CHEMICAL ENGINEERING OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS: A COMPILATION

DR. LEONARDO C. MEDINA, JR.DEAN, COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING

LYCEUM OF THE PHILIPPINES UNIVERSITY

CHEMICAL REACTION ENGINEERING AND REACTOR DESIGN

1. Rate of chemical reaction is independent of the concentration of reactants for(a) zero order reaction(b) third order reaction(c) consecutive reaction(d) none of these

2. Which of the following is not a unit of reaction rate?(a) moles formed/(surface of catalyst) (time)(b) moles formed/(volume of reactor) (time)(c) mole formed/(volume of catalyst) (time)(d) none of these

3. If “n” is the order of reaction then unit of rate constant is(a) 1 (time) (concentration)n-1

(b) (time)-1(concentration)n-1

(c) (time)n-1 (concentration) (d) none of these4. Which of the following is a controlling factor in very fast heterogeneous reaction? (a) heat and mass transfer effects (b) pressure (c) temperature (d) composition of reactant5. Variables affecting the rate of homogeneous reactions are (a) pressure and temperature only (b) temperature and composition only (c) pressure and composition only (d) pressure, temperature and composition6. Rate determining step in a reaction consisting of a number of step in series is the (a) fastest step (b) slowed step (c) intermediate step (d) data insufficient; can't be predict

7. Chemical kinetics can predict the (a) rate of reaction (b) feasibility of reaction (c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these 8. Velocity of a chemical reaction (a) decreases with increase in temperature (b) increases with increase of pressure of reactant for all reactions (c) decreases with increase of reactant concentration (d) none of these9. Sum of the powers of the concentration terms in the rate equation is called the (a) order of the reaction (b) overall order of the reaction (c) molecularity of the reaction (d) none of these 10.Molecularity of a reaction (a) is always equal to the overall order of reaction (b) may not be equal to the order of reaction (c) can’t have a fractional value

(d) both (b) and (c) 11.Inversion of cane sugar is an example of (a) unimolecular reaction with first order

(b) bimolecular reaction with second order (c) bimolecular reaction with first order (d) unimolecular reaction with second order

12.Concentration of the limiting reactant (with initial concentration of a moles/liter) after time t is (a-x).Then t for a first order reaction is given by

(a) kt = ln a a-x (b) kt = x a(a-x) (c) kt = ln a-x a

(d) k.t = a (a-x) x

13.Half life period of a chemical reaction is (a) the time required to reduce the concentration of the reacting substance to half its initial value(b) half of the space time of a reaction

(c) half of the residence time of a reaction (d) none of these

14.Fill up the blanks: Half-life period for a first order reaction is....................... the initial concentration of the reactant

(a) directly proportional to (b) inversely proportional to (c) independent of (d) none of these15. Fill up the blanks from among the alternatives given below: In a first order reaction the time required to reduce the concentration of reactant from 1 mole/liter to 0.5 mole/liter will be ............. that required to reduce it from 10 moles/liter to 5 moles/liter in the same volume

(a) more than(b) less than(c) same as(d) data insufficient; can't be predicted

16. Specific rate constant for a second order reaction(a) is independent of temperature(b) varies with temperature(c) depends on the nature of the reactants(d) both (b) and (c)

17. The reaction in which rate equation corresponds to a stoichiometric equation is called(a) elementary reaction(b) non-elementary reaction

(c) parallel reaction (d) autokinetic reaction18. Equilibrium of a chemical reaction as viewed by kinetics is a

(a) dynamic steady state(b) static steady state

(c) dynamic unsteady state(d) none of these

19. For a zero order reaction, concentration of product increases with(a) increase of reaction time(b) increase in initial concentration(c) total pressure(d) decrease in total pressure

20. Fill up the blanksArrhenius equation shows the variation of __________with temperature(a) Reaction rate(b) Rate constant(c) Energy of activation(d) Frequency factor

21. The energy of activation of a chemical reaction(a) is same as heat of reaction at constant pressure(b) is the minimum energy which the molecules must have before the reaction can take place(c) varies as fifth power of the temperature(d) both (b) and (c)

22. Rate constant 'k' and the absolute temperature T are related by collision theory (for bimolecular) as

(a) k T 1.5

(b) k e –E/RT

(c) k T(d) k T

23. Transition state theory relates the above quantities as(a) k e –E/RT

(b) k Te –E/RT

(c) k T(d) k T 1.5

24.Reactions with high activation energy are (a) very temperature sensitive (b) temperature insensitive

(c) always irreversible (d) always reversible

25. In autocalytic reactions (a) one of the reactants acts as a catalyst (b) one of the products acts as a catalyst (c) catalyst has very high selectivity (d) no catalyst is used

26. With increase in temperature, the equilibrium conversion of a reversible exothermic reaction

(a) decreases (d) increases(c) remain unaffected (d) decreases linearly with temperature

27. With decrease in temperature, the equilibrium conversion of a reversible endothermic reaction

(a) decreases (b) increases(c) remains unaffected (d) increases linearly with temperature

28. The equilibrium constant of a chemical reaction (a) increases in the presence of catalyst(b) decreases in the presence of catalyst (c) remains unaffected in the presence of a catalyst

(d) can either increase or decrease; depends on the type of catalyst

29. Conversion increases with increase in temperature of (a) Autocatalytic reaction (b) Irreversible reaction(c) Reversible endothermic reaction(d) Reversible exothermic reaction

30. The heat of reaction (a) depends on the pressure only (b) depends on the mechanism of reaction only (c) depends on both pressure and mechanism of reaction (d) is independent of the mechanism of reaction

31. Integral method for analyzing the kinetic data is used (a) when the data are scattered

(b) for testing specific mechanisms with simple rate expression (c) both (a) and (b)

(d) none of these32. Differential method for analyzing the kinetic data is used

(a) for testing complicated mechanisms (b) when the data are scattered (c) when rate expressions are very simple

(d) none of these 33.Exposure of a photographic plate to produce a latent image is an example of

(a) Very slow reaction (b) Very fast reaction

(c) Photochemical reaction (d) Both (b) and (c)

34. A trickle bed reactor is one which (a) has altogether three streams either entering or leaving(b) processes three reactants at different flow rates(c) processes three reactant with same flow rate(d) employs all the three phases (i.e. solid liquid and gas)

35.According to Arrhenius equation of temperature dependency of rate constant for an elementary reaction

(a) k T (b) k e-E/RT

(c) k Te-E/RT

(d) none of these36. With increases in temperature, the rate constant obeying Arrhenius equation

(a) increases (b) decreases(c) decreases exponentially with temperature (d) can either increase or decrease, depends on the frequency factor

37. A batch reactor is characterized by (a) constant residence time(b) the variation in extent of reaction and properties of the reaction mixture

with time (c) variation in reactor volume(d) very low conversion

38. A plug-flow reactor is characterized by (a) high capacity(b) presence of axial mixing (c) presence of lateral mixing (d) constant composition and temperature of reaction mixture

39. In a semi-batch reactor (a) velocity of reaction can be controlled (b) maximum conversion can be controlled (c) both the as reactants flow counter-currently

(d) residence time is constant40. A back mix reactor

(a) is same as plug-flow reactor (b) is same as ideal stirred tank reactor(c) employs mixing in axial direction only (d) is most suitable for gas phase reaction

41. In a continuous flow stirred tank reactor the composition of the exit stream (a) is same as that in the reactor(b) is different than that in the reactor (c) depends upon the flow rate of inlet stream(d) none of these

42. In an ideal tubular-flow reactor (a) there is no mixing in longitudinal direction(b) mixing takes place in radial direction(c) there is a uniform velocity across the radius(d) all (a), (b) and (c)

43. Space velocity (a) describes the extensive operating characteristics of a tubular flow reactor(b) is the maximum feed rate per unit volume of reactor for is given conversion (c) is a measure of the case of the reaction job (d) all (a), (b) and (c)

44. A high space velocity means that a given (a) reaction can be accomplished with small reactor (b) conversion can be obtained with a high feed rate (c) both (a) and (b)(d) none of these

45. Space time in flow reactor is (a) usually equal to the residence time(b) the reciprocal of the space velocity(c) a measure of its capacity(d) both (a) and (c)

46. A space-time of 3 hours for a flow reactor means that (a) the time required to process one reactor volume of feed (measured at

specified conditions) is 3 hour (b) three reactor volumes of feed can be processed every hour (c) it takes three hours to dump the entire volume of the reaction with feed (d) conversion is cent per cent after three hour

47. Space time equals the mean residence time (a) when the density of the reaction mixture is constant (b) for large diameter tubular reactor (c) for narrow diameter tubular reactor (d) for CSTR

48. Fluidized bed reactor is characterized by(a) uniformity of temperature (b) comparatively smaller equipment(c) very small pressure drop(d) absence of continuous catalyst regeneration facility

49. A batch reactor is (a) suitable for gas-phase reaction on commercial scale (b) suitable for liquid –phase reaction involving small production rate(c) least expensive to operate for a given rate(d) most suitable for very large production rate

50. Which of the following is the most suitable for very high-pressure gas-phase reaction?

(a) batch reactor (b) tubular flow reactor(c) stirred tank reactor (d) fluidized bed reactor

51. For nearly isothermal operation involving large reaction time in a liquid –phase reaction, the most suitable reactor is

(a) stirred tank reactor (b) tubular flow reactor (c) batch reactor (d) fixed bed reactor

52. A stirred tank reactor compared to tubular-flow reactor provides(a) more uniform operation condition(b) permits operation at the optimum temperature for a long reaction time (c) higher overall selectivity for a first order consecutive reaction(d) all (a), (b) and (c)

53. For the same residence time, which will give the maximum conversion? (a) single stirred tank (v=5liters) (b) two stirred tank (each of 2.5liters) in series(c) stirred tank followed by tubular flow reactor (each 2.5liters)(d) single tubular flow reactor (v=5liters)

54. Oil hydrogenated using nickel catalyst in a (a) batch reactor(b) slurry reactor (c) fluidized bed reactor(d) fixed bed reactor

55. A second order reaction of the form A+B C is called a pseudo-first order reaction when

(a) CAO = CBO

(b) CAO > CBO

(c) CAO CBO

(d) CBO > CAO

56. A first order irreversible reaction A B is carried separately in a constant volume as well as a in a variable volume reactor for a particular period. It signifies that

(a) both conversion as well as concentration are same in the two reactors(b) conversion in both will be the same but concentrations will be different in

the two reactors(c) both the conversion as well as concentrations will be different in the two

reactors(d) none of these

57.A space velocity of 5 hour means that(a) five reactor volumes of feed (at specified conditions) are being fed into the

reactor per hour (b) after five hours, reactor is being filled with the feed

(c) cent percent conversion can be achieved in at least 5 hours(d) a fixed conversion of a given batch of feed takes 5 hours

58. Which of the following fixes the volume of a batch reactor for a particular conversion and production rate? (a) operating conditions (e.g. pressure and temperature)

(b) rate constant (c) density of mixture (d) none of these

59. In a CSTR(a) reaction rate varies with time(b) concentration varies with time(c) both (a) and (b) occur(d) neither (a) nor (b) occurs

60. The use of space-time is preferred over the mean residence time in the design of (a) batch reactor(b) ideal tubular-flow reactor(c) slurry reactor

(d) CSTR61. For all positive reaction orders for a particular duty (a) mixed reactor is always larger than the plug-flow reactor (b) the ratio of the volume of the mixed reactor to that of the plug-flow

reactor decreases with order(c) reactor size is independent of the type of flow(d) density variation during reaction affects design

62. With the same reaction time, initial concentration and feed rate, the reaction 2A B is carried out separately in CSTR and P.F. reactor of equal volumes. The conversion will be

(a) higher in P.F. reactor(b) higher in CSTR(c) same in both the reactors(d) data insufficient; can’t be predicted

63. For an autocatalytic reactor, the suitable reactor set up is (a) P.F. reactors in series(b) CSTR in series(c) CSTR followed by P.F. reactor(d) P.F. reactor followed by CSTR

64. For multiple reactions, the reaction within the vessel affects the (a) Size requirement(b) Distribution of reaction product(c) Both (a) and (b)(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

65. A first order reaction requires two unequal sized CSTR. Which of the following gives a higher yield?

(a) Large reactor followed by smaller one(b) Smaller reactor followed by larger one(c) Either of the arrangement (a) or (b) will give the same yield(d) Data insufficient; can’t be predicted

66. A first order reaction requires two equal sized CSTR. The conversion is(a) Less when they are connected in series(b) More when they are connected in series(c) More when they are connected in parallel(d) Same whether they are connected in series or parallel

67. The concentration of A in a first order reaction A B decreases(a) Linearly with time(b) Exponentially with time(c) Very abruptly toward the end of the reaction(d) Logarithmically with time

68. Which of the following is most suitable for isothermal reaction ?(a) Batch reactor(b) Back-mix reactor(c) Plug-flow reactor(d) Fixed bad reactor

69. Which of the following is the optimum operating condition for an exothermic reversible reaction-taking place in a plug-flow reactor

(a)Temperature should be high in the beginning and decreased towards the end of the reaction (b) Very low temperature should be used throughout the reaction (c) Very high temperature should be used throughout the reaction (d) None of these

70. With increase in the space-time of an irreversible isothermal reaction being carried out in a P.F. reactor, the conversion will

(a) Increase (b) Decrease (c) Remain same (d) Data sufficient; can’t be predicted

71. The optimum performance for reactors operating in parallel is obtained when the feed stream is distributed in such a way that the

(a) Space time for each parallel line is same (b) Space time for parallel lines is different (c) Larger reactors have more space time compared to smaller ones (d) None of these

72. Back mixing is most predominant in (a) A well stirred reactor (b) Plug-flow reactor (c) A single CSTR (d) CSTR connected in series73. The ratio of moles of a reactant converted into the desired product to that converted into unwanted product is called (a) Operational yield (b) Relative yield (c) Selectivity (d) None of these74. The performance of a cascade of CSTR’s can be improved by adding

(a) a P.F. reactor in series(b) a P.F. reactor in parallel(c) More CSTR’s in series(d) More CSTR’s in parallel

75. An auto thermal reactor is (a) Most suitable for a second order reaction(b) Most suitable for a reversible reaction(c) Completely self supporting in its thermal energy requirements(d) Isothermal in nature

76. For series reaction,the(a) Relative yield is always greater for plug-flow reactor tha) for the single

CSTR of the same volume (b) Statement in a is wrong (c) Relative yield decreases with increasing conversion

(d) Both (a) and (c) hold good77. When a high liquid hold up is required in a reactor for a gas-liquid reaction, use

(a) Packed column (b) Spray column (c) Tray column(d) Bubble column

78. For reactions in parallel viz. A→P (desired product) and A→Q (unwanted product), if the order of the desired reaction is higher than that of the undesired reaction, a

(a) Batch rector is preferred over a single CSTR for high yield(b) Tubular rector is preferred over a single CSTR for high yield(c) Both (a) and (b)(d) A single CSTR is the most suitable

79. In question 78, high yield would be favored ( for gas phase reactions)(a) At high pressure(b) At low pressure (c) By the presence of the inner gases in the reactabt stream(d) Both (b) and (c)

80. When all the limiting reactant is consumed in the reaction, the operation yield(a) Is greater than relative yield(b) Is smaller than relative yield(c) Equals the relative yield (d) Can be greater or smaller than relative yield, depends on the type of

reaction 81. Design of heterogeneous catalytic reactor involves consideration of

(a) Only chemical steps (b) Only physical steps(c) Both (a) and (b)(d) Neither (a) and (b)

82. Pick out the wrong statement (a) A catalyst does not alter the final position of equilibrium in a reversible

reaction. (b) A catalyst initiate a reaction (c) A catalyst is specific in action (d) A catalyst remain unchanged in chemical composition at the end of the

reaction 83. Catalyst is a substance which

(a) Increases the speed of chemical reaction (b) Decreases the speed of chemical reaction(c) Can either increase or decrease the speed of chemical reaction (d) Alters the value of equilibrium constant in a reversible reaction

84. Catalyst carriers (a) Have very high selectivity (b) Increase the activity of a catalyst (c) Provide large surface area with small amount of active material (d) Inhibit catalyst poisoning

85. A catalyst promoter (a) Improves the activity of a catalyst (b) Acts as a catalyst support (c) Itself has very high activity(d) All (a) (b) and (c)

86. A catalyst inhibitor (a) Lessens its selectivity(b) May be useful for suppressing undesirable side reaction (c) Is added in small quantity during the catalyst manufacture itself (d) All (a) (b) and (c)

87. Carbon catalyst accumulated on the catalyst used in the gas oil cracking lies in the category of :

(a) Deposited poison (b) Chemisorbed poison (c) Selectivity poison(d) Stability poison

88. Slurry reactors are characterised by (a) Lack of intra-particle diffusion resistance (b) Presence of two mobile phase (c) Both (a) and (b)(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

89. A reaction . A→ 3 B is conducted in a constant pressure vessel. Starting with pure A, the volume of the reaction mixture increase 3 times in 6 minutes. The final conversion is

(a) 0.33(b) 0.50(c) 1(d) Data insufficient, can’t be predicted

90. The most suitable reactor for carrying out an auto-thermal reaction is (a) Batch reactor (b) CSTR(c) Semi-batch reactor(d) Plug-flow reactor

91 Which of the following factors control the design of a fluid solid reactor?(a) The reaction kinetics for single particle(b) The size distribution of solids being treated (c) Flow patterns of solids and fluids in the reactor (d) All (a) (b) and (c)

92. Kinetics of solid catalyst reaction can be studied in a (a) Batch reactor(b) Plug-flow reactor(c) Mixed reactor(d) None of these

93. For high conversion in highly exothermic solid catalyzed reaction, use a (a) Fixed bed reactor (b) Fluidized bed reactor followed by a fixed bed reactor (c) Fixed bed reactor followed by a fluidized bed reactor (d) Fluidized bed reactor

94. In case of staged packed bed reactors carrying out exothermic reaction, use(a) High recycle for pure glass (b) Plug flow for dilute liquid require no large preheating of feed(c) Cold shot operations for a dilute solution requiring large preheating to

bring the steam up to the reaction temperature (d) All (a) (b) and (c)

95. Which of the following will give the maximum gas conversion ?(a) Fixed bed reactor(b) fluidized reactor (c) Semi-fluidized reactor (d) Plug flow catalytic reactor

96. Which of the following factors control the deactivation of a porous catalyst pellet?(a) Decay reactions(b) Pore diffusion(c) Form of surface attack of poison (d) All (a) (b) and (c)

97. BET apparatus is used to determine the(a) Specific surface of porous catalyst (b) Pore size distribution (c) Pore diameter (d) Porosity of the catalyst bed

98. If pore diffusion is the controlling step in a solid catalyzed reaction the catalyst (a) Porosity is very important(b) Porosity is less importance(c) Internal surface is utilized efficiently(d) None of these

99. BET apparatus(a) Measure the catalyst surface area directly(b) Operates at very high pressure(c) Is made entirely by stainless steel(d) None of these

100. Helium-mercury method can be used to determine the (a) Pore volume (b) Solid density (c) Porosity of catalyst particle(d) All (a) (b) and (c)

CHEMICAL ENGINEERING THERMODYNAMICS

1. Which of the following is an extensive property of a system?a. heat capacity b. molal heat capactiyc. pressure d. concentration

2. Which of the following is a thermodynamic property of a system?a. concentration b. massc. temperature d. entropy

3. First law of thermodynamics is mathematically stated asa. dQ = dU + dW b. dQ = dU – dWc. dU = dQ + dW d. dW = dQ – dU

4. First law of thermodynamics deals witha. direction of energy transfer b. reversible process onlyc. irreversible processes only d. none of these

5. An irreversible process a. is the analog of linear frictionless motion in machinesb. is an idealized visualization of behavior of a systemc. yields the maximum amount of workd. yields the amount of work less than that of a reversible process.

6. In a adiabatic processa. heat transfer is zero b. temperature change is zeroc. work done is a path function d. enthalpy remains constant

7. Enthalpy ‘H’ is defined asa. H = U – PV b. H = U – TSc. H – U = PV d. none of these

8. Efficiency of heat engine working on Carnot cycle between two temperature levels depends upona. the two temperatures only b. the pressure of working fluid

c. the mass of the working fluid d. both mass and pressure of the working fluid

9. What is the degree of freedom for a system comprising liquid water equilibrium with its vapor?a. 0 b. 1c. 2 d. 3

10. Efficiency of a Carnot engine working between temperatures T1 and T2 (T1 < T2 ) isa. (T2 – T1) / T2 b. (T2 – T1) / T1

c (T1 – T2) / T2 d. (T1 –T2) / T1

11. For a constant pressure reversible process, the enthalpy ( ∆H) change of the system isa. C vdT b. Cp dTc. ∫ Cp dT d. ∫Cv dT

12. Internal energy of an ideal gas a. increases with increase in pressureb. decreases with increase in temperaturec. is independent of temperatured. none of these

13. Equation which relates pressure, volume, and temperature of a gas is calleda. Equation of state b. Gibbs Duhem equationc. ideal gas equation d. none of these

14. Isobaric process means a constanta. temperature process b. pressure processc. volume process d. entropy process

15. Isentropic process means a constant a. enthalpy process b. pressure processc. volume process d. none of these

16. Throttling process is a constanta. enthalpy process b. entropy processc. pressure process d. none of these

17. The point at which all three phases co-exist is known asa. freezing point b. triple pointc. boiling point d. none of these

18. C, for an ideal gasa. does not depend upon temperatureb. is independent of pressure onlyc. is independent of volume onlyd. is independent of both pressure and volume

19. For an isothermal process the internal energy of a gas a. increases b. decreasesc. remains unchanged d. data insufficient can’t be predicted

20. PV = Constant (where, = Cp / C v) is valid fora. Isothermal process b. Isentropic processc. Isobaric process d. adiabatic process

21. For an isothermal reversible compression of an ideal gas a. only ∆U= 0 b. only ∆H = 0c. ∆U = ∆H = 0 d. dQ – dU

22. As the time is passing, entropy of the universea. is increasing b. is decreasingc. remains constant d. data insufficient, can’t be predicted

23. Boyle’s law for gases states thata. P 1/V when temperature is constantb. P 1/V when temperature and mass of the gas remains constant c. P V at a constant temperature and mass of the gasd. P/V = constant, for any gas

24. The equation, PV = nRT is best obeyed by gases ata. low pressure and high temperatureb. high pressure and low temperaturec. low pressure and low temperatured. none of these

25. Compressibility factor of a gas isa. not a function of pressure b. not a function of its naturec. not a function of its temperature d. unity, if it follows PV = nRT

26. Critical compressibility factor for all substancesa. are more less constant(vary from 0.2 to 0.3)b. vary as square of the absolute temperaturec. vary as square of the absolute pressured. none of these

27. Reduced pressure of a gas is the ratio of itsa. pressure to critical pressure b. critical pressure to pressurec. pressure to pseudocritical pressure d. pseudocritical pressure to pressure

28. Compressibility factor-reduced pressure plot on reduced coordinates facilitiesa. use only one graph for all gasesb. covering of wider rangec. easier plottingd. more accurate plotting

29. Number of components (C) phase (P) and degrees of freedom (F) are related by Gibbs phase rule asa. P + F – C = 2 b. C =P – F +2c. F = C –P – 2 d. P = F – C –2

30. Degrees of freedom at triple point will bea. 0 b. 1c. 2 d. 3

31. Cp – Cv = R is valid fora. ideal gases b. all gasesc. gases at very high pressure d. gases at a very low temperature

32. An isolated system can exchangea. matter with its surroundingsb. energy with its surroundingsc. neither matter nor energy with its surroundingsd. both matter and energy with its surroundings.

33. Heat of formation of an element in its standard state isa. 0 b. <0c. >0 d. a function of pressure

34. Heat of reaction isa. dependent on pressure onlyb. dependent on temperature onlyc. dependent on both pressure and temperatured. independent of temperature changes

35. Second law of thermodynamics is concerned witha. amount of energy transferredb. direction of energy transferc. irreversible process onlyd. non-cyclic process only

36. The absolute entropy for all crystalline substances at absolute zero temperaturea. is zero b. is negativec. is more than zero d. can’t be determined

37. Joule – Thomson coefficient is defined as a. = ( ∂P/∂T)H b. = ( ∂T/ ∂P)H

c. = ( ∂U/ ∂T)H d. – ( ∂U/ ∂P)H

38. Mollier diagram is a plot of a. temperature vs. enthalpyb. temperature vs. entropyc. entropy vs. enthalpyd. temperature vs. internal energy

39. Fill up the blank from among the following:Near their critical temperature all gases, occupy volumes……… that of the ideal gasa. less than b. same asc. more than d. half

40. Charles law for gases states thata. V/T = constant b. V 1/Tc. V 1/P d. PV/T = constant

41. Absolute zero temperature signifiesa. minimum temperature attainableb. the temperature of the heat reservoir to which a Carnot engine rejects all the heat

that is taken inc. the temperature of the heat reservoir to which a Carnot engine rejects no

heatd. none of these

42. Entropy is measure ofa. disorder of a systemb. orderly behavior of a systemc. only temperature changes of the systemd. none of these

43. For spontaneous changes in an isolated system( S = entropy )a. dS = 0 b. dS < 0c. dS> 0 d. dS = constant

44. For equilibrium process in an isolated systema. dS = 0 b. dS < 0c. dS>0 d. dS = constant

45. The four properties of a system via P,V,T,S are related bya. Gibbs-Duhem equation b. Gibbs-Helmholtz equationc. Maxwell’s equation d. none of these

46. For a constant volume process a. dU = C pdT b. dU = Cv dT c. dQ = dU + pdV d. dW = pdV

47. In a reversible processa. TdS = dU + dW b. dU – dW = TdSc. dW – dU = TdS d. TdS – dW – dU > 0

48. In an irreversible processa. TdS = UdW = 0 b. dU – dW – TdS = 0

c. TdS – dU – dW <0 d. TdS – dT + dW < 0

49. Cv is given by a. ( ∂U/ ∂T)v b. ( ∂U/∂V)T

c. ( ∂U/∂P)v d. (∂V/ ∂T)P

50. Third law of thermodynamics is concerned witha. the value of absolute entropyb. energy transferc. direction of energy transferd. none of these

51. Which of the following equation is obtained on combining 1sT and 2nd law of thermodynamics, for a system of constant mass?a. dU = TdS – PdV b. dQ = Cv dT + PdVc. dQ = Cp dT + Vdp d. TdS = dU – PdV

52. The equation TdS = dU – PdV applies to a. single phase fluid of varying compositionb. single phase fluid of constant compositionc. open as well as closed systemsd. both b and c

53. For an exothermic reactiona. only enthalpy change (∆H)is negativeb. only internal energy change (∆U) is negativec. both ∆H and ∆U are negatived. enthalpy change is zero

54. If different processes are used to bring about the same chemical reaction, the enthalpy change is same for all of them.a. Hess’s law b. Kirchhoff’s lawc. Lavoisier and Laplace law d. none of these

55. Change of heat content when one mole of the compound is burnt in oxygen at constant pressure is calleda. calorific value b. heat of reactionc. heat of combustion d. heat of formation

56. Melting of wax is accompanied witha. increase in entropy b. decrease in entropyc. constant entropy d. none of these

57. Helmholtz free energy is defined as a. A = H – TS b. A = U – TSc. A = H + TS d. none of these

58. Gibbs free energy (G) is defined asa. G = U– TS b. G = H - TSc. G = H + TS d. G = U+ TS

59. Gibbs-Helmholtz equation isa. ∆G = ∆H + T[ ∂( ∆G)/ ∂T]P

b. ∆G = ∆H – T∆Tc. d(U –TS)T ,V <0d. dP/dT = ∆HVAP/ T∆VVAP

60. For a reversible process involving only pressure volume worka. (dG)T, p<0 b. (dG)T, p>0c. (dG)T, p=0 d. (dA)T, v > 0

61. For an irreversible process involving only pressure volume worka. (dG)T, p<0 b. (dG)T, p>0c. (dG)T, p=0 d. (dA)T, v > 0

62. Pick out the correct equation relating G and Aa. G = A + PV b. G = U + Ac. G = A – TS d. G = A + TS

63. A chemical reaction will occur spontaneously at constant pressure and temperature, if free energy isa. zero b. positivec. negative d. none of these

64. Clapeyron equation deals with thea. rate of change of vapor pressure with temperatureb. effect of an inert gas on vapor pressurec. calculation of G for spontaneous phase changed. temperature dependence of least of phase transition

65. In any spontaneous processa. only G decreases b. only A decreasesc. both G and A decreases d. both G and A increases

66. Pick out the Claussius-Clayperon equation from the following:a. dP/dT = ∆ H/T ∆V b. ln P = - ∆H/ RT + constantc. ∆G = ∆H + T[ ∂ ( ∆G)/∂T]P d. none of these

67. Free energy charges for two reaction mechanism X and Y are respectively – 15 and 5 units. It implies that X isa. slower than Y b. faster than Yc. three times slower than Y d. three times faster than Y

68. Chemical potential isa. an extensive propertyb. an intensive propertyc. a force which derives the chemical system to equilibriumd. both b and c

69. Chemical potential of its component of a system is given bya. i = ( G/ni)T,P,ni b. i = ( A/ni)T,P,ni

c. i = ( G/ni)T,P d. i = ( A/ni)T,P

70. Fill up the blanks from among the following alternatives;The chemical potential for a pure substance ….. its partial molal free energya. more than b. less thanc. equal to d. not related to

71. Partial molal quantities are important in the study of a. ideal gases b. ideal solutionsc. non-ideal mixtures d. a pure component

72. Fugacity and pressure are numerically equal when the gas isa. in standard state b. at high temperaturec. at low temperature d. in ideal state

73. The relation connecting the fugacities of various components in a solution with one another and to composition at constant temperature and pressure is calleda. Gibbs-Duhem equation b. Van Laar equationc. Gibbs-Helmholtz equation d. Margules equation

74. The necessary condition for phase equilibrium in a multiphase system of N components is thea. chemical potential of all components should be equal in all phasesb. chemical potentials of all components should be same in a particular phasec. sum of the chemical potentials of any given component in all the phases should be

the samed. none of these

75. Which of the following is not affected by temperature changesa. fugacity b. activity co-efficientc. free energy d. none of these

76. The activity of an ideal gas is numericallya. more than it pressure b. less than its pressurec. equal to its pressure d. data insufficient can’t be predicted

77. Maximum work that could be secured by expanding the gas over a given pressure range is thea. isothermal work b. adiabatic workc. isentropic work d. none of these

78. The point at which both liquid and gas phases are identical is calleda. critical point b. triple pointc. freezing point d. boiling point

79. Equilibrium constant of a reaction varies witha. initial concentration of the reactant b. pressurec. temperature d. none of these

80. For an ideal solution, the value of activity coefficient is a. 0 b. 1c. <1 d. >1

81. Fugacity coefficient of a substance is the ratio of its fugacity toa. mole fraction b. activityc. pressure d. activity coefficient

82. Van Laar equation deals with activity coefficients ina. binary solution b. ternary solutionc. azeotropic mixture only d. none of these

83. In Joule-Thomson porous plug experimenta. enthalpy does not remain constantb. the entire apparatus is exposed to surroundingsc. temperature remains constantd. none of these

84. Equilibrium constanta. decreases as the temperature increases for an exothermic reactionb. decreases as the temperature decreases for an exothermic reactionc. will decrease with increasing temperature for a exothermic reactiond. none of these

85. As the entropy of the universe is increasing day by day the work producing capacity of a heat engine isa. not changed b. decreasingc. increasing d. data insufficient can’t be predicted

86. Refrigeration cyclea. violates second law of thermodynamicsb. involves transfer of heat from low temperature to high temperaturec. both a and b d. none of these

87. Ideal refrigeration cycle isa. same as Carnotb. same as reverse Carnot cyclec. dependent on refrigerant propertiesb. the least efficient of all refrigeration processes

88. Fundamental principle of refrigeration is based ona. zeroth law of thermodynamicsb. first law of thermodynamicsc. second law of thermodynamicsd. third law of thermodynamics

89. Coefficient of Performance (COP) of a refrigerator is the ratio ofa. work required to refrigeration obtainedb. refrigeration obtained to the work requiredc. lower to higher temperatured. higher to lower temperature

90. In a working refrigerator value of COP is alwaysa. 0 b. <0c. <1 d. >1

91. One ton of refrigeration capacity is equivalent toa. 50 k cal/hr b. 200 BTU/hrc. 200 BTU/minute d. 200 BTU/day

92. Which of the following have minimum value of COP for a given refrigeration effect?a. reverse Carnot cycleb. ordinary vapor compression cyclec. vapor compression process with a reversible expansion engined. air refrigeration cycle

93. An ideal refrigerant shoulda. not have a subatmosphere vapor pressure at the temperature in the refrigerator

coilsb. not have unduly high vapor pressure at the condenser temp.c. both a and bd. none of these

94. Heat pumpa. accomplishes only space heating in winterb. accomplishes only space cooling in summerc. accomplishes both a and bd. work on Carnot cycle

95. Which of the following is not a common refrigeranta. freon 12 b. ethylenec. ammonia d. carbon dioxide

96. Domestic refrigerator usually works ona. Carnot refrigeration cycleb. A refrigeration cyclec. Absorption refrigeration cycled. Vapor ejection refrigeration

97. Refrigerants commonly used for domestic refrigerations are a. ethyl chloride b. freon 12c. propane d. CO2

98. Air refrigeration cyclea. is most efficient of all refrigerationb. has very low efficiencyc. requires relatively quantities of air to achieve a significant amount of refrigerationd. both b and c

99. Coefficient to performance for a reversed Carnot cycle working between temperatures T1 and T2 (T1> T2) isa. T2 /(T1 - T2) b. T1 /(T1 – T2)c. (T2 – T1) / T1 d. (T1 – T2) /T2

100. Dry ice isa. moisture free ice b. solid heliumc. solid carbon dioxide d. none of these

CHEMICAL ENGINEERING CALCULATIONS

1. In flue gas analysis by Orsat’s apparatus, carbon monoxide is absorbed by(a) cuprous chloride (b) potassium hydroxide(c) alkaline pyrogallol solution (d) none of these

2. Calorific value as determined by bomb calorimeter is(a) higher calorific value at constant volume(b) gross calorific value at constant pressure(c) lower calorific value at constant pressure(d) net calorific value at constant volume

3. Incomplete combustion of a fuel is characterized by (a) smoke formation(b) high gas temperature(c) high percentage of oxygen in flue gas(d) high carbon monoxide content in flue gas

4. For maximum discharge through a chimney, its height should be(a) 200 meters(b) infinitely long(c) more than 105.7 meters(d) equal to the height of the hot gas column producing draught

5. Oxygen percentage (by weight) in atmospheric air is (a) 19 (b) 21(c) 23 (d) 29

6. Stack (chimney) height in a big thermal power plant is dictated by(a) pollution control aspect(b) draught to be created(c) limitation of constructional facilities(d) none of these

7. A particular coal is said to be free burning when it(a) burns completely (b) gives smokeless burning(c) shows little or no fusing action (d) none of these

8. As time passes, the calorific value of stored coal(a) decreases(b) increases(c) remains unaltered(d) may increase or decrease (depends on the method of storage)

9. Emission of dense white smoke out of chimney of a thermal power plant is an indication of the use of (a) less air for combustion (b) correct amount of air for combustion(c) too much air for combustion (d) pulverized coal in boilers

10. Use of pulverized coal in boiler furnace provides(a) high calorific value (b) better combustion(c) smokeless burning (d) pulverized coal

11. Which of the following fuels is best for burning on chain grate smoker?(a) non caking coal (b) caking coal(c) coking coal (d) pulverized coal

12. Which of the following accounts for maximum energy loss in a boiler(a) flue gases (b) ash content in the fuel(c) incomplete combustion (d) unburnt carbon in flue gases

13. “Over-fire burning” in a furnace is a phenomenon characterized by(a) supply of excess fuel(b) supply of excess air(c) burning carbon monoxide and other incombustible in upper zone of furnace by

supplying more air(d) none of these

14. When steam is passed over coal resulting in the endothermic reaction (C + H2O ----- CO + H2), it is called(a) carbonization of coal (b) oxidation of coal(c) coalification (d) gasification of coal

15. Fischer-Tropsch method aims at (a) gasification of coal(b) synthesis of gasoline (from water gas)(c) hydrogenation of coal to produce gasoline(d) none of these

16. Commercial production of petrol from coal (as practiced in a factory at Sasol in South Africa) is done by(a) hydrogenation of coal (b) gasification of coal(c) carbonization of coal (d) none of these

17. In case pulverized coal from steam boiler, the secondary air serves the main purpose of (a) transportation of coal (b) drying of coal(c) combustion of coal by supplying in around the burner(d) pre-heating the primary air

18. The main function of primary air in pulverized coal fired burner is to(a) burn CO to CO2 (b) dry transport of the coal(c) have proper combustion by supplying it around the burner(d) pre-heat the tertiary air used for complete combustion of CO to CO2

19. The advantage of firing pulverized coal in the furnace lies in the fact that if(a) permits the use of high ash content of coal(b) permits the use of low fusion point ash coal(c) accelerates the burning rate and economizes on fuel combustion(d) all of the above

20. Orsat apparatus is meant for(a) gravimetric analysis of flue gas(b) finding out combustion efficiency (c) direct determination of nitrogen in flue gas by absorbing it in ammoniacal cuprous

chloride(d) none of these

21. Pick out the wrong statement(a) Theoretical flame temperature is temperature attained by the products of

combustion when the fuel is burned without loss or gain of heat(b) Burning the fuel with theoretically required amount of pure oxygen results in

attainment of maximum adiabatic flame temperature(c) Burning the fuel with excess pure oxygen results in maximum theoretical

flame temperature(d) Adiabatic flame temperatures of actual combustions are always less than

maximum values22. The maximum adiabatic flame temperature in air compared to that in pure oxygen is

(a) much lower(b) much higher(c) same(d) either lower or higher, depends on the type of fuel

23. Adiabatic flame temperature of a fuel is dependant on the initial temperature of (a) the fuel (b) the air(c) both fuel and the air (d) neither fuel nor the air

24. Preheating of (a) the gaseous fuel before combustion decreases the flame temperature(b) Combustion air decreases the flame temperature(c) either the fuel or the air or both increases the flame temperature(d) either the fuel or the air does not affect the flame temperature

25. The fuel ratio of a coal is(a) the ratio of its percentage of fixed carbon to that of volatile matter(b) helpful in estimation of its rank(c) both (a) and (b)(d) neither (a) nor (b)

26. A fuel containing carbon and carbon monoxide (but containing the hydrogen or its compounds) is burnt in pure oxygen at constant pressure. Its gross calorific value as compared to the net calorific value will be(a) more (b) less(c) same (d) data insufficient; can’t be predicted

27. Removal of hydrogen from coke oven gas(a) increases its calorific value (b) decreases its calorific value(c) does not alter its calorific value (d) is not possible on commercial scale

28. With increase in calorific value of fuels, their adiabatic flame temperatures(a) increase(b) decrease(c) remain unchanged(d) may increase or decrease; depends on the quantity of products of combustion

29. Grindability index of a coal is 100. It implies that the(a) coal can be pulverized with great difficulty(b) coal can’t be pulverized(c) coal can easily be pulverized(d) power consumption in grinding the coal will be very high

30. If the specific heat of gaseous products of combustion of a fuel is high, the adiabatic flame temperature will be(a) low(b) high(c) very high if fuel is of low calorific value(d) none of these

31. Calorific value (kcal/kg) of dry wood may be around(a) 5 (b) 50(c) 500 (d) 5000

32. A coal containing high amount of volatile matter will have(a) low ignition temperature (b) very little content(c) high fusion point of its ash (d) low adiabatic flame temperature

33. Steam is intermittently admitted in to the fuel bed during the production of producer gas to(a) convert CO to CO2

(b) increase in combustion rate(c) increase the gas production rate(d) minimize the chances of clinker formation

34.Which of the following is called “blue gas”?

(a) coke oven gas(b) water gas

(c) natural gas

(d) producer gas (produced using Kopper Totzek gasifier).

35. During combustion of gaseous fuel deficiency of air

(a) lengthens the flame (b) tends to shorten the flame

(c) does not affect the flame length (d) increases the flame temperature

36. Use of excess of combustion air in the combustion of fuels results in

(a) heat losses(b) long flame

(c) condensation of water vapor from the flue gas

(d) none of these

37. A gaseous fuel in order to develop luminosity on burning, must contain

(a) carbon monoxide (b) hydrocarbons

(c) hydrogen (d) oxygen

38. Preheating of gaseous fuel results in increased

(a) flame length (b) flame temperature

(c) quantum of flue gas (d) ignition temperature

39. Quantity of coke oven gas produced by high temperature carbonization of one ton of dry coal may be around

(a) 30 Nm3 (b) 300 Nm3

(c) 3000 Nm3 (d) 30,000 Nm3

40. Coke oven gas is a better fuel than blast furnace gas because of its higher

(a) calorific value, cleanliness and relatively low distribution cost (due to its low specific gravity)

(b) adiabatic flame temperature(c) heat release rate (thus requiring smaller combustion chamber)(d) all of the above

41. Which of the following constituents of fuel does not contribute to its calorific value on combustion

(a) hydrogen (b) sulfur

(c) carbon (d) none of these

42. Combustion of pulverized coal as compared to that of lump coal

(a) develops a non-luminous flame (b) develops a low temperature flame

(c) can be done with less excess air (d) provides a lower rate of heat release

43. Which of the following is the most important deterrents to an extended use of pulverized coal in boiler firing?

(a) ash disposal problem(b) excessive fly-ash discharge from the stack(c) high power consumption in its transportation(d) erosion of induced draft fan blades

44. Pulverized coal used in boiler firing need have

(a) less moisture content (b) high fusion point of its ash

(c) high bulk density (d) lower ash constant

45. Dry air required to burn one lb of carbon completely may be around

(a) 11.5 lb (b) 2.67 lb

(c) 16 lb (d) none of these

46. Dry air requirement for burning 1 ft3 of CO to CO2 may be around

(a) 2.4 ft3 (b) 1.75 ft3

(c) 0.87 ft3 (d) 11.4 ft3

47. Washing of coal

(a) reduces its sulfur and ash content(b) controls its ash fusibility and increases its calorific value(c) improves its coking properties(d) all (a), (b), and (c)

48. Which of the following has the highest gross calorific value?

(a) blast furnace gas (b) coke oven gas

(c) carburetted water gas (d) oil refinery gas

49. Most of coking coals are

(a) anthracite coal (b) bituminous coal

(c) lignite (d) none of these

50. High excess air in combustion of fuels results in

(a) increased fuel consumption (b) incomplete combustion

(c) smoky flame (d) none of these

51. Atomizing steam to fuel oil ratio in a burner should be around

(a) 0.5 (b) 2

(c) 3 (d) 5

52. For every 10% increase in the excess air; the fuel consumption increases by

(a) 0.1% (b) 2%

(c) 5% (d) 10%

53. Ash content in the coke produced from a coking coal having 20% ash may be around

(a) 5% (b) 2%

(c)17% (d) 25%

54. Out of the following fuels, the difference between the net and gross calorific value is maximum in case of

(a) pitch (b) fuel oil

(c) blast furnace gas (d) bituminous gas

55. Spontaneous combustion of coal on storage results due to

(a) inadequate ventilation(b) low temperature oxidation(c) storage in large heaps with small surface to volume ratio(d) all (a), (b) and (c)

56. Low temperature oxidation of coal resulting from bad storage conditions does not decrease its

(a) caking power (b) calorific value

(c) hydrogen content (d) oxygen content

57. Efficient burning of anthracite coal requires

(a) low preheat of air (b) fine grinding

(c) high excess air (d) all (a), (b) and (c)

58. Rate of temperature oxidation of coal due to bad storage conditions

(a) decrease with increase in surface area(b) does not vary with increase in surface area(c) is more for low volatile coal compared to high volatile coal(d) is accelerated by storage in large heaps with small surface to volume ratio

59. Fusion of point coal ash increases in its

(a) iron sulfate content (b) iron silicate content

(c) lime and magnesia content (d) all (a), (b) and (c)

60. Which of the following accentuates clinkering trouble on furnace grate burning coal

(a) low density of carbonized residue containing high proportions of iron and sulfur(b) low forced draught and fuel bed temperature(c) thick fire and preheated primary air(d) all (a), (b) and (c)

61. A coal having high ratio of volatile matter to fixed carbon as compared to a coal having low ratio of volatile matter to fixed carbon

(a) is less liable to spontaneous combustion on storage(b) is more difficult to ignite and produces a shorter flame(c) requires smaller combustion space and less secondary air(d) none of these

62. Which of the following can be made into briquettes without the use of a binder

(a) lignite (b) bituminous coal

(c) anthracite coal (d) none of these

63. Presence of free moisture in coal is most disadvantageous during

(a) its pulverization (as it requires more power)(b) combustion of fine slacks on the grates

(c) handling (e.g. when emptying wagons)(d) none of these

64. Which of the following is not a binder for coal briquetting?

(a) coal tar (b) bitumen

(c) molasses (d) none of these

65. Highly caking coals

(a) produce weak coke(b) produce strong coke(c) may damage the coke oven walls during carbonization(d) both (b) and (c)

66. Presence of free moisture in coal during its high temperature carbonization

(a) reduces the coking time (b) protects the volatile products from pyrolysis (cracking) in the presence of hot

coke and hot oven walls(c) increases the loss of fine coal dust from the ovens when charging(d) none of these

67. Higher percentage of ash in coal meant for the production of metallurgical grade coke

(a) increases the hardness of coke(b) increases the abrasion resistance of coke(c) causes brittleness in steel(d) none of these

68. Increases in ash content of blast furnace coke

(a) reduces its consumption in the furnace(b) increases its consumption in the furnace(c) does not affect its consumption in the furnace(d) decreases its hardness and abrasion resistance

69. High sulfur content in a fuel

(a) increases the dew point of the flue gases(b) decreases the dew point of the flue gases(c) reduces combustion efficiency by limiting the permissible temperature reduction

of the flue gases(d) both (a) and (c)

70. With the increase in carbonization temperature

(a) gas yield increases (b) tar yield increases

(c) hydrogen percentage in the coke oven gas decreases

(d) methane percentage in the coke oven gas increases

71. Fill up the blank

With increase in time of carbonization at a particular temperature (say 1000C ), the ………. percentage in coke oven gas increases

(a) hydrogen (b) methane

(c) unsaturates (d) all (a), (b) and (c)

72. Producer gas containing least amount of tar is produced by

(a) partial combustion of coal(b) partial combustion of large size (<50mm)(c) high pressure gasification of coal (e.g. in Lurgi gasifier)(d) atmospheric pressure gasification of coal (e.g., in Kopper-Totzek gasifier)

73. High temperature in gasification of coal favors

(a) high production of CO2

(b) low production of CO2

(c) high production of CO(d) both (b) and (c)

74. Lurgi gasifier (high pressure gasifier) as compared to Kopper-Totzek gasifier (atmospheric pressure gasifier) produces

(a) higher amount of methane(b) lower amount of hydrogen(c) both (a) and (b)(d) higher amount of both methane and hydrogen

75. Which of the following constituents of coal is most important in the production of coke

(a) moisture (b) ash

(c) volatiles (d) carbon

76. Which of the following is most reactive (as regards the formation of CO + H2 from C + H2O)?

(a) blast furnace coke (b) low temperature coke

(c) anthracite coal (d) sub-bituminous coal

77. A coal that softens and fuses on heating in

(a) classified (b) carbonized

(c) caking (d) non-caking

78. Purity of coke means that it is high in carbon and low in

(a) volatiles (b) ash

(c) iron (d) moisture

79. Calorific value (kcal/Nm3) of coke oven furnace gas is around

(a) 900 (b) 4500

(c) 7500 (d) 2000

80. Calorific value (kcal/Nm3) of blast furnace gas is around

(a) 900 (b) 1800

(c) 4500 (d) 6500

81. Blast furnace gas is a very poisonous gas because of its predominantly high

(a) H2S content (b) CO2 content

(c) CO content (d) CH4 content

82. Percentage of carbon monoxide in blast furnace gas may be around

(a) 0.5 (b) 5

(c) 20 (d) 55

83. Percentage of hydrogen in coke oven gas may be around

(a) 1 (b) 5

(c) 20 (d) 50

84. Percentage of methane in coke oven gas may be around

(a) 1 (b) 10

(c) 25 (d) 55

85. Coke oven gas compared to blast furnace gas is

(a) more explosive and inflammable (b) less poisonous(c) lighter (d) all (a), (b) and (c)

86. Which of the following gases will require maximum amount of air for combustion of 1 Nm3 gas?

(a) blast furnace gas (b) natural gas

(c) producer gas (d) water gas

87. Which of the following will generate maximum volume of product of complete combustion (Nm3/Nm3 of fuel)?

(a) carburetted water gas (b) blast furnace gas

(c) natural gas (d) producers gas

88. Which is the heaviest fuel gas out of the following?

(a) blast furnace gas (b) coke oven gas

(c) water gas (d) carburetted water gas

89. ‘Fuel can be defined as a substance which produces heat by

(a) combustion (b) nuclear fission

(c) nuclear fusion (d) all (a), (b) and (c)

90. Catalyst used in Fisher-Tropsch process is

(a) Nickel (b) Zinc oxide

(c) Alumina (d) Thorium oxide

91. In the flue gas analysis by Orsat’s apparatus, oxygen is absorbed by

(a) potassium hydroxide (b) cuprous chloride

(c) alkaline pyrogallol solution (d) none of these

92. In flue gas analysis by Orsat’s apparatus, carbon dioxide is absorbed by

(a) potassium hydroxide (b) dilute potassium carbonate

(c) cuprous chloride (d) alkaline pyrogallol solution

93. The sequence of absorption in flue gas analysis by Orsat’s apparatus is respectively

(a) CO2, O2, CO (b) CO, O2, CO2

(c) CO2, CO, O2 (d) O2, CO2, CO

94. Which of the following has the highest calorific value?

(a) lignite (b) sub-bituminous coal

(c) anthracite (d) peat

95. The main product of high temperature carbonization is

(a) coke (b) ammonia

(c) tar (d) coke oven gas

96. High temperature carbonization produces

(a) inferior coke compared to low temperature carbonization(b) less of gases compared to liquid products(c) large quantity of tar compared to low temperature carbonization(d) none of these

97. High temperature carbonization takes place at

(a) 2000C (b) 600 C

(c) 1100 C (d) 1600 C

98. Low temperature carbonization takes place at

(a) 300 C (b) 1100 C

(c) 500-650 C (d) 150 C

99. Proximate analysis of determines

(a) moisture, ash, sulfur, volatile matter(b) moisture, volatile matter, ash, fixed carbon(c) moisture, sulfur, nitrogen, fixed carbon(d) none of these

100. Ultimate analysis of coal determines

(a) carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, sulfur(b) carbon, ash, sulfur, nitrogen(c) carbon, sulfur, volatile matter, ash(d) carbon, volatile matter, ash, moisture

CHEMICAL PROCESS INDUSTRIES

1. Catalysts used in the manufacture of sulfuric acid by chamber and contact processes are respectively (a) V2O5 and Cr2O3

(b) Oxides of nitrogen and Cr2O3

(c) V2O5 on a porous carrier and oxides of nitrogen (d) oxides of nitrogen and V2O5 on a porous carrier2. In contact process, SO3 is absorbed in 97% H2SO4 and not in water because (a) SO3 gas is sparingly soluble in water (b) water forms an acid mist which is difficult to absorb (c) the purity of acid is affected (d) scale formation in absorber is to be avoided

3. Contact process (a) yields acid of higher concentration than chamber process (b) yields acids of lower concentration than chamber process (c) is obsolete (d) eliminates absorber

4. 20% Oleum means that in 100 lb., there are 20 lb. of (a) SO3 and 80 lb of H2SO4

(b) H2SO4 and 80 lb SO3

(c) SO3 for each 100 lb of H2SO4

(d) H2SO4 and 80 lb SO35. Producer gas consists mainly of (a) CO, CO2, N2, H2 (b) CO, H2

(c) H2, CH4

(d) C2H2, CO2, H2

6. Oxygen is produced by fraction of air using (a) Linde's process(b) Claude's process (c) both Linde's and Claude's process(d) Bayer's process

7. Raw materials for 'Solvay Process' for manufacture of the soda ash are

(a)salt, limestone ,ammonia and coke oven gas(b) ammonia, salt and limestone(c) ammonia, limestone and coke(d) ammonia and coke oven gas

8. Economics of 'Solvay Process" depends upon the efficiency of(a) carbonating tower(b) ammonia recovery(c)ammonia recovery and size of plant(d) ammoniation of salt solution

9. Mercury cells for caustic soda manufacture compared to diaphragm cells

(a) require lower initial investment(b) require more power (c) produce lower concentration of NaOH (d)none of these

10. Cement mainly contains (a)CaO, SiO2, Al2O3

(b) MgO, SiO2, K2O (c) Al2O3, MgO, Fe2O3

(d) CaO, MgO, K2O

11. Gypsum is(a) calcium chloride(b) potassium sulfate(c) sodium sulfate(d) calcium sulfate

12. Glauber's salt is(a) calcium sulfate(b)potassium sulfate(c) potassium chlorate(d) sodium sulfate decahydrate

13. Permanent hardness of water is due to the presence of calcium and magnesium

(a) bi-carbonates(b) sulfates and chlorides(c) carbonate(d)chlorides

14. Widely used method for conditioning of boiler feed water is(a)cold lime process(b)coagulation(c) hot-lime soda process(d)sequestration

15. Hydrazine is largely used(a) as a starting material for 'hypo'(b) in photographic industry(c)as rocket fuel(d) in printing industry

16. Trinitro-toluene is(a) used in glycerin manufacture(b) an explosive(c) used in dye manufacture(d) used in paint manufacture

17. Oil is(a) a mixture of glycerides(b) a mixture of glycerides of fatty acids (c) solid at normal temperature(d)ester of alcohols other than glycerin

18. Wax is (a) a mixture of glycerides (b) a mixture of esters of polyhydric alcohols except glycerin (c) liquid at room temperature

(d) a mixture of glycerides of fatty acids

19. Unsaturated oils compared to saturated oils have (a) lower melting point and higher reactivity to oxygen (b) higher melting point and higher reactivity to oxygen (c) lower melting point and lower reactivity to oxygen (d) higher melting point and lower reactivity to oxygen20. Rancidity of oil can be reduced by

(a) decoloration(b) hydrogenation(c) oxidation(d) purification

21. Solvent used for extraction of oil is (a)hexane(b) methyl ethyl ketone(c) furfural(d) benzene

22. Solvent extracted oil(a) has low free fatty acid-content(b) is odorless (c) has more of unsaturated oil(d) none of these

23. Hydrogenation of oil does not(a) remove double bonds(b) rise in melting point(c) improve its resistance oxidation(d) none of these

24. Catalyst used in hydrogenation of oil is(a)nickel(b) platinum(c) iron(d) alumina

25. Soaps remove dirt by(a) increasing the surface tension(b) decreasing wettability(c) supplying hydrophilic group(d) none of these

26. Metallic soap is (a) sodium salt of fatty acids (b) potassium salt of fatty acids (c) both sodium and potassium salt of fatty acids

(d) aluminum or calcium salt of fatty acids

27. Fat splitting catalyst is(a) CaCO3

(b) ZnO(c) alumina(d) iron

28. Free alkali in toilet soap is(a)less than that in a laundry soap(b) more than that in a laundry soap(c) same as that in a laundry soap(d) not present in laundry soap

29. Soap cannot be used with hard water because (a) hard water contains sulfate (b) they form insoluble calcium soaps which precipitate (c) they attract back the removed dirt (d) they increase the surface tension 30. Builders are added in soap to (a) boost cleaning power (b) act as anti-redeposition agent

(c) act as corrosion inhibitor (d) acts as fabric brightener

31. Bio-degradable detergents(a) can be readily oxidized (b)pose problem in sewerage plant(c) have an isoparaffinic structure(d)should not be used as it spoils the cloth

32. Which of the following is a detergent?(a) fatty alcohol(b) alkyl benzene sulfonate(c) fatty acids(d) methyl chloride

33. Yellow glycerin is made into white, using(a) activated carbon(b)diatomaceous earth(c) bauxite(d)bentonite

34. Essential oils are usually obtained using(a) steam distillation (b)extractive distillation(c) solvent extraction(d) leaching

35. Plasticizers are added to paints to (a) make it corrosion resistant (b) make glossy surface (c) give elasticity and prevent cracking of the film

(d) increase atmospheric oxidation36. Which oil is preferred for paint manufacture?

(a) drying oil(b)non-drying oil(c) semi-drying oil(d) saturated oil

37. Function of thinner in a paint is to(a) accelerate the oxidation of oil(b)prevent gelling of the paint

(c) suspend pigments and dissolve film-forming materials(d) form a protective film

38. Varnish does not contain(a) pigment(b) thinner(c) dryer(d)anti-skinning agent

39. Enamels(a)give good glossy finish (b) are same as varnish(c) are prepared from non-drying oil(d) do not contain pigment

40. SO2 is bubbled through hot sugar-cane juice to(a)act as an acidifying agent(b) increase its concentration(c) increase the amount of molasses(d) increase the crystal size

41. Molasses is the starting material for(a) alcohol(b) essential oil(c) fatty acids(d)ether

42. The ideal pulp for the manufacture of paper should have high (a) cellulose content(b) lignin content(c) both (a) and (b)(d)neither (a) nor (b)

43. In Kraft process of paper manufacture, white cooking liquor consists of caustic soda

(a) sodium sulfide, sodium carbonate (b) sodium sulfite, sodium carbonate (c) sodium sulfite, sodium sulfide (d)and sodium carbonate

44. Comparing sulfate process with sulfite process, we find that

(a) both temperature and pressure in former is less than that in the latter

(b) both temperature and pressure in former is more than that in the latter

(c) temperature is more in former whereas pressure is more in the latter

(d) pressure is more in the former whereas temperature is less in the latter

45. Cooking liquor in case of sulfite process is (a) sodium sulfite and sodium bisulfite (b) magnesium sulfite and free SO2 in acid medium (c) magnesium sulfate and magnesium bicarbonate (d) sodium bisulfite46. Which is a high-grade pulp?

(a) rag pulp(b) mechanical pulp(c)sulfate pulp(d) sulfite pulp

47. Which of the following paper does not require a filler during manufacture?

(a) bond paper(b)writing paper(c)blotting paper(d)colored paper

48. Bleaching of paper pulp is done with(a) activated clay(b)bromine(c)chlorine or chlorine dioxide(d)magnesium sulfite

49. Sizing material is incorporated in paper to (a) impart resistance to penetration by liquids (b) increase its thickness (c) increase its flexibility and opacity

(d) increase its brightness50. Viscose rayon is

(a) cellulose nitrate(b) regenerated cellulose nitrate(c) regenerated cellulose acetate(d) regenerated cellulose fiber

51. Which of the following coal has the highest calorific value?(a) Lignite(b) Sub-bituminous(c)Anthracite(d) Peat

52. The main product of high temperature carbonization is(a) Coke (b)Ammonia(c) Tar(d)Phenol

53. High temperature carbonization produces (a) inferior coke compared to low temperature carbonization

(b) less of gases compared to liquid products (c) larger quantity of tar compared to low temperature carbonization

(d) relatively low tar and yields of gaseous products are larger than the yield of liquid

products54. High temperature carbonization takes place at

(a) 4000 - 5000ºF(b) 950ºF(c)> 1650ºF (d)< 1000ºF

55. Low temperature carbonization takes place at(a) 500ºF(b)1300ºF(c)750 - 1100ºF(d)2500 F

56. Proximate analysis of coal determines (a) moisture, ash, sulfur, volatile matter (b) moisture, volatile matter (c) moisture, sulfur, nitrogen, fixed carbon

(d) carbon, hydrogen, ash 57. Ultimate analysis of coal determines

(a)moisture, hydrogen, nitrogen, sulfur(b) carbon, ash, sulfur,nitrogen(c) carbon, sulfur, volatile matter, ash(d) carbon,volatile matter, ash, moisture

58. Washing of coal is done to(a) remove the inherent impurities(b) remove the adhering impurities(c) reduce the ash content (d) both b and c

59. A good quality coal should have (a) low fusion point of ash (b) high ash content (c) high sulfur content (d) none of these60. Coke oven gas consists mainly of

(a)H2, CH4 (b) CO, CO2

(c) H2, CO (d) CH4, CO

61. Lurgi coal gasifier is a pressurized(a)moving bed reactor (b) fixed bed reactor(c) fluidized bed reactor(d) entrained bed reactor

62. In Lurgi gasifier (a) cooking coals cannot be used (b) low carbon conversion efficiency is achieved (c) entrainment of solids is higher (d) large quantity of coal can be processed63. The catalyst used in shift converter is

(a)nickel (b) vanadium(c) silica gel(d) alumina

64. The gasification reaction C + H2O CO + H2 is

(a) exothermic (b) endothermic(c) catalytic(d)autocatalytic

65. The combustion reaction C + O2 CO2 is(a) exothermic (b)endothermic(c) autocatalytic (d)catalytic

66. Kopper-Totzek coal gasifier (a) can give ammonia synthesis gas (b) is a moving bed reactor (c) cannot use cooking coal

(d) operate at very high pressure

67. Acrylonitrile is mainly used in(a) polymer industry (b)printing industry(c) dyeing industry(d)photographic industry

68. The major use of butadiene is (a) as a plasticizer for unsaturated polyester (b) in the manufacture of synthetic rubber

(c) as an anti-skinning agent in paint(d) as corrosion inhibitor

69. Phenol is mainly used(a) to produce benzene (b) to produce phenol formaldehyde(c) to produce polyester resin (d) as a plasticizer for unsaturated polyester

70. Phthalic anhydride is made by(a) Oxidation of naphthalene (b)Oxidation of benzene(c) Dehydrogenation of ethyl benzene (d)Oxidation of toluene

71. Trinitrotoluene (TNT), an explosive, is made by nitration of (a) nitrobenzene (b) toluene

(c) nitrotoluene(d) benzene

72. Which is the most suitable dye for synthetic fibers?(a) acid dye(b)azoic dye(c) pigment dye(d)mordant dye

73. Fumigant insecticides (a) kill insects when they eat it (b) emit poisonous vapor

(c) are absorbed throughout the plant(d)are stomach poisons

74. Systemics insecticides(a) are absorbed throughout the plant(b)kill insects following external bodily contact(c) are stomach poisons(d)emit poisonous vapor

75. DDT stands (a) diethyl-diphenyl-trichloromethane (b)dichloro-diphenyl-trichloromethane (c) diphenyl-dichloro-trichloromethane (d) dichloro-diphenyl-trichloroethane

76. BHC (Benzene hexa-chloride) is made by chlorination of benzene(a)which is an addition reaction(b) which is a substitution reaction(c) in absolute dark(d) in presence of sunlight

77. Analgesic drugs are(a) pain relievers(b)antibiotics(c) used in the treatment of TB(d)used in the treatment of typhoid

78. Antibiotic (a) prohibits/destroys the growth of micro-organism (b) is used as pain reliever (c) is an anti-malaria

(d) is an anaesthetic79. Penicillin is made employing

(a) continuous fermentation process(b) aerobic batch fermentation(c) anaerobic batch fermentation(d)aerobic or anaerobic batch fermentation

80. Which of the following is not an antibiotic?(a) penicillin(b) streptomycin(c) tetracyclin(d) quinine

81. Molecular weights of polymers are in the range of(a) 10 - 1000(b)105 - 109

(c)103 - 107

(d)105 - 107

82. Zeigler process (a) produces high density polyethylene

(b)produces low density polyethylene(c) uses no catalyst(d)employs very high pressure

83. Poly-Vinyl Chloride (PVC) is(a) thermosetting(b) thermoplastic(c) a fibrous material(d) chemically active

84. Phenol formaldehyde(a) employs addition polymerization(b) employs condensation polymerization(c) is a monomer(d) is an abrasive material

85. Epoxy resin(a) is a good adhesive

(b) is an elastomer(c) cannot be used on surface coatings(d) is a polyester

86. Vulcanization of rubber(a) decreases its tensile strength(b) increases its ozone and oxygen reactivity(c) increases its oil and solvent resistant(d) converts its plasticity into elasticity

87. Most commonly used rubber vulcanizing agent is(a) sulfur(b)bromine(c) platinum(d)alumina

88. Styrene butadiene rubber (SBR) is(a) a natural rubber(b) a synthetic polymer(c) a synthetic monomer(d)another name for silicon rubber

89. Nylon-6 is manufactured from (a) caprolactam (b) hexamethylene diamine and adipic acid (c) hexamethylene diamine and maleic anhydride

(d) hexamethylene diamine and sebacic acid90. Nylon 6-6 is manufactured from (a) hexamethylene diamine adipic acid (b) hexamethylene diamine and maleic anhydride (c) caprolactam

(d) dimethyl terephthalate and ethylene glycol

91. Dacron is(a) a polyester(b)an unsaturated polyester(c) a polyamide(d)an inorganic polymer

92. Celluloid is (a) cellulose acetate(b) regenerated cellulose(c)cellulose nitrate(d)cellulose acetate butyrate

93. Thermoplastic materials(a) do not soften on application of heat(b)are heavily branched molecules(c) are solvent insoluble

(d) are capable of softening or fusing when heated and of hardening again when cooled

94. Thermosetting materials(a) are capable of becoming permanently rigid when

heated or cured(b) soften on application of heat(c) are solvent insoluble(d)are heavily branched molecules

95. Type of glass used in optical work is(a) soda-lime glass(b)fiber glass(c)lead glass(d)borosilicate glass

96. Silicon carbide is(a) an adhesive(b)an abrasive(c) a type of glass(d) brittle

97. The temperature in the calcium carbide furnace is(a) 200 - 300ºC(b) 700 - 850ºC(c)2000 -2200ºC(d) 4000 - 4500ºC

98. Cumene (Isopropyl benzene) is made by (a) oxidation of naphthalene (b) propylene alkylation of benzene (c) polymerization of a mixture of benzene and propylene

(d) polymerization of propylene

99. Glycerin can be obtained from(a)fat(b) naphthalene(c) cumene(d) sucrose

100. Cumene is the starting material for the production of(a) benzoic acid (b) phenol and acetone(c) isoprene(d) styrene

101. Which of the following is not responsible for causing permanent hardness of water?

(a)Ca(HCO3)2

(b) CaCl2(c) MgCl2(d) NaCl

102. Zeolite used in water softening process (cation exchange) is regenerated by washing with…

(a)brine (b) chloramines(c) sodium bisulfite(d) liquid chlorines

103. Presence of H2S in raw water (to be chlorinated) results in (a) reduced softening capacity of zeolite (b) increase dosage of chlorine to provide a disinfecting residual in the water (c) easy removal of its hardness

(d) residual turbidity104. Lime and soda ash are added to water to remove

(a)bicarbonates and sulfates of calcium and magnesium(b) undesirable taste and odor(c) bacteria(d) its corrosiveness

105. Chloramines are used in water treatment for (a) disinfection and control of taste and odor

(b) corrosion control (c) removing turbidity (d) control of bacteria106. Deaeration of water in its treatment is necessary as it

(a) minimizes its turbidity(b) helps in controlling its taste and odor(c)minimizes its corrosiveness(d) controls bacteria

107. Sodium Bisulfate is used for(a) deaeration of water(b) dechlorination of water(c) both a and b(d) neither a nor b

108. Dechlorination of treated water is necessary to(a) remove residual turbidity(b) reduce the bacterial load on filter(c) control taste and odor(d) remove chlorinous taste

109. The main used of the activated carbon in water treatment is to control

(a) bacterial growth(b) taste and odor(c) turbidity (d) corrosion

110. Alum [Al2(SO4)3] is used as a coagulant in water treatment to remove

(a) color(b) turbidity(c) bacteria(d) all a, b and c

111. Use of hydrated lime in water treatment (a) before filtration, reduces the bacterial load on filters

(e) after filtration, combats the corrosiveness of water due to presence of O2 and CO2

(c) is to adjust the pH value (d) all a, b and c112. The purpose of adding Na2CO3 to water of low alkalinity is to (a) permit the use of alum as a coagulant (b) increase the softening capacity of zeolite (c) facilitate the easy regeneration of zeolite (d) all a, b and c113. Pick out the true statement pertaining to water treatment

(a) Slow sand filters can remove color completely(b) Activated carbon can be used for taste and odor control without

subsequent filtration (c) Application of activated carbon reduces the temporary hardness of water (d) Normally, the turbidity is removed by adding a coagulant prior to sedimentation

114. Pick out the false statement pertaining to water treatment (a) Aeration of water is effective in CO2 removal (b) The zeolite water softening process reduces the hardness

of water by not more than 50%

(c) Sodium sulfate or sodium carbonates do not cause hardness in water (d) Water with pH value less than 7, is acidic115. Pick out the wrong statement pertaining to solvent extraction of oil Rate of extraction…. (a) decreases with decrease of thickness of the flakes (b) increases with the increasing flake size keeping the flake thickness constant (c) increases considerably with the rise of temperature

(d) decreases as the moisture content of flakes increases116. Fats as compared to oils have (a) more unsaturated glycerides of fatty acids (b) less unsaturated glycerides of fatty acids (c) much higher reactivity to oxygen (d) lower melting point117. Salt is added in the kettle during soap manufacture to separate

(a)soap from lye(b) glycerin from lye(c) the metallic soap(d) the unsaponified fat from soap

118. Hydrazine (N2H4) is used mainly as (a) explosive (b) rocket fuel(c) an additive in detergent(d) catalyst 119. Oils are partially hydrogenated (not fully) to manufacture vanaspati, because fully saturated solidified oils (a) cause cholesterol build up and blood clotting (b) are prone to rancid oxidation (c) always contain some amount of nickel (as their complete removal is very difficult) (d) have affinity to retain harmful sulfur compounds120. Hydrogenation of oil takes place in

(a) an autothermal reactor (b) a trickle bed reactor(c) a plug flow reactor(d) backmix reactor

121. Temperature during hydrogenation of oil should not be more than 200ºC, otherwise it will result in

(a) pyrolysis of oil (b) sintering of porous catalyst(c) hydrogen embrittlement(d) all a, b and c

122. Shaving soaps are(a)soft potassium soaps (potassium salt of fatty acid) with

free stearic acid to give lather a lasting property

(b) metallic soaps compounded with frothing agents (c) high free alkali soaps having excess of cane sugar and alcohol

(d) usually soap soaps 123. Transparent soaps (e.g. Pears) are

(a) usually soft soaps (made from coconut oil) in which cane sugar and alcohol are

added and finally washed with methylate spirit to achieve transparency

(b) metallic soaps with frothing agent and free stearic acid to achieve transparency (c) metallic soaps with frothing agent from which glycerin has not been recovered (d) high free alkali soaps having excess of cane sugar and alcohol 124. Glycerin is recovered from lye by (a) evaporation followed by vacuum distillation (b) liquid extraction technique (c) extractive distillation technique (d) steam distllation125. Glycerin is not used in the (a) manufacture of explosive (b) conditioning and humidification of tobacco (c) manufacture of pharmaceuticals (d) manufacture of caustic soda

FLOW OF FLUIDS

1. A fluid is one which(a) cannot remain at rest under the action of shear force (b) continuously expands till it fills any container (c) is incompressible(d) permanently resists distortion

2. In an incompressible fluid density (a) is greatly affected by moderate changes in pressure(b) is greatly affected only by moderate changes in temperature (c) remains unaffected with moderate change in temperature and pressure (d) is sensible to changes in both temperature and pressure

3. Potential flow is the flow of (a) compressible fluids with shear(b) compressible fluids with no shear(c) incompressible fluids with shear (d) incompressible fluids with no shear

4. Potential flow is characterized by (a) irrotational and frictionless flow(b) irrotational and frictional flow (c) one in which dissipation of mechanical energy into heat occurs (d) the formation of eddies within the stream

5. Newton’s law of viscosity relates (a) shear stress and velocity(b) velocity gradient and pressure intensity(c) shear stress and rate of angular deformation in a fluid(d) pressure gradient and rate of angular deformation

6. Dimension of viscosity is

(a) ML-1T-1 (b) MLT-1

(c) MLT-1T (d) MLT

7. Poise is converted into stoke by(a) multiplying with density (gm/c.c.)(b) dividing with density (gm/c.c.)(c) multiplying with specific gravity (d) dividing with specific gravity

8. Dimension of kinematic viscosity is (a) ML-2 (b) L2T-1

(c) L2T (d) L2T2

9. With increase in the temperature viscosity of a liquid (a) increase (b) decreases(c) remains constant (d) first decreases and then increases

10. For water, when the pressure increases the viscosity (a) also increases (b) decreases (c) remains constant (d) first decreases and then increases

11. The pressure intensity is the same in all direction at a point in a fluid (a) only when the fluid is frictionless(b) only when the fluid is at rest having zero velocity(c) when there is no motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacent layer(d) regardless of the motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacent layer

12. Choose the set of pressure intensities that are equivalent (a) 4.33 psi, 10 ft. of water, 8.83 inches of Hg.(b) 4.33 psi, 10 ft. of water, 20.7 inches of Hg.(c) 10 psi, 19.7 ft. of water, 23.3 inches of Hg.(d) 10 psi, 19.7 ft of water, 5.3 inches of Hg.

13. For a fluid rotating at constant angular velocity about vertical axis as a rigid body, the pressure intensity varies as the(a) square of the radial distance (b) radial distance linearly (c) averse of the radial distance

(d) elevation along vertical direction

14. The center of pressure is (a) always below the centroid of the area (b) always above the centroid of the area (c) a point on the line of action of the resultant force (d) at the centroid of the submerge area

15. A rectangular surface 3’x4’, has the lower 3 edge horizontal and 6’ below a free oil surface (sp. gr. 0.8). The surface inclination is 300 with the horizontal. The force in one side of the surface is :(y = specific weight of water)

(a) 39.6y (b) 48y(c) 49.2y (d) 58y

16. Fill up the blanksA stream tube is that which has ……… cross-section entirely bounded by stream lines.(a) a circular (b) any convenient (c) a small (d) a large

17. Mass velocity is the independent of temperature and pressure when the flow is(a) unsteady through uncharged cross-section (b) steady through changing cross-section (c) steady and the cross-section is unchanged(d) unsteady ant the cross-section is changed

18. In turbulent flow (a) the fluid particles move in an orderly manner (b) momentum transfer is on molecular scale only (c) shear stress is caused more effectively by cohesion than momentum transfer(d) shear stresses are generally larger than in a similar laminar flow

19. Turbulant flow generally occurs for cases involving

(a) highly viscous fluid (b) very narrow passages(c) very slow motion (d) none of these

20. An ideal fluid is

(a) frictionless and incompressible(b) one which obeys Newton’s law of viscosity(c) highly viscous (d) none of these

21.Steady flow occurs when (a) conditions change steadily with time (b) conditions are the same at the adjacent points at any instant (c) conditions do not change with time at any point (d) rate of change of velocity is constant

22. Which of the following must be followed by the flow of fluid (real or ideal)?(i) Newton’s law of viscosity(ii) Newton’s second law of motion(iii) the continuity equation(iv) velocity of boundary must be zero relative to boundary(v) fluid cannot penetrate a boundary(a) I, II, III (b) II, III, V(c) I, II, V (d) II, III, V

23. Discharge (ft3/sec) from a 24 inch pipe of water at 10 ft/sec will be (a) 7.65 (b) 32.36(c) 48.22 (d) 125.6

24. The unit velocity head is (a) ft-lb/sec (b) ft-lb/ft3

(c) ft-lbf/lb.m (d) ft-lb.f/sec

25. Bernoulli’s equation describes (a) mechanical energy balance in potential flow(b) kinetic energy balance in laminar flow (c) mechanical energy balance in turbulent flow (d) mechanical energy balance in boundary layer

26. The kinetic energy correction factor for velocity distribution of laminar flow is(a) 0.5 (b) 1.66(c) 1 (d) 2

27. The momentum correction factor for the velocity distribution of laminar flow is(a) 1.3 (b) 1.66(c) 2.5 (d) none of these

28. The loss due to sudden expansion is (a) V1

2 – V22

2gc

(b) (V1 – V2)3

2gC

(c) V1 – V2

2gc

(d) none of these

29. The loss due to sudden contraction is proportional to (a) velocity (b) velocity head(c) turbulence (d) none of these

30. The value of critical Reynolds number for pipe flow is (a) 1300 (b) 10,000(c) 100,000 (d) none of these

31. Reynolds number flow of water at room temperature through 2 cm diameter pipe at average velocity of 5 cm/sec is around (a) 2000 (b) 10(c) 100 (d) 1000

32. Shear stress in a fluid flowing in a round pipe (a) varies parabolically across the cross-section(b) remains constant over the cross-section(c) is zero at the center and varies linearly with the radius (d) is zero at the wall and increase linearly to the center

33. Discharge in laminar flow through a pipe varies(a) as the square of the radius (b) inversely as the pressure drop (c) inversely as the velocity(d) as the square of the diameter

34. Boundary layer separation is caused by (a) reduction of pressure below vapor pressure(b) reduction of pressure gradient to zero(c) an adverse pressure gradient(d) reduction of boundary layer thickness to zero

35. The friction factor for turbulent flow in a hydraulically smooth pipe(a) depends only on Reynolds number(b) does not depend on Reynolds number(c) depends on the roughness (d) none of these

36. For a given Reynolds number, in hydraulically smooth pipe, further smoothing (a) brings about no further reduction of friction factor(b) increases the friction factor (c) decreases the friction factor (d) none of these

37. Hydraulic radius is the ratio of (a) wetted perimeter to flow area (b) flow area to wetted perimeter(c) flow area to square of wetted perimeter(d) square root of flow area to wetted perimeter

38. Hydraulic radius of 6” x 12” c/s is (a) 2” (b) 0.5”(c) 1.5” (d) none of these

39. Reynolds number is the ratio of (a) viscous forces to gravity forces (b) inertial forces to viscous forces (c) viscous forces to inertial forces (d) inertial forces to gravity forces

40. Mach. number is the ratio of the speed of the (a) fluid of that of the light (b) light to that of the fluid(c) fluid to that of thesound (d) sound to that of the fluid

41. Power loss in an orifice meter is (a) less than that in a venturi meter(b) same as that in a venturi meter(c) more than that in a venturi meter(d) data insufficient, cannot be predicted

42. The velocity profile for turbulent flow through a closed conduit is (a) logarithmic (b) parabolic(c) hyperbolic (d) linear

43. For laminar flow through a closed conduit(a) Vmax = 2 Vav (b) Vmax = Vav

(c) Vmax = 1.5 Vav (d) Vav = 2 Vmax

44. f = 16/NRe is valid for (a) turbulent flow(b) laminar flow through an open channel(c) steady flow (d) none of these

45. Isotropic turbulence occurs(a) where there is no velocity gradient (b) at higher temperatures(c) only in newtonion fluid(d) none of these

46. Consider two pipes of same length and diameter through which water is passed at the same velocity. The friction factor for rough pipe is f1 and that for smooth pipe is f2. Pick out the correct statement.(a) f1 = f2 (b) f1 < f2

(c) f1 > f2 (d) data not sufficient to relate f1 and f2

47. Bernoulli’s equation for steady frictionless, continuous flow states that (a) total pressure at all sections is same (b) total energy at all section is same (c) velocity head at all section is same (d) none of these

48. Drag is defined as the force exerted by the (a) fluid on the solid in a direction opposite to flow(b) the fluid on the solid in the direction of flow(c) the solid on the fluid (d) none of these

49. Drag co-efficient for flow past immersed body is the ratio of (a) shear stress to the product of velocity head density(b) shear force to the product of velocity head and density(c) average drag per unit projected area to the product of velocity head and

density(d) none of these

50. Stoke’s law is valid when the particle Reynolds number is (a) < 1 (b) > 1(c) < 5 (d) none of these

51. Drag co-efficient CD is given by (in Stoke’s law range)(a) CD = 16 Re.p

(b) CD = 24 Re.p

(c) CD = 18.4 Re.p

(d) CD = 0.079 Re.p

52. At low Reynolds number(a) viscous forces are unimportant (b) viscous forces control(c) viscous forces control and inertial forces are unimportant (d) gravity forces control

53. At high Reynolds number (a) inertial forces control and viscous forces are unimportant (b) viscous forces predominate (c) inertial forces are unimportant and viscous forces control (d) none of these

54. For flow of fluid through packed bed, the superficial velocity is (a) less than the average velocity through channels (b) more than the average velocity through channels (c) dependent on the pressure drop across the bed(d) same as the average velocity through channels

55. Pressure drop in a packed bed for laminar flow is given by (a) Kozeny-Carman equation (b) Blake-Plummer equation(c) Leva’s equation (d) none of these

56. Pressure drop in a packed bed for turbulent flow is given by (a) Kozeny-Carman equation (b) Blake-Plummer equation(c) Leva’s equation (d) none of these

57. Force acting on a particle settling in fluid are (a) gravitational and bouyant forces (b) centrifugal and drag forces (c) gravitational or centrifugal, bouyant and drag forces (d) external, drag and viscous forces

58. Terminal velocity is (a) a constant velocity with no acceleration (b) a fluctuating velocity(c) attained after moving one-haft of total distance (d) none of these

59. In hindered settling, particles are (a) placed farther from wall(b) not affected by other particles and the wall(c) near each other (d) none of these

60. Drag co-efficient in hindered settling is (a) lesser than in free settling (b) equal to that in free settling (c) not necessarily greater than in free settling (d) greater than free settling

61. For the free settling of a spherical particle through a fluid, the slope of CD – log NRe, plot is (a) 1 (b) –1(c) 0.5 (d) –0.5

62. In continuous fluidization (a) solids are completely entrained (b) the pressure drop less than that for batch fluidisation (c) there is no entrainment of solids (d) velocity of the fluid is very small

63. Pressure drop in fluidized bed reactor is (a) less than that in a similar packed bed reactor(b) more than that in a similar packed bed reactor(c) same as that in a similar packed bed reactor (d) none of these

64. Slugging in a fluidized bed can be avoided by(a) using tall narrow vessel (b) using deep bed solids(c) the proper choice of particle size and by using shallow beds of solids(d) using very large particles

65. Minimum porosity for fluidization is (a) that corresponding to static bed (b) that corresponding to completely fluidized bed (c) the porosity of the bed when true fluidization begins (d) less than that of the static bed

66. In a fluidized bed reactor (a) temperature gradients are very high (b) temperature is more or less uniform (c) hot spot formed (d) segregation of the solids occurs

67. Lower BWG means (a) lower thickness tube(b) lower cross-section of tube (c) outer diameter of tube (d) inner diameter of tube

68. Cavitation occurs in a centrifugal pump when (a) the suction pressure < vapour pressure of the liquid at that temperature(b) the suction pressure > vapour pressure of the liquid at that temperature (c) the suction pressure = vapour pressure(d) the suction pressure = developed head

69. Cavitation can be prevented by (a) suitably designing the pump (b) maintaining the suction head sufficiently greater than the vapour pressure(c) maintaining suction head = developed head(d) maintaining suction head lower than the vapour pressure

70. Priming needed in a (a) reciprocating pump (b) gear pump(c) centrifugal pump (d) diaphragm pump

71. The maximum depth from which a centrifugal pump can draw water (a) dependent on the speed N of the pump (b) dependent on the power of the pump(c) 34 feet (d) 150 feet

72. Boiler feed pump is usually a (a) reciprocating pump (b) gear pump(c) multisatge centrifugal pump (d) diaphragm pump

73. Plunger pumps are used for (a) higher pressure (b) slurries (c) viscous mass (d) none of these

74. Molten soap mass is transported by a (a) diaphragm pump (b) reciprocating pump(c) gear pump (d) centrifugal pump

75. To handle smaller quantity of fluid at high discharge pressure use(a) reciprocating pump (b) centrifugal pump(c) volute pump (d) rotary vacuum pump

76. The head developed by a centrifugal pump is largely determined by the (a) power of the pump(b) nature of the liquid being pumped (c) angle of the vanes and the speed of the tip of the impeller (d) vapour pressure of the liquid

77. The maximum head that can be developed with a single impeller is (a) 25 ft. (b) 1000 ft.(c) 250 – 300 ft. (d) 1000 ft.

78. A fluid jet discharging from a 2” diameter orifice has a diameter of 1.75” at its vena-contracta. The co-efficient of contraction is (a) 1.3 (b) 0.766(c) 0.87 (d) none of these

79. The discharge through a V-notch weir varies as

(a) H3/2 (b) H1/2

(c) H5/2 (d) none of these

80. The discharge through a rectangular weir varies as (a) H1/2 (b) H3/2

(c) H2/5 (d) none of these

81. Propellers are (a) axial flow mixers (b) low speed impeller(c) used for mixing liquids of high viscosity(d) radial flow mixers

82. Turbine impeller(a) produces only radial current (b) produces only tangential current (c) is effective over wide range of viscosities(d) does not produce tangential current

83. With increase in pump speed, its NPSH requirement (a) decreases (b) increases(c) remains unaltered (d) can either increase or decrease, depends on other factors

84. One dimensional flow implies (a) Flow in the straight line (b) steady uniform flow(c) unsteady uniform flow(d) a flow which does not account changes in transverse direction

85. In case of centrifugal fan or blower, the gas capacity varies as (a) spect speed (b) (speed) (c) (speed)3 (d) none of these

86. The continuity equation

(a) relates mass flow rate along a stream tube (b) relates work and energy (c) stipulates that Newton’s second law of motion must be satisfied at every point in

the fluid (d) none of these

87. For a specific centrifugal air blower operating at constant speed and capacity the power requirement and pressure vary (a) directly as squares of gas density (b) directly as gas density (c) directly as square root of density(d) inversely as gas density

88. Foot valves are provided in the suction line of a centrifugal pump to (a) avoid priming every time we start the pump(b) remove the contaminant present in the liquid (c) minimize the fluctuation in dischrarge(d) control the liquid discharge

89. Differential manometer measures (a) atmospheric pressure (b) sub-atmospheric pressure

(c) pressure difference between two points (d) none of these

90. Velocity distribution for flow between the fixed parallel plates (a) varies parabolically across the section (b) is constant over the entire cross section (c) is zero at the plates and increases linearly to the midplane (d) none of these

91. While starting a centrifugal pump, its delivery valve should be kept (a) opened (b) closed

(c) either opened or closed; it does not make any difference (d) either opened or closed; depending on the fluid viscosity

92. Path followed by water jet issuing from the bottom of a water tank will be a (a) parabola (vertex being at the opening)(b) hyperbolic (c) horizontal straight line(d) zig-zag path (which is geometrically undefined)

93. A centrifugal pump loses prime after starting. The reason of this trouble may be (a) incomplete priming (b) too high a suction lift

(c) low available NPSH and air leaks in the suction pipe (d) all ‘a’, ‘b’, and ‘c’

94. Capacity of a rotary gear pump can be varied by (a) changing the speed of rotation(b) bleeding air into suction(c) bypassing liquid from the suction or discharge line (d) all ‘a’, ‘b’, and ‘c’

95. For liquid flow through a packed bed, the superficial velocity as compared to average velocity through the channel in the bed is (a) more (b) less(c) equal (d) independent of porosity

96. Reciprocating pumps compared to centrifugal pumps (a) deliver liquid at uniform pressure(b) can handle slurries more efficiently (c) are not subject to air binding (d) can be operated with delivery valve closed

97. A tube is specified by its (a) thickness only (b) outer diameter (c) thickness and outer diameter both (d) inner diameter

98. For pipes that must be broken at intervals for maintenance, the connector used should be a (a) union (b) tee(c) reduce’s (d) elbow

99. If more than two branches of pipes are to be connected at the same point, then use (a) elbow (b) union(c) tee (d) none of these

100. The most economical valve for use with large diameter pipes is (a) butterfly valve (b) globe valve (c) needle valve (d) none of these

101. Which of the following factors does not contribute to the pressure drop in a pipeline?(a) velocity of liquid (b) size of pipe(c) length of pipe and number of bends (d) none of these

102. Which of the following can be used to create a flow of gas where no significant compression is required?(a) reciprocating compressor (b) blower(c) axial flow compressor (d) centrifugal compressor

103. Erosion and pits formation on the impeller of a centrifugal pump may be due to (a) cavitation (b) low speed of impeller

(c) its operation with delivery valve closed for considerable time after starting the pump

(d) off centering of pump with motor

104. Which of the following valves will incur maximum pressure drop for the same discharge of water?(a) globe valve (b) gate valve (c) needle valve (d) butterfly valve

105. While starting on axial flow pump, its delivery valve should be kept (a) open (b) closed(c) either open or closed (d) none of these

106. Identification of pipelines carrying different liquids and gases is done by (a) diameter of the pipe (b) color of the pipe(c) the altitude of at which pipe is located (d) none of these

107. A centrifugal pump has the following specifications:Power – 4 H.P.; Speed – 800 rpmHead – 8 meters; Flow – 1000 liters/minutesIf its speed is halved , then the new head will be (a) 2 m (b) 4 m(c) 8 m (d) 5.5 m

108. In question No. 107, the power consumed now will be

(a) 0.5 H.P. (b) 2 H.P.(c) 4 H.P. (d) 1 H.P.

109. In question No. 107, the new discharge will be (a) 500 liters/min. (b) 200 liter/min(c) 1000 liter/min (d) 750 liter/min

110. Interstage coolers are provided in a multistage compressor to (a) save power in compressing a given volume to a given pressure (b) cool the delivered air (c) achieve the exact delivery(d) none of these

111. Surge tanks are provided in high pressure water pipelines to (a) store a definite quantity of water all the time(b) reduce water hammer (c) facilities easy dismantling of pipeline for cleaning and maintenance (d) none of these

112. Pipes having diameter 14 inches or more are designated by their (a) outside diameter (b) inside diameter(c) schedule number (d) none of these

113. Disc compensators are provided in large diameter gas carrying pipelines to (a) keep the pipe in proper orientation (b) make the pipe joint leak-proof(c) account for contraction/ expansion of pipe due to temperature changes of

the surroundings(d) account for pressure variation inside the pipelines

114. Nominal Pipe Size (NPS) of a pipe less than 12 inches in diameter indicates its (a) inner diameter (b) outer diameter (c) thickness (d) neither inner or outer

115. The most important factor which determines the maximum height to which water can be lifted by a pump at standard temperature (62F) is (a) barometric pressure (b) speed of the impeller (c) diameter of the impeller (d) both ‘b’ and ‘c’

116. Bear pump(a) is a positive displacement pump (b) is a centrifugal pump (c) is a non-positive displacement pump(d) can be started with delivery valve closed

117. When the water is warm, the height to which it can be lifted by a pump (a) decreases due to reduced velocity (b) decreases due to reduced vapor pressure (c) increases due to increased vapor pressure (d) decreases due to increased frictional resistance

118. Multistage centrifugal pumps are generally used for (a) high head (b) low head but high discharged(c) highly viscous liquid (d) slurries of high solid concentration

119. Centrifugal pump can’t be used to pump (a) molten sodium (used as a coolant in Fast Breeder Reactor)(b) moderately vegetable oil used in soap industry(c) thick molten soap at 80C(d) none of the above

120. Volute type of casing is provided in a centrifugal pump to (a) convert velocity head to pressure head(b) convert pressure head to velocity head(c) reduce the discharge fluctuation(d) increase the discharge

121. A pump operating under specific conditions delivers insufficient quantity of liquid. This may be set right by (a) decreasing the size of the inlet pipe (b) increasing the size of the inlet pipe (c) lowering the pump position (d) both ‘b’ and ‘c’

122. Delivery of insufficient quantity of liquid by a pump may be caused by(a) air leak in the inlet (b) low rpm(c) too high a lift (d) all ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’

123. Actual lift of pump always less than the theoretical lift and is limited by(a) specific gravity and temperature of the liquid (b) leakage and pressure decreasing at higher elevations (c) frictional resistance through pipes, fittings and passages(d) all ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’

124. Fill up the blankNominal size of the discharge pipe of a pump is usually ……… the nominal size of the inlet pipe(a) smaller than (b) larger than(c) same as (d) twice

125. Horsepower requirement for given pump capacity depends upon the (a) specific gravity of the liquid (b) suction lift (c) discharge head (d) all ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’

DRYING

1. The vapor pressure exerted by the moisture contained in a wet solid depends upon thea) nature of the moistureb) temperaturec) nature of the solidd) all a, b, and c

2. To remove all the moisture from a wet solid requires exposure toa) perfectly dry airb) highly humid airc) air at high temperatured) none of these

3. Milk is dried usually in aa) freeze dryerb) spray dryerc) tray dryerd) rotary dryer

4. Equilibrium-moisture curves of different solidsa) are differentb) are samec) depend on the humidity of the gasd) none of these

5. Detergent solution is dried to a powder in aa) spray dryerb) spouted bed dryerc) tunnel dryerd) pan open to atmosphere.

6. If moisture content of a solid on dry basis is X then the same on wet basis isa) X

X + 1b) X

1 - Xc) 1 + X

Xd) 1 – X X

7. In paper industry, paper is dried ina) tunnel dryerb) heated cylinder dryerc) conveyor dryerd) festoon dryer

8. Moisture content of a substance when at equilibrium with a given partial pressure of the vapor is calleda) free moistureb) unbound moisturec) equilibrium moistured) bound moisture

9. Calcium ammonium nitrate (a fertilizer) is dried in a a) rotary dryerb) vacuum dryerc) tunnel dryerd) none of these

10. Moisture in a substance exerting an equilibrium vapor pressure less than that of pure liquid at at the same temperature isa) bound moistureb) unbound moisturec) critical moistured) none of these

11. Rotary dryer cannot handlea) free flowing materialsb) dry materialsc) sticky materialsd) granular materials

12. Moisture in a solid exerting an equilibrium vapor pressure equal to that of the pure liquid at the same temperature isa) unbound moistureb) critical moisturec) free moistured) bound moisture

13. Refractory bricks are usually dried in aa) tray dryerb) tunnel dryerc) conveyor dryerd) festoon dryer

14. Heat sensitive materials like certain pharmaceuticals and food stuff can be drieda) in indirect tray dryerb) in spray dryerc) by freeze dryingd) none of these

15. Moisture contained by a substance in excess of the equilibrium moisture is calleda) unbound moistureb) free moisturec) critical moistured) bound moisture

16. Flights in a rotary dryer are provided toa) lift and shower the solids thus exposing it thoroughly to

the drying action of the gasb) reduce the residence time of solidc) increase the residence time of the solidd) none of these

17. In the constant rate period of the rate of drying curve for batch dryinga) cracks develop on the surface of the solidb) rate of drying decreases abruptlyc) surface evaporation of unbound moisture occursd) none of these

18. The falling rate period in the drying of a solid is characterized bya) increase in rate of dryingb) increasing temperatures both on the surface and within

the solidc) decreasing temperaturesd) none of these

19. Dryer widely used in a textile industry isa) cylinder dryerb) conveyor dryer

c) tunnel dryerd) festoon dryer

20. Sticky material can be dried in aa) tray dryerb) rotary dryerc) fluidized bed dryerd) none of these

21. Drying of a solid involvesa) only heat transferb) only mass transferc) both heat and mass transferd) none of these

22. A solid material shows case hardening properties while drying. Which of the following should be controlled to control the drying process?a) flow rate of inlet airb) relative humidity of outlet airc) humidity of inlet aird) temperature of the solid

23. Capacity of a rotary dryer depends ona) its r.p.mb) its inclination with ground surfacec) both a and bd) neither a nor b

24. Air at a particular humidity is heated in a furnace. The new dew pointa) decreasesb) increasesc) depends on the extent of heatingd) remains unchanged

25. The critical moisture content in case of drying indicatesa) beginning of falling rate periodb) beginning of constant rate periodc) end of falling rate periodd) none of these

26. A slurry is to be dried to produce flaky solid. Which dryer would you recommend?a) spray dryerb) drum dryer

c) rotary dryerd) dielectric dryer

27. For continuous drying of granular or crystalline material, the dryer used isa) tunnelb) trayc) rotaryd) none of these

28. All moisture in a non-hygroscopic material is……moisturea) freeb) equilibriumc) unboundd) bound

29. During constant rate period, the rate of drying decreases witha) decrease in air temperatureb) increased air humidityc) both a and bd) neither a nor b

30. Which is the controlling factor for a drum dryer?a) diffusionb) heat transferc) both a and bd) neither a nor b

31. Paper industry employs……..dryersa) cylinderb) rotaryc) sprayd) fluidized bed

32. Sand is dried in foundaries in a ……..dryera) rotaryb) fluidized bedc) vacuumd) spray

33. Free flowing granular materials can be best dried in aa) rotary dryerb) cylinder dryerc) drum dryerd) freeze dryer

HUMIDIFICATION

1. Humidification involves mass transfer between a pure liquid phase and a fixed gas which is:a) insoluble in the liquidb) soluble in the liquidc) non-ideal in natured) at a fixed temperature

2. At a fixed total pressure, humidity depends only on the a) partial pressure of vapor in the mixtureb) heat capacity of the vaporc) density of the vapord) none of these

3. In saturated gas, thea) vapor is in equilibrium with the liquid at the gas

temperatureb) vapor is in equilibrium with the liquid at the room temperaturec) partial pressure of vapor equals the vapor pressure of the liquid

at room temperatured) none of these

4. Relative humidity is the ratio of thea) partial pressure of the vapor to the vapor pressure of the liquid

at room temperatureb) partial pressure of the vapor to the vapor pressure of the

liquid at gas temperaturec) actual humidity to saturation humidityd) none of these

5. The percentage humidity is less than the relative humidity only ata) zero percentage humidityb) hundred percent humidityc) both zero or hundred percent humidityd) none of these

6. Heat is BTU necessary to increase the temperature of 1 lb. of gas and its accompanying

vapor by 1o F is called thea) latent heatb) humid heatc) specific heatd) sensible heat

7. Humid volume is the total volume in cubic feet of 1 lb. ofa) vapor laden gas at 1 atm. And room temperatureb) gas plus its accompanying vapor at 1 atm. and room

temperaturec) gas plus its accompanying vapor at 1 atm. and gas

temperatured) vapor laden gas at 1 atm. and gas temperature

8. The temperature to which a vapor gas mixture must be cooled (at varying humidity)to become saturated isa) dew pointb) wet bulb temperaturec) dry bulb temperature d) none of these

9. The dew point of a saturated gas phase equals thea) gas temperatureb) room temperaturec) wet bulb temperatured) none of these

10. Steady state temperature reached by a small amount of liquid evaporating into a large amountof unsaturated vapor-gas mixture isa) dry-bulb temperatureb) wet bulb temperaturec) dew pointd) adiabatic saturation temperature

11. Dry bulb temperature of the gas isa) less than the wet-bulb temperatureb) greater than the wet-bulb temperaturec) equal to the wet-bulb temperatured) none of these

12. The difference of wet bulb temperature and adiabatic saturation temperature of unsaturated mixture of any system isa) positive

b) negativec) zerod) none of these

13. When the temperature and humidity of air is low we usually use a) natural draft cooling towerb) forced draft cooling towerc) induced draft cooling towerd) none of these

14. The equipment frequently used for adiabatic humidification-cooling operation with recirculating liquid isa) natural draft cooling towerb) induced draft cooling towerc) spray chamberd) none of these

15. The most efficient cooling tower out of the following isa) induced draftb) forced draftc) natural draftd) atmospheric

16. Critical humidity of a solid salt means the humiditya) above which it will always become dampb) below which it will always stay dryc) both a and bd) above which it will always become dry and below which it will

always stay damp.

19. Percentage saturation is…………..the relative saturation.a) always smaller thanb) always greater thanc) not related to d) none of these

20. Wet bulb and dry bulb temperatures become identical ata) 100% saturation curveb) 50% saturation curvec) 78% saturation curved) none of these

21. Which of the following processes is followed by unsaturated air (with dry bulb temperature 12oC and relative humidity 47%) passing through water spray washer (temperature of water being constant at 40oC)?a) humidification onlyb) heating onlyc) both heating and humidificationd) evaporative cooling

22. Which of the following remains constant during sensible cooling process?a) specific humidityb) partial pressure of vaporc) both a and bd) neither a nor b

23. During sensible cooling processa) relative humidity decreasesb) relative humidity increasesc) wet bulb temperature increasesd) both b and c

24. A mixture of 10% C6H6 vapor in air at 25oC and 750 mm Hg has a dew point of 20oC. Its dew point at 30oC and 700 mm Hg will be around a) 21.7oCb) 20oCc) 27.3oCd) 18.7oC

25. Which of the following remains constant during evaporative cooling process with recirculated water supply?a) relative humidityb) partial pressure of vaporc) wet bulb temperatured) none of these

26. Dew point of a gas-vapor mixturea) increases with temperature riseb) decreases with temperature risec) decreases with increases in pressure

d) increases with increases in pressure

27. Which of the following decreases during evaporative cooling process with recirculated watersupply?a) wet bulb temperatureb) relative humidityc) partial pressure of vapord) none of these

28. Which of the following increases during evaporative cooling process with recirculated water supply?a) wet bulb temperatureb) relative humidityc) partial pressure of vapord) both b and c

29. The relative saturation of a partially saturated mixture of vapor and gas can be increased bya) reducing the total pressure of the mixtureb) increasing the total pressure of the mixturec) reducing the temperature of the mixtured) both b and c

30. Condensation of a vapor-gas mixture just begin whena) p = Pb) p Pc) p Pd) p>= Pwhere: p = partial pressure of the vapor P = vapor pressure of the liquid

31. Unsaturated air (with dry and wet bulb temperatures being 35oC and 25oC respectively) ispassed through water spray chamber maintained at 35oC. The air will bea) cooledb) humidifiedc) both a and bd) dehumidified

32. In case of unsaturated aira) dew point wet bulb temperatureb) wet bulb temperature dry bulb temperaturec) both a and b

d) neither a nor b

33. Unsaturated air (with dry bulb temperature and dew point being 35oC and 18oC respectively)is passed through a water spray chamber maintained at 15oC. The air will bea) cooled and humidifiedb) cooled and dehumidified with increase in wet bulb temperaturec) cooled at the same relative humidityd) cooled and dehumidified with decrease in wet bulb

temperature

34. Which of the following parameters remains almost constant during adiabatic saturation of unsaturated air?a) dry bulb temperatureb) dew pointc) wet bulb temperatured) none of these

35. Unsaturated air (with dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures being 45oC and 25oC respectively)is passed through a water spray chamber maintained at 23oC. The air will bea) cooled and humidified with wet bulb temperature

decreasingb) cooled and humidified at constant wet bulb temperaturec) cooled and dehumidifiedd) none of these

Diffusion

1. The unit of volumetric diffusivity isa.) cm2/ec b.) cm/secc.) cm3/sec d.) cm3/sec3

2. The diffusivity (D) in a binary gas mixture is related to the temperature (T) asa.) D T b.) D T0.5

c.) D T1.5 d.) D T3

3. The diffusivity (D) in a binary gas mixture is related to the pressure (P) asa.) D T1.5 b.) D 1

P0.5

c.) D 1 d.) D 1P P1.5

4. Molecular diffusion is caused bya.) transfer of molecules from low concentration to high

concentration regionb.) thermal energy of the moleculesc.) activation energy of the moleculesd.) potential energy of the molecules

5. Pick out the correct statementa.) Diffusivity decreases with increase in temperatureb.) Diffusivity increases with increase in molecular weight c.) Diffusivity increases with the size of the individual moleculed.) None of these

6. Mass transfer co-efficient is defined asa.) Flux = (Co-efficient) / (concentration difference)b.) Co-efficient = Flux / concentration differencec.) Flux = concentration difference / co-efficientd.) None of these

7. Mass transfer co-efficient (K) and diffusivity (D) are related according to film theory as a.) K D b.) K Dc.) K D1.5 d.) K D2

8. Penetration theory relates average mass transfer co-efficient (K) with diffusivity (D) asa.) K D b.) K Dc.) K D1.5 d.) K D2

9. Corresponding to Prandtl number in heat transfer, the dimensionless group in mass transfer isa.) Schmidt number b.) Sherwood numberc.) Peclet number d.) Stanton number

10. Schmidt number isa.) b.) Re.Pe DAB

b.) Sh x Pe d.) Re / Pe

11. In physical terms, Schmidt number meansa.) thermal diffusivity / mass diffusivity b.) thermal diffusivity / momentum diffuisivity

c.)momentum diffusivity / mass diffusivityd.) mass diffusivity / thermal diffusivity

12. Corresponding to Nusselt number in heat transfer, the dimensionless group in mass transfer, isa.) Scherwood number b.) Schmidt number c.) Peclet number d.) Stanton number

13. Mass transfer coefficient of liquid isa.)affected more by temperature than that for gasesb.) affected much by less temperature than that for gasesc.) not affected by temperatured.) none of these

14. Lewis number (Le) isa.) Sc x Pr b.) Pr x Scc.) Sc x Pr d.) St x Sh

15. Which of the following is not a unit of mass transfer coeffiecient?a.) moles transferred

(time)(area)(mole fraction)b.) moles transferred

( time)(area)(pressure)c.) mass transferred

(time)(area)(mass A / mass B)d.) none of these

16. In case liquid-liquid binary diffusion , diffusivity of one constituent into another is not dependent ona.) temperature and pressureb.) concentrationc.) nature of the constituentsd.) none of these

17. Steady state equimolal counter diffusion is encountered ina.)separation of a binary mixture by distillationb.) absorption of NH4 from air by waterc.) all liquid-liquid diffusion systemsd.) all liquid-solid diffusion systems

18. Which of the following has the same dimension as mass diffusivity?a.) momentum flux b.) kinematic viscosityc.) thermal diffusivity d.) both b and c

19. Diffusivity in concentrated solutions differs from that in dilute solutions because of changes in a.) viscocity with concentrationb.) degree of ideality of the solutionc.)both a and b d.) neither a nor b

20. The value of Lewis number Le = Sc for air-water vapour system is around

Pr a.) 1 b.) 0.24 c.) 3.97 d.) 600.

GAS ABSORPTION

1. For absorbing a sparingly soluble gas in a liquid, thea.) gas side coefficient should be increased b.) liquid side coefficient should be increasedc.) gas side coefficient should be decreasedd.) liquid side coefficient should be decreased

2. For contacting a highly soluble gas with a liquida.)bubble the gas through liquidb.) spray the liquid on gas streamc.) either a or b will sufficed.) none of these

3. Wetted wall tower experiment determinesa.) molal diffusivity b.) volumetric coefficientc.) mass transfer coefficient d.) none of these

4. Stacked packing compared to dumped packinga.) provides poorer contact between the fluidsb.) gives lower pressure dropc.)both (a) and (b)d.) gives higher drop

5. Channeling is most severea.)in towers packed with stacked packing

b.) in towers packed randomly with crushed solidsc.) in dumped packing of regular unitsd.) at very high liquid flow rate

6. Flooding results in a.) High tray efficiencyb.) Low tray efficiencyc.) High gas velocityd.) Good contact between the fluids

7. Operating velocity in a packed tower is usuallya.)half the flooding velocityb.) twice the flooding velocityc.) equal to flooding velocityd.) more than the flooding velocity

8. At the same gas flow rate, the pressure drop in a packed tower being irrigated with liquida.)is greater than that in dry packedb.) is lower than that in drying packingc.) is same as that in drying packingd.) cannot be predicted as data are insufficient

9. Berl saddle made of carbon cannot be useda.) for alkalis b.) for SO2

c.) for H2SO4 d.) in oxidizing atmosphere

10. Flooding in a column results due toa.) high pressure drop b.) low pressure dropc.) low velocity of the liquid d.) high temperature

11. The operating line for an absorbed is curved when plotted in terms of a.) mole fractions b.) mole ratiosc.) partial pressure d.) mass fractions

12. In case of an absorber, the operatinga.)line always lies above the equilibrium curveb.) line always lies below the equilibrium curvec.) line can be either above or below the equilibrium curved.) velocity is more than the loading velocity

13. For an absorber, both equilibrium and operating line will be straight for a.) concentrated solution and non-isothermal operationb.) dilute solution and non-isothermal operationc.)dilute solution and isothermal operationd.) concentrated solution and isothermal operation

14. In case of desorber (stipper)a.) the operating line always lies above the equilibrium curveb.) the operating line always lies below the equilibrium

linec.) temperature remains unaffectedd.) temperature always increases

15. The minimum liquid rate to be used in an absorber corresponds to an operating linea.) of slope = 1 b.) of slope = '1c.) tangential to the equilibrium curve d.) none of these

16. Absorption factor is defined as a.) slope of the equilibrium curve

slope of the operating lineb.) slope of the operating line

slope of the equilibrium curvec.) slope of the operating line - slope of the equilibrium curved.) slope of the operating linexslope of the equilibrium curve

17. H2S present in naphtha reformed gas is removed by absorbing witha.) ethanolamine b.) K2CO2

c.) HCL d.) vacuum gas soil

18. If G = insoluble gas in gas stream and L = non-volatile solvent in liquid stream, then the slope of the operating line for the absorber isa.) L/G b.) G/Lc.) always < 1 d.) none of these

19. Raschig ring made of porcelain cannot be used for treating a.) concentrated hydrochloric acidb.) concentrated nitric acidc.)alkalisd.) concentrated sulfuric acid

20. For absorbers, high pressure drop results in

a.) increased efficiency b.) decreased efficiencyc.) high operating cost d.) better gas liquid contact

21. Which of the following is an undesirable property for an absorbing solvent?a.) low vapour pressure b.) low velocityc.) low freezing point d.) none of these

22. Out of the following properties of a solvent for absorption, which combination of properties provides a good solvent?I. high viscosity II. Low viscosityIII. high vapour pressure IV. Low vapour pressureV. high gas solubility VI. High freezing point VII. low freezing point

Choose from the following combinations:a.) II,IV,V,VII b.) I,IV,V,VIc.) II,IV,V,VI d.) I,IV,V,VII

23. When both the fluids flow concurrently in an absorber, the slope of the operating line isa.) negative b.) positivec.) 1 d.) -1

24. Ammonia present in the coke oven gas is removed by washing witha.) caustic solution b.) dilute ammoniacal liquorc.) dilute HCl d.) ethanolamine

25. Which of the following is not fixed by process requirements in the design of absorbers?a.) flow rate of the entering gasb.) composition of the entering liquidc.) terminal concentration of gas streamd.) none of these

26. In an absorber, HETP does not vary witha.) flow rate of liquid b.) flow rate of gasc.) type and size of packing d.) none of these

27. Which of the following is an undesirable property in a low-packing a.) large surface per unit volumeb.) large free cross-sectionc.) low weight per unit volume

d.) large weight of liquid retained

28. Very tall packed towers are divided into series of beds toa.) reduce the over-all pressure dropb.) avoid channelingc.) reduce liquid hold-upd.) avoid flooding

29. For the same system, if the same liquid used in an absorber is decreased, the tower height willa.)increaseb.) decreasec.) remain unaffectedd.) decrease or increase depends on the type of liquid

30. HETP is numerically equal to HTU only when operating linea.) lies below the equilibrium lineb.) lies above the equilibrium linec.)and equilibrium lines are paralleld.) is far from the equilibrium line

31. Desirable value of absorption factor in an absorber isa.) 1 b.) <1c.) >1 d.) 0.5

32. Absorption accompanied by heat evolution results ina.) increased capacity of the absorberb.) increase in equilibrium solubilityc.)decrease in equilibrium solubilityd.) none of these

33. Co-current absorbers are usually used when the gas to be dissolved in the liquid isa.) sparingly soluble b.) highly solublec.) a pure substance d.) a mixture

34. Channeling in a packed tower results froma.) high pressure drop b.) maldistribution of liquidc.) non-uniformity of packing d.) both b and c

35. Diameter of raschig rings used in packed tower in industry is normally arounda.) 2" b.) 8"c.) 12" d.) 18"

FILTRATION

1. For a classification of potable water, we usea.) gravity sand filter b.) plate and frame filterc.) vacuum leaf filter d.) rotary vacuum filter

2. Vacuum filter is most suitable fora.) removal of lines from liquid b.) liquid having high vapour pressurec.) liquids of very high viscosity d.) none of these

3. Filter aid is useda.) to increase the rate of filtration b.) to decrease the pressure dropc.) to increase the porosity of the cake d.) as a support base for the septum

4. During the washing of cakea.) all resistance are constant b.) filter medium resistance increasesc.) filter medium resistance d.) change resistance decreases

5. The porosity of a compressible cake isa.) minimum at the filter medium b.) minimum at the upstream facec.) maximum at the filter medium d.) same throughout the thickness

6. The specific cake resistance isa.) gm / cm2 b.) cm / gmc.) cm / gm2 d.) gm / gm.

7. The unit of filter medium resistance isa.) cm-1 b.) gm / cm-1c.) cm / gm-1 d.) gm -1

8. The medium resistance is controlled bya.) the pressure drop alongb.) the flow rate alonec.)both pressure drop and flow rate

d.) the cake thickness

9. Compressibility coefficient for an absolutely compressible cake isa.) 0 b.) 1c.) 0 to 1 d.) none of these

10. In continuous filtration (at a constant pressure drop) filtrate flow rate varies inversely as the a.)square root of the velocityb.) square root of the viscosityc.) filtration time onlyd.) washing time only

11. For separation of sugar solution from settled out mud we usea.) sparkler filter b.) plate and framec.) centrifugal filter d.) rotary drum vacuum filter

12. The most common filter aid isa.) diatomaceous earth b.) calcium silicatec.) sodium carbonate d.) silica gel

13. Removal of activated carbon from glycerine is done bya.) plate and frame filter b.) rotary vacuum filterc.) batch backed centrifuge d.) none of these

14. Filtration of water in a paper mill is done bya.) open sand filter b.) plate and frame filterc.) vacuum leaf filter d.) sparkler filter

15. The speed of a rotary drum vacuum filter (in rpm) may bea.) 1 b.) 50c.) 100 d.) 500

16. Gelatinous solid (which plug the septum) can be filtered bya.) sparkler filter b.) plate and frame filterc.) vacuum leaf filter d.) precost filter

17. For laminar of flow of filtrate through the cake deposited on septum which of the following with the valid?a.) Kozency-Carman Equation b.) Leva's equationc.) Clack-Plummer equation d.) none of these

18. Which of the following may prove unsuitable for filtering volatile liquids?a.) pressure filter b.) gravity filterc.) centrifugal filter d.) vacuum filter

19. In washing type plate and frame filter press the ratio of washing rate to the final filtrate rate isa.) 4 b.) 1/4c.) 1 d.) 1/2

20. Moore filter is aa.) leaf filter b.) filter pressc.) rotary filter d.) sand filter

21. Diatomaceous earth isa.) explosive b.) filter aidc.) filter medium d.) none of these

22. Flow of filtrate through cake in a plate and frame filter press is best described bya.) Kozency-Carman equation b.) Hagen-Poiseu equationc.) Fanning's equation d.) Kremser equation

23. A straight line is obtained on plotting reciprocal of filtration rate vs the volume of filtratea.) compressible cakes and laminar flow of filtrateb.) incompressible cakes and laminar flow of filtratec.) compressible cake and turbulent flow of filtrated.) incompressible cake and turbulent flow of filtrate

24. Percentage of drum submerged in slurry in case of rotary drum filter isa.) 3% b.) 30%c.) 85% d.) 25%

25. Which of the following represents the plot of filtrate cvolume versus time for constant pressure filtration?a.) parabola b.) straight linec.) hyperbola d.) exponential curve

26. With increase in drum speed, in a rotary drum filter, the filtration ratea.) increases b.) increases linearly

c.) decreases d.) is not affected

27. The inlet pressure in a constant rate filtrationa.) increases continuously b.) decreasesc.) remains constant d.) none of these

28. Which is a continuous filter?a.) plate and frame filter b.) cartridge filterc.)shell and leaf filter d.) none of these

29. Addition of filter aid to the slurry before filtration is done to ….. of the cokea.)increase the porosityb.) increase the compressibility coefficientc.) decrease the porosityd.) decrease the compressibility coefficient

30. The cake resistance increases steadily with the time of filtration in a plate and frame filter employing constant ….. filtrationa.) rate b.) pressurec.) both a and b d.) neither a nor b

31. The controlling resistance in a rotary drum vacuum filter is the …. Resistancea.) piping b.) cakec.) filter medium c.) none of these

ADSORPTION

1. Physical adsorption is a. an irreversible phenomenonb. a reversible phenomenonc. accompanied by evolution of heat d. both b and c

2. Chemisorption (chemical adsorption) is a. same as “Van der Waals” adsorption b. characterized by adsorption of heat c. also called activated adsorptiond. none of these

3. Rate of adsorption increases as the a. temperature increases c. pressure decreasesb. temperature decreases d. size of adsorbent increases

4. When adsorption hysteresis is observed, the desorption equilibrium pressure is a. always lower than that obtained by adsorption b. always higher than that obtained by adsorption c. same as that obtained by adsorption d. dependent on the system can be either lower or higher than that obtained by adsorption

5. Which of the following adsorbent is used to decolorize yellow glycerine?a. silica gel c. Fuller’s earth b. alumina d. activated carbon

6. Freundlich equation applies to adsorption of solute from a. dilute solutions, over a small concentrated rangeb. gaseous solutions at high pressure c. concentrated solutionsd. none of these

7. In case of physical adsorption, the difference between heat of adsorption and heat of normal condensation is a. equal to the heat of formation of surface compound b. equal to the heat of wetting c. zerod. called integral heat of adsorption

8. Pick out the wrong statement Generally for physical adsorption, a gas of a. higher molecular weight is adsorbed in preference to a gas of low molecular weight b. high critical temperature is adsorbed in preference to a gas of low critical temperature c. low volatility is adsorbed in preference to a gas of high volatility d. both b and c

9. The change in enthalpy per unit weight of adsorbed gas when adsorbed on gas free or “outgassed” adsorbent to form a definite concentration of adsorbate is called its

a. integral heat of adsorption b. heat of wetting c. differential heat of adsorption d. heat of normal condensation

10. With increase in concentration of the adsorbate the integral heat of adsorption a. increasesb. decreasesc. remains unchanged d. may increase or decrease; depends on type of adsorbate

11. The change in enthalpy when a unit quantity of gas is adsorbed by a relatively large quantity of adsorbent (on which a definite concentration of the adsorbed gas already exists) is termed as the

a. differential heat of adsorption c. integral heat of adsorption b. heat of wetting d. heat of normal condensation

12. As complete saturation of an adsorbent is approached, the differential heat of adsorption approaches

a. heat of normal condensation c. zero b. integral heat of adsorption d. none of these

13. Ion exchange process is similar to a. absorption c. adsorption b. extraction d. leaching

14. CO2 can be adsorbed by a. hot cupric oxide c. Cold Ca (OH)2

b. heated charcoal d. alumina

CENTRIFUGATION

1. For separation of sugar solution from settled out mud we use a. sparkler filter c. centrifugal filter b. plate & frame filter d. rotary drum vacuum filter

2. Moisture can be removed from lubricating oil using a. tubular centrifuge c. sparkler filter b. clarifier d. vacuum leaf filter

3. Which of the following can be most effectively used for clarification of tube oil and printing ink? a. sparkler filter c. disc-bowl centrifuge b. precoat filter d. sharpless supercentrifuge

4. If the radius of a basket centrifuge is halved and the rpm is doubled, then a. linear speed of the basket is doubled b. linear speed of the basket is halved c. centrifugal force is doubled d. capacity of centrifuge is increased

5. Where the difference in density of the two liquid phases to be separated is very small (as in milk cream separator), the most suitable separator is a. disc bond centrifuge c. batch basket centrifuge b. sharpless supercentrifuge d. sparkler filter

FLOTATION

1. Froth Flotation is most suitable for treating a. iron ores c. quartz b. sulfide ores d. metal ores

2. In Froth Flotation, chemical agent added to cause air adherence is called a. collector c. modifier b. frother d. promoter

3. Pine oil used in forth flotation technique acts as a a. collector c. frother b. modifier d. activator

4. Which of the following is the most suitable for cleaning of fine coal dust (< 0.5 m)?a. Through washer c. Spiral separator b. Baum Jig Washer d. Froth Flotation

LEACHING

1. Which of the following operations does not involve leaching?a. dissolving gold from ores b. dissolving pharmaceutical products from bark or roots c. dissolving sugar from the cells of the best d. removing nicotine from its water solution by kerosene

2. Tea percolation employs a. liquid-liquid extraction c. absorption b. leaching d. adsorption

3. Rate of leaching increases with increasing a. temperature c. pressure b. viscosity of solvent d. size of the solid

4. Stage efficiency in a leaching process depends on the a. time of contact between the solid and the solution b. rate of diffusion of the solute through the solid and into the liquid c. both a and b d. vapor pressure of the solution

5. Extraction of coffee from its seed is done by a. liquid-liquid extraction c. extractive distillation b. leaching d. steam distillation

6. Leaching of sugar from sugar beets is done by a. hot water c. dilute H2SO4 b. hexane d. lime water

7. With increase in temperature, the leaching rate increases due to a. decreased liquid viscosity c. both a and b

b. increased diffusivity d. neither a nor b

8. Leaching rate is independent of the a. agitation c. temperature b. particle size d. none of these

LIQUID LIQUID EXTRACTION

1. Heats sensitive materials with very high latent heat of vaporization may be economically separated using

a. liquid extraction c. evaporation b. distillation d. absorption

2. Fractional solvent extraction a. employs only one solvent c. results in low interfacial tension b. employs two solvents d. none of these

3. Choose the best combination or properties for a good solvent for extraction out of the following

(i) high selectivity (ii) low selectivity (iii) high viscosity (iv) low viscosity (v) large distribution coefficient (vi) small distribution coefficient (vii) high interfacial tension (viii) low interfacial tension

a. ( i ), ( iv ), ( v ), ( vii ) c. ( i ), ( iii ), ( v ), ( vii )b. ( i ), ( iii ), ( v ), ( vi ) d. ( i ), ( ii ), ( iv ), ( vii )

4. Selectivity of solvent used in extraction should bea. 1 c. > 1b. < 1 d. 0

5. In liquid extraction, if selectivity is unity, then a. separation of the constituent is most effective b. no separation will occur c. amount of solvent required will be minimum d. solvent flow rate should be very low

6. When the solvent dissolves very little of solute then a. solvent of low latent heat of vaporization should be used b. solvent of low freezing point should be used c. large quantity of solvent is required to extract the solute

d. very small quantity of solute is required

7. Which of the following is the most suitable for extraction in a system having very low density difference?

a. mixer-settler extractor c. pulsed extractor b. centrifugal extractor d. packed extraction tower

8. In extraction, as the temperature increases, the area of heterogeneity (area covered by binodal curve)

a. decreases c. remains unchangedb. increases d. none of these

9. The apex of an equilateral triangular coordinate (internary liquid system) represents a. a pure component c. a ternary mixture b. a binary mixture d. an insoluble binary system

10. In a countercurrent extractor as the axial mixing increases, the extraction efficiencya. increases c. remains unchanged b. decreases d. depends on the pressure of the system

11. The solvent used in liquid extraction should not have high latent heat of vaporization becausea. the pressure drops and hence the pumping cost will be very high b. it cannot be recovered by distillation c. its recovery cost by distillation may be prohibitively high d. it will decompose while recovering by distillation

12. In a countercurrent liquid extractor a. both liquids flow at fixed rateb. both liquids can have any desired flow rate c. only one of the liquids may be pumped at any desired rate d. liquid’s flow rate depends upon the temperature and pressure

13. Sides of equilateral triangular coordinates (on which ternary liquid system is plotted) represent

a. a pure component c. a ternary mixture b. a binary mixture d. partially miscible ternary system

14. As the reflux ratio, in a continuous counter current extraction is increased, the number of stages

a. increase c. remain unchanged b. decrease d. can either increase or decrease, depends on the system

15. Acetic acid will be most economically separated from a dilute solution of acetic acid in water by

a. solvent extraction c. evaporation

b. continuous distillation d. absorption

MATERIALS HANDLING

1. Which is most suitable for transportation of sticky material? a. apron conveyor c. belt conveyor b. screw conveyor d. pneumatic conveyor

2. Which of the following cannot be recommended for transportation of abrasive materials?a. belt conveyor c. apron conveyor b. flight conveyor d. chain conveyor

3. For transporting pastry material, one will use a. apron conveyor c. belt conveyor b. screw conveyor d. bucket elevator

4. The capacity of a belt conveyor depends upon two factors. If one is the cross section of the load, the other is the

a. speed of the belt c. thickness of the belt b. length of the belt d. material to be transported

5. Dry powdery solid material are transported by a a. belt conveyor c. belt conveyor b. screw conveyor d. bucket elevator

6. Apron conveyors are used for a. heavy loads and short runs c. heavy loads and long runs b. small loads, long runs d. transporting powdered materials

SCREENING

1. The ratio of the actual mesh dimension of Taylor series to that of the next smaller screen is a. 2 b. c. 1.5 d. none of these

2. The opening of 200 mesh screen (Taylor series) is a. 0.0074 cm b. 0.0074 mm c. 0.0047 cm d. 0.0047 mm

3. The ratio of the area of opening in one screen (Taylor series) to that of openings in the next smaller screen is a. 1.5 b. 1 c. d. none of these

4. Cumulative Analysis for determining surface is more precise than differential analysis because of the a. assumption that all particles in single fraction are equal in size b. fact that screening is more effective c. assumption that all particles in a single fraction are equal in size is not neededd. none of these

5. Increasing the capacity of screen a. decreases the screen effectiveness c. does not affect the screen effectivenessb. increases the screen effectiveness d. none of these

6. Screen efficiency isa. recovery rejection b. recovery c. rejection d. none of these

7. As particle size is reduced a. screening becomes progressively more difficult b. screening becomes progressively easier c. capacity and effectiveness of the screen is increased d. none of these

8. A screen is said to be blinded when a. oversizes are present in undersize fraction b. undersizes are retained in oversize fraction c. the screen is plugged with solid particles d. its capacity is abruptly increased

9. Size measurement of ultrafine particles can be best expressed in terms of a. centimeter c. micron b. screen size d. surface area per unit mass

10. Trommels separate a mixture of particles depending on their a. size c. screen size b. wet ability d. electrical and magnetic

11. Screen capacity is expressed in terms of a. tons/h b. tons/ft2 c. both a and b d. tons/h-ft2

12. Which of the following screens has the maximum capacity? a. grizzlies c. shaking screen b. trommels d. vibrating screen

13. For sizing of fine materials, the most suitable equipment is a a. trommel c. shaking screen b. grizzly d. vibrating screen

14. Mesh number indicates the number of holes per a. square inch c. square foot b. linear inch d. linear foot

15. Optimum ratio of operating speed to critical speed of a trommel is a. 0.33 – 0.45 c. 0.5 – 2 b. 1.33 – 1.45 d. 1.5 – 2.5

16. 200 mesh screens means a. 200 openings/cm2 c. 200 openings/cm b. 200 openings/inch d. 200 openings/inch2

17. In screen analysis, notation + 5 mm/ -10 mm means passing through a. 10 mm screen and retained on 5 mm screen b. 5 mm screen and retained on 10 mm screen c. both 5 mm and 13 mm screens d. neither 5 mm nor 10 mm screens

18. The critical speed of a trommel (n) is related to its diameter (D)

a. c.

b. d.

19. With increase in the capacity of screens, the screen effectivenessa. remains unchanged c. decreases b. increases d. decreases exponentially

20. Vibrating screens have capacity (tons/ft2 – hr – mm mesh size) in the range of a. 0.2 to 0.8 c. 50 to 100 b. 5 to 25 d. 100 to 250

21. The material passing one screening surface and retained on a subsequent surface is called a. intermediate material c. plus material b. minus d. none of the above

SEDIMENTATION

Questions 1 and 2 are based on the following information and illustration In an experiment, a sphere of density and radius r is dropped in a tank of oil of

viscosity and density . The time of descent for the sphere through the first section of height d is recorded as t1 and through the second section of the same height as t2, 0 < t2 – t1 << 1.

d d

1. Which of the following is true for the experiment

Sphere

V (1)

2

a. The drag force exerted on the sphere increases during it descent through the second section.

b. The sphere never reaches its terminal velocity while falling through both sectionsc. The sphere reaches its terminal velocity while falling through the first section d. The drag force exerted on the sphere decreases during the descent through the second

section

2. The drag force exerted on the sphere during its descent through the second section is

a. c.

b. d.

3. Drag is defined as the force exerted by the a. fluid on the solid in a direction opposite to flow b. the fluid on the solid in the direction of flow c. the solid on the fluid d. none of these

4. Drag coefficient for flow of past immersed body is the ratio of a. shear stress to the product of velocity head and density b. shear force to the product of velocity head and density c. average drag per unit projected area to the product of the velocity head and density d. none of these

5. Stoke’s law is valid when the particle Reynolds number is a. <1 c. >1b. <5 d. none of these

6. Drag coefficient CD is given by (in Stoke’s law range)

a. c.

b. d.

7. At low Reynolds numbera. viscous forces are unimportant b. viscous forces control c. viscous forces control and inertial forces are unimportant d. gravity forces control

8. At high Reynolds number a. inertial forces control and viscous forces are unimportant b. viscous forces predominate c. inertial forces are unimportant and viscous forces control d. none of these

9. Forces acting on a particle settling in fluid are a. gravitational and buoyant forces b. centrifugal and drag forces c. gravitational or centrifugal, buoyant and drag forces d. external, drag and viscous forces

10. Terminal velocity is a. constant velocity with no acceleration b. a fluctuating velocity c. attained after moving one-half of total distance d. none of these

11. In hindered settling, particles are a. placed farther from the wall c. near each other b. not affected by other particles and the wall d. none of these

12. Drag coefficient in hindered settling is a. less than in free settling b. equal to that in free settling c. not necessarily quarter than in free settling d. greater than in free settling

13. For the free settling of a spherical particle through a fluid, the slope of CD vs log NRe plot is a. 1 c. – 1 b. 0.5 d. – 0.5

14. The terminal velocity of a small sphere settling in a viscous fluid varies as the a. first power of its diameter b. inverse of the fluid viscosity c. inverse square of the diameter d. square of the difference in specific weights of solid and fluid

15. Buoyant force a. for non symmetrical bodies is not vertical b. depends on the depth of the submergence of the floating body c. depends on the weight of the floating body d. none of these

16. Center of pressure in an immersed body is _______ the center of gravity a. aboveb. below c. atd. either above or below; depends on the liquid density

17. The line of action of the buoyant force passes through the center of gravity of the a. submerged body b. displaced volume of the fluid c. volume of fluid vertically above the body d. horizontal projection of the body

18. Drag is the force component exerted on an immersed object

a. passing the centroid of the body at 60° to the direction of motion b. the component being parallel to the flow direction c. the component being normal to the flow direction d. none of these

19. Sphericity of raschig ring (whose length and diameter are equal) is a. >1 c. <2 b. 1 d. 2

20. Sphericity of pulverized coal is a. 1 c. <1b. >1 d.

21. Sedimentation on commercial scale occurs in a. classifiers c. thickenersb. rotary drum filters d. cyclones

22. For non spherical particle, the sphericity a. is defined as the ratio of surface area of a sphere having the same volume as the

particle to the actual surface area of the particle b. has a dimension of length c. is always less than 1d. is the ratio of volume of a sphere having the same surface area as the particle to the actual

volume of the particle

23. Sphericity of a cubical particle when its equivalent diameter is taken as the height of the tube is

a.0.5 c.

b.1 d.

24. For raschig rings, the sphericity is a. 0.5 c. < 1 b. 1 d.

25. Sphericity for a non-spherical particle is given by

a. c.

b. d.

where: V and S are volume and surface area respectively of one particle D = equivalent diameter of particles

SIZE REDUCTION

1. Shape factor for a cylinder whose length equals its diameter isa. 1.5 b. 0.5 c. 1 d. 0

2. Equivalent diameter of a particle is the diameter of the sphere having the same a. ratio of surface to volume as the actual volume b. ratio of volume to surface as the particle c. volume as the particle d. none of these

3. For coarse reduction of hard solids, use a. impact b. attrition c. compression d. cutting

4. Soft and non abrasive materials can be made into fines by a. attrition b. compression c. cutting d. none of these

5. Crushing efficiency is the ratio ofa. surface energy created by the crushing to the energy absorbed by the solid b. the energy absorbed by the solid to that fed to the machine c. the energy fed to the machine to the surface energy created by the crushingd. the energy absorbed by the solid to the surface energy created by the crushing.

6. Rittinger’s crushing law states that a. work required to form a particle of any size is proportional to the square of the surface to

volume ratio of the product.b. work required to form a particle of a particular size is proportional to the square root of

the surface to volume ratio of the productc. work required in crushing is proportional to the new surface created d. for a given machine and feed, crushing efficiency is dependent on the sizes of feed and

product

7. Bond crushing law a. calls for relatively less energy for the smaller product particle than does the

Rittinger law b. is less realistic in estimating the power requirements of commercial crushesc. states that the work required to form particle of any size from very large feed is

proportional to the square root of the volume to surface ratio of the product d. states that the work required for the crushing is proportion

8. Work index is defined as the a. gross energy (Kwh/ton of feed) needed to reduce very large feed to such a size that

80% of the product passes a 100 micron screen b. energy needed to crush one ton of feed to 200 microns c. energy (Kwh/ton of feed) needed to crush small feed to such a size that 80% of product

passes a 200 mesh screen d. energy needed to crush one ton of feed to 100 microns

9. The operating speed of a ball mill should be a. less than the critical speed c. at least equal to the critical speed b. much more than the critical speed d. none of these

10. A fluid energy mill is used for a. cutting c. ultragrinding b. grinding d. crushing

11. Wet grinding in a revolving mill a. gives less wear on chamber walls than dry grinding b. requires more energy than for dry grinding c. increases capacity compared to dry grinding d. complicates handling of the product compared to dry grinding

12. Cement clinker is reduced to fine size a. Roll crusher c. Tube mill b. Ball mill d. Hammer mill

13. For the preliminary breaking of hard rock, we usea. gyratory crusher c. Tube mill b. Ball mill d. Squirrel-cage disintegrator

14. Fibrous material is broken by a. Roll crusher c. Ball mill b. Squirrel-cage disintegrator d. none of these

15. As the product becomes finer, the energy required for grinding a. decreases c. is same as for coarser grinding b. increases d. is 1.5 times than for coarser grinding

16. Ultrafine grinders operate principally by a. slow compression c. attrition b. impact d. cutting action

17. The energy consumed by a ball mill depends on a. its speed c. the density of the material being ground b. its ball load d. all a, b and c

18. Grinding efficiency of a ball mill is of the order of a. 1 – 5% c. 75 – 80% b. 40 – 50% d. 90 – 95%

19. In case of a revolving mill, wet grinding compared to dry grinding a. requires more energy c. complicates handling and classification of the product b. has less capacity d. none of these

20. Choke crushing (in case of a jaw crusher) compared to free crushing a. results in increased capacity c. consumes more power b. consumes less power d. both a and c

21. For efficient grinding, ball mills, must be operated a. at a speed less than critical speed c. at a speed equal to critical speed b. at a speed more than critical speed d. with minimum possible small balls

22. To get ultra fine particles, the equipment used is a. ball mill c. hammer crusher b. rod mill d. fluid energy mill

23. The material is crushed in a gyratory crusher by the action of a. impact c. compression b. attrition d. cutting

24. To get fine talc powder from its granules, the equipment used is a. roller crusher c. jaw crusher b. ball mill d. gyratory crusher

25. Ball mill is used for a. crushing c. fine grinding b. coarse grinding d. attrition

26. The main differentiation factor between tube mill and ball mill is the a. length to diameter ratio c. final product size b. size of the grinding media d. operating speed

27. Kick’s law relates to a. energy consumption c. feed size b. final particle size d. none of these

28. Fluid energy mill comes in the category of a. Grinder c. cutting machine b. crusher d. ultrafine grinder

29. Which of the following gives the crushing energy required to create new surface? a. Taggart’s rule c. Rittinger’s law b. Fick’s Law d. none of these

30. Size reduction mechanism used in Jaw crushers is a. attrition c. cutting b. compression d. impact

31. Feed size of ≥ 25 cm can be accepted by a. ball mill c. fluid energy mill b. rod mill d. jaw crusher

32. Maximum size reduction in a ball mill is done bya. attrition c. impact b. compression d. cutting

33. The main size reduction operation in ultra fine grinders is a. cutting c. compression b. attrition d. impact

34. The reduction ratio for grinders is defined as a. Df/Dp c. Df – Dp b. Dp/Df d. Dp – Df

35. The reduction ratio for fine grinders is a. 5 – 10 c. 10 – 20 b. 20 – 40 d. as high as 100

36. Maximum size reduction in a fluid energy mill is achieved by a. compression c. cutting b. interparticle attrition d. impact

37. Pick out the material having minimum Rittinger’s number a. calcite c. quartz b. pyrite d. galena

38. Pick out the material having maximum Rittinger’s number a. Calcite c. quartz b. pyrite d. galena

39. Crushing efficiency of a machine ranges between a. 0.1 to 2 % c. 20 to 25 % b. 5 to 10 % d. 50 to 70 %

40. According to Bond crushing law, the work required to form particle of size ‘D’ from very large feed is

a. c.

b. d.

when and are surface to volume ratio of the product and feed

respectively

PROCESS EQUIPMENT DESIGN

1. Vertical valves are not supported bya. brackets b. skirtsc. column d. saddles

2. Bracket supports are most suitable for a. thick walled vertical vessels b. horizontal vessels c. thin spherical vessel (e.g. Hortonsphere) d. none of these

3. Skirt support is most suitable for a. small horizontal vessels b. large horizontal

vesselsc. tall vertical vessels d. thick walled small vertical

vessels4. Saddle supports are used for supporting

a. horizontal cylindrical vessels b. tall vertical vessels c. thick walled vertical vessels d. thick spherical

vessels 5. Wind load consideration in the design of a support can be neglected when the vessel is

a. tall (say 30 meters) but is full of liquid b. tall but emptyc. short (<2 m) and housed indoor d. none of these

6. Leg support is meant for a. large horizontal cylindrical vessels b. tall but empty

vesselsc. small vessels d. thick walled tall vessels

7. The force due to wind load acting on a tall vessels depends upon its a. shape b. outside diameterc. height d. all (a), (b) and (c)

8. Joint efficiency for a seamless pipe isa. 1 b. 0.85c.1.2 d. 0.5

9. In the design of a paddle agitator the ratio paddle diameter to tank diameter is normally taken as: a.0.1 b. 0.8 c.0.25 d. 0.5 10. The ratio propeller agitator diameter to tank diameter is normally taken as a. 0.15-0.30 b. 0.5-0.65 c. 0.75-0.85 d. 0.60-0.90

11. Baffle width is normally taken as a. 0.1-0.12 tank diameter b. 0.4-0.5 tank diameterc. 0.45-0.6 tank diameter d. 0.2-0.45 tank diameter

12. The minimum baffle height should be a. equal to the impeller diameter b. twice the impeller

diameterc. twice the diameter d. 3/4 of the tank

height13. Baffles may be eliminated for

a. low viscosity liquids (<200 poise) b. high viscosity (>600 poise)

c. large diameter tank d. none of these14. Power required for agitation depends upon the

a. height and properties of the liquid b. agitator type and speed of agitation

c. size of agitator and the tank d. all (a), (b) and (c)15. The retention time of material in rotary dryer depends upon

a. its rpm b. its slope and lengthc. the arrangement of flights d. all (a), (b) and (c)

16. Filtration rate is affected bya. pressure drop across the cake and filter mediumb. cake and filter medium resistancec. area of filtering surface and viscosity of filtrated. all (a), (b) and (c)

17. Rate of filtrate delivery is inversely proportional to the a. filtering the area and the pressure difference driving forceb. viscosity of filtratec. cake and filter medium resistanced. both (b) and (c)

18. In the case of a shell and the tube heat exchanger, the logarithmic mean temperature difference

a. is always less than arithmetic average valueb. is always more than arithmetic mean value but more than

geometric mean valuec. is always less than arithmetic mean value but more than

geometric mean valued. may be either more or less than geometric mean and arithmetic

mean value depending upon whether the flow of stream is co-current or counter-current

19. In a double pipe (concentric) heat exchanger, the hydraulic radius for heat transfer (for a fluid flowing through the annulus) would be

a. same as that for fluid flow b. less than that for fluid flowc. more than that for fluid flowd. D2 - D1 (D1 and D2 are I.D. of inner and outer pipes respectively)

20. Fouling factor must be included in the calculation of over all design heat transfer co-efficient when the liquida. containing suspended solids flows at low velocityb. containing suspended solids flows at high velocityc. is highly viscousd. is of high specific gravity

21. The value of fouling factor depends upon thea. characteristics of process fluid b. velocity process fluid

containing suspended solidsc. suspended solids in the fluid d. all (a), (b) and (c)

22. Floating head heat exchangers are used for

a. heat transfer between corrosive fluidsb. cases where temperature difference between the shell

and the tubes is more (>50 C)c. co-current heat transfer systemsd. counter-current heat transfer systems

23. In a shell and tube heat exchanger, shortest center to center distance between adjacent tubes is

a. called tube pitchb. called tube clearancec. always less than the diameter of the tubed. none of these

24. Shortest distance between two tubes isa. called tube pitchb. called tube clearancec. more in case of triangular pitch as compared to square pitch of

tube layoutd. none of these

25. In most of the shell and tube heat exchanger, the tube pitch is generally

a. less than the diameter of the tube b. 1.25 -1.50 times the tube diameter

c. 2.5 times the tube diameter d. one-fourth of the tube diameter26. Triangular pitch tube layout as compared to square pitch in a shell and tube heat exchanger

a. permits the use of less tubes in given shell diameterb. facilitates comparatively easier external cleaning because of

larger clearancec. permits the use of more tubes in a given shell diameterd. both (b) and (c)

27. Twenty five percent cut segmental baffle means that the baffle a. height is 75% of the I.D. of the shell b. height is 25% of the

I.D. of the shellc. spacing is 75% of its height d. width is 25% of its

height28. In shell and tube heat exchangers, straight tie rods are used to

a. hold baffle in space b. fix the tubes in positionc. account for thermal strain d. none of these

29. Baffle spacing is generally a. more than the I.D. of the shell b. not greater than the I.D. of the shellc. not less than one fifth of the I.D. of the shell d. both (b) and (c)

30. Which of the following is the most common baffle used in industrial shell and tube heat exchange?

a. 75% cut segmental baffle b. 25% cut segmental baffle

c. orifice baffle d. disk and doughnut baffle31. In a shell and tube heat exchanger for given heat transfer surface area, smaller

diameter tubes are favored as compared to larger diameter ones because smaller diameter tubes.

a. are easier to cleanb. are less prone to foulingc. can be fitted into a smaller shell diameter hence the cost

of the heat exchanger would be lessd. none of these

32. High pressure fluid in a shell and tube heat exchanger should preferably be routed through thea. tubes to avoid the expense of high pressure shell

constructionb. shell side for smaller total pressure dropc. shell side if the flow is counter-current and tube side if the flow is

co-currentd. shell side for larger overall heat transfer co-efficient

33. When one of the fluids is highly corrosive and has fouling tendency, it should

a. preferably flow inside the tube for its easier internal cleaning

b. preferably flow outside the tubec. flow at very slow velocityd. flow outside the tube when the flow is counter-current and inside

the tube when the flow is co-current34. In a shell and tube heat exchanger, the clearance of the tube is generally

a. not less than one-fourth of the tube diameter or 3/16b. more than the tube diameterc. equal to the tube diameterd. more in case of triangular pitch as compared to the square pitch

tube layout.35.For a given fluid as the pipe diameter increases, the pumping cost

a. decreases b. increasesc. remains unaffectedd. may increase or decrease depending upon whether the fluid is

Newtonian or non-Newtonian36. Optimum economic pipe diameter for fluid flow is determined by the

a. viscosity of the fluidb. density of the fluidc. total cost considerations (pumping cost plus fixed cost of

the pipe)

d. none of these.37. Friction factor turbulent flow in new pipe is given by

a. f = 16/NRE b. f = 0.04/(NRE)0.16 c. f = 0.22NRE0.5

d. f = 25/NRE

38. In case of continuous distillation column, increase in the reflux ratio may result

a. lower fixed charges for the column b. greater cost for the reboiler heat supply

c. greater cost for the condenser coolant d. all (a), (b) and (c)39. Optimum reflux ratio in a continuous distillation column is determined by the

a. maximum permissible vapor velocity b. flooding limit of the column

c. total cost consideration (fixed cost of the column plus the cooling water and steam

cost)d. none of these

40. Pressure drop due to pipe fittings can be estimated by ∆p/ = 4f (Le/D) (V2/2gc) where Le =

equivalent length of straight pipeline which will incur the same frictional loss as the fitting and D = diameter of the fitting. The value of Le /D (dimensionless) for 45 elbow and 180 close return bends would be respectively around a. 5 and 10 b. 45 and 75c. 180 and 300 d. 300 and 500

41. Le/D for 90 elbow (medium radius) and 90 square elbow would be respectively around

a. 25 and 60 b. 3 and 5c. 100 and 250 d. 250 and 600

42. Le/D for a Tee (used as elbow, entering run) would be arounda.5 b. 60c. 200 d. 350

43. Le/D for a Tee (used as elbow, entering branch) would bea. less than that for Tee (used as elbow, entering run)b. more than that for Tee (used as elbow, entering run)c. around 90d. both (b) and (c)

44. Le/D for couplings and unions would bea. 60 b. 200 c. 350 d. negligible

45. Le/D for fully open gate valves would bea. much more than that for fully open globe valveb. much less (say 2% than that for fully open globe valve)c. around 7d. both (b) and (c)

46. Le/D for fully open globe valve may be around

a. 10 b. 25 c. 75 d. 30047. For turbulent flow (NRe>2100) of low viscosity fluid (<20 cp) in

steel pipes, the optimum inside pipe diameter is given by a. c.

a. d.

where = fluid flow rate, ft3/sec

= fluid density, lb/ft3

= fluid viscosity, centipoise

= optimum inside pipe diameter, inches

48. For laminar flow (NRe < 2100) in steel pipe, the optimum inside pipe diameter is given by

a. c.

a. d.

49. The necessary wall thickness for a metallic storage vessel is a function of the

a. ultimate tensile strength (or yield point) of the material and operating temperature

b. operating pressure and welding / joint efficiency c. diameter of the vessel d. all (a), (b) and (c)

50. Bubble cap plate column isa. a finite stage contactor b. used only for distillation, not for absorptionc. a differential stage contactor d. a continuous contactor

51. The most common standard size of bubble caps used in industrial operation is

a. 1" diameter cap with 0.5" diameter riser b. 6" diameter cap with 4" diameter riserc. 8" diameter cap with 1" diameter riser d. 4" diameter cap with 8" diameter riser

52. Pick out the wrong statement pertaining to the design of the distillation column

a. Generally, a skirt clearance of 0.5 to 1.5 is recommended to prevent plugging of the slots by residue build up.

b. The purpose of the slot is to disperse the gas into the liquid in the form of small bubbles.

c. If sufficient slot area is not provided, the gas may pass through the skirt clearance

d. none of these53. For a given design of bubble cap, the number of bubble caps to be used per tray is set by the

a. allowable gas velocity through the slots b. plate spacing c. diameter of the column d. all

(a), (b) and (c)54. Maximum and minimum linear slot velocities (in the distillation column design) as

recommended by Davies are respectivelya. 12/ 0.5 and 3.4/ ρ0.5 b.3.4/ ρ0.5 and 12/ ρ0.5 c. 3.4/ 0.5 and 12/ 0.5 d. 3.4/ ρ0.5 and 12/ 0.5

55. Normally, the ratio of the total riser area to the tower cross sectional area (for bubble cap towers of

diameter more than 3 ft) is arounda. 0.4 - 0.6 b. 0.35 - 0.75c. 0.1 - 0.2 d. 0.55 - 0.85

56. An adequate clearance between the tray and the shell wall of a distillation column is provided to

a. drain the liquid from the tray when the unit is not in operation.b. allow for thermal expansion and facilitate installation c. avoid back-trappingd. none of these

57. The function of manholes provided in the shell of a distillation column is to

a. keep a check on the liquid gradient over the plate by direct visual observation

b. give access to the individual trays for cleaning, maintenance and installation

c. guard against foaming and entrainment by dumping anti-forming agent through it.

d. all (a), (b) and (c)58. Weep holes provided in the plates of a distillation column

a. facilitate draining out liquid from a tray when the unit is not in operation

b. are normally located near the overflow weir so that any delivery of liquid during operation follow approximately the same path as the overflow fluid

c. must be large enough (usually 1/4 inch to 5/8 inch diameter) to prevent plugging but should not deliver excessive amount of fluid during operation

d. all (a), (b) and (c).

59. Excessive liquid gradient on a tray may result in a. maldistribution of gas

b. back trappingc. gas blowing beneath cap skirt d. all (a), (b) and (c)

60. The maximum liquid gradient over a tray must not exceed a. 0.5" - 1.25" b. 2"-3.5" c. 5" d. half the tray spacing

61. Liquid gradient over the tray results due to a. the resistance offered to flow of liquids by caps and risers

and the flow of gas. b. low gas velocity c. large plate spacing d. large reflux ratio

62. Liquid gradient over a tray can be minimized bya. providing a higher skirt clearance or a higher weir b. decreasing the number of rows of caps

through which the liquid flows or by decreasing the velocity of liquid flow past the caps or by reducing the distance along the tray through which the liquid must flow. c. using split flow, radial flow or cascade flow for column diameter

larger than 4 ft. d. all (a), (b) and (c).

63. Which of the following factors determine the amount of entrainment in a distillation column?

a. plate spacingb. depth of liquid above the bubble cap slotsc. vapor velocity in the volume between the platesd. all (a), (b) and (c)

64. Larger depth of liquid on the trays of a distillation column a. lead to high tray efficiencyb. results in higher pressure drop per trayc. both (a) and (b)d. neither (a) nor (b)

65. The minimum tray spacing in distillation column of diameter than 3 ft is normally a. 6" b. 18" c. 24" d. 34"66. The minimum plate spacing in most of the petroleum refinery distillation columns (of diameter 73 ft) is normally a. 6" b. 12" c. 18" d. 34"

67. Back-trapping in a distillation column results due to a. low gas velocity b. high gas velocity c. excessive liquid gradient over the tray d. low reflux ratio68. A calming section below the liquid flows into the downcomer is provided to a. permit release of entrained vapor in the liquid

b. reduce the discharge fluctuation c. ensure better vapor liquid contract d. cool the liquid before it flows down. 69. The length of straight rectangular weir used on cross-flow trays is generally a. 0.6 - 0.8 times the column diameter b. equal to the column diameter c. twice the column diameter d. 2 ft irrespective of column diameter (for column 73 ft diameter)70. Pick out the wrong statement

a. If sufficient residence time (around 8 seconds) is not provided to the downcoming liquid in the

downcomer, it may entrain some vapor. b. The liquid head in the downcomer should not be greater than

one half the plate spacing to avoid flooding. c. The discharge end of the downcomer must project far enough

into the tray liquid so that no gas bubbles can enter the open end and bypass the bubble caps. d. none of these

INSTRUMENTATION AND PROCESS CONTROL

1. What is the Laplace transform of sin t ? (a) __1__ (b) __s_____ s² + 1 1 + s² (c) __1 (d) __s_____ s² - 1 s² - 1 2. The transfer function of the first order system is (a) __1 (b) _1_ Ts + 1 Ts (c) ___s__ (d) 1/s Ts + 13. Pick out the first order system from among the following

(a) damped vibrator(b) mercury in glass thermometer kept in boiling water(c) interacting system of two tanks in series(d) non-interacting system of two tanks in series

4. Response of a system to a sinusoidal input called (a) impulse response (b) unit step response (c) frequency response (d) step response5. What is the ratio of output amplitude to input amplitude for a sinusoidal forcing

function in a first order system ? (a) 1 (b) > 1 (c) < 1 (d) none of these6. Phase lag of the sinusoidal response of a first order system is (a) 120º (b) 30º (c) 180º (d) 90º7. Conversion formula for converting amplitude ratio (AR) into decibels is (a) Decibel=20 log10 (AR) (b) Decibel=20 log e(AR) (c) Decibel=20 log10 (AR)0.5 (d) Decibel = log10 (AR)8. “A control system is unstable if the open loop frequency response exhibits an amplitude ratio exceeding unity at the cross-over frequency.” This is (a) Bode stability criterion (b) Nyquist criterion (c) Routh stability criterion (d) both b and c9. Typical specifications for design stipulates the gain margin and phase margin to be respectively (a) > 1.7 and > 30º (b) < 1.7 and > 30º (c) < 1.7 and < 30º (d) >1.7 and < 30º 10. The frequency at which maximum amplitude ratio is attained is called (a) corner frequency (b) resonant frequency (c) cross-over frequency (d) natural frequency11. A negative gain margin expressed in decibels means (a) a stable system (b) unstable system (c) critically damped system (d) both a and c12. Bode diagram is a plot of (a) log (AR) vs. log (f) and Ø vs. log (f)

(b)log (AR) vs. f and log Ø vs. f (c)AR vs.log (f) and Ø vs. log (f) (d)log (AR) vs. log f

13. For measuring the temperature of a furnace, which is the most suitable instrument? (a) Platinum resistance thermometer (b) Thermocouple (c) Optical pyrometer (d) Bimetallic thermometer14. Degree to which an instrument indicates the changes in measured variable without dynamic error is called (a) speed of response (b) reproducibility of instrument (c) fidelity (d) its static characteristics

15. Which of the following is a desirable characteristic of an instrument?

(a) high drift (b) high fidelity (c) high temperature lag (d) poor reproducibility16. Which of the following shows maximum dip affect (indicating reverse direction of temperature change)? (a) mercury thermometer (b) radiation pyrometer (c) bimetallic thermometer (d) thermocouple17. Pick out the most suitable instrument for measuring temperature in the range of -40 to 800ºF. (a) mercury thermometer (b) bimetallic thermometer (c) radiation pyrometer (d) radiation pyrometer18. Thermocouple is suitable for measuring (a) liquid temperatures only (b) very high temperatures only (c) very low temperatures only (d) both high and low temperatures19. Which of the following relates the absorption and evolution of heat at the junctions of a thermocouple to the current flow in the circuit? (a) Seebeck effect (b) Peltier effect (c) Joule heating effect (d) Thomson effect20. Thermal wells are used in temperature measurement to (a) guard against corrosive and oxidizing action on thermocouple materials

(b) reduce measuring lag (c) increase the fidelity

(d) increase the sensitivity21. Gas analysis is commonly done using (a) thermal conductivity cell (b) X-ray diffraction (c) mass spectrometer (d) emission spectrometer22. Psychrometer determines (a) humidity of gases (b) moisture content of solids (c) water of crystallization (d) hygroscopic nature of solids23. Continuous measurement of moisture content of paper in paper industry is done by measuring

(a) thermal conductivity through the paper (b) electrical resistance through the paper(c) magnetic susceptibility (d) both b and c

24. Optimal activity of a solution can be determined using a (a) polarimeter (b) polarograph

(c) dilatometer (d) refractometer25. A simple pitot tube measures (a) average velocity (b) maximum velocity (c) point velocity (d) static pressure26. Pirani gauge is used for (a) measurement of very high pressure (b) measurement of high vacuum (c) liquid level under pressure (d) liquid level at atmospheric pressure27. A barometer measures (a) absolute pressure (b) gauge pressure (c) both absolute and gauge pressure (d) dynamic pressure

28. The level of a liquid under pressure can be determined using (a) bubbler system (b) differential pressure manometer (c) diaphragm box system (d) air-trap system29. Continuous measurement of specific gravity of a liquid is done by (a) hydrometer (b) contact-type electric indicators (c) displacement meter (d) both a and c 30. Hot wire anemometer is used for the measurement of (a) flow rates of fluid (b) flow rates of granular solids (c) very high temperature (d) thermal conductivity of gases31. Flow rate through an orifice is (a) proportional to the pressure differential (b) inversely proportional to the square root of pressure differential

(c) proportional to the square root of pressure differential (d) inversely proportional to the square root of pressure differential

32. Which of the following flow-metering instruments is an area meter? (a) venturi meter (b) rotameter (c) pitot tube (d) hot wire anemometer33. Continuous measurement of flow rates of dry granular fertilizer is done using (a) velocity meters (b) area-meters (c) weighing meters (d) anemometer34. Pick out the symbol for “locally mounted instrument” in instrumentation diagram (a) (b) (c) (d)

35. Which is the symbol for “pneumatic control valve” (a) (b) (c) (d) none of these

______

36. The symbol for “capillary line” in instrumentation diagram is (a) ___ ___ _ ___ _ ___ (b)

(c) _________________ (d) Χ Χ Χ

37. Instrumentation in a plant offers the advantage of (a) greater safety of operation (b) better quality of product (c) greater operation economy (d) all a, b and c38. Dilatometer is used to measure (a) stress (b) strain (c) deflection (d) contraction/expansion due to changes

in temperature39. Stalagmometer is used for the measurement of (a) kinematic viscosity (b) surface tension (c) refractive index (d) optical activity40. Stroboscope is used for the measurement of (a) rpm of a flywheel (b) frequency of light (c) depression of freezing point (d) liquid level under pressure41. Minute depression of freezing point of a liquid solvent or addition of a solid solute can be best measured by (a) Beckman thermometer (b) dilatometer (c) mercury thermometer (d) bimetallic thermometer42. Gain margin is equal to the (a) amplitude ratio (b) reciprocal of amplitude ratio (c) gain in P controller (d) gain in P-I controller43. Phase margin is equal to (a) 180º - phase lag (b) phase lag - 180º (c) phase lag + 180º (d) phase lag - 90º44. A system with a transfer function __2s _ is of

4s + 1 (a) zero order (b) 1st order (c) 2nd order (d) 3rd order 45. Bode stability method uses (a) open loop transfer function (b) closed loop transfer function (c) either a or b (d) neither a nor b46. Routh stability method uses

(a) open loop transfer function (b) closed loop transfer function (c) either a or b (d) neither a nor b

47. Nichel’s chart deals with(a) A.R. vs. phase lag of first order (b) A.R. vs. phase lag of second order (c)closed loop values vs. open loop value(d) frequency response values of controllers

48. The fluid used in hydraulic controller is (a) water (b) steam (c) air (d) oil 49. Number of poles in a system with transfer function ________1______ is

s² + 2s² + 1 (a) 2 (b) 5 (c) 3 (d) 150. Which of the following controllers has maximum offset? (a) P-controller (b) P-I controller (c) P-D controller (d) P-I-D controller 51. Process degrees of freedom

(a) indicates the maximum number of controller to be used

(b) indicates the minimum number of controller to be used (c) determines both maximum and minimum number of controllers

to be used (d) gives no idea of controllers

52. Resistance of a gas in a vessel is (a) __V__ (b) nRT nRT V (c) nRT (d) __P_ P nRT Where: P =pressure V= volume of the vessel n= number of moles of the gas R= gas constant 52. In an exothermic chemical reactor, the manipulated variable is the flow rate of (a) coolant (b) reactant (c) product (d) hot fluid53. Use of I-control along with P-control facilitates (a) elimination of offset (b) reduction of offset (c) reduction of stability time (d) both b and c54. Which of the following error integral is considered as the best criterion in controller settings? (a) ∫∞ | e | dt (b) ∫∞ | e | dt

0 0

(c) ∫∞ e2 dt (d) both a and b 0

55. Cascade control means (a) feed forward control (b) more than one feed-back loop (c) on-off control (d) one feed-back loop56. Which of the following controllers has the least maximum deviation? (a) P-controller (b) P-I controller (c) P-I-D controller (d) P-D controller 57. Measurement of pressure in ammonia reactor is done by (a) Bourdon gauge (b) U-tube manometer (c) Inclined tube manometer (d) Pirani gauge 58. Pressure of 0.01 psi (absolute) can be measured by (a) Ionization gauge (b) Pirani gauge (c) Mcleoid gauge (d) Bourdon gauge 59. Continuous measurement of moisture in paper is done by

(a) sling psychrometer (b) hair-hygrometer (c) weighing (d) high resistance, Wheatstone’s bridge circuit

60. Pressure of 0.0001 absolute psi can be measured by (a) Meloid gauge (b) Pirani gauge (c) Thermocouple gauge (d) Bourdon gauge61. E.m.f. generated by thermocouples is of the order of (a) millivolts (b) microvolts (c) volts (d) bi-metallic thermometer62. Measurement of sub-zero Celsius temperature in industry is done by (a) thermocouples (b) resistance thermometers (c) gas thermometer (d) bi-metallic thermometer63. Starting temperature of optical radiation pyrometer is (a) 800ºC (b) 400ºC (c) 1200ºC (d) 1500ºC64. Which thermocouple can be used to measure temperature around 1400ºC? (a) copper-constantan (b) aluminum-chromel (c) platinum-platinum+rhodium (d) copper-aluminum 65. pH meter has (a) one cell (b) two cells (c) three cells (d) no cell66. Maximum differential pressure in liquid manometer is (a) 20 psi (b) 30 psi (c) 40 psi (d) 50 psi

67. Interfacial level in pressure vessel is measured by (a) float (b) manometers of float type (c) U-tube manometer (d) Bourdon gauge

68. Flow rate of sludge is measured by (a) V-notch (b) rectangular notch (c) circular pipe (d) Kennison nozzle 69. Composition of natural gas can be determined by (a) chromatograph (b) orsat apparatus (c) spectrometer (d) photometer70. Bellows are made of (a) leather (b) paper (c) plastic (d) thin copper71. Flapper nozzle is a (a) pneumatic controller (b) hydraulic controller (c) electronic controller (d) both a and b72. Weir valve is used for (a) slurries (b) acids (c) neutral solutions (d) bases 73. Valve used to supply oil to burner is (a) gate valve (b) butterfly valve (c) rotary plug valve (d) both a and b74. Mode used for transmitting signal for one kilometer distance is (a) hydraulic (b) pneumatic (c) electronic (d) all a, b and c75. Use of pilot in transmission (pneumatic) is to (a) speed up signal (b) change the flow of air (c) adjust the signal (d) all a, b and c76. Final control element is a (a) valve (b) switch (c) signal (d) both a and b77. Example of a second order instrument is a

(a) mercury-glass thermometer with covering (b) bare mercury-glass thermometer (c) pressure gauge (d) Bourdon gauge

78. Offset (a) varies with time (b) varies exponentially with time (c) does not vary with time (d) varies as square of the time79. Regulator problem means that (a) set point is constant (b) load is constant

(c) both set point and load are constant (d) neither set point nor load is constant

80. Servo problem means that (a) set point is constant (b) load is constant (c) both a and b (d) neither a nor b

81. Critically damped system means that the damping coefficient is (a) 1 (b) < 1 (c) > 1 (d) 082. In Bode stability criterion, amplitude ratio at 180º should be (a) 1 (b) < 1 (c) > 1 (d) 083. Phase plane method is used for (a) linear-behavior (b) non-linear behavior (c) both a and b (d) neither a nor b84. Laplace transform method is used for (a) linear behavior (b) non-linear behavior (c) both a and b (d) neither a nor b85. Phase lag of first order system is (a) tan-1 (ωT) (b) tan-1 (ωT) (c) /2 (d) 086. P-I controller as compared to P-controller has a (a) higher maximum deviation (b) longer response time (c) longer period of oscillation (d) all a, b and c87. Difference at any instant between the value of controlled variable and the set point is called (a) deviation (b) derivative time (c) error ratio (d) differential gap88. The time difference by which the output of a P-D controller leads the input when the input changes linearly with time is called (a) error ratio (b) derivative time (c) proportional sensitivity (d) gain 89. Steady state deviation resulting from a change in the value of the load variable is called (a) offset (b) error ratio (c) deviation (d) static ratio90. Time required for the output of a first order system to change from a given value to within 36.8% of the final value when a step change of input is made is called (a) time constant (b) settling time (c) rise time (d) derivative time

91. A controller action in which there is a continuous linear relation between value of the controlled variable and rate of change of controlled output signal is called (a) proportional action (b) integral action (c) derivative action (d) proportional-integral action

92. A controller action in which there is a continuous relation between value of the controlled variable and the value of the output signal of the controller is called (a) proportional action (b) derivative action (c) integral action (d) proportional-derivative action93. Steady state ratio of the change of proportional controller output variable and the change in actuating signal is called (a) proportional sensitivity (b) reset rate (c) rangeability (d) integral action94. In case of flow measurement by an orifice, the pressure difference signal is proportional to (a) Q² (b) Q (c) Q3 (d) 1 /√Q

where Q= volumetric flow rate95. Thermistor is a (a) semiconductor whose resistance decreases with temperature rise (b) metal whose resistance increases linearly with temperature rise (c) metal whose resistance does not vary with temperature

(d) device for measuring nuclear radiation96. Which of the following factors does not influence measurement accuracy? (a) static and dynamic error (b) reproducibility (c) dead zone (d) none of these 97. Which of the following is suitable for measuring the temperature of a red hot moving object (e.g. steel ingots on roller table) ? (a) thermocouple (b) radiation pyrometer (c) thermistor (d) radiograph98. Thermocouples

(a) have very slow speed of response

(b) can’t be connected to the measuring instrument remotely located

(c) need cold junction compensation

(d) are much less accurate compared to bimetallic or vapor pressure thermometer

99. Selection of material for thermocouple depends on the (a) depth of immersion in the hot fluid (b) minimum and maximum temperature

(c) pressure and velocity condition of the fluid whose temperature is to be measured (d) both a and b

100. Radiation pyrometers (a) have very low speed of response (b) need not “see” the temperature source; it is measuring (c) can’t measure temperature of objects without making physical contact (d) none of these

101. V-notch is used to measure flow rate of a liquid in (a) an open channel (b) a non-circular cross-section closed channel (c) vertical pipeline (d) horizontal pipeline102. Which of the following is not a head flowmeter? (a) segmental orifice plate (b) pitot tube (c) rotameter (d) flow nozzle103. Flow rate of a liquid containing heavy solids (e.g. sand) can be best measured by (a) pitot tube (b) concentric orifice (c) eccentric orifice (d) rotameter 104. Orifice plates for flow measurement

(a) incurs very low permanent pressure loss (b) has poor accuracy on high orifice ratios (above

0.75) (c) can’t be easily interchanged

(d) is best for very large liquid flows and big pipelines

105. Pitot tube is used (a) for highly accurate flow measurement

(b) when the fluid contains lot of suspended material (c) when the line is large and the velocity is high

(d) both a and c

106. In an area meter (e.g. rotameter), the flow rate is

(a) proportional to the square root of the differential pressure

(b) inferred from the change in area of an orifice in the flow line across which the pressure differential is constant zero (c) inferred from change in flow cross-section across which the pressure differential is zero

(d) all a, b and c 107. A rotameter

(a) incurs constant and small permanent pressure drop (b) incurs constant but very large permanent pressure

drop (c) is inaccurate for low flow rates

(d) need not be mounted always vertically

108. On-off control (a) fully opens the final control element when the measured

variable is below the set point (b) fully closes the final control element

when the measured variable is above the set point (c) is a two position (fully open or fully closed) control adequate to control a process with slow reaction rate and minimum dead time or transfer lag (d) all a, b, and c

109. Floating control action(a)moves the final control element at constant speed in

either direction in response to an error signal (b) changes the position of the final control element from on to off

(c) is used to counteract rapid load changes

(d) both b and c110. Cascade control is

(a) the continuous adjustment of the set point index of an automatic control loop by a primary (master) controller

(b) used when changes in process conditions cause serious upsets in controlled variable

(c) useful to control flow from temperature

(d) all a, b and c

MATERIALS OF CONSTRUCTION

1. Bog iron is used for adsorption of H2S from coke oven gas is a. an intimate mixture of saw dust and iron dust (i.e. moist ferric hydroxide)b. iron impregnated with resin (usually bakelite)c. carbon free irond. none of these

2. Iron alloyed with carbon up to 2% is calleda. pig iron b. wrought ironc. high carbon steel d. none of these

3. The softest material in Mho’s scale (for measuring hardness) isa. talc b. gypsumc. rubber d. none of these

4. Karbate isa. a mixture of iron dust and saw dustb. carbon impregnated with resin (usually bakelite)c. acid resistant material d. both (b) and (c).

5. Duralumin is an alloy ofa. aluminum, copper and manganeseb .aluminum, nickel and siliconc. aluminum and nickel d. none of these

6. Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by the addition ofa. phosphorus and tungstenb. nickel and chromiumc. lead and vanadiumd. molybdenum and tungsten

7. White metal is an alloy ofa. lead, tin and cadmium b. copper, tin and zincc. copper and lead d. none of these

8. Presence of cobalt in steel improve itsa. cutting ability b. corrosion resistancec. tensile strength d. none of these

9. The impure iron (Pig iron) that is taped out from blast furnace contains abouta. 0.2% carbon b. 2% carbonc. 4% carbon d. 8% carbon

10. Carbon content in steel isa. 0.1 – 2% b. 4 – 6%c. 5- 10% d. 0

11. An ideal material of construction for the storage of 50% caustic soda solution would bea. Karbate b. high silica cast ironc. monel d. none of these

12. For storing water and acid free benzol, usea. steel vessel b. karbate vesselc. stainless steel vessel d. none of these

13. Brine (15% concentration) can be stored in a vessel made ofa. monel b. karbatec. cast iron d. none of these

14. Most suitable material of construction for the storage of concentrated nitric acid is

a. cast iron b. monel

c. karbated. aluminum or chromium alloys (Cr > 18% for cold acid).

15. Babbit metal (used for making bearings) comprisesa. mainly tin (85%) and leadb. saw dust and iron dust mixturec. zinc and aluminumd. copper and aluminum

16. The material of construction of pressure mills used for squeezing out the juice from sugar cane isa. stainless steel b. cast ironc. mild steel d. monel.

17. Chlorination of benzene is done to produce benzene hexachloride (a pesticide) in a photochemical reactor lined witha. karbate b. lead or glassc. fire clay bricks d. PVC

18. Polymerization reactor used for the production of styrenebutadiene rubber (SBR) is made ofa. vessel b. stainless steel or glass lined vesselc. karbate d. wrought iron

19. Which of the following is the most suitable material of construction for evaporator and its tubes for concentrating NaOH solution to 70%?a. cast iron b. steelc. nickel d. karbate

20. Most common stainless steel type 316, which it highly resistant to corrosion contains

a. 16 – 13% chromium, 10 –14% nickel and 2 – 3% molybdenumb. 20 – 22% chromium, and 8 –10% nickelc. 2 – 4% chromium, 22% nickel and 2 – 4% molybdenumd. none of these

21. Caustic soda can be stored ina. steel drums b. cast iron drumsc. brass drums d. gun metal drums

22. Brass is an alloy ofa. nickel and tin b. copper and zincc. tin and lead d. copper, nickel and zinc

23. The carbonating tower used in Solvay Process of soda ash manufacture is made ofa. cast iron b. stainless steelc. karbate d. lead lined steel

24. Gun metal is an alloy ofa. nickel, tin and copperb. copper, tin and zincc. copper, phosphorus and nickeld. manganese, phosphorus and nickel

25. Marcy ball mills are usually made ofa. steel b. cast ironc. stainless steel d. bronze

26. Bronze is an alloy ofa. lead and copper b. copper and tinc. nickel and copper d. copper and zinc

27. Rotary kilns in cement industry are lined witha. fire clay b. silicac. lead d. high alumina and high magnesia

bricks28. In the Kraft (sulfate) process for the paper manufacture the

digester is made ofa. cast iron b. stainless steelc. karbate carbon d. wrought iron

29. Dry chlorine can be handled in a vessel made ofa. iron or steel b. PVCc. nickel d. brass

30. Tank furnace used for melting of glass is made ofa. mild steel b. cast ironc. refractory blocks d. stainless steel

31. Stainless steel containsa. chromium and nickel b. copperc. aluminum d. vanadium

32. Caustic soda is reduced in a mercury cell having anode and cathode made respectively of

a. moving mercury and graphiteb. graphite and moving mercuryc. moving mercury and carbond. moving mercury and crimped steel wire

33. Monel metal is an alloy ofa. molybdenum and nickelb. nickel and copperc. molybdenum and aluminumd. molybdenum and zinc

34. German silver is an alloy ofa. copper, nickel and zincb. copper, aluminum and silverc. silver, zinc and aluminumd. silver, nickel and zinc

35. Chromel (Nichrome) is an alloy ofa. chromium and molybdenumb. nickel and chromiumc. molybdenum and nickeld. chromium and aluminum

36. Urea autoclave is made ofa. cast iron b. refractory blocksc. stainless steel d. lead lined steel

37. Steel tower used for storage of oleuma. is lined with lead b. need not be linedc. is lined with rubber d. is lined with acid-proof bricks

38. Hydrochloric acid is stored ina. lead lined steel vessel b. rubber-lined steel vesselc. stainless steel vessel d. cast iron vessel

39. Photographic plates are coated ina. silver nitrate b. silver halidec. calcium silicate d. metallic silver

40. Aqueous nitric acid is stored ina. steel drumb. stainless steel vesselc. cast iron vessel lined with acid-proof masonry brickd. cast iron vessel

41. SO3 is absorbed using H2SO4 ina. cast iron packed towerb. stainless steel plate towerc. packed steel tower lined with acid proof bricksd. none of these

42. Hydrochloric acid absorber is made ofa. cast iron b. mild steelc. karbate d. stainless steel

43. Sulfuric acid is mixed with ground phosphate rock (to produce phosphoric acid) in a steel digester lined with

a. acidic refractory b. rubberc. karbate d. lead or acid-proof bricks

44. Fill up the blanks from among the following alternatives:Hydrochloric acid is _______ corrosive to common metalsa. least b. notc. mildly d. highly

45. In SO3 absorber (Contact Process), packing material used is of a. cast iron b. chemical stonewarec. karbate d. mild steel

46. Valves in pipe sizes of 2” and under are normally made of a. wrought iron b. brassc. bronze d. monel

47. Acid proof stonewarea. has very low strengthb. cannot be heatedc. is broken by small temperature changesd. all (a), (b) and (c)

48. Duriron isa. acid resistant, brittle and very hardb. high silicon ironc. prone to breakage due to thermal expansion because of very high co-efficient of thermal expansion.d. all (a), (b) and (c)

49. Lead pipe isa. especially resistant to solutions containing H2SO4b. usually joined by burning (e.g. by melting to adjacent pieces with a torch)c. having very low elastic limit resulting in permanent deformation from either mechanical or thermal straind. all (a), (b) and (c)

50. The most resistant material to alkaline corrosion isa. duriron b. nickelc. aluminum d. karbate

51. Presence of nickel in steel improves itsa. corrosion resistance b. cutting abilityc. wear resistance d. all (a), (b) and (c)

52. An alloy of iron containing 4% carbon is calleda. high carbon steel b. wrought ironc. mild steel d. none of these

53. Bell metal is an alloy ofa. copper and zinc b. copper and tinc. copper and nickel d. zinc and tin

54. Inconel is an alloy ofa. tin, zinc and nickel b. iron, nickel and chromium

c. copper and nickel d. zinc and tin55. Hastelloy comprises

a. copper and tin b. copper and nickelc. molybdenum and nickel d. lead and tin

56. Ability of a material to absorb energy in deformation in the plastic range is characterized as itsa. ductility b. toughnessc. creep d. resilience

57. Slow and progressive deformation of a material with time under constant stress is calleda. creep b. erosionc. resilience d. none of these

58. Wrought iron isa. high carbon ironb. highly resistance to acid corrosionc .malleable and ductile; hence used for chain links, hooks and couplingsd. an alloy of iron, chromium and carbon

59. Which of the following constituents of cast iron is mainly responsible for imparting it an anti-corrosive property?a. silicon b. phosphorusc. sulfur d. none of these

60. Mild steel isa. a low carbon steel (0.05 – 0.3% carbon)b. highly resistance to corrosion (as much as stainless steel)c. a high carbon steel (0.5 – 1.5% carbon)d. very poor in strength and ductility

61. Presence of manganese in alloy steel improves itsa. corrosion resistance b. cutting abilityc. abrasion resistance and toughnessd. elasticity and creep resistance

62. H2SO4 (<50% concentration) is corrosive toa. aluminum, mild steel, stainless steel, concrete and tinb. copper, cast iron and high silicon iron (14% Si)c. rubber (butyl and hard) silicon rubber and teflond. glass, graphite, porcelain and stoneware

63. Aluminum storage vessel can be used to storea. aqua regia b. ferrous sulfatec. hydrochloric acid (10%) d. none of these

64. Brass container is suitable for storinga. aqueous ammonia b. beerc. H2SO4 (95% concentration) d. phosphoric acid (95%)

65. Cast iron vessels are not suitable for the storage of

a. Freon b. H2SO4 (95%) at room temperaturec. H2SO4 (fuming) d. Wet SO2

66. Out of the following, copper vessels are most suitable for the storage ofa. bromineb. dry chlorine and dry fluorinec. nitric acid (95% and fuming)d. phosphoric acid (95%) and sulfuric acid (95% and fuming)

67. Gun metal and bronze are not corroded by the action of a. wet chlorine b. synthetic detergent solutionc. hydrochloric acid (10%) d. nitric acid (<25%)

68. Containers made of high silicon cast iron (14% Si) are not suitable for the storage ofa. acetic acidb. benzoic and boric acidsc. phosphoric acid (95%) and sulfuric acid (95%)d. hydrochloric acid (concentrated)

69. Lead lined equipments and vessels are suitable for handlinga. hydrochloric acid (10%) b. nitric acidc. sulfuric acid up to 60˚C d. all (a), (b) and (c)

70. Mild steel storage vessels are suitable for the storage ofa. anhydrous ammonia b. fatty acidsc. hydrochloric acid (95%) d. sulfuric acid (25%)

71. Nickel made clad equipments are suitable for handlinga. ammonia (both aqueous and anhydrous)b. fruit juices, milk and its products and caustic soda solutionc. nitric acid and hydrochloric acid (concentrated)d. sulfuric acid (concentrated)

72. Platinum and silver are corroded bya. caustic soda solution b. phosphoric acidc. sulfuric acid (10%) d. none of these

73. 18-8 stainless steel means that it containsa. 18% chromium and 8% nickelb. 18% chromium and 8% molybdenumc. 18% nickel and 8% chromiumd. 18% molybdenum and 8% chromium

74. Stainless steel is not corroded by

a. hydrochloric acid (10%) b. nitric acid (10%)c. sulfuric acid (10%) d. saturated brine

75. Tin vessels are corroded bya. anhydrous ammonia b. aromatic solventsc. synthetic detergent solution d. none of these

76. Rubber lined vessels are corroded by the action ofa. aqua regia b. chloroformc. sulfuric acid (95%) d. all (a), (b) and (c)

77. Silicon rubber is not resistant to the corrosive action ofa. sulfuric acid (10%) b. sulfuric acid (95%)c. ether d. both (b) and (c)

78. Perspex is nothing buta. acrylic sheet b. an elastomerc. an alloy of lead and tin d. aluminum foil clad with bakelite

79. Teflon is corroded bya. hydrochloric acid (10%) b. hydrochloric acid (95%)c. sulfuric acid d. none of these

80. Polythene (low or high density) containers are not corroded bya. sulfuric acid (10%) at room temperatureb. nitric acid (95%) at room temperaturec. sulfur trioxide at 60˚Cd. any of these

81. The most commonly used resin for making reinforced plastic isa. unsaturated polyester b. polyproplylenec. polyurethane d. nylon – 6

82. Carbon tetrachloride can be stored in a storage vessel made of a. high silicon iron (14%) b. tinc. stainless steel d. all (a), (b) and (c)

83. Concrete tank can be used to store a. alum b. sulfuric acidc. sulfuric acid d. saturated brine

84. Glass is corroded by a. fluorine (dry or wet) b. sulfuric water c. phosphoric acid d. none these85. Graphite is corroded by

a. sulfuric acid (10%) b. sea Waterb. hydrochloric acid d. none of these

86. Wood is corroded bya. hydrochloric acid b. SO2 (dry or wet)c. chlorine (dry or wet) d. all (a), (b) and (c)

87. The 'bomb' in the bomb calorimeter is made of

a. molybdenum stainless steel b. mild steel c. high silicon iron (14% Si) d. copper

88. Most suitable material for high pressure vessel operating at 500 atm and 500ºC is a. molybdenum stainless steel b. 18-8 stainless steel

c. mild steel d. high silicon iron (14% Si)

89. Centrifugal pump made of pyrex or glass can't be used to pump a. mild and fruit juices b. alkaline solutions

c. dilute H2SO4 at room temperature d. brine 90. Rubber lined pumps can be used to pump a. caustic soda b. chlorinated brine c. hypochlorous acid d. all (a), (b) and (c) 91. Copper is dissolved from its ore by H2SO4 in percolation tanks made of

a. wood b. stainless steel c. reinforced concrete lined with lead d. high silicon iron (14% Si)92. Rotary dryers are generally made of

a. cast iron b. mild steel c. high silicon iron (14% Si) d. tin lined with refractory bricks

93. Kel-F is a. nothing but polycholorotrifluroethyleneb. having excellent chemical and high temperature resistance

(up to 200ºC)c. an elastomer d. all (a), (b) and (c)

94. Zircaloy used as a fuel cladding material in a nuclear reactor (thermal) is an alloy of zirconium

a. tin, nickel, iron and chromium b. and graphite c. and copper d. none of these

95. Which of the following would not be a suitable material of construction for handling aqueous

hydrofluoric acid (HF) at 100ºC? a. none b. stainless steel c. graphite d. Kel-F and Teflon

96. Specify the materials of construction suitable for handling concentrated HNO3 at 100ºC.

a. high silicon iron, Kel-F and Teflon b. silicon rubber c. tin and wood d. stainless steel

97. Concentrated HCl at 30ºC can be stored in a vessel made of a. PTFE and porcelain

b. cast iron and aluminum c. stainless steel and high silicon cast iron

d. copper, nickel and monel 98. Which of the following material of construction may be recommended by a chemical engineer

for handling a gaseous chlorine (dry or wet) stream in a fluid flow system?

a. High silicon iron, silicone rubber, Kel-F and teflon b. Mild steel and stainless steel c. Cast iron, tin and aluminum d. Copper, nickel and monel 99. Which of the following materials may prove unsuitable for

handling acetic (glacial and anhydrous) at 40ºC?

a. silicone rubber, teflon, porcelain and wood b. nickel, monel, stainless steel and graphite c. aluminum, copper, high silicon iron d. brass, cast iron, mild steel and tin

100. 100% H2SO4 at 30ºC can't be used and stored in a vessel made/ lined with

a. cast iron and high silicon iron b. mild steel and stainless steel c. aluminum, tin and rubber d. teflon, glass and porcelain

ENGINEERING ECONOMY

1. The following cost item which in common both the fixed and operating cost of an enterprise is:a. interest b. depreciationc. taxes d. supplies

2. The length of time, usually in years for the cumulative net annual profit to equal the investment is called:a. receivable turnover b. return of investmentc. price earning ratio d. payback period

3. The reduction in value and marketability due to competition from newest products / modela. depreciated cost b. fixed costc. indirect cost d. obsolescence

4. Form of summary of assets, liabilities and net wortha. production b. break even pointc. balance method d. balance sheet

5. The worth of property which is equal to the original cost less depreciation.a. earning value b. scrap valuec. book value d. face value

6. The type of interest that is periodically added to the amount of loan so that subsequent interest is based on the cumulative amount.a. compound interest b. simple interestc. interest rate d. sinking fund

7. Output or sales at which income is insufficient to equal operating costa. break even point b. investmentc. depreciation d. cash flow

8. The price at which a given product will be supplied and purchased is the price that will result in the supply and the demand being equal.a. law of demand and supply b. law of diminishing returnsc. present worth method d. obsolescence

9. An estimate of an assets' net market value at the end of its estimated life.a. break even point b. cash flowc. interest d. book value

10. An estimate of an assets' net market value at the end if its estimated life.a. book value c. salvage valuec. depreciation d. cash flow

11. A lessening of the value of an asset due to a decrease in the quantity available as a coal, oil and timber in forests.a. depletion b. depreciationc. amortization d. investment

12. A certificate of indebtedness of a corporation usually for a period of net loss that ten years and guaranteed by a mortgage on certain assets of the corporation or its subsidiaries.a. appraisal b. bondc. written contract d. equity capital

13. Funds supplied and used by owners of an enterprise in the expectation that profit will be earned.a. equity capital b. investmentc. working capital d. present

14. Funds supplied by others on which a fixed rate of interest must be paid and the debt be repaid at a specific place and timea. discount b. cash flowc. working capital d. borrowed capital

15. The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a certain price at a given place and timea. supply b. demandc. discount d. investment

16. The quantity of a certain commodity that is bought at a certain price at a given place and time.a. supply b. demand

c. discount d. investment17. A condition where only few individuals produce a certain product

that action of one will lead to almost the same action by the other.a. monopoly b. oligopolyc. semi monopoly d. perfect competition

18. Is the simplest form of business organizationa. sole proprietorship b. enterprisec. partnership d. corporation

19. An association of two or more persons for a purpose of engaging in a profitable businessa. sole proprietorship b. enterprisec. partnership d. corporation

20. A distinct legal entity which can practically transact any business transaction which a real person could do.a. sole proprietorship b. enterprisec. partnership d. corporation

21. An increase in the value of capital asset is calleda. profit b. capital gainc. capital expenditure d. capital stock

22. The reduction in the money value of a capital asset is calleda. capital expenditure b. capital lossc. loss d. deficit

23. The difference between sales revenue and the cost of goods solda. net income b. gross profitc. rate of return d. gross national product

24. A currency traded in a foreign exchange market for which the demand is consistently high in relation to its supplya. money market b. hard currencyc. treasury bill d. certificate of deposit

25. Defined as the certificate of indebtedness of a corporation usually for a period not less than 10 years and guaranteed by a mortgage on certain assets of a corporationa. bonds b. T-billsc. stock d. all of these

26. It is a negotiable claim issued by a bank in lieu of a term deposita. time deposit b. bondc. capital gain d. certificate of deposit

27. The amount of a company's profit that the board of directors of the corporation decides to distribute to ordinary shareholdersa. dividend b. returnc. share stock d. par value

28. a document that shows proof of legal ownership of a financial securitya. bond b. bank note

c. coupon d. check29. The process determining the value of certain properties for

definite reasonsa. valuation b. appraisalc. estimate d. both a and b

30. Represent ownership and enjoys certain preferences than ordinary stock a. authorized capital stock b. preferred stockc. common stock d. incorporator’s stock

31. It is the difference between present worth and the worth of the paper at some time in the futurea. discount b. amortizationc. depletion d. investment

32. The value which is usually determined by the disinterested third party in order to establish a price that is fair to both seller and buyer.a. fair value b. market valuec. salvage value d. book value

33. The price that can be obtained from the sale of property or second handa. book value b. salvage valuec. fair value d. market value

34. The process of determining the value of certain property for specific reasonsa. amortization b. appraisalc. investment d. depreciation

35. A bond whereby the security behind it are the equipments of the issuing corporationa. debenture bond b. lien bondc. collateral bond d. mortgage bond

36. An annuity where the payment period extends forever or in which the periodic payment continue indefinitely.a. ordinary annuity b. deferred annuityc. annuity due d. perpetuity

37. It is the span of life of an equipment during which it produces the product it is designed to produce at a profita. write off period b. physical lifec. economic life d. perpetual life

38. It is a depreciation method whereby the decrease in value of the unit is constant each yeara. Matheson formula b. Straight line method c. SYD method d. Sinking fund method

39. It is a distinct legal entity separate from the individual who own it and which can engage in practically any business transaction which a real person can do.a. sole proprietorship b. partnershipc. corporation d. all of the above

40. These are costs which remain relatively constant regardless of any change in operation or policy which is made.a. fixed cost b. increment costc. variable cost d. differential cost

41. The length of time at which the original cost of capital used to purchase a unit have already been recovered.a. economic life b. write off periodc. physical life d. salvage life

42. The actual interest earned by a given principal is known as:a. compound interest b. nominal interestc. simple interest d. effective interest

43. The exclusive right of a company to provide a specific product / services in a given region of the country.a. franchise b. branchc. extension d. outlet

44. It occurs when a commodity or service is supplied by a number of vendors and there is nothing to prevent additional vendors entering the marketa. free market b. perfect competitionc. open market d. law of supply and demand

45. In making economy studies, a minimum required profit on the invested capital is included as a cost.a. rate of return b. annual cost patternc. present worth pattern d. capital cost

46. Depreciation method where the value of an asset decreases at a decreasing rate.a. SYD method b. sinking fundc. straight line method d. declining balance

47. Cost of things that are neither labor nor materialsa. construction cost b. expensesc. labor cost d. investment

48. Kind of obligation which has no condition attacheda. analytic b. gratuitousc. private d. pure

49. Gross, profit, sales less cost of goods sold as a percentage of sale is calleda. profit margin b. gross marginc. ROI (rate of return) d. price earnings

50. The series of equal payments at equal intervals of timea. interest b. depreciationc. annuity d. amortization

51. A legally binding agreement on promise to exchange goods or servicesa. contract b. barterc. memorandum d. pro-forma

52. An index of short term paying ability is calleda. current ratio b. receivable turnoverc. acid test ratio d. profit margin ratio

53. Used to produce consumer goodsa. producer goods b. supplyc. consumer goods d. cash flow

54. It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal interval of time where the first payment is made several periods after the beginning of the paymenta. deferred annuity b. delayed annuityc. progressive annuity d. simple annuity

55. A market whereby there is only one buyer of an item for which there are no goods substitutea. monopoly b. monopsony c. oligopoly d. oligopsony

56. The amount of a property in which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for the property when neither one is under the compulsion to buy or sell a. fair value b. goodwill valuec. book value d. market value

57. A type of annuity where the payments are made at the start of each period, beginning from the first perioda. ordinary annuity b. annuity duec. deferred annuity d. perpetuity

58. A method of computing depreciation in which the annual charge is a fixed percentage of the depreciated book value at the beginning of the year to which the depreciation appliesa. straight line b. sinking fund method c. SYD method d. declining balance method

59. The cumulative effect of elapsed time on the money value of an event based on the earning power of equivalent invested funds capital should or will earna. present worth factor b. interest ratec. time value of money d. yield

60. Double taxation is a disadvantage of which business organization?a. sole proprietorship b. partnershipc. corporation d. enterprise

61. The function of interest rate and time that determines the cumulative amount of a sinking fund resulting from specific periodic depositsa. sinking fund factor b. present worth factorc. capacity factor d. demand factor

62. The intangible item of value from the exclusive right of the company to provide a specific product or service in a stated region of the countrya. market value b. book valuec. goodwill value d. franchise value

63. The length of time during which it is capable of performing the function for which it was designed and manufactured.a. economic life b. business lifec. insular life d. physical life

64. Products that are directly used by people to satisfy their wants.a. supply b. consumer goodsc. producer goods d. cash flows

65. A change in cost for a small change in volume of production. a. fixed cost b. sunk costc. first cost d. differential cost

66. An amount which has been spent and for some reasons cannot be recovered.a. sunk cost b. first costc. increment d. fixed cost

67. The difference between the book value and the actual lower resale value isa. salvage value b. resale valuec. sunk cost d. fixed cost

68. It occurs when a unique product or service is available only from a single supplier and entry of all other possible suppliers presented.a. competition b. monopolyc. inventory d. profitability

69. A place where buyer and seller come togethera. market b. shopc. department store d. parlor

70. Ratio of annual net profit and the capital investeda. proportion b. rate of returnc. load factor d. use factor

71. The price of which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for a commoditya. resale value b. market valuec. book value d. scrap value

72. The price of property when sold for a junka. scrap value b. book valuec. resale value d. market value

73. An interest earning fund in which equal deposits are made at equal intervals of timea. annuity b. sinking fundc. interest d. investment

74. A term describing wealth which is placed in a business and could include cash equipment, raw materials and finished productsa. capital b. investmentc. collateral d. assets

75. The first cost of any property includesa. the original purchase price and freight and transportation

chargesb. installation expensesc. initial taxes and permits' feed. all of the above

ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY

1. The hydrogen or deuterium discharge tube can be used as a source of continuous ultraviolet radiation for spectrophotometers because ofa. the characteristics of chopper-modulated radiationb. pressure broadening of hydrogen or deuterium emission linesc. the great sensitivity of photomultiplier tubed. the narrow band pass of modern grating of monochromators

2. Chopping the source beam in conjunction with the use of a tuned ac amplifier in an atomic absorption spectrophotometer accomplishes the followinga. a recording potentiometer can be used instead of a voltmeter for the readout b. a less sensitive detector can be used instead of the usual photomultiplier tubec. a cooler can be used without decreasing the population of ground-state atomsd. radiation emitted by excited atoms in the flame will not interfere with the absorbance

measurement3. Line spectra are emitted by

a. hot solidsb. excited polyatomic moleculesc. molecules in the ground electronic stated. excited atoms and monatomic ions

4. Recording spectrophotometers sometimes operate with feedback loops that vary the power of the reference beam until it matches the power of the beam through the sample. This mode of operation a. eliminates the need for a continuous sourceb. requires two monochromatorsc. eliminates the need for nonabsorbing solvents d. makes the detector a null device, with the result that nonlinear response to radiant

power would not be deleterious5. Which of the following best explains why atomic absorption is sometimes more sensitive than

flame emission spectroscopy?a. At the temperature of a typical flame, the population of ground-state atoms is much

greater than the population of excited atoms.

b. Detectors employed in absorption work are inherently more sensitive than those used to measure emission.

c. Hollow cathode discharge tubes have a much greater radiant power output than do ordinary flames .

d. An absorption line in a flame is always much sharper than an emission line because of the Doppler effect.

6. The method of standard addition compensates for matrix effects provideda. the addition does not dilute the sample appreciably and does not itself introduce

appreciable quantities or interfering substancesb. the addition dilutes the sample enough that the concentrations of interfering substances

are lowered to negligible valuesc. the addition contains none of the substance being determinedd. the addition contains a large enough quantity of some substance to swamp out sample

variations7. Fe3+ and Cu2+ form complexes with EDTA. The ferric complex is colorless , as is Fe 3+ itself, at

the concentration involved here: the copper complex is a deep blue color (deeper than the color of Cu2+ itself), while EDTA is colorless. The photometric titration curve below was obtained when a solution containing both Fe3+ and Cu2+ was titrated with EDTA using a spectrophotometer set at a wavelength of 745 nm in the visible region of the spectrum.

ml of EDTA solution

a. A is the iron end point.b. B is the iron end pointc. The distance from A to B on the milliliter axis represents the quantity of iron d. The quantity of iron could not be calculated from a graph like this unless the quantity of

copper in the solution was known ahead of time8. In chromatography, a substance for which the distribution of the coefficient, K, is zero may be

used to estimatea. the volume within the column occupied by the packing materialsb. the total volume of the column c. the volume within the pores of the packing materiald. the volume within the column available to the mobile phase

9. The purpose of the solid support material in a GLC column is to a. immobilize the stationary liquid phaseb. adsorb sample components that are insufficiently soluble in the stationary liquid phase

BA

A

c. provide a "backup" stationary phase in the event that the liquid is lost by evaporationd. remove impurities from the carrier gas

10. Helium, rather than nitrogen, is sometimes used as the carrier gas in GLC becausea. being lighter than nitrogen, helium elutes the sample components more rapidlyb. helium is less expensive than nitrogen c. nitrogen has stable isotopes which separate and cause anomalous column behaviord. of its much higher thermal conductivity

11. An important feature of open-tubular GLC column is a. they can accept much larger samples than can packed column because of their great

lengthb. solute partitioning between stationary and mobile phases is very rapid and the C

term in the Van Deemter equation is relatively small c. they permit the use of a wider variety of carrier gasesd. they can be operated at temperatures closer to the boiling point of the stationary liquid

phase than can packed columns and thus handle less volatile examples12. Raising the column temperature in GLC decreases solute retention times primarily because

a. solute diffusion coefficients in the liquid phase decrease with increasing temperatureb. van der Waals interactions between solutes and stationary phase are stronger at higher

temperaturesc. gases are generally less soluble in liquids at higher temperaturesd. detector sensitivity is a function of temperature, especially with a thermal conductivity cell

13. Which of the following would have practically no effect upon the retention volume of a solute in GLC?a. changing the carrier-gas flow-rateb. increasing the stationary liquid loading of the column packing from 5 to 10% by weightc. increasing the column temperatured. changing the chemical nature of the stationary liquid

14. The separation factor, S, in chromatography depends upona. the length of the columnb. the square root of the length of the columnc. the nature of the stationary liquid phased. the number of theoretical plates in the column

15. In GLC, interaction of solutes with the solid support will often cause a. unusually narrow elution bands b. asymmetric elution band c. excessive eddy diffusiond. decreased detector sensitivity

16. Increasing the quantity of stationary liquid phase applied to the column packing will, with everything else the same,a. increase tR for a soluteb. decrease tR for a solutec. not influence tR for a soluted. decrease the nonequilibrium term in the van Deemer equation

17. A neutral molecule such as ethanol or sugar which has found its way into the pores of a typical anion-exchange resin can be eliminateda. only by replacement with a cationb. only by replacement with an anionc. only if replaced by another organic molecule on a one-for-one exchange basis

d. by flushing out the water18. In chromatography, a substance for which the distribution coefficient, K, is zero may be used to

estimate a. the volume within the column available to the moving phaseb. the volume within the column occupied by the packingc. the volume within the pores of the packing material d. the total volume of the column

19. Which of the following statements is false in normal phase absorption?a. The more polar a compound, the more strongly it will be adsorbed from a solutionb. A high molecular weight favors adsorption, other factors being equalc. The more polar the solvent, the stronger the adsorption of the soluted. The adsorption isotherm is usually nonlinear

20. The best measure of the quantity of a solute in LC isa. the height of the elution band b. the area of the elution bandc. the baseline width of the elution band d. the retention volume

21. Which of the following would be the fastest way to decide which adsorbent and what solvent system to use for a larger-scale chromatographic separation of an organic reaction product from materials formed in side reactions?a. Paper chromatographyb. Affinity chromatographyc. TLCd. Adsorption chromatography with gradient elution

22. To deionize tap water by ion exchange for laboratory use, the best approach employsa. a column containing a strong-acid cation exchange in the hydrogen formb. a column containing a strong-base anion exchanger in the hydroxyl formc. a mixed-bed column containing a strong-acid cation exchanger in the sodium form and a

strong-base anion exchanger in the chloride formd. a mixed-bed column containing a strong-acid cation exchanger in the hydrogen

form and a strong-base anion exchanger in the hydroxyl form23. Line spectra are emitted by

a. incandescent solids b. excited moleculesc. molecules in the ground electronic stated. excited atoms and monatomic ions

24. Band spectra are emitted by a. tungsten lamps and Nernst glowersb. excited molecules in the vapor phasec. excited atoms and monatomic ionsd. incandescent solids

25. A chemical engineer is conducting research on the development of analytical methods based upon chemiluminescence. If a conventional spectrofluorometer is used for the measurements,

an the instrument has separate switches for its various circuits, which switch will be left in the "off" position?a. detector power supplyb. amplifierc. source power supplyd. power to the motor drive of the scanning monochromator on the emission side of the

instrument26. In flame spectroscopy, the highest temperature fuel oxidant combination available as yet is

a. hydrogen-oxygenb. hydrogen-nitrous oxidec. acetylene-oxygend. acetylene-nitrous oxide

27. If the change in a molecule caused by absorption of light energy involves change in the average separation of the nuclei of two or more atoms, then the change isa. electronic b. vibrational c. translationald. rotational

28. The nephelometric method of analysis is based upon a. Beer's lawb. Fajar's lawc. Bouger law'sd. Beer Lambert's Law

29. IR spectro-photometers have practically the same basic components as visible and UV spectro-photometers. In which of the following basic components could the devices be used interchangeable in both:a. sources of radiant energyb. optical systemc. sample holdersd. detectors

30. Which of the following may not be used in the determination of sugars?a. TLC chromatographyb. Polarimetryc. Copper reduction methodsd. Lane and Eynon methods

31. Which is not the recommended device for a filter photometry?a. hydrogen arc lampb. glass filterc. barrier layer photocelld. none of these

32. This law states that the amount of light absorbed or transmitted by a solution is an experimental function of the concentration of absorbing substance present and the sample path lengtha. Bouger's Lawb. Beer's Lawc. Lambert's Law

d. Bouger-Beer Law33. Deviation's from Beer's Law may be due to

a. instrumental b. intermolecular reactionsc. formation of complexions with varying number of ligondsd. all of these

34. IR spectrophotometers have the same basic components as UV spectrophotometers, except:a. source of radiant energy and the kind of detectorsb. materials used in the optical systemc. materials used in the sample cellsd. all of these

35. Which of the following involves emission of radiation by excited atoms:a. Ultra-violet spectrophotometryb. Infra-red spectrophotometryc. Atomic absorption spectrometryd. Nephelopmetry

36. The absorption of a solution of a particular substance does not depend on the :a. wavelength of the incident lightb. intensity of the incident light c. concentration of the substanced. thickness of the sample cell

37. If we compare flame spectrophotometry and emission spectroscopy, which of the following statements will be true?a. Flame photometry is more senstive than emission spectroscopyb. Flame photometry can analyze more metals than emission spectroscopyc. Flame photometry is less sensitive to the matrix than emission spectroscopyd. Flame photometry is simpler to use than emission spectroscopy

38. Atomic absorption spectrophotometry (AAS) differs from visible absorption spectrophotometry because AASa. has no light sourceb. does not need a monochromatorc. does not follow Beer's Lawd. destroys the sample when a reading is made

39. Gas chromatography does not use this detectora. thermal conductivity detectorb. refractive index detectorc. flame ionization detectord. electron capture detector

40. In gas chromatography, the retention time is not dependent ona. carrier gas velocityb. column temperaturec. volume of compound analyzedd. volatility of compound analyzed

PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY

1. The main component of air is ____________.a. oxygen b. argon c. carbon dioxide d. nitrogen

e. methane2. Of the following, ____________ is characteristic of gases.

a. Gases are highly compressibleb. These are relatively large distances between moleculesc. Gases form homogenous mixtures regardless of the non-reacting gas componentsd. All of thesee. A gas expands spontaneously to fill its container

3. One significant difference between gases and liquids is that ______________________.a. a gas is made up of moleculesb. a gas assumes the volume of its containerc. a gas may consist of both elements and compoundsd. gases are always mixturese. all of these answers are correct

4. Molecular compounds of low molecular weights tend to be gases at room temperature. Which of the following is most likely not a gas at room temperature?a. Cl2 b. HCl c. LiCl d. H2 e. CH4

5. Gaseous mixtures ________________.a. can only contain moleculesb. are all heterogeneousc. can only contain isolated atomsd. are all homogenouse. must contain both isolated atoms and molecules

6. Which one of the following is NOT true about the unit Pascal (pa)?a. 1 Pa = 1 N/m2b. The Pa is the SI unit for pressurec. 1 atm = 101.325 kPad. 1 Pa = 100 torre. The Pa is the Si unit for force

7. The first person to investigate the relationship between the pressure of a gas ad its volume was ________________. a. Amadeo Avogadrob. Lord Kelvinc. Jacques Charlesd. Robert Boylee. Joseph Louis Gay-Lussac

8. Of the following, ____________ is a correct statement of Boyle’s law.a. PV = constant b. P = constant

Vc. V = constant

Pd. V = constant

Te. n = constant

P9. Of the following, ______________ is a valid statement of Charles’ law.

a. P = constantT

b. V = constantT

c. PV = constantd. V = constant x ne. V = constant x P

10. Which one of the following is a valid statement of Avogadro’s law?a. P = constant

Tb. V = constant

Tc. PV = constantd. V = constant x ne. V = constant x P

11. The volume of an ideal gas is zero at _________.a. 0C b. -45F c. -273K d. -363K

e. -273C

12. Of the following, only _________ is impossible for an ideal gas.a. V1 = V2

T1 T2b. V1T1 = V2T2c. V1 = T1

V2 T2d. V2 = T2 ( V1)

T1e. V1 = T1 = 0

V2 T213. The molar volume of a gas at STP is _____L.

a. 0.08206 b. 62.36 c. 1.00 d. 22.4 e. 14.714. A gas is considered “ideal” if ___________.

a. it is not compressibleb. one mole of it occupies exactly 1 liter at standard temperature and pressurec. it can be shown to occupy zero volume at 0Cd. its behavior is described by the ideal-gas equatione. one mole of it in a one-liter container exerts a pressure exactly 1 atm at room temperature

15. For which of the following changes is not clear whether the volume of a particular sample of an ideal gas will increase or decrease?a. increase the temperature and increase the pressureb. increase the temperature and decrease the pressurec. increase the temperature and keep the pressure constantd. keep temperature constant and decrease the pressuree. decrease the temperature and increase the pressure

16. Standard temperature and pressure (STP), in the context of gases, refers to ____________________.a. 298 K and 1 atmb. 273 K and 1 atm

c. 298 K and 1 torrd. 273 K and 1 pascale. 273 K and 1 torr

17. Of the following, ______________ correctly relates pressure, volume, temperature, amount (mol), molecular mass (M), density (d) and mass (g).a. M = dRT

PVb. M = gRT

PVc. M = PT

GRVd. M = gV RTe. M = RT

Gv18. Of the following, _____________ correctly relates pressure, volume, temperature, amount

(mol), molecular mass (M), density (d) and mass (g).a. d = PM

RTb. d = gRT

PMc. d = PTM

gRVd. d = gV

RTe. d = RT

PM19. Of the following gases, ____________ will have the greatest rate of effusion at a given

temperature. a. NH3 b. CH4 c. Ar d. HBr e. HCl

20. An ideal gas differs from a real gas in that the molecules of an ideal gas _________________.a. have no attraction for one another b. have appreciable molecular volumec. have a molecular weight of zerod. have no kinetic energye. has an average molecular mass

21. The statement, “For a fixed mass of gas at constant temperature, gas volume is inversely proportional to gas pressure.” Is known as:a. Avogadro’s law b. Boyle’s law c. Charle’s law d. Graham’s lawe. Kelvin’s law

22. If gas volume is doubled but the temperature remains constant:a. the pressure stays the sameb. the molecules move fasterc. the kinetic energy increasesd. the molecules move slowere. none of these answers

23. Subtracting the vapor pressure of water from the total pressure of a gas collected over water is an example:a. Avogadro’s Hypothesis b. Dalton’s law c. Graham’s law d. van der Waals Theory e. ideal gas law

24. The energy of molecules of a gas:a. is dependent on concentrationb. is distributed over a wide range at constant temperaturec. is the same for all molecules at constant temperatured. increases with a decrease in temperaturee. increases with an increase in pressure

25. Which of the following assumptions is not used to explain the ideal gas law?a. gas particles themselves occupy a negligible percent of total gas volumeb. inter-particle forces are negligible in gasesc. collisions between gas particles are perfectly elastic d. collisions between gas particles and container walls are perfectly elastice. individual gas particles are perfectly compressible to nuclear size

26. If someone were to light a cigar at one end of a closed room, persons at the other end of the room might soon perceive an odor due to gaseous emissions from the cigar. Such a phenomenon is an example of:a. monometry b. ideality c. effusion d. diffusion

e. barometry27. The fact that a balloon filled with helium will leak more slowly than one filled with hydrogen is

explained by citing:a. Avogadro’s hypothesis b. Dalton’s law c. Graham’s law d. van der Waals Theory

e. ideal gas law28. Gases tend to behave ideally at

a. low temperature and low pressureb. low temperature and high pressurec. high temperature and low pressured. high temperature and high pressuree. gases always behave ideally

29. Assuming ideal gas behavior, which of the following gases would have the lowest density at standard temperature and pressure?a. SF6 b. CF2Cl2 c. CO2 d. N2 e. Kr

30. Of the following gases, the one with the greatest density at STP is:a. CH4 b. NH3 c. Ne d. H2 e. He

31. The phenomenon in which a steel needle can, with proper care, be made to float on the surface of some water illustrates a property of liquid known as:a. compressibility b. polarizability c. surface tension

d. triple point e. viscosity32. The property of liquid that measures its resistance to flow is

called:a. capillarity b. polarizability c. resistivity d. viscosity e. wetability

33. A liquid will “wet” a surface if:a. the liquid has a lesser density than the surfaceb. the forces between the liquid molecules are weak

c. the liquid has a low vapor pressured. the forces between the molecules and the surface are

greater than the forces between the molecules of the liquid

e. none of these answers

34. Which of the following statements concerning molecules in the liquid state is true? a. Cohesive forces are not important

b. The molecules contract to fit the size of the container c. The molecules have no motion

d. The molecules in a patterned (oriented) arrangement e. The molecules are mobile and relatively close together

35. The temperature ate which the vapor pressure of a liquid equals the external pressure is called the :a. boiling point b. critical point c. melting point

d. sublimation point e. thermal point36. Liquid and vapor phases of a substance become

indistinguishable at the:a. triple point b. normal point c. permanent point

d. critical point e. absolute point37. When a liquid is in dynamic equilibrium with its vapor at a given

temperature, the following conditions could exist:(I) There is no transfer of molecules between liquid and vapor(II) The vapor pressure has a unique value(III) The opposing processes, (liquid to vapor) and (vapor to

liquid), proceed at equal rates(IV) The concentration of vapor is dependent on time

Which of the above choices are applicable? a. I b. II and III c. I, II, and III

d. II and IV e. none of these combination38. Which of the following does NOT describe the critical point of a

liquid?a. The temperature and pressure at which a liquid’s meniscus

disappearsb. The point where the vapor pressure curve intersects the

fusion temperaturec. The highest temperature at which a liquid can existd. The temperature and pressure at which a liquid and its vapor are

identicale. The highest temperature at which it is possible to obtain a liquid

form its vapor by increasing pressure

39. A container holds a small amount of liquid and its vapor in equilibrium If the volume of the container is decreased, which of the following has occurred once equilibrium is reestablished?a. the temperature is lower b. the temperature is higher c. the pressure is higherd. the pressure is lower e. none of these

40. When the vapor pressure of a liquid equals atmospheric pressure, the temperature of the liquid equals:a. 100C b. boiling point c. the normal boiling point

d. the vaporization point e. none of these

41. When a liquid is in equilibrium with its vapor in a closed container:a. The rate at which molecules from the liquid phase enter

the gas phase exactly equals the rate at which molecules from the gas phase pass into the liquid phase

b. A change in temperature will not change the pressure in the container

c. The amount of gas in the container must exactly equal the amount of liquid

d. Molecules cannot go from the liquid phase to the gas phase because the amount of liquid in the container is constant

e. The vapor will gradually change back to the liquid state, that is, no vapor will be left

42. Under which of the following conditions will vaporization best occur?a. high mass, large surface area, high kinetic energyb. weak forces between molecules, high kinetic energy,

large surface areac. high molecular energy, small surface aread. low kinetic energy, strong molecular forces, large surface areae. small surface area, low kinetic energy, low molecular mass

43. Which of the following does NOT decrease rate of vaporization?a. closing container lid b. increasing forces between molecules c. increasing mass of moleculed. decreasing temperaturee. decreasing surface area

44. Which of the following factors does NOT affect the normal boiling point of a liquid?a. atmospheric pressure b. strength of forces between molecules c. rate of evaporationd. rate of condensation e. none of these answers

45. A liquid is in equilibrium with its vapor. If some of the vapor is allowed to escape, what is the immediate result?a. condensation rate decreases b. vaporization rate increases

c. condensation rate increases

d. vaporization rate decreases e. none of these46. The phenomenon of supercooling refers to the existence of a

metastable:a. the liquid at a temperature below that of its critical pointb. liquid at a temperature below that of its sublimation pointc. liquid at a temperature below that of its freezing pointd. gas at a temperature below that of its critical pointe. two-phase liquid/solid mixture at the freezing point

47. All of the following are true about crystals EXCEPTa. A crystal softens and melts over a wide range of

temperatureb. A crystal tends to shatter along defined planesc. Crystals generally have a specific shape for a specific substanced. Crystal usually have a high degree of symmetry

48. All of the following are logical consequences of the observed macroscopic properties of crystals EXCEPTa. The atoms or molecules of a crystal are arranged in a regularly

repeating patternb. The forces holding the atoms in a metal crystal are the same for

essentially every atom except at the surfacec. The distances between adjacent atoms or molecules vary

greatlyd. Some defects are present in the crystals

49. Which of the following has the largest number of lattice points per unit cell?a. The primitive (simple) cubic lattice

b. The face centered cubic lattice c. The body centered cubic lattice

d. All these lattices have the same number of lattice points per unit cell

50. All of the following are true about lattice points in a crystal structure EXCEPT a. The first lattice point can be placed at any location

b. All lattice points have identical environments c. The corners of unit cells are located at lattice points

d. Atoms are always located on lattice points51. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT

a. The face-centered cubic lattice is identical to the cubic closest packed lattice

b. The body-centered cubic lattice is identical to the hexagonal closest packed lattice

c. The cubic closest packed and hexagonal closest packed structures have identical fractions of space which are occupied by atoms

d. The density of a metal sample is independent of the size of the sample considered

52. Which of the following represents the minimal amount of date necessary to determine the atomic mass of a metal?a. Avogadro’s number and the density of the metalb. Avogadro’s number, the density of the metal and the length of

the unit cell edgec. Avogadro’s number, the density of the metal, the length

of the unit cell edge and the type of latticed. Avogadro’s number, the density of the metal, the length of the

unit cell edge, the type of lattice and the atomic radius of the metal

53. Which of the following is assumed when calculating atomic radii of metals form crystallographic data?a. The atoms are soft spheres that are deformed in the structureb. The atoms are almost perfect cubes c. The atoms are of different sizes and the value calculated for the

radius is an averaged. The atoms in the structure are touching

54. What is the usual relationship between the number of valence electrons and the number of nearest neighbors of a metal atom in a solid metal? a. The number of valence electrons is less than the number

nearest neighborsb. The number of valence electrons is greater than the number of

nearest neighborsc. The number of valence electrons is equal to the number of

nearest neighborsd. The number of valence electrons can be less than, greater than,

or equal to the number of nearest neighbors55. All of the following are consequences of the theory of the

structure of metals EXCEPTa. Metals conduct electricity b. Metals are malleable c. Metals are ductile d. Metals break easily when they are bent

56. Which of the following is the reason that metals conduct electricity?a. The metal atoms are close togetherb. There are no empty spaces in metal structuresc. Electrons in the structure can move freelyd. Electrons and protons in the structure can move freely

57. Which of the following is the reason why salt stay bonded in the solid state?a. There are strong covalent bonds between the ionsb. The structure consists of salt molecules tat bind tightly to other

salt molecules

c. They are held together by electrostatic attractions and the structure includes no electrostatic repulsions

d. There are both electrostatic attractions and repulsions within the structure but the total of the attractions is greater

58. All of the following are possible crystal defects EXCEPTa. An atom or ion out of its regular position and occupying a

normally empty holeb. A crystal in which he only defect is one pair of ions of the

same charge which are missingc. An electron occupying a site that is normally occupied by a –1

aniond. A crystal containing some ion sites empty and some ions not

bearing the expected charge 59. Which of the following is the most important explanation for the

conductivity of metals?a. they are almost all solids b. their coordination numbers are highc. Their numbers of valence electrons are high d. Their densities are high

60. Which of the following pairs is isoelectronic?a. AIS and P b. GeAs and Se c. GeAs and GaSe

d. Al and SiP

61. Which of the following is always the same for allotropes of the same element?a. The atomic mass b. the molar mass c. the structure d. the chemical and physical properties

62. The semiconductor crystalline Si has a low electrical conductivity in the dark becausea. crystalline Si is a molecular solidb. the band gap energy is much greater than 3RT at 23…Cc. the chemical bonding in the crystal is strong in all three

dimensionsd. Si has fewer valence electrons that elements that form metallic

solids63. A laser pointer of a doped semiconductor junction (i.e., a region

of A1 doped semiconductor bonded to a region of P doped semiconductor) with a flowing current due to an applied voltage from a battery. Which of the following statements is TRUE?a. The color of the light is determined by the semiconductor band

gapb. The device works better warm rather than cold because the

number of thermally generated electrons is higher

c. Light is emitted at the interface when a hole from the A1 region combines with an electron from the P region

d. Both (a) and (c)64. In order to dope crystalline Si with extra electrons, which

element should be incorporated into the lattice?a. P b. A1 c. C d. O

65. All of the following statements about NaCl crystalline lattice are true, EXCEPTa. Every Cl is surrounded by 4 Na at equal bond lengths, and

vice versab. The structure along the x,y and z axes of the unit cell is all the

samec. If the length of one side of the unit cell and the atomic weights of

Na and Cl are known, then the density can be calculated d. The unit cell is cubic even though the Na and Cl ions have

different ionin radii66. All of the following statements about the different forms of solid

C are true, EXCEPTa. Diamond is transparent and shows no color because its

band gap is quite largeb. Graphite slides easily because the C atoms are strongly bonded

in only two dimensionsc. In diamond the structure around each C atom is due to C sp3

hybridizationd. Diamond is hard yet brittle because the band gap is large

67. Solids with long-range microscopic order in their structures are calleda. amorphous b. crystalline c. glasses d. metals

e. none of these

68. A specimen is subjected to x-ray diffraction. The resulting diffraction pattern contains many sharply defined spots. The specimen is a. gaseous b. crystalline c. amorphous

d. plastic e. liquid69. A specimen is subjected to x-ray diffraction. The resulting

diffraction pattern contains three diffuse rings close to primary x-ray beam. The specimen isa. gaseous b. crystalline c. amorphous

d. polycrystalline e. colloidal70. The colors in the gemstone opal result from

a. the diffraction of visible light by colloidal crystals in the stone

b. absorption by transition metal complexes

c. contamination by large organic molecules which absorb light in the visible region

d. radioactivitye. none of these

71. Which of the following symmetry elements can be found in an equilateral triangle?a. a 2-fold rotation b. a 3-fold rotation c. as mirror line or plane d. all of these e. none of these

72. About half of all the crystals studied so far belong to the ______ crystal systema. hexagonal b. orthorhombic c. cubic

d. triclinic e. monoclinic73. The crystal system with the minimum symmetry requirement of

one 4-fold rotation is a. orthorhombic b. cubic c. tetragonal

d. triclinic e. trigonal74. Crystalline substances are ________. Amorphous substances are

________.a. isotropic, isotropicb. anisotropic, anisotropic

c. isotropic, anisotropic d. anisotropic, isotropic75. The three-dimensional array made up of all points within a

crystal that have the same environment in the same orientation is called thea. unit cell b. primitive cell c. crystal system

d. crystal lattice e. symmetry pattern76. The basic repeating structural unit of a crystal lattice is the

a. unit cell b. atom c. moleculed. atomic cluster e. symmetry pattern

77. The number of lattice points in a primitive unit cell isa. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 8 e. this depends on the crystal system

78. The conditions --- a≠ b ≠ c, alpha= beta =gamma = 90 --- describe the _________ unit cell.a. tetragonal b. orthorhombic c. monoclinic

d. hexagonal e. trigonal79. The conditions --- a≠ b ≠ c, alpha = gamma = 90, ß ≠ 90---

describe the _______ unit cella. tetragonal b. orthorhombic c. monoclinic d. hexagonal e. trigonal

80. The number of lattice points in the unit cell for the body-centered cubic lattice isa. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 8

81. For a face-centered cubic unit cell, each corner contributes _____ lattice points to the unit cella. 1/8 b. ¼ c. ½ d. 1 e. none of these

82. In a face-centered cubic lattice, each lattice, each lattice point located in a face of the unit cell is shared equally with ___ other unit cella. 1 b. 3 c. 5 d. 7 e. none of these

83. A metal crystallizes in a body-centered cubic lattice. Which of the following correctly relates the atomic radius r of the metal to the length of an edge a of the unit cell?a. r = a b. r = a√2 c. r = a√3 2 4 4d. This cannot be determined without additional information

e. none of these84. The forces holding the molecules together in the lattice of a

molecular solid area. van der Waals forces b. ionic bonds c. covalent bonds

d. all of these e. none of these85. Molecular crystals typically

a. are soft b. have low melting points c. are insulators d. all of these e. none of these

86. Most ionic solids crystallize in the ______ systema. hexagonal b. orthorhombic c. cubic

d. tetragonal e. monoclinic87. The rock salt structure can be viewed as a _______ lattice of

anions, with cations occupying positions exactly between pairs of anionsa. face-centered cubic b. monoclinic c. trigonal

d. body-centered cubic e. primitive cubic88. In the rock salt structure, each ion is surrounded by ________

equidistant ions of opposite chargea. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 8

e. none of these

89. Which of the following cannot possibly crystallize in the rock salt structure?a. VN b. Na2S c. ZrSe d. NH4I

e. MgO90. How many chloride ions are contained in a unit cell of CsCl?

a. 1/8 b. ¼ c. ½ d. 1 e. 291. The coordination number of each cesium atom in CsCl is

a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 8 e. 1292. A certain solid is a good insulator, is brittle, and has a high

melting point. The substance readily conducts electricity when molten. This substance is most likely _____ in nature.

a. molecular b. covalent c. ionic d. metallice. it could be more than one of these

93. In a metallic solid, _______ are located at the lattice points.a. neutral metal atoms b. molecules c. positively charged core ions d. electronse. atomic clusters

94. The metal with the highest melting point isa. Pt b. Rh c. Nb d. Ga e. W

95. A structure that forms naturally when identical rigid spheres are placed as close together as possible is called a ____ arrangement.a. primitive b. close-packed c. face-centered d. dense

e. nematic96. A crystal structure which yields close packing for uniform rigid

spheres isa. primitive cubic b. tetragonal c. body-centered cubic d. all of these e. none of these

97. In the hexagonal close-packed structure, each atom has a coordination number of a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 e. 12

98. In diamond, each carbon is covalently bonded to ________ other carbon atomsa. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6 e. 8

99. The most stable form of sulfur at room temperature isa. gaseous atoms b. long chains of sulfur atoms c. S4 tetrahedral

d. S2 molecules with double bonds e. S8 rings100. Which element in group V does not form a solid with each atom

bonded to three others?a. As b. Bi c. N d. P e. Sb

101. Which of the following forms a layered structure?a. graphite b. white tin c. sulfur

d. red phosphorous e. all of these102. Which of the following forms a solid with the diamond structure?

a. sulfur b. white tin c. red phosphorousd. sodium e. gray tin

103. The crystal defect in which an atom or ion is displaced from its regular position in the lattice to an interstitial site is called a(n)a. Schottky defect b. Frenkel defect c. F-center

d. site defect e. berthollide104. Irradiation of NaCl with ultraviolet light can cause

a. chloride ions to lose electrons to the crystalline latticeb. formation of an F-centerc. formation of a nonstoichiometric crystald. all of thesee. none of these

105. In a plastic crystal,

a. the molecules tumble before the lattice s disruptedb. the lattice is disrupted before the molecules begin to tumblec. the molecules are rod-liked. all of thesee. none of these

106. The rate constant of a reaction depends upon a. initial concentration of reactantsb. extent of reactionc. temperatured. time of reaction

107. Which of the following factors does not influence the rate of a reaction?a. Concentration of reactantsb. Nature of reactantsc. Molecularity of the reactiond. Temperature

108. The mechanism of a reaction can sometimes be reduced froma. the temperature dependence of the rateb. the rate law c. the net equationd. the activation energy

109. The activation energy of a reaction may be lowered bya. raising the temperatureb. lowering the temperaturec. removing the products of the reactiond. adding a catalyst

110. The equilibrium constant in a reversible chemical reaction at given temperaturea. depends on the initial concentrations of the reactantsb. depends on the concentration of one of the products at

equilibriumc. does not depend on the initial concentrationsd. is not characteristic of the reaction

Answer the following questions 111-113 with the help of the hypothetical reaction and its rate law

3A(g) + B(g) +2C(g) D(g) + 2E(g)

Rate of formation of D = k[A] [B]2

111. Doubling of the concentration of A increases the rate of reaction by a factor ofa. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 9

112. Doubling of the concentration of B increases the rate of the reaction by a factor of a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 9

113. If the volume of the container is suddenly reduced to one-half its original volume the rate will increase by a factor of a. 2 b. 4 c. 8 d. 16

114. The value of k, the specific rate constant, may be increased bya. decreasing the concentration of Db. increasing the concentration of Ac. increasing the concentration of Cd. increasing the temperature

115. What effect does an increase in temperature of 10C have on the rate of the reaction?a. Halved b. Multiplied by 1.5c. Doubled d. Tripled

116. Which of the following is the best explanation for the effect of increase in temperature on the rate of the reaction?a. It increases the number of particles with the necessary

activation of energyb. It enables the reacting particles with the necessary activation

energyc. It lowers the activation energy for the reactiond. It enables the activated complex to be more easily converted to

the products117. The reactions of high molecularity are rare because

a. activation energy of many body collisions is very highb. many body collisions have low probabilityc. many body collisions are not favoured energeticallyd. none of the above statement is true

118. At 25C , the half –life for the decomposition of N2O5 is 5.7 hours, and is dependent of the initial pressure of N2O5 the specific rate constant isa. ln 2 b. (1/5.7)hr-1

c. (ln2/5.7)-1hr-1 d. (ln2/5.7)hr119. If the rate of reaction is independent of the concentration of the

reactant, the reaction is ofa. zero order b. first orderc. second order d. third order

120. Who among the following gave the law of photochemical equivalence?a. Drapper b. Einsteinc. Grotthus d. Lambert

121. The energy of electromagnetic radiation depends ona. its amplitude b. its frequencyc. its wave length d. none of the above

122. What term is used to define the phenomenon of emission of light in a chemical reaction?a. Chemical luminescence

b. Photosensitizationc. Both chemical luminescence and photosensitizationd. None of the above

123. Raman spectra may be obtained ina. IR and Visible regionb. Visible region onlyc. IR and micro wave regiond. UV and visible region

124. ESR spectra mainly helps in study of a. compounds having hydrogenb. compounds having carbonsc. free radicalsd. ionic compounds

125. Which one of the following rate laws has an overall order of 0.5 for the reactions involving substances X, Y, Z.?a. Rate = k(Cx) (Cy) (Cz)b. Rate = k (Cx)0.5 (Cy) 0.5 (Cz)0.5

c. Rate = k (Cx)1.5 (Cy) –1 (Cz)0

d. Rate = k (Cx) (Cz)0/(Cy)2

126. Chemical reaction rates in solution do not depend to any great extent upona. pressure b. temperaturec. concentration d. catalyst

127. Which of the following might be used as an electrode?a. A stick b. A nailc. A glass rod d. A soda straw

128. The e.m.f. value for oxidation from H2 at 1.0 atm to H+ at 1.0 x 10-1 M isa. 0.00V b. 0.059Vc. –0.059V d. 0.030V

129. A good reducing agenta. will always react rapidlyb. has a negative oxidation potentialc. is readily oxidizedd. shows a negative oxidation number

130. A Faraday of electricity isa. one ampere per secondb. 96,500 coulombs per secondc. 6.02 x 1023 electrons per secondd. 6.02 x 1023 electronic charges

131. When aqueous HCl is electrolyzeda. chlorine gas is produced at the anodeb. hydrogen gas is produced at the anodec. oxygen gas is produced at the anode

d. oxygen gas is produced at the cathode132. The number of electrons necessary to produce 1.00gm of Cu

from Cu2+ at the cathode of an electrolytic cell isa. 1.89 x 1022 b. 3.04 x 103

c. 9.47 x 1021 d. 1.91 x 1025

133. A possible advantage to using the half reaction method for balancing oxidation-reduction equation is a. electrons need not be balancedb. oxidation numbers are not assignedc. charges are not balancedd. atoms need not be balanced

134. In a galvanic cell the cathodea. is always made of copperb. is always made of zincc. may be made of an inert metald. always attracts negative ions in the solution

135. Hydrogen ions are more readily reduced thana. Ag+ b. Cu++

c. Cl2 d. Zn++

136. Not all galvanic cells containa. a cathode b. an anodec. a porous partition d. ions

137. When a cell of a lead storage battery is being charged, it isa. a galvanic cell b. an electrolytic cellc. a Daniel cell d. a dry cell

138. A current of 9.65 ampere is drawn from a Daniel cell for exactly 1 hour. The loss of mass of anode is a. 0.180g b. 23.6gc. 0.197g d. 11.8g

139. The following reaction does not occur spontaneously (all ions at 1m concentration; all gases at 1 atmosphere pressure)a. 2Cr(s) + 3Cl2(g) 2 Cr+3 + 6 Cl-

b. NO3- + 2 H+ + Ag(s) Ag+ + H2O + NO2(g)

c. NO3- + 4 H+ + 3 Ag(s) 3 Ag+ + NO(g) +2H2Od. Cl2(g) + 2 Br- 2 Cl- + Br2

140. If 0.200 liter of 0.100 M NaCl are electrolyzed until the OH-

concentration is 0.0500M, how many moles of Cl2 gas are produced?a. 5.00 x 10-3mole b. 1.00 x 10-2molec. 5.00 x 10-2mole c. 1.00 x 10-1mole

141. As the lead storage battery is charged,a. the amount of sulfuric acid decreasesb. the lead electrode becomes coated with lead sulfatec. sulfuric acid is regeneratedd. lead dioxide dissolves

142. If an aqueous solution of KI is electrolyzed (with platinum electrodes) one would expect to find

a. potassium deposited at the cathodeb. oxygen liberated at the anodec. the solution around the cathode becoming alkalined. the solution around the anode becoming brown

143. When an aqueous solution of NaCl is electrolyzed, a product formed at the cathode isa. Na b. H+

c. OH- d. Cl2144. If aqueous Cu SO4 is electrolyzed for one minute with a current of 2.00 ampere,

the volume of ozygen produced at STP at the anode isa. 3.10 x 10-4 liter b. 6.96ml

c. 1.16 x 10-4 liter d. 1.16 ml

145. As a lead storage battery is dischargeda. water is used upb. lead is formedc. lead sulfate is consumedd. sulfuric acid is consumed

146. If a large quantity of cobalt metal were dropped into a solution containing Ag+, Fe+2, Cu+2, the products of the reaction will be:a. Ag, Fe and Cu b. Ag, Fe++ and Cu+

c. Fe++, Cu and Co++ d. Fe++, Cu, Ag and Co++

147. Which of the following instruments makes use of the standard electrode potentials and the variation of electrode potential with concentration?a. Polarimeter b. pH meter

c. Electrophorous d. Electrophotometer

148. The series in which the electrode potentials of metals are arranged in an order is known as:a. electrical conductivity seriesb. electrode potential seriesc. electrochemical seriesd. chemical affinity series

149. In a salt-bridge KCl is used becausea. agar-agar forms a good jelly with it b. KCl is an electrolytec. K+ and Cl- have the same transference numberd. KCl is present in calomel electrode

150. Four colorless salt solutions are placed in separate test-tubes and a strip of copper is dipped in each.. which solution finally turns blue?a. Pb (NO3)2 b. Zn (NO3)2

c. AgNO3 d. Cd (NO3)2

151. When an electric current is passed through a cell containing an electrolyte, positive ions move towards the cathode and negative ions towards the anode. What will happen if the cathode is pulled out of solution?a. The positive ions will start moving towards the anode and negative ions will stop

movingb. The negative ions will continue to move towards the anode and the positive ions

will stop moving c. Both negative and positive ions move towards the anoded. None of these movements will take place

152. What is the standard cell potential for the cell Zn; Zn+2 (IM) ll Cu+2 (IM); Cu (E for Zn+2 l Zn = -.76; E for Cu+2 l Cu = +0.34)a. -0.076 + 0.34 = -0.42 Vb. –0.34 – (-0.76) = +1.10Vc. –0.34 – (-0.76) = +0.42Vd. –0.76 – (+0.34) = -1.10V

153. One Faraday of current was passed through the electrolytic cells placed in series containing solutions of Ag+, Ni+2 and Cr+3 respectively. The amount of Ag (At.Wt. 108), Ni (At. Wt. 59) and Cr (At. Wt. 52) deposited will be:

Silver Nickel Chromium

a. 108g 29.5g 17.5g

b. 108g 59g 52.0g

c. 108g 108g 108g

d. 108g 117.5g 166g

154. Given standard electrode potentials E

Fe++ + 2e Fe -0.440V

Fe+++ + 3e Fe -0.036V

The standard electrode potential (E) for Fe+++ + e Fe++ is

a. –0.476Vb. –0.404Vc. +0.404Vd. +0.771V

155. The magnitude of the individual half cell potentials are given(i) CO2+ + 2e Co 0.28V

(ii) Hg2+ + 2e 2Hg 0.78V

when both the half cells (a) and (b) are connected with SHE, the metallic electrode Co is found to be –ve and Hg electrode is found to be +ve. The correct sign for the electrode potentials will be:

a. +ve for half cell (I)b. +ve for half cell (ii)c. –ve for half cell (ii)

156. When an iron wire is immersed in an acidic solution of CuSo4, the blue color of the solution is lost after some time. This is due toa. reduction of Cu++

b. oxidation of CuSO4

c. formation of double complex between iron and copper sulfated. formation of a colorless salt of Cu++

157. Magnesium cannot displace from solution the ions ofa. sodium b. lead

c. copper d. gold

158. The mathematical statement of Gibb’s phase rule is

a. F = C-P+2 b. C = F-P+2

c. C = F-P+1 d. P = C+F+2

159. The homogenous physically distinct and mechanically separable parts of the heterogeneous system in equilibrium are called

a. phases b. components

c. degrees of freedom d. none of the above

160. What is the degree of freedom of a system consisting of a gaseous mixture of carbon dioxide and nitrogen?

a. 0 b. 1

c. 2 d. 3

161. How many phases are present in the water system?

a. 0 b. 1

c. 2 d. 3

162. How many phases will be there in the system made of water and methyl alcohol?

a. 3 b. 1

c. 1 d. 0

163. How many components are necessary to define the following equilibrium?

CaCO3 CaO + CO2

Solid solid gas

a. 0 b. 1

c. 2 d. 3

164. The minimum number of phases existing in a system is

a. 0 b. 1

c. 2 d. 3

165. The incongruent melting point is so called

a. peritectic temperatureb. meritectic temperaturec. transition temperature d. all of the above