GRE Practice Test Problems Thank you for downloading Chegg’s free, full-length GRE practice test. All questions were uniquely created to simulate actual GRE problems so you won’t find these exact questions anywhere else. Just like the actual GRE exam (paper version), this test contains:

2 Analytical Writing Tasks 50 Verbal Questions (2 sections of 25 questions) 50 Quantitative Questions (2 sections of 25 questions)

The computer adapted version of the exam (which most of you will take) consists of 20 questions in each Verbal and Quantitative section (instead of 25 which is provided). Therefore, if you want to perfectly replicate your testing experience, shave five questions from each section. In order to mimic the time constraints of the GRE, you should allot 3 hours and 10 minutes with the following time limits broken out for each section of the exam:

Analytical Writing Assessment – 30 minutes per task Verbal – 30 minutes per section Quantitative – 35 minutes per section

For the paper GRE version, add five minutes per Verbal and Quantitative sections. For a more realistic testing experience, you can access full-length, computer-adaptive GRE practice tests through our Chegg GRE Prep course for as low as $99. All materials in this GRE Prep course including the practice tests, quizzes, sample problems, videos and study guides were created by Kaplan Test Prep exclusively for Chegg subscribers only. Click over to Chegg for more information. Good luck!

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Sections 1 & 2: Analytical Writing

Analyze an Issue

Superstores are harmful to the country because they weaken local economies and erode community character. Write a response in which you discuss the extent to which you agree or disagree with the claim. In developing and supporting your position, be sure to address the most compelling reasons and/or examples that could be used to challenge your position.

Analyze an Argument

The passage below is taken from a market research report commissioned by the U.S. Small Business Administration. A national survey found that over half of unprofitable local small and medium enterprises (SMEs) that opened their business last year made a decision to exit the market by closing down. The study showed that external factors like global economic slowdown and oil price were hampering SMEs’ overseas supply sources. However, SMEs that survived their first year found local solutions to meet their supply needs. Apparently, the success of trading SMEs ultimately depends on the presence of local partners. Under the current economic climate, the government should work closely with larger trading SMEs to guarantee the survival of new trading SMEs. Write a response in which you discuss the sufficiency and validity of the argument and the resulting recommendation. Be sure to identify what questions need to be answered to fully explain your position.

Section 3: Verbal For each of questions 1 through 8, select one entry for each blank from the corresponding column of choices. Fill all blanks in a way that best completes the text. 1. The Book Thief follows the lives of a German family who together resolve to hide a friend in their basement during World War II in order to keep him safe. The author uses this story to demonstrate the lasting effects of ________ actions.

A. feckless B. altruistic C. capricious D. daedal E. mendacious

2. The ________ of Aristotle were significant to civilization because they started much-needed conversations on such topics as religion and politics. The ongoing controversy that these conversations sparked provided contrivance for empirically based data that is still utilized today. A. dossiers B. teleologies C. calculations D. relationships E. philosophies 3. Poaching remains a(n) ________ issue in many parts of the world, and endangered species advocacy continues with highly charged emotions on both sides regarding whether humans have dominion over all animal life. A. esoteric B. poignant C. important D. enigmatic E. acidulous 4. Anachronisms in film history are a staple for cinematic condemnation in the modern era. But classical theater arts, the precursor of cinema, barely placed importance on historical (i)________. Today, film audiences can be unforgiving of the (ii)________ old-fashioned treatment of the diegetic universe.

Blank (i) Blank (ii) A. accuracy A. perceptibly B. records B. uniquely C. relevance C. unrecognizably

5. In his “Essay XXIII,” Francis Bacon differentiates the (i)________ man from the wise man based on honesty and knowledge. (ii)________, this comparison echoes the moral aspects encountered in Othello, particularly that of the scheming Iago and of the sagacious Othello.

Blank (i) Blank (ii) A. sagacious A. Ironically B. cunning B. Paradoxically C. contentious C. Thematically 6. Regarded as bumptious and (i)________ in his professional dealings, Mark has always been a(n) (ii)________ and giving family man, which shows that the aspects of his personality that surface are situationally dependent.

Blank (i) Blank (ii) A. abstemious A. assertive B. covetous B. deferential C. forceful C. unbendable 7. The world of science is truly a competitive yet (i)________ world. A scientist painstakingly comes to a theory after much research, only to have the theory quashed by a peer. For example, renowned theoretical physicist Stephen Hawking has worked on unifying relativity and quantum physics. But critics have expressed a (ii)________ for his views, arguing that he is only drawing upon disparate areas of physics, not unifying them. Clearly, (iii)________ to its very core, the scientific community is obsessed with its culture of competition.

Blank (i) Blank (ii) Blank (iii) A. didactic A. disrelish A. congenial B. edacious B. predilection B. rivalrous C. perplexing C. penchant C. uncaring 8. In myths and legends from around the world, birds and animals appear as (i)________ of disaster, and in the natural world, their mass exodus just before a hurricane points to the scientific truth behind the legends. Across the globe, people have observed birds, insects, and animals of all sorts exhibit peculiar behavior when storms are (ii)________. Consequently, earth scientists are collaborating with biologists to identify geophysical precursors to (iii)________ animal behavior.

Blank (i) Blank (ii) Blank (iii) A. oeuvres A. imminent A. anomalous B. bulwarks B. tenuous B. incipient C. harbingers C. exigent C. rarefied

Questions 9, 10, and 11 are based on this passage. Richard Thaler of the University of Chicago, the founding father of behavioral economics, was awarded the 2017 Nobel Prize in Economics for research showing that economic choices are not rational all the time. By drawing upon concepts in psychology, he suggested that people often make choices that do not necessarily serve their best interests—a controversial position in the economics world, where rationality in making decisions is a primal assumption. An example of such illogical behavior is refusing to cut losses when the stock value is plummeting. As expected, traditional economists dismiss Thaler's views. In economics, along with rationality, perfect information and forward-looking reasoning allow models to be good approximations of the real world. Thaler proposed that people suffer from impulse-control problems and are subject to making social preferences. Thaler recommended that people practice self-control. He likened this process to a “cashew problem.” Resisting a bowl of cashews that you know will spoil your dinner can be a real challenge. For traditional economists, there is no challenge. They believe that it will spoil their dinner, so they do not need the cashews—a rational response. But in reality, as Thaler insisted, everyone struggles with this. Humans are not perfect, robotic decision-makers. 9. Which sentence in the passage most strongly suggests that traditional economists take a theoretical, instead of a practical, view of human behavior?

A. “Richard Thaler of the University of Chicago, the founding father of behavioral economics, was awarded the 2017 Nobel Prize in Economics for research showing that economic choices are not rational all the time.”

B.“By drawing upon concepts in psychology, he suggested that people often make choices that do not necessarily serve their best interests—a controversial position in the economics world, where rationality in making decisions is a primal assumption.”

C. “In economics, along with rationality, perfect information and forward-looking reasoning allow models to be good approximations of the real world.”

D. “They believe that it will spoil their dinner, so they do not need the cashews—a rational response.”

E. “But in reality, as Thaler insisted, everyone struggles with this.” 10. The passage is primarily concerned with:

A. arguing that traditional economists and their models are difficult to overcome. B. contradicting the fact that humans are always rational. C. describing how to have self-control in order to solve irrational behaviors. D. explaining how Thaler's research has overturned traditional economic doctrines. E. showing that human beings can be irrational in making economic decisions.

11. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would agree with which of the following statements?

A. Being mindful of how we make economic choices every day will help us avoid costly, irrational decisions.

B. Challenging the establishment can lead to unique research that is worthy of accolades. C. Humans, across evolution, have learned to act rationally without any struggles. D. Looking at rational behavior alone is not enough to study human behavior. E. Psychology can completely change how models of behavior are treated in economics.

Questions 12 and 13 are based on this passage. Studies on neurological function conducted in the 1970s have led to the adoption of right-brain left-brain theories that imply the idea of hemispheric preference. These studies, though outdated, have served to validate the idea that right-brained people are creative, while left-brained people are analytical, and subsequently, to the erroneous belief that one hemisphere of our brains remains active while the other lies virtually dormant and noncontributory to our personalities and behaviors. Recent studies have confirmed that certain physiological functions are lateralized in the human brain, specifically language processing, which occurs in the left hemisphere, and danger response, which occurs in the right. Confirmation of these asymmetries itself fails to support claims that link human personality and behavioral traits to hemispheric preference, however. In fact, it appears to be the interaction of our cerebral hemispheres that explains the behaviors that distinguish us from non-human animals. The ability to both generate language and receive it requires both hemispheres of the brain, for instance, as does the ability to recognize one’s errors and correct them. 12. Why does the author stress the significance of the 70s studies?

A. to highlight misconceptions of the researchers that skewed the results B. to point out exceptions to the research findings that invalidate the results C. to imply that future research on hemispheric preference should take a different direction. D. to explain that misconceptions arose from the research that skewed public belief E. to acknowledge the failure of the researchers to recognize evidence that conflicted with

the results 13. Based on the passage, which of the following is true of hemispheric preference?

A It is evidenced in animals with lower-level brain structures. B It drives task-specific activity that contributes to human behavior. C It explains a limited number of behaviors driven by unilateral activity. D It is wrongly linked to behaviors explained by intermittent cerebral activity. E It explains simple behaviors that require a limited number of cognitive steps.

Question 14 is based on this passage. In the late nineteenth century, symbolism emerged as poets were fighting stringent regulations that dictated both the theme and technique used in their work. Published in 1886, the Symbolist Manifesto was a declaration of Jean Moreas for artists to represent an acuity of ideals. The belief was that artistic freedom was compulsory and that absolute truths could only be relayed indirectly. The opposing view that truth is relative could be considered an absolute truth in and of itself as one would have to believe in its unyielding nature to be valid. 14. Which of the following, if true, most weakens the author’s intent?

A. The reader must be a poet to understand artistic license. B. The Symbolist Manifesto was unknown to the reader. C. Jean Moreas was not an artist himself. D. The reader believes in regulation of artists’ works. E. The reader believes in truth being relative and the Symbolist movement.

For each of questions 15 to 19, select the two answer choices that, when used to complete the sentence, fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning. 15. Pluto’s status as a planet seems to be a never-ending ________ that leaves scientists insisting that available funding be allocated for further research until a neutral consensus is achieved. A. debate B. opinion C. polemic D. squabble E. assertion F. quandary 16. The blending of culture, class, and lifestyle are ________ to the personal growth that college was designed to provide each individual in addition to the attainment of a degree.

A. benign B. essential C. paramount D. indubitable E. deleterious F. counterproductive

17. Although Spanish is considered the easiest language to learn for native English speakers, it is Dutch that is more ________ in vocabulary and foundation to English and should be easier for most learners to grasp. A. plausible B. congruent C. sui generis D. comparable E. recognizable F. quintessential 18. The portrait of Mona Lisa lends itself to various ________ as to the reason behind her smile as well as to Da Vinci’s relationship to his rumored muse, Lisa Gherardini. A. theories B. positions C. convictions D. delineations E. speculations F. interpretations 19. Integrity is ________ to ethics in that they both consider varying aspects of appropriate behavior and the consequences that poor decision-making has on others. A. akin B. bonded C. diametric D. applicable E. reciprocal F. correlated Questions 20, 21, and 22 are based on this passage. Moral development is an essential element in the whole child-growth process. Superlative moral development at a young age fosters lifelong positive attitudes and values. Moral character is confirmed by active engagement activities that help acquire moralistic behavior. Children replicate behavior observed in others without a lens to discern what is considered appropriate or inappropriate. Scant moral development is detrimental to the child, creating a domino effect of damage. Schools, communities, and law enforcement agencies are tasked with addressing the need if a child’s caregiver lacks the skill or is ill-equipped.

To help young children eventually become moral, ethical, and responsible citizens, exposure to examples of morality assist children as they cultivate their natural sense. Children need to discover how they can contribute to their families, cultures, and communities. It is commonplace for young adults to try to justify and make excuses for selfish or reckless behavior. With

developed strong traits of honesty, responsibility, and self-respect, they will have the ability to see the flaws in reasoning and determine the right conclusion about what to do when they have made mistakes.

20. According to the passage, adults must offer children strong examples of moralistic behavior because:

A. In order to learn, children will automatically mirror observed adult behaviors. B. A child can independently discern whether their behavior is appropriate. C. Children who learn moralistic behavior will achieve higher grades in school. D. Learning moral behavior at a young age increases children’s physical safety. E. Once children leave their formative years, their moral behavior is established.

21. The passage asserts which of the following about young adults who have “developed strong traits of honesty, responsibility, and self-respect” (line 12)?

A. They are more likely to have healthier lifestyles. B. In the long run, they will have more successful careers. C. They are less likely to justify bad decisions or blame others. D. They will perform better when they enter the collegiate world. E. When in school, they are more likely to accept leadership roles.

22. The author of the passage discusses behavior replication in a society primarily in order to:

A. describe why society is responsible when young adults make mistakes. B. argue in favor of stronger interventions if parents do not properly raise their children. C. provide more information on the different moral stages of childhood. D. explain why it is important for adults to be models of moral behavior for children. E. inform readers that children lack the moral discernment seen in adults.

Questions 23 and 24 are based on this passage. Vladimir Nabokov is one of the most illustrious émigré authors of the twentieth century. His first writings were in Russian, but soon after he wrote in English, he achieved international acclaim. One of his best novels was a memoir, Speak, Memory, a rich, impressionist narration of his life. Critics find Speak, Memory a unique literary gem. Jonathan Yardley describes it as plunging into the author's deepest self with the intricate understanding of how his life transpired—from an idyllic, aristocratic childhood in pre-Soviet Russia to a life lived freely in America. For Joseph Epstein, beyond Nabokov's superior storytelling, he sees an interesting life that is being recounted dutifully. For only a few can find themes and patterns in a reimagined life.

Consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply. 23. The passage suggests that the author would agree with which of the following statements?

A. A memoir is an opportunity for authors to share an experience of which readers wish to be a part.

B. Nabokov was a special novelist who wrote stories like a visual artist. C. To produce a literary gem, it is helpful to live an unpredictable life.

24. In the context in which it appears, the word illustrious most nearly means:

A. brilliant B. distinguished C. extraordinary D. familiar E. peerless

Question 25 is based on this passage. In order to predict and mitigate environmental damage due to overuse of land in tropical rainforests, scientists conducted a study to validate the hypothesis that nitrogen-fixing trees promote forest regrowth. Though the scarcity of nitrogen inhibits forest growth, and though nitrogen-fixing trees supply this crucial resource to the surrounding trees, the researchers found a negative correlation between the number of nitrogen-fixing trees and the amount of forest regrowth in the area of study. Therefore, reducing the use of nitrogen-fixing trees in restoration efforts would enhance efforts to rebuild our tropical rainforests. 25. Which of the following, if true of the area studied, best strengthens the author’s argument?

A. The annual rainfall is much lower than in other tropical rainforests. B. Its forest is much older than other forests with a similar number of nitrogen-fixing trees. C. The most widespread varieties of nitrogen-fixing trees have higher than average nutrient

demands. D. Its forest has been more severely affected by climate change than other tropical

rainforests. E. The nitrogen-fixing tree that grows most abundantly outlives most of the other trees.

Section 4: Verbal For each of questions 1 to 8, select one entry for each blank from the corresponding column of choices. Fill all blanks in the way that best completes the text. 1. One element of music therapy involves the use of instruments to ________ the effects of post-traumatic stress disorder. It teaches those suffering from this incurable disorder to begin to take control of the negative energy permeating their thoughts. A. quell B. efface C. promote D. extricate E. neutralize 2. The tendency to view some women as ________ decreased with the advent of women’s liberation as well as with a wider acceptance of varying behaviors and attitudes that many deem commonplace today. A. grigs B. scofflaws C. provincials D. misanthropes E. demimondes 3. Because the practice of heritage tourism has been hotly contested in the industry for years, any discussion of its practicality must focus on a primary ethical concern: (i)________ people suffer grave injustice when (ii)________ business owners invade their villages and devalue their culture by treating their art, artifacts, and traditions as commodities.

Blank (i) Blank (ii) A. plebeian A. ineffable B. indigenous B. prepossessing C. inveterate C. opportunistic

4. A (i)________ example of an art form that has emerged in contemporary society in response to social conditions, slam poetry is characterized by (ii)________ performances intended not only to evoke emotions in the audience, but to encourage action and promote change.

Blank (i) Blank (ii)

A. quintessential A. pivotal B. prescient B. histrionic C. judicious C. sardonic 5. In their attempt to understand the development of the Sun, scientists studying a giant molecular cloud in the constellation Carina have been able to (i) ________ previous conclusions about star formation and gain additional insight into the process: a virtual nursery full of (ii) ________ stars, the Carina Nebula is the perfect laboratory for study, as it contains thousands of massive O-type stars, which play a significant role in how sun-like stars develop.

Blank (i) Blank (ii) A. cogitate A. nascent B. abrogate B. dormant C. corroborate C. latent 6. Disliked by most of his employees, Mr. Fowler is a brusque, notoriously (i) ________ manager known for his unforgiving, (ii) ________ approach to work and strict discipline of his employees. He is always one to (iii) ________ employee input in corporate decisions.

Blank i. Blank ii. Blank iii. A. temerarious A. atrabilious A. gainsay B. ignominious B. draconian B. feign C. dogmatic C. assiduous C. brook

7. A man of action who valued literature, Alexander the Great was a (i) ________ ruler who (ii) ________ the principles of heroism and honor taught in The Iliad. In public, he would often hold forth a (iii) ________ on Homer’s work.

Blank i. Blank ii. Blank iii. A. parsimonious A. desecrated A. panegyric B. intrepid B. reproved B. diatribe C. obdurate C. advocated C. tirade

8. The (i) ________ of any part of the canvas is something that a trained art restorer must be (ii) ________ to avoid. The restorer cannot be (iii) ________ when completing the repairs and accidentally skip over an important step; he must pay attention to every detail.

Blank i. Blank ii. Blank iii. A. desiccating A. circumspect A. perfunctory B. obliterating B. chary B. negligent C. secreting C. punctilious C. insouciant

Questions 9, 10, 11, and 12 are based on this passage. The underlying philosophy of ethics is demonstrating “good” or “appropriate” conduct. This demonstration can manifest itself in various ways depending on the culture and atmosphere in which the conduct is displayed. The notion of ethics is doing the right thing. The question then becomes: who determines what is right? Descriptive ethics, the formal term that attempts to determine a collective definition of right, is often confused with what many think of when they hear the term ethics. The question of “good” or “appropriate” behavior is actually explored within normative ethics. The study of normative ethics has become a catalyst for how organizations and companies run their businesses. Creating an atmosphere of cohesiveness and respect in the workplace can be difficult because every workplace exposes individuals to interactions with people from various backgrounds. One way to ensure that employees work well together is by taking the time to vet employees appropriately. The effort needed to interview and complete background checks can be costly but is necessary. In order to maximize effectiveness and minimize grievances, leaders within these organizations must employ a mix of both descriptive and normative ethics. Doing so creates a top-down managerial style in which these leaders must articulate, model, and reiterate an agreed-upon standard of “good” and “appropriate” conduct. For example, leaders of an organization can have an open-door, zero-retaliation policy for employees who report suspected unethical behavior. Further, they can be transparent with their employees to develop trust. Employees who trust their employers are less likely to gossip, share insider information, or abuse sick leave. These negative behaviors are detrimental to the workplace as a whole because they decrease productivity, which can lead to the loss of jobs. Many factors can negatively impact one’s ethical behavior in the workplace. Unrealistic expectations or deadlines, poor life and work balance, lack of oversight, hostile work environment, and groupthink are only some. Leaders can help alleviate these factors by ensuring effective training is in place and understanding the needs of their employees. Providing and setting clear expectations that align with employee skill sets is critical. When employees are unsure of their job duties, they can make avoidable mistakes or even fraudulently submit reports, emails, and documents based on what they think is correct. Further, employers’ understanding that employees have lives outside of the workplace and allowing them to de-stress helps ensure employees focus on the tasks at hand while at work. Employing a vision or mission statement also helps to provide a goal to which employees can strive. Establishing what

should be deemed appropriate behavior is a challenge that leaders must undertake to create an ethical environment for all employees. 9. The main purpose of the text is to explain that ethics shape how:

A. employers should treat their employees. B. employees and employers interact. C. employers should handle company issues. D. employers should run an organization. E. employees should perform in the workplace.

10. Select the sentence from the passage which suggests that employees hold personal responsibility in promoting an ethical workplace.

A. Employing a vision or mission statement also helps to provide a goal to which employees can strive.

B. Employees who trust their employers are less likely to gossip, share insider information, or abuse sick leave.

C. When employees are unsure of their job duties, they can make avoidable mistakes or even fraudulently submit reports, emails, and documents based on what they think is correct.

D. Creating an atmosphere of cohesiveness and respect in the workplace can be difficult because every workplace exposes individuals to interactions with people from various backgrounds.

E. Further, employers’ understanding that employees have lives outside of the workplace and allowing them to de-stress helps ensure employees focus on the tasks at hand while at work.

11. The passage suggests that without proper ethics in a workplace, employees might:

A. falsify timesheets or work less than required. B. submit incomplete background information. C. make unwarranted complaints against others. D. create a hostile work environment. E. be less transparent with their colleagues and managers.

12. The passage suggests that an adherence to normative ethics would result in which workplace situation?

A. A team works late to help another team meet an important deadline. B. A team leader outlines a moral code for the staff of the department. C. A manager discusses the rubric used during a yearly performance evaluation. D. Two merging companies allow employees to decide their new positions. E. The office adopts a policy in which two managers are present during all staff interviews.

Questions 13 and 14 are based on this passage.

By law, incarcerated juvenile offenders must receive educational opportunities equivalent to those available in the public school system. However, the lack of coherent statewide and local policies has resulted in unsatisfactory educational programs, which has led to twenty-two states having to defend their deficient practices in class action lawsuits. New laws aim at reform by requiring more stringent teacher qualifications, adherence to educational best practices, and services to aid in the transition of released youths back into the public school system. The correlation between quality educational opportunities for incarcerated youths and reduced recidivism rates is high.

Consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply. 13. The passage mentions which of the following as increasing the rate of recidivism in juvenile offenders?

A. lax accountability for educational courses in juvenile prisons B. unequal pay rates leading to a decrease in qualified teachers C. not enough quality rehabilitation services for the juvenile inmates

14. In the context in which it appears, “coherent” (line 2) most nearly means

A. compatible B. consistent C. audible D. meticulous E. articulate

Question 15 is based on this passage. Known for its pristine conditions, the Arctic may never be the same again due to the increase in plastic pollution. As observed in the Norwegian Sea and the Barents Sea, patches of floating garbage are changing the arctic environment. Scientists have warned the public and governments of the dangers the debris can pose to marine creatures. Entanglement and ingestion of plastics are the most common hazards; in Svalbard alone, 87.5 percent of fulmar birds have ingested plastic.

15. Which of the following is an assumption upon which the argument depends?

A. Before the increase in plastic pollution, there were fewer birds that ingested plastic. B. Marine creatures will likely get entangled or ingest plastics as more garbage is thrown into the sea. C. The Arctic is not wide enough for all marine creatures to roam through even if pollution

levels increase. D. The Norwegian Sea and the Barents Sea will experience more pollution compared to the rest of the Arctic. E. Without the warnings of scientists, plastic pollution in the Arctic would worsen.

For each of questions 16 to 19, select the two answer choices that, when used to complete the sentence, fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning. 16. Translating the pile of ancient scrolls, the archaeologist was disappointed to discover that the manuscripts did not offer any new wisdom but rather contained text too ________ to merit a place in literary history. A. antediluvian B. prosaic C. banal D. vapid E. verbose F. recondite 17. Among his loyal followers, Socrates was known for his self-discipline, serious demeanor, and strict analysis of society, all side effects of his ________ personality. A. redoubtable B. acidulous C. austere D. bilious E. discerning F. callous

18. At the feast, the knight told bawdy tales, insulted the guests, and attempted to start multiple fights until he was ejected from their revels for his ________ behavior. A. garrulous B. ignominious C. vivacious D. winsome E. facetious F. egregious 19. The art forger knew that her forgery would have to pass the inspection of the museum’s staff, so she used paint taken from other works of the same era to intentionally ________ the staff’s carbon-dating tests. A. vitiate B. decimate C. enervate D. undermine E. vilify F. dupe Questions 20 and 21 are based on this passage. In 1951, the pursuit of silence led experimental music composer John Cage into an anechoic chamber at Harvard University where, in the absence of sound, he determined that silence doesn’t exist. By extension, he concluded that music doesn’t exist either—a revelation that led him to create 4’33” (four minutes and thirty-three seconds), an artistic masterpiece that confirmed the composer’s genius and challenged the practice of musical composition. The philosophical Cage spent countless hours composing 4’33”, a work many critics insist consists of nothing but silence yet consists completely of ambient sound. Before this time, Cage conceived of a musical composition in terms of timespans, which made it nothing but alternating blocks of noise and silence. With 4’33”, he simply eliminated the noise. The piece consisted of three movements, their beginnings and ends signaled only by the person at the piano who either opened or closed the lid—and Cage composed the entire piece without writing a single note. 20. The author explains Cage’s conception of a musical composition mainly to:

A. link the theory behind 4’33 to traditional methods of musical production. B. explain the philosophical basis of 4’33” in order to justify its classification as music. C. undermine the criticism of 4’33” by exposing the flawed reasoning used by its critics. D. proclaim the importance of 4’33” by stressing the philosophical genius of the composer. E. convey the analytical reasoning behind 4’33” to elucidate the concept of experimental

music.

21. Which sentence presents an idea that the passage challenges?

A The success of a musical composition depends on its interpretation by the performing musician.

B The integrity of a musical composition is crucial to its success as a performance piece. C The value of a work of art depends largely on its aesthetic appeal. D The influence of a composer precludes the existence of artistic talent. E The validation of an artist’s work rests largely on audience reception.

Questions 22 and 23 are based on this passage. Thankfully, the capacity to assess one’s carbon footprint has become a legitimate tool for individuals who want to assume personal responsibility and lessen their burden on Earth’s environment. The depletion of the planet’s energy resources through rampant use of technology, such as smartphones and computers, causes concern for the quality of life for generations moving forward. Assessing one’s carbon footprint involves calculating the total amount of greenhouse gases generated to sustain daily activities. This assessment helps determine areas in which individuals can lessen energy consumption and ameliorate their footprint, such as through buying or even harvesting organic food, switching to energy efficient products, and purchasing hybrid or electric cars. However, general recycling and walking or riding a bike in lieu of driving are manageable ways most individuals can begin to reduce their carbon footprint. Consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply. 22. The passage suggests that an adherent to the practice of assessing one’s carbon footprint would agree with which of the following statements:

A. The use of technology, such as smartphones and computers, contributes to depleting energy resources.

B. The assessment of one’s carbon footprint is used to sustain daily activities and quality of life.

C. The assessment of one’s carbon footprint can help individuals lessen their energy consumption by determining areas for improvement.

23. Replacement of the word depletion (line 3) with which of the following words results in the least change in meaning for the passage?

A. fading B. erosion C. extirpation D. dissipation E. decimation

Questions 24 and 25 are based on this passage. Maud Lewis, Nova Scotia’s most celebrated folk artist, spent her last 32 years in a quaint, one-room house. Throughout her life, she remained affected by the arthritis with which she was diagnosed as a young child. Her fingers angled away from her thumbs; to hold a paintbrush, Lewis employed her entire contorted hand. She gripped the brush handle against her palm, painting in large brushstrokes similar to those of a child learning to paint. Her paintings reflect the scenery of Nova Scotia perceptible from her kitchen window and are valued for their joyful representations of bright, vibrant hills, crystal-white snow, calming waters, and local animal life.

24. In the context of the passage as a whole, the primary function of the sentence in lines 3-4 (“She gripped . . . to paint”) is to:

A. give more details about the effects of her arthritis on her daily life. B. highlight Lewis’ unique stylistic choices when composing new works. C. contrast Lewis’ painting style with that of other contemporary artists. D. demonstrate Lewis’ creativity and determination in the face of her illness. E. indicate why she chose to paint scenery using large brushstrokes.

Consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply. 25. Which of the following might provide an explanation for the popularity of Maud Lewis’s paintings that would satisfy the author of the passage?

A. an interview with Lewis about her choice to portray the scenery and wildlife of Nova Scotia in her work

B. a documentary about how Lewis’s resolve, despite any challenges, inspired a new generation of artists

C. a gallery talk where a professor of art highlights the vibrant qualities found in Lewis’s paintings

Section 5: Quantitative Directions: For each of questions 1 through 9, compare Quantity A and Quantity B, using additional information centered above the two quantities if such information is given, and select one of the following four answer choices. A. Quantity A is greater. B. Quantity B is greater. C. The two quantities are equal. D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given. 1.

Lines k and l are parallel.

Quantity A Quantity B a + b c + d 2. The sum of the series 0.3 + 0.03 + 0.003… is equivalent to the decimal 0.333... Quantity A Quantity B

0.1 + 0.01 + 0.001…

3. One-third of x is equal to two-thirds of y, where x < 0 and y < 0. Quantity A Quantity B x y

4.

Circle with center C

Quantity A Quantity B Area of the circle 18  5. −3(x + 2) < −6y Quantity A Quantity B x + 2 2y 6. x < 0 and y > 0 Quantity A Quantity B x|y − 1| x|1 − y| 7. In the xy-plane, the points (x, 5) and (−4, 8) have a distance of 5 and a midpoint of (b, c). Quantity A Quantity B x b 8. The scores on a 100-point test fell along a normal distribution. The average number of points earned was 76 with a standard deviation of 9 points. Quantity A Quantity B % of test scores % of test scores between 76 and 94 between 67 and 85

9. In a survey of 100 people, 55 of the people surveyed were students and 22 of the people surveyed were students with a job. Quantity A Quantity B The probability that a person 0.22 surveyed was a student without a job. Questions 10 to 25 have several different formats. Unless otherwise directed, select a single answer choices. For the following question, use the grid to enter your answer. 10. A window on a scale drawing has a width of 2 centimeters. If the scale is 0.5 centimeters : 1.2 feet. What is the width of the window in feet?

11. If = and k = 1, what is the value of j?

A. −

B.

C.

D. 1 E. 2

12. A patio with length of 12 feet and width of 8 feet is to be completely covered with tiles. The tile to be used has a length of 6 inches and a width of 4 inches and costs $1.50 each. What is the cost for the tiles needed to completely cover the patio?

A. $144 B. $216 C. $576 D. $600 E. $864

13. If $5,000 is deposited in an account that compounds yearly with an interest rate of r percent and the account is worth $5,408 after 2 years, what is the value of r?

A. 1.04 B. 4.00 C. 4.08 D. 8.16 E. 10.40

For the following question, use the grid to enter your answer. List A: 5, x, y List B: 5, y, 12 14. If the average (arithmetic mean) of the 3 numbers in List A is 7 and the average of the 3 numbers in List B is 9, what is the value of x? For the following question, select all the answer choices that apply. 15. Which of the following inequalities have solutions that include at least one negative solution?

A. |x + 1| > 2 B. x2 + 6x + 0 < 0

C.

≥ 2

16. In the expression ⋅

= 𝑛, where x, y, and z are integers, what is the value of n?

A. 3xy − 2z

B. 3 C. 3x + y − 2z

D. 9 E. 9x + y − z

Questions 17 to 18 are based on the following data.

17. What is the median of the percent values representing motor vehicle thefts for the nine geographic divisions listed in the bar graph?

A. 6.1% B. 8.2% C. 11.1% D. 12.4% E. 13.0%

For the following questions, select all the answer choices that apply. 18. Based on the information given, which of the following statements must be true? Indicate all such statements.

A. In 2013, the rate of motor vehicle thefts in the East North Central division was 124 per 1,000 US residents.

B. In 2013, the motor vehicle thefts as a percentage of total US motor vehicle thefts in the Middle Atlantic and West North Central divisions were approximately equal.

C. In 2013, the Pacific division had 3 times as many motor vehicle thefts as any other division in the United States.

Questions 19 to 20 are based on the following data. The Enhanced Fujita (EF) Scale is used to rate the intensity of tornadoes.

19. From 1994 to 2012, the number of tornadoes with a rating of EF1 was approximately what percent more than the number of tornadoes with a rating of EF2?

A. 23% B. 30% C. 46% D. 49% E. 70%

20. If the total number of tornadoes reported in the United States from 1994 to 2012 (with a rating of EF1 or higher) was 9,062, how many tornadoes with a rating of EF2 or greater were reported during that same period of time?

A. 310 B. 707 C. 1,939 D. 2,646 E. 6,416

21. A company manufactures and sells t-shirts. Out of each batch of t-shirts, 2% are defective

and, of the defective t-shirts, have minor defects but can still be sold. How many t-shirts can

be sold out of a batch of 6,000 t-shirts?

A. 5,688 B. 5,808 C. 5,880 D. 5,928 E. 5,952

22. Assume that x > 0 and y > 0. If x is divisible by both 2 and 21 and y is divisible by 6, then x + y is divisible by which of the following?

A. 6 B. 8 C. 21 D. 29 E. 42

23. A certain experiment is composed of two independent events that have probabilities of and

, where p > 0. If the probability of a certain outcome is

, find the value of p.

A. 2 B. 3 C. 5 D. 7 E. 9

For the following question, select all the answer choices that apply.

24. In a 30-60-90° triangle, the longest leg has a length of 𝑛√3, where n is between 3 and 6. Which of the following could be the length of the hypotenuse of the triangle? Indicate all such values.

A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 8 E. 9 F. 10

25. A ramp with a horizontal length of 60 feet and a vertical height of 5 feet needs to be extended to a vertical height of 8 feet. How much horizontal length must be added?

A. 22.5 B. 36 C. 37.5 D. 63 E. 96

Section 6: Quantitative Directions: For each of questions 1 through 9, compare Quantity A and Quantity B, using additional information centered above the two quantities if such information is given, and select one of the following four answer choices. A. Quantity A is greater. B. Quantity B is greater. C. The two quantities are equal. D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given. 1.

Quantity A Quantity B

The ratio of y to x √2 2. A list of positive numbers consists of even and odd numbers. The list of numbers has an average (arithmetic mean) of 48. The average of the even numbers is 40 and the average of the odd numbers is 52. Quantity A Quantity B Percentage of even numbers on the list 50% 3. x > 1 Quantity A Quantity B

( )

( )

4. In the xy-plane line, r and line s intersect at the point (2, 3). Line r has a positive slope and line s has a negative slope. Quantity A Quantity B The y-intercept of line r The y-intercept of line s 5. The sum of the least and greatest factors of a number x is 28, where x is a positive integer. Quantity A Quantity B Sum of all the factors of x 40 6. x is a positive integer. Quantity A Quantity B The remainder when x is divided by 2. The remainder when 4(x + 1) is divided by 2. 7. A right circular cylinder with height of 3 meters has a volume of 75 . Quantity A Quantity B The radius of the cylinder 5 meters

8. k and m are integers for which < < 0.

Quantity A Quantity B k m 9. 𝑛 = 2 ⋅ 3 ⋅ 5 , where x + y + z = 4 and n, x, y, and z are integers greater than 0. Quantity A Quantity B The smallest value of n 30 Questions 10 to 25 have several different formats. Unless otherwise directed, select a single answer choices. 10. Working alone, Michael can package 1 pallet of alarm clocks in 4 hours. Working alone, Pamela can package 1 pallet of alarm clocks in 6 hours. How many hours will it take them to package 1 pallet of alarm clocks if they work together?

A. 2.4 B. 2.5 C. 4.8 D. 5.0 E. 10.0

For the following question, use the grid to enter your answers. 11. Among the employees employed by a certain company, 62% relocated for employment, and 55% of those who relocated for employment are men. What percentage of people employed at the company are women who relocated for employment? 12. In the xy-plane, points L and M have coordinates (−3, 2) and (3,−6 ), respectively. What is the distance between the L and M?

A. 4

B. √17 C. 10

D. √106 E. 14

13. The original price of a sweater was reduced by 15%. A week later, the price of the sweater was reduced by an additional 10%. What percentage of the original price is the final price of the sweater?

A. 23.5% B. 25% C. 75% D. 76.5% E. 87.5%

14. A triangle has an area of 𝑥 + 𝑥 and a height of x. Which of the following could be the base

of the triangle?

A. 𝑥 + 1

B. 𝑥 + 2

C. x + 1 D. x + 2 E. 2x + 1

15. If q is the number of unique factors of 27 and r is the number of unique factors of 270. What the value of is r − q?

A. 2 B. 4 C. 10 D. 12 E. 16

For the following question, select all the answer choices that apply.

16. Which of the following operations could be used to find of a number n?

A. Multiply n by .

B. Divide n by .

C. Multiply n by .

D. Divide n by .

Questions 17 to 20 are based on the following data.

17. How many of the 50 states were in the five expenditures categories B through F?

A. 47 B. 45 C. 42 D. 40 E. 31

18. In 2015, the local and general expenditures per capita of Michigan amounted to approximately $8,060. If the ratio of the expenditures per capita of Massachusetts to that of Michigan was 5 to 4, in which expenditure category was Massachusetts?

A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E

19. The number of states in the expenditures categories B and C was approximately what percentage greater than the number of states in the four expenditures categories D through G?

A. 23% B. 33% C. 50% D. 56% E. 67%

20. The median of the 50 state expenditures per capita was in which expenditure category?

A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E

For the following question, use the grid to enter your answer.

21. If 𝑎 = 8 and a2 = b, what is the value of b?

22. The figure shows the standard normal distribution, with mean of 0 and standard deviation 1, including approximate percentage of the distribution corresponding to the six regions shown. The scores on a certain quiz were approximately normally distributed. If the bottom and top 2% of quiz scores were less than 11 and greater than 23, respectively, what is the standard deviation of the quiz scores?

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 6

23. If 𝑓(𝑥) = √𝑥 and 𝑓(𝑔(𝑥)) = √ , which of the following could the be g(x)?

A.

B.

C. ( )

D. ( )

E.

24. If = 1, which of the following could be the value of y?

A. −

B. −

C.

D.

E.

For the following question, select all the answer choices that apply. x, 5, 8, 9, y 25. In the five numbers shown, x and y are integers, where x ≤ 5 and y ≥ 9. If the range of the data set is 6, which of the following could be the sum of x and y? Indicate all such values.

A. 10 B. 12 C. 14 D. 16 E. 18