BTSE SAMPLE PAPER

BTSE SAMPLE PAPER CLASS – XII

ALL SUBJECTS

BTSE SAMPLE PAPER | Class – XII

Page | 1

SECTION - A: PHYSICS

Q1. Which of the following cannot be polarised?

(a) radio waves

(b) transverse waves

(c) sound waves

(d) X-rays

Q2. The refractive indices (R.I.) of glass and water with respect to air are 3/2 and 4/3

respectively. The R.I. of glass with respect to water is:

(a) 8/9

(b) 9/8

(c) 7/6

(d) 2

Q3. The air bubble inside water shine due to:

(a) Reflection

(b) Refraction

(c) T.l.R.

(d) None of these

Q4. The RI. of the material of a prism is √2 and its refracting angle is 30°. One of the

refracting surface of the prism is made a mirror. A beam of monochromatic light

entering the prism from the other face retraces its path, after reflection from

mirror surface. The angle of incidence on prism is:

(a) 0°

(b) 30°

(c) 45°

(d) 60°


Page | 2

Q5. If a body of mass m is taken out from a point below the surface of earth equal to

half the radius of earth, R, to a height R above the earths surface, then work done

on it will be

(a) (5/6) mgR

(b) (6/7) mgR

(c) (7/8) mgR

(d) (8/9) mgR

Q6. The escape velocity for a body projected vertically upwards from the surface of

the earth is 11 km/s. If the body is projected at an angle of 450 with the vertical,

the escape velocity will be

(a) 11/√2 km/s

(b) 11√2 km/s

(c) 2 km/s

(d) 11 km/s

Q7. The value of g at a particular point is 9.8 m/sec² suppose the earth suddenly shrink

uniformly to half its present size without losing any mass. The value of g at the

same point (assuming that the distance of the point from the centre of the earth

does not shrink) will become

(a) 9.8 m/sec²

(b) 4.9 m/sec²

(c) 19.6 m/sec²

(d) 2.45 m/sec²

Q8. If the radius of the earth were to be raise by 1% its mass remaining the same, the

acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth will

(a) increase by 1%

(b) decrease by 2%

(c) decrease by 1%

(d) increase by 2%


Page | 3

Q9. A satellite S is move in an elliptical orbit around the earth. The mass of the satellite

is very small compared to the mass of the earth.

(a) The acceleration of S is always directed towards the centre of the earth.

(b) The angular momentum of S about the centre of the earth changes in direction, but

its magnitude remains constant.

(c) The total mechanical energy of S varies periodically with time.

(d) The linear momentum of S remains constant in magnitude.

Q10. The mean radius of the earth is R, its angular speed on its own axis is w and the

acceleration due to gravity at earth’s surface is g. The cube of the radius of the

orbit of a geo-stationary satellite will be

(a) r²g / w

(b) R²w²/ g

(c) RG w²

(d) R²g / w²

Q11. What would be the duration of the year if the distance between the earth and the

sun gets doubled?

(a) 1032 days

(b) 129 days

(c) 365 days

(d) 730 days


Page | 4

Q12. A cell having an emf E and internal resistance r is connected across a variable

external resistance R. As the resistance R is increased, the plot of potential

difference V across R is given by

Ans.- b

Q13. In a Wheatstone bridge if the battery and galvanometer are interchanged then the

deflection in galvanometer will

(a) change in previous direction

(b) not change

(c) change in opposite direction

(d) none of these.

Q14. In a potentiometer of 10 wires, the balance point is obtained on the 7th wire. To

shift the balance point to 9th wire, we should

(a) decrease resistance in the main circuit.

(b) increase resistance in the main circuit.

(c) decrease resistance in series with the cell whose emf is to be measured.

(d) increase resistance in series with the cell whose emf is to be determined.


Page | 5

Q15. AB is a wire of potentiometer with the increase in the value of resistance R, the

shift in the balance point J will be

(a) towards B

(b) towards A

(c) remains constant

(d) first towards B then back towards A.

Q16. A charge is moving across a junction, then

(a) momentum will be conserved.

(b) momentum will not be conserved.

(c) at some places momentum will be conserved and at some other places momentum

will not be conserved.

(d) none of these.

Q17. The north pole of a long bar magnet was pushed slowly into a short solenoid

connected to a short galvanometer. The magnet was held stationary for a few

seconds with the north pole in the middle of the solenoid and then withdrawn

rapidly. The maximum deflection of the galvanometer was observed when the

magnet was

(a) moving towards the solenoid

(b) moving into the solenoid

(c) at rest inside the solenoid

(d) moving out of the solenoid

Q18. If number of turns in primary and secondary coils is increased to two times each,

the mutual inductance

(a) becomes 4 times

(b) becomes 2 times

(c) becomes A times

(d) remains unchanged 4


Page | 6

Q19. An e– and a p– are moving parallel to each other in a magnetic field. The magnetic

force acting on the p+ is:

(a) 1840 times that on e–

(b) less than that of e–

(c) same as that of e–

(d) slightly more than that of e

Q20. A metal conductor of length 1 m rotates vertically about one of its ends at angular

velocity 5 rad s-1. If the horizontal component of earth’s magnetism is 2 × 10-5 T,

then e.m.f. developed between the two ends of the conductor is:

(a) 5 µV

(b) 50 µV

(c) 5 mV

(d) 50 mV


Page | 7

SECTION - B: CHEMISTRY

Q21. In NaCl structure

(a) all octahedral and tetrahedral sites are occupied

(b) only octahedral sites are occupied

(c) only tetrahedral sites are occupied

(d) neither octahedral nor tetrahedral sites are occupied

Q22. Which of the following crystals does not exhibit Frenkel defect?

(a) AgBr

(b) AgCl

(c) KBr

(d) ZnS

Q23. The density of a metal which crystallises in bcc lattice with unit cell edge length

300 pm and molar mass 50 g mol-1 will be

(a) 10 g cm-3

(b) 14.2 g cm-3

(c) 6.15 g cm-3

(d) 9.3 2 g cm-3

Q24. Osmotic pressure of a solution is 0.0821 atm at a temperature of 300 K. The

concentration in moles/litre will be

(a) 0.33

(b) 0.666

(c) 0.3 × 10-2

(d) 3

Q25. Which of the following condition is not satisfied by an ideal solution?

(a) ΔHmixing = 0

(b) ΔVmixing = 0

(c) Raoult’s Law is obeyed

(d) Formation of an azeotropic mixture


Page | 8

Q26. Which has the lowest boiling point at 1 atm pressure?

(a) 0.1 M KCl

(b) 0.1 M Urea

(c) 0.1 M CaCl2

(d) 0.1 M AlCl3

Q27. The increasing order of reducing power of the halogen acids is

(a) HF < HCl < HBr < HI

(b) HI < HBr < HCl < HF

(c) HBr < HCl < HF < HI

(d) HCl < HBr < HF < HI

Q28. The shape of XeF4 is

(a) tetrahedral

(b) square planar

(c) pyramidal

(d) linear

Q29. Which of the following is the strongest oxidising agent?

(a) F2

(b) Cl2

(c) l2

(d) Br2

Q30. SN1 reaction of alkyl halides lead to

(a) Retention of configuration

(b) Racemisation

(c) Inversion of configuration

(d) None of these


Page | 9

Q31. Fittig reaction can be used to prepare

(a) Toluene

(b) Acetophenone

(c) Diphenyl

(d) Chlorobenzene

Q32.

In the above reaction, the product D is

(a) Propane

(b) 2, 3-Dimethylbutane

(c) Hexane

(d) Allyl bromide

Q33. p-dichlorobenzene has higher melting point than its o- and m- isomers because

(a) p-dichlorobenzene is more polar than o- and m- isomer.

(b) p-isomer has a symmetrical crystalline structure.

(c) boiling point of p-isomer is more than o- and m-isomer.

(d) None of these

Q34. Which of the following alcohols give 2-butene on dehydration by conc. H2SO4?

(a) 2-methyl propene-2-ol

(b) 2-methyl-1-propanol

(c) Butane-2-ol

(d) Butane 1-ol

Q35. Which of the following reagents cannot, be used to oxidise primary alcohols to

aldehydes?

(a) CrO3 in anhydrous medium

(b) KMnO4 in acidic medium

(c) Pyridinium chlorochromate

(d) Heat in the presence of Cu at 573 K


Page | 10

Q36. What happens when tertiary butyl alcohol is passed over heated copper at 300°C?

(a) Secondary butyl alcohol is formed

(b) 2-methylpropene is formed

(c) 1-butene is formed

(d) Butanol is formed

Q37. The decreasing order of boiling point of the following alcohols is

(a) 3-methylbutan-2-ol > 2,2-dimethylpropanol > pentan-1-ol

(b) Pentan-1-ol > 3-methylbutan-2-ol > 2,2-dimethylpropanol

(c) 2,2-dimethylpropanol > 3-methylbutan-2-ol > pentan-1-ol

(d) 2,2-dimethylpropanol > pentan-1-ol > 3-methylbutan-2-ol

Q38. Glycosidic linkage is an

(a) amide linkage

(b) ester linkage

(c) ether linkage

(d) acetyl linkage

Q39. Starch is composed of two polysaccharides which are

(a) amylopectin and glycogen

(b) amylose and glycogen

(c) amylose (20%) and amylopectin (80%)

(d) cellulose and glycogen

Q40. What are the hydrolysis products of sucrose?

(a) Fructose + Fructose

(b) Glucose + Glucose

(c) Glucose + Galactose

(d) D-Glucose + D-Fructose


Page | 11

SECTION - C: BIOLOGY

Q41. After which cell division Spermatogonia are formed?

(a) Meiosis 1

(b) Mitosis

(c) Meiosis II

(d) Amitosis

Q42. If a germ cell in a female gonad and a germ cell in a male gonad are undergoing

meiosis simultaneously, what will be the ratio of ova and sperms produced?

(a) 1 : 1

(b) 1 : 2

(c) 1 : 4

(d) 2 : 1

Q43. Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) Corpus luteum changes into corpus albicans

(b) Corpus luteum degenerates after fertilization

(c) Corpus lutem persists throughout the pregnancy

(d) Corpus luteum is not formed during the pregnancy

Q44. During sexual excitement secretion of which accessory reproductive gland of male

comes out first

(a) Cowper gland

(b) Seminal vesicle

(c) Prostate gland

(d) Bartholin gland

Q45. Semen contains all except:

(a) Fructose

(b) Fibrinogen

(c) Prothrombin

(d) Citric acid


Page | 12

Q46. If one ovary of 30 year old lady is removed surgically then what happens in

affected lady?

(a) Menstrual cycle is stopped

(b) Menstrual cycle is normal but ovulation does not occur

(c) Duration of menstrual cycle is prolonged

(d) No effect on menstrual cycle

Q47. Following is a weekly oral contraceptive

(a) Mala D

(b) i pill

(c) Saheli

(d) All of these

Q48. For delaying pregnancy or spacing children the ideal contraceptive is

(a) Vasectomy

(b) Tubectomy

(c) IUD

(d) Oral contraceptive

Q49. To form embryo in vitro, the male gamete is transferred into female gamete

directly. Such technique is called

(a) IUI

(b) IUT

(c) ICSI

(d) GIFT

Q50. Contraceptive oral pills help in birth control by

(a) Killing the sperms in uterus

(b) Forming barriers between sperms and ova

(c) Preventing ovulation

(d) Killing the ova.


Page | 13

Q51. Male gamete in angiosperm is produced by

(a) generative cell

(b) microspore cell

(c) vegetative cell

(d) tube cell

Q52. Which of the following statements about sporopollenin is false?

(a) Exine is made up of sporopollenin

(b) Sporopollenin is one of the resistant organic materials

(c) Exine has apertures called germ pores where sporopollenin is present

(d) Sporopollenin can withstand high temperatures and strong acids

Q53. An allele is dominant if it is expressed in

(a) both homozygous and heterozygous states

(b) second generation

(c) heterozygous combination

(d) homozygous combination

Q54. An allele for Haemophilia will pass from father to

(a) All his sons

(b) 50% of his sons

(c) All his daughters

(d) 50% of the daughters

Q55. Which enzyme is defective or not formed in case of Alkaptonuria?

(a) Phenylalanine hydroxylase

(b) Homogentisic oxidase

(c) Tyrosine oxidase

(d) All of these


Page | 14

Q56. The blood of a person having blood group A cannot be transfused in to a person

of blood group B because

(a) Donor has -antibodies

(b) Recipient has B-antigen

(c) Both of these

(d) Donor has A -antigen and Recipient has antibodies.

Q57. A diseased man marries a normal woman. They get three daughters and five sons.

All the daughters were diseased and the sons were normal. The gene for the disease

is

(a) Sex- linked dominant

(b) Sex- linked recessive

(c) Autosomal dominant

(d) Autosomal but sex- limited

Q58. Which is correct regarding evolution of mankind?

(a) Homo erectus was preceded by Homo habilis

(b) Australopithecus lived in Australia

(c) Neanderthal Man and Cro-Magnon Man lived together

(d) None of the above

Q59. The occurrence of six- fingers, instead of five, in each hand of a child is a

(a) Somatogenic variation

(b) Atavistic character

(c) Vestigial character

(d) Meristic variation

Q60. Sickle cell anaemia has not been eliminated by selection pressure from the African

population as it is

(a) Controlled by a dominant gene

(b) Of a rare occurrence

(c) Controlled by recessive gene

(d) Advantageous in malaria prone area


Page | 15

SECTION – D: MATHEMATICS

Q61. The range of the function 𝑓(𝑥) =7−𝑥 𝑃𝑥−3 is

(a) {1,2,3,4,5}

(b) {1,2,3,4,5,6}

(c) {1,2,3,4}

(d) {1,2,3}

Q62. If 𝑓(𝑥) = sin2 x + sin2(x+𝜋

3) + cos x cos (x+

𝜋

3) and g(

5

4) =1, then (gof) (x)=

(a) -2

(b) -1

(c) 2

(d) 1

Q63. The value of sin-1(sin 10) is

(a) (a) (a) 10

(b) (b) (b) 10-3𝜋

(c) (𝑐) (𝑐) 3𝜋 − 10

(d) (d) (d) None of these

Q64. If |𝟑𝒙 − 𝟖 𝟑 𝟑 𝟑 𝟑𝒙 − 𝟖 𝟑 𝟑 𝟑 𝟑𝒙 − 𝟖 |=0, then the

value of x are

(a) (a) (a) 0,2/3

(b) (b) (b) 2/3,11/3

(c) (c) (c) 1/2,1

(d) (d) (d) 11/3, 1

Q65. If A= [𝑪𝑶𝑺 𝜶

−𝑺𝒊𝒏 𝜶

𝑺𝒊𝒏 𝜶

𝑪𝑶𝒔 𝜶] and A adj A=[

𝑘

0 𝑜

𝑘], then k is equal to

(a) 0

(b) 1

(c) Sin𝛼 𝐶𝑂𝑆𝛼

(d) 𝐶𝑂𝑆2𝛼


Page | 16

Q66. If P =[√3

−2 1

2

1

2 √3

2 ],A=[

1

0

1

1] and Q= PAPT, then p(Q2005)PT equal to

(a) [1

0

2005

1]

(b) [√3/2

1

2005

0]

(c) [1

√3/2

2005

1]

(d) 1

0

√3/2

2005

Q67. The value of p for which the function f(x) =

{(𝟒𝒙−𝟏)𝟑

𝒔𝒊𝒏𝒙

𝒑𝒍𝒐𝒈𝒍𝒐𝒈 [𝟏+

𝒙𝟐

𝟑] x≠ 𝟎 may be continous at x=0 , is 12 (𝒍𝒐𝒈 𝒍𝒐𝒈 𝟒 )𝟑 , x=0

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

Q68. If y =𝒍𝒐𝒈𝟏𝟎𝒙 + 𝒍𝒐𝒈𝒙𝟏𝟎 + 𝒍𝒐𝒈𝒙𝒙 + 𝒍𝒐𝒈𝟏𝟎𝟏𝟎, 𝒕𝒉𝒆𝒏 𝒅𝒚

𝒅𝒙 =

(a) 1

𝑥𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑒10 −

𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑒 10

𝑥(𝑙𝑜𝑔2𝑥)2

(b) 1

𝑥𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑒10 −

𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑒 10

𝑥𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑒10

(c) 1

𝑥𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑒10 +

𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑒 10

𝑥(𝑙𝑜𝑔2𝑥)2

(d) None of these

Q69. If x =𝟏−𝒕𝟐

𝟏+𝒕𝟐 and y = 𝟐𝒂𝒕

𝟏+𝒕𝟐, then 𝒅𝒚

𝒅𝒙 =

(a) 𝑎(1−𝑡2)

2𝑡

(b) 𝑎(𝑡2−1)

2𝑡

(c) 𝑎(𝑡2+1)

2𝑡

(d) 𝑎(𝑡2−1)

𝑡


Page | 17

Q70. If y=𝒙𝟐 + 𝟏

𝒙𝟐+𝟏

𝒙𝟐+𝟏

𝒙𝟐………..∞

, then 𝒅𝒚

𝒅𝒙 =

(a) 2𝑥𝑦

2𝑦−𝑥2

(b) 𝑥𝑦

𝑦−𝑥2

(c) 𝑥𝑦

𝑦−𝑥2

(d) 2𝑥𝑦

2𝑦−𝑥2

𝑦

Q71. 𝑭(𝒙) = {𝒃; 𝒙 < 𝟎𝒔𝒊𝒏𝒔𝒊𝒏 (𝒂+𝟐) 𝒙+𝒔𝒊𝒏𝒔𝒊𝒏 𝒙

𝒙; 𝐱 = 𝟎 𝐢𝐬 𝐜𝐨𝐧𝐭𝐢𝐧𝐨𝐮𝐬 𝐚𝐭

(𝒙+𝟑𝒙𝟐)𝟏

𝟑−𝒙

𝟏

𝟑𝟒

𝒙𝟑

; 𝐱 > 𝟎,

then a+2b is equal to

(a) -1

(b) 1

(c) -2

(d) 0

Q72. A ladder 5m in length is resting against vertical wall. The bottom of the ladder is

pulled along the ground away from the wall at the rate of 1.5 m/sec. The length of

the highest point of the ladder when the foot of the ladder 4.0 m away from the

wall decreases at the rate of …….m/sec

(a) 2

(b) 3

(c) 2.5

(d) 1.5

Q73. A core of maximum volume is inscribed in a given sphere, then ratio of the height

of the cone of the diameter of the sphere is

(a) 2/3

(b) 3/4

(c) 1/3

(d) ¼


Page | 18

Q74. A water tank has the shape of an inverted right circular cone, whose semi vertical

angles is 𝑡𝑎𝑛−1 (1

2). Water is poured is at a constant rate of 5 cubic meter per

minute. The the rate (in m/min) at which the level of water is rising at the instant

when the depth of water in the tank is 10 m is

(a) 2

𝜋

(b) 1

5𝜋

(c) 1

10𝜋

(d) 1

15𝜋

Q75. ∫ 𝑪𝑶𝒔−𝟑/𝟕𝒙𝒔𝒊𝒏−𝟏𝟏/𝟕x dx=

(a) log|𝑠𝑖𝑛4/7𝑥|+ c

(b) −7

4𝑐𝑜𝑡−4/7𝑥 + 𝑐

(c) −7

4𝑡𝑎𝑛−4/7𝑥 + 𝑐

(d) (b) and (c) both

Q76. ∫𝟏

−𝟏𝒍𝒐𝒈 𝒍𝒐𝒈 (𝒙 + √𝒙𝟐 + 𝟏 ) dx =

(a) 0

(b) log2

(c) log1

2

(d) None o these

Q77. ∫𝒙𝒅𝒙

𝟏+𝒔𝒊𝒏𝒔𝒊𝒏 𝒙

𝝅

𝟎 is equal to

(a) – 𝜋

(b) 𝜋

2

(c) 𝜋

(d) None of these


Page | 19

Q78. The area of region enclosed by the parabolas 𝑦2 =4x and 𝑥2=4y is

(a) 32

3

(b) 16

3

(c) 8

3

(d) 0

Q79. Solution of (x+y-1)dx + (2x+2y-3)dy = 0 is

(a) y +x +l og(x+y -2) = c

(b) y + 2x + log(x+y -2) = c

(c) 2y +bx+ log(x+y -2) = c

(d) 2y + 2x + log(x+y -2) = c

Q80. The maximum value of z in the following equation z = 6xy +𝑦2, where 3x + 4y ≤

100 and 4x + 3y ≤75 for x ≥ 0 and y ≥ 0 is

(a) 904

(b) 846

(c) 952

(d) 882


Page | 20

SECTION E: MENTAL ABILITY

Q81. In the following, a certain code is given. According to this code, “before West to

mailing” is written as “ad mi ja no”, “the West to Himalaya” is written as “ku ja

ig ad”. Also “mailing of the layout” is written as “be ku zo mi” and “to should of

changes” is written as “be Ii ya ja”, then, what is the code for “should”?

(a) be

(b) Ii

(c) ya

(d) ja

(e) Data insufficient

Q82. In a certain code language, “ISSUE” is written as “341145”, in the same code

language what will be the code for “DATES”?

(a) 4567

(b) 340045

(c) 4120519

(d) 7600

Q83. Pointing towards a man in the photograph, lady said "the father of his brother is

the only son of my mother". How is the man related to lady?

(a) Brother.

(b) Son

(c) Cousin.

(d) Nephew

Q84. A party consists of grandmother, father, mother, four sons and their wives and

one son and two daughters to each of the sons. How many females are there is all?

(a) 14

(b) 16

(c) 18

(d) 24


Page | 21

Q85. The time by watch is 15 minutes to 5'0 clock; find the angle between the hands of

the clock?

(a) 125.5

(b) 127.5

(c) 132.5

(d) 125

Q86. The calendar for the year 2007 will be the same for the year:

(a) 2014

(b) 2016

(c) 2017

(d) 2018

Q87. A clock gains 5 seconds for every 3 minutes. If the clock started working at 7 a.m.

in the morning, then what will be the time in the wrong clock at 4 p.m. on the same

day?

(a) 4:15 pm.

(b) 3:45pm

(c) .4:05 pm.

(d) none of these

Q88. Peacock : India :: Bear : ?

(a) Australia

(b) America

(c) Russia

(d) England

Q89. Country : President :: State : ?

(a) Governor

(b) M.P

(c) Legislator

(d) Minister


Page | 22

Q90. One morning Udai and Vishal were talking to each other face to face at a crossing.

If Vishal's shadow was exactly to the left of Udai, which direction was Udai facing?

(a) East

(b) West

(c) North

(d) South

Q91. A man walks 5 km toward south and then turns to the right. After walking 3 km

he turns to the left and walks 5 km. Now in which direction is he from the starting

place?

(a) West

(b) South

(c) North-East

(d) South-West

Q92. In each of the following questions two statements are given and these statements

are followed by two conclusions numbered (1) and (2). You have to take the given

two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly

known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions

logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known

facts.

1. Statements: Some actors are singers. All the singers are dancers.

2. Conclusions: Some actors are dancers. No singer is actor.

(a) Only (1) conclusion follows

(b) Only (2) conclusion follows

(c) Neither (1) nor (2) follows

(d) Both (1) and (2) follows

Q93. Statements: All the actors are girls. All the girls are beautiful.

Conclusions: All the actors are beautiful. Some girls are actors.

(a) Only (1) conclusion follows

(b) Only (2) conclusion follows

(c) Neither (1) nor (2) follows

(d) Both (1) and (2) follow


Page | 23

Q94. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Women,

Mothers and Engineers?

Q95. How many persons can speak English and Hindi both the languages only?

(a) 1

(b) 8

(c) 2

(d) None

Q96. Choose the box that is similar to the box formed from the given sheet of paper (X).

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only


Page | 24

Q97. Three different positions of a dice are shown below. How many dots lie opposite 2

dots?

(a) 1

(b) 3

(c) 5

(d) 6

Q98. Which number replace the question mark?

(a) 1

(b) 3

(c) 9

(d) 10

Q99. Which number replace the question mark?

(a) Q

(b) S

(c) T

(d) V


Page | 25

Q100. A, P, R, X, S and Z are sitting in a row. S and Z are in the centre. A and P are at

the ends. R is sitting to the left of A. Who is to the right of P?

(a) A

(b) X

(c) S

(d) Z


Page | 26

ANSWER KEY

1. c 2. b 3. c 4. c 5. c 6. d 7. a 8. d 9. a 10. d

11. a 12. b 13. b 14. d 15. a 16. d 17. d 18. a 19. c 20. a

21. b 22. c 23. c 24. c 25. d 26. b 27. a 28. b 29. a 30. b

31. c 32. b 33. b 34. c 35. b 36. b 37. b 38. c 39. c 40. d

41. b 42. c 43. a 44. a 45. c 46. c 47. c 48. c 49. c 50. c

51. a 52. c 53. a 54. c 55. b 56. d 57. a 58. a 59. c 60. d

61. d 62. d 63. c 64. b 65. b 66. a 67. d 68. a 69. b 70. a

71. d 72. a 73. a 74. b 75. c 76. a 77. c 78. b 79. c 80. a

81. e 82. d 83. d 84. a 85. b 86. d 87. a 88. c 89. a 90. c

91. d 92. a 93. e 94. a 95. d 96. b 97. c 98. c 99. c 100. b

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