reach the FEXC. configures FEX for A-B SAN capabilitiesD. allows interface Ethernet 101/1/1 to exchange DCBX information




What is the most likely reason that VSAN 88 is initializing?

A. VSAN 88 is not mapped to a FCoE VLAN.B. No host has logged into the VSAN.C. The VSAN is shut down.D. VSAN 88 is not part of the trunk yet.




QUESTION 199Which two actions must occur to disable the LAN traffic on an FCoE link to a host? (Choose two.)

A. interface Ethernet 1/1shutdown lan

B. The switch sends a LAN logical link status message to the CNA host.C. interface vfc11

shutdown lanD. The switch send a PFC command to the CNA host.E. interface Ethernet 1/1

vlan 10 disable


Explanation/Reference:real answer.

QUESTION 200What is the main function of the device-alias distribute command?

A. This command distributes the device alias configuration on the existing switch to all the other switches in the Cisco Fabric Services region.B. This command enables distribution and will send the configuration after a commit is executed.C. This command changes the distribution mode for device aliases.D. There is no such command.



QUESTION 201When a switch that supports enhanced zoning joins a fabric, which SW_ILS command does it use to determine the enhanced zoning capabilities of the otherswitches in the fabric?

A. MRReal 166Cisco 350-080 Exam

B. ESS

C. ELPD. EFPE. none of the above




Which three statements about the exhibit output related to Cisco Fabric Services are true? (Choose three.)

A. The lock can only be released only by the operations manager user on the 10.1.1.11 switch.B. The admin user on the 10.1.1.11 switch must clear the lock.C. The tacacs+ commit command is the only command that can be used to clear the lock.D. Any network-admin user can release the lock with the command clear tacacs+ session.E. The operations manager user has started, but not committed, a configuration change for the feature tacacs+ command.F. If committed, the changes are automatically saved to the startup configuration on all switches.

Correct Answer: DEF




Given the displays from N5K-1 and N5K-2, what is the expected result if the zone mode enhanced vsan 1 command is issued on N5K-1?

A. The mode change will complete with a warning that the zone database from N5K-1 will be distributed thoughout the fabric.B. The mode change will not complete due to the mismatch in the default zone mode.C. The mode change prompts the administrator to override the default zone mismatch and make them the same.D. The mode change completes, and the default zone setting remains unchanged in N5K-1 and N5K-2.

E. The default zone setting is set to deny in both switches because it is more secure.



QUESTION 204

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Correct Answer:



QUESTION 214Which two statements about SAN port channels configured on Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switches are true? (Choose two.)

A. The bring up protocol automatically detects and overrides any misconfiguration.B. You can manually configure channel groups, or they can be automatically created.C. Changes in configuration to the SAN port channel interface must also be made to all members of the channel group.D. The port channel protocol uses the exchange fabric parameters command to communicate across peer ports in an ISL.


E. The port channel protocol ensures that a set of ports is eligible to be part of the same SAN port channel.


Explanation/Reference:most accurate answer.

QUESTION 215Which three capabilities make the Cisco Nexus 7010 switch an effective solution for the data center core? (Choose three.)

A. virtualizationB. unified I/OC. support for 48-port Gb/s line cardD. support for Data Center Service ModulesE. high performanceF. high availability

Correct Answer: BEFSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 216Which statement about SAN port channels configured on Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches is true?

A. A single SAN port channel can have both Fibre Channel and virtual Fibre Channel interfaces.B. SAN port channels can include up to 16 interfaces.C. SAN port channels distribute traffic across all links in the port channel when source ID and destination ID load balancing are used.D. The links in SAN port channels can be connected to different sets of switches.E. The On mode of operation means ports only operate as part of a SAN port channel or remain inactive.



QUESTION 217Which capabilities are not supported in DCNM device manager?

A. manage SNMPv3 security access to switches

B. save and copy configuration files and software imagesC. configure VLANs and Ethernet port channelsD. manage 2148T FEX, 2232PP FEX, and 2248TP FEXE. configure FCoE



QUESTION 218What is the use of NPV in Cisco Unified Computing Systems? (Choose two.)

A. Compatibility with third-party Fibre Channel switchesB. Faster throughputC. Reduce domain IDs in a Fibre Channel environmentD. Support for increased number of VSANsE. Support for SAN port channels



Explanation:

QUESTION 219If the default VDC is configured to limit resources to a specific module type, what happens when a module that does not match the resource type is installed?

A. The module is powered up, and interfaces are in an "admin down" state.B. The module is denied power, and a syslog message is generated.C. The module is powered up, and interfaces are allocated to VDC0.D. The module is powered up, and interfaces are allocated to VDC100.



QUESTION 220What is the mechanism that is used to allocate MAC addresses that are assigned to the VDC for the system MAC address?

A. NX-OS uses a random MAC address from the IEEE OUI block that is assigned to Cisco.B. The VDC system MAC is pulled from the active supervisor and concatenated through a hash to ensure uniqueness.C. NX-OS uses a value that is based on a range that is assigned to the SPROM of the system backplane.D. The VDC system MAC is based on a range that is allocated to the first line card that is installed in the switch.


Explanation/Reference:definite answer.

QUESTION 221Which three flow-control port states lead to enabled link flow control? (Choose three.)

A. Receive port: Enabled, Transmit port: EnabledB. Receive port: Enabled, Transmit port: Desired


C. Receive port: Enabled, Transmit port: DisabledD. Receive port: Disabled, Transmit port: DesiredE. Receive port: Desired, Transmit port: Desired



Explanation:

QUESTION 222In a configuration with redundant supervisors, how many IP addresses are required to configure full remote access via management 0?

A. Two IP addresses, one for each supervisorB. Three IP addresses, one virtual IP and one physical IP for each supervisorC. One IP address that is shared among supervisorsD. None--management 0 will use the IP address from the first SVI that is created



QUESTION 223Given an E3 WAN link, which mode of compression would be the most appropriate choice?

A. Mode highB. Mode mediumC. Mode lowD. Mode 1E. Mode 2



QUESTION 224Which three options describe information that can be captured with the show iscsi stats iscsi x/y detail command? (Choose three.)

A. PDU or frame drop occurrencesB. speed of the iSCSI interfaceC. data CRC error

D. buffer creditsE. TMF-REQ and TMF-RESPF. duplex of the iSCSI interface





When a CNA host connects to the virtual interface of the switch, what will happen?

A. The switch will not initialize because it is in the wrong mode.B. The host will negotiate using DCBX and connect properly.C. The host will negotiate using DCBX and will change parameters as required, but a shut/no shut is needed on the interface.D. The host will not connect. The vFC port number does not match the Ethernet interface.



QUESTION 226Which three options describe the key management control parameters that Cisco Prime DCNM provides? (Choose three.)

A. configuration of change controlB. single shared database for LAN and SAN configuration dataC. single point for integration with third-party test toolsD. ability to manage vPCsE. autodiscovery of storage controllersF. host driver managementG. support for script automation





What action must be taken to make fc1/1 capable of being an ISL port channel member operating at 4 GB?

A. One of the interfaces between fc1/2 and fc1/6 must be placed in out-of-service mode to free up bandwidth in the port group so that fc1/1 can use that bandwidth.B. Interface fc1/1 must be placed into dedicated rate mode.C. The B2B credit value of interface fc1/1 must be raised to a minimum of 100.D. No action is necessary because shared rate mode ports are fine for ISLs.E. No action is possible because module 1 is oversubscribed and will only support ISLs if the ports operate at 2GBs.



QUESTION 228

Which statement best describes the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series?

A. The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series provides Layer 2 switching, advanced networking functions, and a common network management model in a virtualized serverenvironment.

B. The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series provides Layer 3 switching, advanced networking functions, and a common network management model in a virtualized serverenvironment.

C. The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series provides Layer 2 and Layer 3 switching, advanced networking functions, and a common network management model in avirtualized server environment.

D. The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series provides Layer 2 and Layer 3 switching but does not provide advanced networking functions or a common network managementmodel in a virtualized server environment.



QUESTION 229

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QUESTION 230What is the benefit of the Priority-Based Flow control feature in Data Center Bridging?

A. provides the capability to manage a bursty, single traffic source on a multiprotocol linkB. enables bandwidth management between traffic types for multiprotocol linksC. addresses the problem of sustained congestion by moving corrective action to the network edgeD. allows autoexchange of Ethernet parameters between switches and endpoints

Correct Answer: A



QUESTION 231Which two options describe devices as they operate in FabricPath topologies? (Choose two.)

A. Edge (or leaf) devices: These devices have ports that are connected to classic Ethernet devices (servers, firewalls, router ports, and so on) and ports that areconnected to the FabricPath cloud (or FabricPath ports). Edge devices are able to map a MAC address to the destination switch ID.

B. Spine devices: These devices exclusively interconnect edge devices. Spine devices switch exclusively based on the destination switch ID.C. Edge (or leaf) devices: These devices have ports that are connected to classic Ethernet devices (servers, firewalls, router ports, and so on) and ports that are

connected to the FabricPath cloud (or FabricPath ports). Edge devices are able to map a source address to the destination switch ID.D. Spine devices: These devices exclusively interconnect edge devices. Spine devices switch exclusively based on the source switch ID.




The network topology that is shown in the exhibit has two aggregation switches (SW1 and SW2). The access layer switch connects to both aggregation switches.On SW1 and SW2, ports connecting to the access layer switches are configured as vPC member ports. SW1 and SW2 are also connected using a port channelthat is configured as a vPC peer link. Which statement describes the use of the vPC peer-keepalive link in this topology?

A. The peer-keepalive link is used for synchronizing MAC addresses between Agg1 and Agg2.B. The peer-keepalive link is used for control plane traffic. The peer link is used for the data plane.C. The peer-keepalive link is used to resolve dual-active scenarios, where the peer link connectivity is lost.D. The peer-keepalive link is used for the communication of orphaned ports.



QUESTION 233Real 160Cisco 350-080 ExamWhich three options describe the interface and direction on which ACL capture can be applied on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch? (Choose three.)

A. on a VLAN interfaceB. in the ingress direction on all interfacesC. in the ingress direction only on the M2 moduleD. in the egress direction on all interfacesE. in the egress direction on all Layer 3 interfacesF. in the ingress direction only on M1 module.


Explanation/Reference:appropriate answer.

QUESTION 234

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QUESTION 235

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QUESTION 236When it comes to creating pooled WWN objects, it is important to understand that a Cisco UCS WWN pool can include only WWNNs or WWPNs from which valueof ranges?

A. from 10:00:00:00:00:00:00:00 to 10:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FFB. from 20:00:00:00:00:00:00:00 to 20:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FFC. from 30:00:00:00:00:00:00:00 to 30:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FFD. from 40:00:00:00:00:00:00:00 to 40:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF



QUESTION 237Cisco UCS Manager provides the ability to manage power utilization to the blades. Which two statements about UCS Manager power policies are true? (Choosetwo.)

A. Power capping helps mainly in reducing data center footprint.B. Power capping helps reduce data center cooling.C. A single power cap group policy allows you to set power limits across multiple UCS domains.D. You can have multiple power cap groups per UCS domain.E. Each blade within a UCS 5108 chassis can belong to a separate power cap group.




QUESTION 238In the event of a catastrophic disaster, after which you need to replace the entire UCS blade system (that is, new fabric interconnects, new IOMs, new chassis, andnew blades), what type of backup would provide the most complete set of information?

A. logical configurationB. all configurationC. full stateD. system configuration



QUESTION 239When creating a QoS policy dialog box in Cisco UCSM, which four fields can be modified? (Choose four.)

A. nameB. best-effortC. burstD. rateE. host control

Correct Answer: ACDESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 240Which policy determines what happens to local data and to the BIOS settings on a server during

Real 62Cisco 350-080 Examthe discovery process and when the server is disassociated from a service profile?

A. boot policy and BIOS policyB. disk scrub and boot policyC. BIOS setting scrub, boot policy, and BIOS policyD. disk scrub and BIOS setting scrub


Explanation/Reference:truthful.

QUESTION 241Where are Cisco UCS vNICs created?

A. In the blade BIOSB. In the operating systemC. In the service profileD. In the card option ROM



QUESTION 242Enabling jumbo frame support on a Cisco Nexus 5500 Switch can be done through which

Real 6Cisco 350-080 Exammethod?

A. Changing the default policy map from a default MTU of 1500 to 9216B. Using the command system jumbomtu 9216C. Using the command interface MTU 9216D. Configuring the default Ethernet system class to an MTU of 9216 with a new network QoS policy map



QUESTION 243DCNM is capable of monitoring the network performance of a SAN. What are the three primary areas of this operation?

A. Analyze traffic, device management, and network monitoringB. DCNM-SAN, DCNM-LAN, and device managerC. Definition of flows, information collection, and data presentationD. SNMP poll data, MIB analysis, and report generation




QUESTION 244What is required for proper implementation of jumbo frame support on a Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extender?

A. The interface configured as FEX fabric requires the MTU to be set to jumbo.B. The service policy must be applied to the system QoS.C. The device defaults to jumbo frame support; no changes are required.D. The switchport in the FEX interface must be set to MTU 9216.



QUESTION 245You can install Cisco DCNM-LAN on a supported version of which two operating systems? (Choose two.)

A. Microsoft Windows ServerB. Novell SUSE Linux Enterprise ServerC. Oracle Enterprise LinuxD. Red Hat Enterprise LinuxE. VMware ESX



Explanation:

QUESTION 246Cisco DCNM-LAN supports the configuration and monitoring of many Cisco NX-OS features, including which two of these Ethernet protocols? (Choose two.)

A. GLBPB. HSRP

C. IRDPD. VRRP


Explanation/Reference:appropriate answer.

QUESTION 247Cisco UCS provides integration interfaces and protocols to support heterogeneous data center environments and supports standard monitoring and eventnotification systems, providing data to standard enterprise-management tools.


Which two of these list the primary Cisco UCS interfaces and industry standard-based read-only interfaces? (Choose two.)

A. UCS Manager XML API and UCS CLIB. SNMP, SMASH CLP, and CIM-XMLC. UCS Manager, DCOS, and Local-mgmtD. SoL and NX-OSE. debug-plugin and UCS Manager GUI



QUESTION 248A virtual port channel (vPC) allows links that are physically connected to two different Cisco Nexus devices to appear as a single port channel to a third device.

Which are the mandatory steps for configuring vPC? (Choose six.)

A. Enable feature vPCB. Define domains

C. Establish peer keepalive connectivityD. Create a peer linkE. Configure the peer link as a trunk portF. Create port channels and vPCsG. Define port channel load-balancing methodH. Make sure configurations are consistent

Correct Answer: ABCDFHSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 249When creating a role in a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, rules are used to define the type of operations that a role will allow the user to perform. Which two ofthese parameters cannot be applied as a rule? (Choose two.)


A. port-profileB. commandC. access-listD. feature-groupE. OID



QUESTION 250In DCBX feature negotiation, the switch and CNA exchange capability information and configuration values. Which three capabilities are supported in Cisco Nexus5000 Series Switches? (Choose three.)

A. PFC

B. support for logical link up or downC. FCoE


D. multicastE. speedF. duplex



QUESTION 251Which statement about the iSCSI initiator task tag is true?

A. The initiator assigns a task tag to each task it issues.B. The target assigns a task tag on behalf of the initiator.C. During the life of the task, this tag does not have to be unique.D. SCSI may not use this tag as part of the SCSI task identifier.



QUESTION 252Which three management tools are available with DCNM-SAN Manager, Device Manager, and Performance Manager? (Choose three.)

A. Cisco Traffic AnalyzerB. Cisco Protocol AnalyzerC. Cisco Port Analyzer Adapter 2D. Cisco Prime LMSE. Cisco Prime NCS

F. Cisco Prime NMS


Explanation/Reference:sophisticated answer.



Which two options describe information that can be determined from this output? (Choose two.)

A. the uplink interface that is operating as the designated receiver for broadcast trafficB. the uplink interface that is operating as the designated sender for broadcast trafficC. the switching mode for which the Fabric Interconnect is configuredD. the uplink interface from which multicast traffic will be sourcedE. whether the last respond code was accepted or not




Real 170Cisco 350-080 ExamYou have associated a newly created service profile to a blade. When you examine the configured boot order and actual boot order, they do not match. Which twostatements describe reasons for this mismatch? (Choose two.)

A. Having a single iSCSI boot target would prevent the profile from associating, and would generate a configuration error.B. The server must complete a POST cycle before Cisco UCS Manager will update this information.C. The blade needs to be reacknowledged.D. The server is in the process of a firmware upgrade.E. There may be a configuration error in the service profile.




You are configuring a UCS C-Series server for SAN boot over FCoE. The server fails to boot after the HBA option ROM loads. Which option describes the mostlikely solution for this problem?

A. Decrease the vNIC MTU.B. Set the vNIC Class of Service to a nonzero value.C. Set the default VLAN to FCOE VLAN.D. Set the vHBA Class of Service to 2.E. Uncheck the PXE Boot option.F. Disable Persistent LUN Binding.





You are connecting a Cisco Nexus 2000 to an existing Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect domain for C-Series integration. Which option describes the next CiscoNexus 2000 that will be discovered?

A. FEX0101B. FEX0003C. FEX0102D. FEX1000E. FEX1001




What is the most likely reason for the output that is shown in bold in the exhibit?

A. One or more of the VLANs that are assigned to the vNIC have been deleted from Cisco UCS Real 172Cisco 350-080 ExamManager.

B. One or more of the VLANs that are assigned to the vNIC are assigned to different disjoint Layer 2 uplinks.C. There are no Ethernet uplinks that are enabled.D. The host to which the vNIC belongs is currently powered off.E. The vNIC is currently active and uses the fabric failover peer vNIC.


Explanation/Reference:Fine answer.


What is the most likely reason for the error?

A. There are not enough local hard drives to satisfy the local disk configuration policy.B. One of the resource pools is depleted (WWN, MAC, UUID).C. The destination blade is equipped with an M61KR-B adapter.D. The server is not equipped with adequate memory.E. A User Ack maintenance policy has been applied.




You are setting up a service profile to iSCSI boot using a Cisco UCS VIC 1240. The service profile returns a configuration error when you attempt to associate it.

What is the problem, based on the exhibit?

A. The iSCSI adapter policy is not set.B. iSCSI boot will not work with the default VLAN.C. The default VLAN should not be set as native on the overlay vNIC.D. The MAC address assignment is invalid.



QUESTION 260You plan to add a new VLAN to your updating service profile template. Assuming that the default maintenance policy is configured, which statement about applyingthis change is true?

A. The change will be applied immediately once the blade is rebooted.B. The change will be deferred until the user acknowledges.


C. The change will be applied immediately with no disruption to any bound service profiles.D. The change will generate an impact summary message.E. The change will require all bound service profiles to be unbound.



QUESTION 261How are unified port expansion modules for Cisco UCS 6200 Series Fabric Interconnects licensed?

A. All ports are fully licensed by default.B. The first eight ports on the module are licensed by default.C. The expansion modules contribute eight licenses to the global pool by default.

D. The expansion modules contribute six licenses to the global pool by default.E. The first six ports on the module are licensed by default.



QUESTION 262How many licenses are provided with the purchase of the Cisco UCS 6296 fabric interconnect?

A. 18B. 16C. 12D. 8





In the figure, the load balancer acts a transparent TCP proxy, and establishes the connection with the client on behalf of the real server. What is this type ofspoofing called?

A. delayed bindingB. software-based load balancingC. transport proxyD. application binding



QUESTION 264Which four options describe benefits of the global load-balancing solution? (Choose four.)

A. device status within the data centerB. performance granularityC. centralized client accessD. intelligent traffic managementE. reacts quickly for availability onlyF. server monitoring statisticsG. round robin support only for load-balancing


Correct Answer: ABDFSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 265

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QUESTION 270

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Your company requires a Cisco UCS configuration that will, at a minimum, allow the configuration in the provided exhibit.

Which Cisco UCS components will meet the requirement? (Choose three.)

A. Cisco UCS 6148, Cisco UCS 6248UP, or the Cisco UCS 6296UP fabric interconnectsB. Cisco UCS 2104XP Fabric ExtenderC. Cisco UCS 2204XP or 2208XP Fabric ExtendersD. Cisco UCS M81KR Virtual Interface CardE. Cisco UCS Virtual Interface Card 1280F. Cisco UCS Virtual Interface Card 1240 with a port expander

Correct Answer: AEFSection: (none)Explanation




According to the equipment tab in Cisco UCS Manager, which is true?

A. A is an uplink port, B is a fabric port, C is a server port, D is a backplane port, E is a DCE interface, and F is a vNICB. A is an uplink port, B is a server port, C is a fabric port, D is a backplane port, E is a DCE interface, and F is a vNICC. A is an uplink port, B is a fabric port, C is a backplane port, D is a server port, E is a DCE interface, and F is a vNICD. A is an uplink port, B is a server port, C is a fabric port, D is a DCE interface, E is a backplane port, and F is a vNICE. A is an fabric port, B is a downlink port, C is an uplink port, D is a server port, E is a VIC interface, and F is a vNIC




The Cisco UCS domain is operating in switching mode. A network administrator notices that no traffic is traversing the uplinks on Fabric Interconnect B (Path C).

Which actions might be used to change this behavior?

A. Fix the port channel configuration between Fabric Interconnect B and Nexus 5548 B as the port channel IDs do not match.B. Modify the bridge priority on the fabric interconnects so that one of the Nexus 5548s will always be the root bridge.C. Modify the bridge priority on the Nexus 5548s so that one of them will always be the root bridge.D. Modify the port priorities on the fabric interconnect uplinks (Paths B and C) so that they are a higher priority than ports Eth1/4 and Eth1/9 (Path D).

E. This is an invalid configuration as Cisco UCS fabric interconnects cannot be directly connected.


Explanation/Reference:updated answer.

QUESTION 274Your company wants Server 1/eth0 (vNIC 1) configured so that it always uses Fabric Interconnect A Port Channel 1 (Po1) when it communicates with anythingoutside of the Cisco UCS domain. However, if vNIC 1 fails over to Fabric Interconnect B using fabric failover, then vNIC 1 can use

Real 79Cisco 350-080 Examany uplink port on Fabric Interconnect B.


A. The fabric interconnects must be in end-host mode.B. A pin group must be configured on the server tab in Cisco UCS Manager.C. In the service profile for Server 1, vNIC 1 must be explicitly assigned to a pin group.D. Server 1 cannot be configured to meet the requirement. A server can only be manually pinned to a single physical interface and not a port channel because of

the LACP load-balancing algorithm.E. Server 1 cannot be configured to meet the requirement. A server is either manually pinned to an uplink on both fabric interconnects or the server is automatically

pinned, but not both.




Your company would like to deploy this topology design. Which statement applies?


A. The configuration cannot be implemented since all fabric interconnects are members of the same VLANs, and communication will not work properly for theBackup and Mgmt networks.

B. The configuration cannot be implemented because only one disjointed layer 2 network is supporteD. either Backup Net or Mgmt Net, but not both.

C. The Production Network and Backup Net topologies can be implemented.D. The Production Network and Management Net topologies can be implemented.E. The topology design can be implemented fully in Cisco UCS version 2.0 or later.



QUESTION 276What interface is created when an FC Port Channel is created on a Cisco Unified Computing System?

A. An interface 'san-port-channel' in NXOSB. An interface 'port-channel' in NXOSC. An interface 'port-channel' with 'mode fc' configuredD. An interface 'fc-port-channel' in NXOS


Explanation/Reference:finer answer.



You create a service profile within ORG C with two vNICs. Each vNIC is assigned to the MAC pool named "vmware". Which two possible MAC addresses could be

assigned to the vNICs? (Choose two.)

A. 00:25:B5:FF:00:01B. 00:25:B5:EE:00:01C. 00:25:B5:DD:00:01D. 00:25:B5:BB:00:01E. 00:25:B5:AA:00:01



QUESTION 278From the Cisco UCS CLI, how do you verify which uplink ports a blade server is using for its network connectivity?

A. UCS-A# show pinning border-interfacesB. UCS-B# show service-profile circuitC. UCS-B(nxos)# show pinning server-interfacesD. You must statically configure which uplink the blades should use, or you will not have connectivity.



Explanation:

QUESTION 279Server load balancing (SLB) is the process of deciding to which server a load-balancing device should send a client request for service.

Which predictors are supported on ACE in order to select the best server to fulfill a client request? (Choose three.)

A. Hash address: Selects the server by using a hash value based on either the source or destination IP address, or both

B. Hash URL: Selects the server by using a hash value based on the requested URLC. Hash MAC. Selects the server by using a hash value based on either the source or destination MAC address, or bothD. Hash header: Selects the server by using a hash value based on the HTTP header nameE. Hash IP: Selects the server using a hash value based on the IP address


Explanation/Reference:authentic answer.

QUESTION 280Application Control Engine (ACE) can check the health of servers and server farms by configuring health probes (which are sometimes referred to as keepalives). Aprobe can be one of many types. Which are valid ACE probes? (Choose three.)

A. HTTPB. Java scriptingC. TCL scriptingD. RADIUSE. TACACS



QUESTION 281Real 83Cisco 350-080 ExamWhen testing ICMP access to a functional load-balancing ACE VIP, it fails. What is the reason of this problem? (Choose two.)

A. The interface is shut downB. An access list is denying ICMPC. Routing is not configured properlyD. vip icmp-reply is inactive



QUESTION 282Which three statements describe user authentication in Cisco DCNM-LAN? (Choose three.)

A. Cisco DCNM-LAN server users are local to the Cisco DCNM-LAN server. Creating, changing, and removing Cisco DCNM-LAN server users has no effect onuser accounts on managed devices.

B. A Cisco DCNM-LAN server user that has Administrator privileges can push out changes to managed devices even if the Cisco NX-OS role that is used on thediscovered device has the network operator role.

C. Cisco DCNM-LAN user roles restrict the ability of users to make changes to Cisco DCNM-LAN server settings. Cisco NX-OS user roles enforce read/writeprivileges on the discovered devices.

D. Cisco DCNM-LAN allows you to configure unique credentials for each discovered device or use default credentials when you do not configure unique credentialsfor a device.

E. Cisco DCNM-LAN can use AAA servers to authenticate users. Only TACACS servers are supported.



QUESTION 283Nexus# conf t

Enter configuration commands, one per line. End with CNTL/Z.

Nexus(config)# interface Loopback10

% Permission denied

Nexus(config)# ?

no Negate a command or set its defaults

username Configure user information.

end Go to exec mode

exit Exit from command interpreter

What is the reason why this user is not able to enter configuration commands?


A. The user did not enter enable prior to going into configuration mode.B. The software license installed on Nexus is Layer 2 only, which does not allow the creation of Layer 3 interfaces.C. The user RBAC role is set to network-operator.D. The user failed authentication and user access defaulted to read-only mode.E. The AAA server is currently not responding.



QUESTION 284Which three statements best describe HSRP configuration on Cisco Nexus switches? (Choose three.)

A. In a vPC topology, the primary HSRP router will respond to ARP requests, but both HSRP routers will forward data traffic. No additional configuration is required.B. In a vPC topology, the primary HSRP router will respond to ARP requests, but both HSRP routers will forward data traffic if the peer-gateway feature is enabled.C. You can configure two overlapping HSRP groups to load share traffic from the connected hosts while providing the default router redundancy.D. You can use the show standby command to verify HSRP operation and configuration.E. If you remove the feature hsrp command, all relevant HSRP configuration information is also Real 21

Cisco 350-080 Examremoved.



QUESTION 285Which statement describes SNMP functionality in Cisco NX-OS Software?

A. NX-OS Software supports one instance of SNMP globally for all VDCs; however, MIB counters are collected and reported individually per VDC.B. SNMP must be enabled with the feature snmp command before any SNMP configuration is possible.C. SNMP is always enabled by default in NX-OS Software and cannot be disabled.D. NX-OS Software supports 3DES and AES for SNMPv3 message encryption.E. SNMP always uses the default VRF on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches.



QUESTION 286Which statement describes the XML management interface in Cisco NX-OS Software?

A. The following XML-based NETCONF operations are supported in NX-OS SoftwarE. close- session, copy-config, delete-config, and edit-config.B. The following XML-based NETCONF operations are supported in NX-OS SoftwarE. close- session, copy-config, edit-config, and kill-session.C. NX-OS Software supports up to a maximum of 16 concurrent XML sessions.D. Only show commands are supported via the XML management interface in NX-OS Software.E. The NX-OS implementation of the XML-based NETCONF requires SSH to be used for communication with the device.



QUESTION 287Cisco FabricPath uses what as a common bridge ID to connected Spanning Tree Protocol bridges?

A. C84C.75FA.6000

B. 0100.5E11.02FDC. C84C.76FA.6000D. 4000.0000.0001



QUESTION 288Which statement describes OTV configuration on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches?

A. The OTV control-plane protocol uses the IS-IS protocol to establish adjacencies and exchange MAC reachability across the overlay network. You must enableIS-IS with the feature isis command before OTV adjacencies can be established.

B. OTV uses an SSM group range for neighbor discovery and to exchange MAC reachability with other OTV edge peers.C. The OTV join interface is a routed uplink interface on the edge device used to physically join the overlay network.D. The OTV internal interface encapsulates the site Layer 2 frames in IP unicast or multicast Real 23

Cisco 350-080 Exampackets that are then sent to the other sites.



QUESTION 289How are IP multicast IGMP entries synchronized between vPC peers?

A. IGMP is not synchronized between vPC peersB. Cisco Fabric Service carries IGMP entries across the vPC peer linkC. IP ARP synchronization under the vPC domain configuration also synchronizes IGMPD. IGMP is flooded to the L2 domain, and there is no need to synchronize it between vPC peers


Explanation


QUESTION 290What does the command "IP ARP synchronize" do in a vPC configuration?

A. Synchronizes ARP entries between vPC peers every five minutesB. Triggers a manual update of ARP entries from the primary peer to the secondaryC. Enables a bulk loading of ARP entries when a vPC peer is restored Real 24

Cisco 350-080 ExamD. Uses the peer-keepalive link to maintain ARP table consistency




Documents

Cisco.Selftestengine.350-080.v2015-04-02.by.Frankie€¦ · 2/4/2015 · where the entire OTV configuration is applied. Which statements are true about OTV overlay interface? (Choose