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Interest Rate Theory Toronto 2010 Tomas Bj¨ork Tomas Bj¨ork, 2010

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Interest Rate Theory

Toronto 2010

Tomas Bjork

Tomas Bjork, 2010

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Contents

1. Mathematics recap. (Ch 10-12)

2. Recap of the martingale approach. (Ch 10-12)

3. Incomplete markets (Ch 15)

4. Bonds and short rate models. (Ch 22-23)

5. Martingale models for the short rate. (Ch 24)

6. Forward rate models. (Ch 25)

7. Change of numeraire. (Ch 26)

8. LIBOR market models. (Ch 27)

Bjork,T. Arbitrage Theory in Continuous Time.

3:rd ed. 2009. Oxford University Press.

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1.

Mathematics Recap

Ch. 10-12

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Contents

1. Conditional expectations

2. Changing measures

3. The Martingale Representation Theorem

4. The Girsanov Theorem

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1.

Conditional Expectation

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Conditional Expectation

If F is a sigma-algebra and X is a random variablewhich is F -measurable, we write this as X ∈ F .If X ∈ F and if G ⊆ F then we write E [X | G] for

the conditional expectation of X given the informationcontained in G. Sometimes we use the notation E G [X ].

The following proposition contains everything that wewill need to know about conditional expectations withinthis course.

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Main Results

Proposition 1: Assume that X ∈ F , and that G ⊆ F .Then the following hold.

• The random variable E [X| G] is completely determined by

the information in G so we have

E [X| G] ∈ G

• If we have Y ∈ G then Y is completely determined by G so

we have

E [XY | G] = Y E [X| G]

In particular we have

E [Y | G] = Y

• If H ⊆ G then we have the “law of iterated expectations”

E [E [X| G]| H] = E [X| H]

• In particular we have

E [X] = E [E [X| G]]

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2.

Changing Measures

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Absolute Continuity

Definition: Given two probability measures P and Qon F we say that Q is absolutely continuous w.r.t.P on F if, for all A ∈ F , we have

P (A) = 0

⇒ Q(A) = 0

We write this asQ << P.

If Q << P and P << Q then we say that P and Qare equivalent and write

Q ∼ P

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Equivalent measures

It is easy to see that P and Q are equivalent if andonly if

P (A) = 0 ⇔ Q(A) = 0

or, equivalently,

P (A) = 1 ⇔ Q(A) = 1

Two equivalent measures thus agree on all certainevents and on all impossible events, but can disagreeon all other events.

Simple examples:

• All non degenerate Gaussian distributions on R areequivalent.

• If P is Gaussian on R and Q is exponential then

Q << P but not the other way around.

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Absolute Continuity ct’d

Consider a given probability measure P and a randomvariable L ≥ 0 with E P [L] = 1. Now define Q by

Q(A) =

A

LdP

then it is easy to see that Q is a probability measureand that Q << P .

A natural question is now if all measures Q << P are obtained in this way. The answer is yes, and theprecise (quite deep) result is as follows.

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The Radon Nikodym Theorem

Consider two probability measures P and Q on (Ω, F ),and assume that Q << P on F . Then there exists aunique random variable L with the following properties

1. Q(A) = A LdP,

∀A

∈ F 2. L ≥ 0, P − a.s.

3. E P [L] = 1,

4. L

∈ F The random variable L is denoted as

L = dQ

dP , on F

and it is called the Radon-Nikodym derivative of Qw.r.t. P on F , or the likelihood ratio between Q andP on F .

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A simple example

The Radon-Nikodym derivative L is intuitively the localscale factor between P and Q. If the sample space Ωis finite so Ω = ω1, . . . , ωn then P is determined bythe probabilities p1, . . . , pn where

pi = P (ωi) i = 1, . . . , n

Now consider a measure Q with probabilities

q i = Q(ωi) i = 1, . . . , n

If Q << P this simply says that

pi = 0 ⇒ q i = 0

and it is easy to see that the Radon-Nikodym derivative

L = dQ/dP is given by

L(ωi) = q i pi

i = 1, . . . , n

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If pi = 0 then we also have q i = 0 and we can definethe ratio q i/pi arbitrarily.

If p1, . . . , pn as well as q 1, . . . , q n are all positive, thenwe see that Q ∼ P and in fact

dP

dQ =

1

L =

dQ

dP −1

as could be expected.

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Computing expected values

A main use of Radon-Nikodym derivatives is for thecomputation of expected values.

Suppose therefore that Q << P on F and that X isa random variable with X ∈ F . With L = dQ/dP on

F then have the following result.

Proposition 3: With notation as above we have

E Q [X ] = E P [L · X ]

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The Abstract Bayes’ Formula

We can also use Radon-Nikodym derivatives in order tocompute conditional expectations. The result, knownas the abstract Bayes’ Formula, is as follows.

Theorem 4: Consider two measures P and Q withQ << P on

F and with

LF = dQ

dP on F

Assume that G ⊆ F and let X be a random variablewith X

∈ F . Then the following holds

E Q [X | G] = E P

LF X

GE P [LF | G]

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Dependence of the σ-algebra

Suppose that we have Q << P on F with

LF = dQ

dP on F

Now consider smaller σ-algebra G ⊆ F . Our problem

is to find the R-N derivative

LG = dQ

dP on G

We recall that LG is characterized by the following

properties

1. Q(A) = E P

LG · I A ∀A ∈ G

2. LG ≥ 0

3. E P

LG

= 1

4. LG ∈ G

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A natural guess would perhaps be that LG = LF , solet us check if LF satisfies points 1-4 above.

By assumption we have

Q(A) = E P

LF · I A

∀A ∈ F

Since G ⊆ F we then have

Q(A) = E P

LF · I A ∀A ∈ G

so point 1 above is certainly satisfied by LF . It isalso clear that LF satisfies points 2 and 3. It thusseems that LF is also a natural candidate for the R-Nderivative LG, but the problem is that we do not ingeneral have LF ∈ G.

This problem can, however, be fixed. By iterated

expectations we have, for all A ∈ G,

E P

LF · I A

= E P

E P

LF · I AG

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Since A ∈ G we have

E P

LF · I AG = E P

LF

G I A

Let us now define LG by

LG = E P LF

GWe then obviously have LG ∈ G and

Q(A) = E P

LG · I A ∀A ∈ G

It is easy to see that also points 2-3 are satisfied so we

have proved the following result.

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A formula for LG

Proposition 5: If Q << P on F and G ⊆ F then,with notation as above, we have

LG = E P LF G

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The likelihood process on a filtered space

We now consider the case when we have a probabilitymeasure P on some space Ω and that instead of justone σ-algebra F we have a filtration, i.e. an increasingfamily of σ-algebras F tt≥0.

The interpretation is as usual that F t is the informationavailable to us at time t, and that we have

F s ⊆ F tfor s ≤ t.

Now assume that we also have another measure Q,and that for some fixed T , we have Q << P on F T .We define the random variable LT by

LT = dQdP on F T

Since Q << P on F T we also have Q << P on F tfor all t ≤ T and we define

Lt = dQ

dP

on

F t 0

≤t

≤T

For every t we have Lt ∈ F t, so L is an adaptedprocess, known as the likelihood process.

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The L process is a P martingale

We recall that

Lt = dQ

dP on F t 0 ≤ t ≤ T

Since F s ⊆ F t for s ≤ t we can use Proposition 5 anddeduce that

Ls = E P [Lt| F s] s ≤ t ≤ T

and we have thus proved the following result.

Proposition: Given the assumptions above, thelikelihood process L is a P -martingale.

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Where are we heading?

We are now going to perform measure transformationson Wiener spaces, where P will correspond to theobjective measure and Q will be the risk neutralmeasure.

For this we need define the proper likelihood process Land, since L is a P -martingale, we have the followingnatural questions.

• What does a martingale look like in a Wiener drivenframework?

• Suppose that we have a P -Wiener process W andthen change measure from P to Q. What are theproperties of W under the new measure Q?

These questions are handled by the Martingale

Representation Theorem, and the Girsanov Theoremrespectively.

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3.

The Martingale Representation Theorem

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Intuition

Suppose that we have a Wiener process W underthe measure P . We recall that if h is adapted (andintegrable enough) and if the process X is defined by

X t = x

0 + t

0

hs

dW s

then X is a a martingale. We now have the followingnatural question:

Question: Assume that X is an arbitrary martingale.

Does it then follow that X has the form

X t = x0 +

t0

hsdW s

for some adapted process h?

In other words: Are all martingales stochastic integralsw.r.t. W ?

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Answer

It is immediately clear that all martingales can not bewritten as stochastic integrals w.r.t. W . Consider forexample the process X defined by

X t =

0 for 0 ≤ t < 1Z for t ≥ 1

where Z is an random variable, independent of W ,with E [Z ] = 0.

X is then a martingale (why?) but it is clear (how?)that it cannot be written as

X t = x0 +

t0

hsdW s

for any process h.

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Intuition

The intuitive reason why we cannot write

X t = x0 + t

0

hsdW s

in the example above is of course that the randomvariable Z “has nothing to do with” the Wiener processW . In order to exclude examples like this, we thus needan assumption which guarantees that our probabilityspace only contains the Wiener process W and nothing

else.

This idea is formalized by assuming that the filtrationF tt≥0 is the one generated by the Wienerprocess W .

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The Martingale Representation Theorem

Theorem. Let W be a P -Wiener process and assumethat the filtation is the internal one i.e.

F t =

F W t = σ

W s; 0

≤s

≤t

Then, for every (P, F t)-martingale X , there exists areal number x and an adapted process h such that

X t = x + t

0

hsdW s,

i.e.dX t = htdW t.

Proof: Hard. This is very deep result.

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Note

For a given martingale X , the Representation Theoremabove guarantees the existence of a process h such that

X t = x + t

0 hsdW s,

The Theorem does not, however, tell us how to findor construct the process h.

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4.

The Girsanov Theorem

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Setup

Let W be a P -Wiener process and fix a time horizonT . Suppose that we want to change measure from P to Q on F T . For this we need a P -martingale L withL0 = 1 to use as a likelihood process, and a naturalway of constructing this is to choose a process g andthen define L by

dLt = gtdW t

L0 = 1

This definition does not guarantee that L ≥ 0, so we

make a small adjustment. We choose a process ϕ anddefine L by

dLt = LtϕtdW t

L0 = 1

The process L will again be a martingale and we easilyobtain

Lt = eR t

0 ϕsdW s−12

R t0 ϕ

2sds

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Thus we are guaranteed that L ≥

0. We now changemeasure form P to Q by setting

dQ = LtdP, on F t, 0 ≤ t ≤ T

The main problem is to find out what the propertiesof W are, under the new measure Q. This problem isresolved by the Girsanov Theorem.

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Changing the drift in an SDE

The single most common use of the Girsanov Theoremis as follows.

Suppose that we have a process X with P dynamics

dX t = µtdt + σtdW t

where µ and σ are adapted and W is P -Wiener.

We now do a Girsanov Transformation as above, andthe question is what the Q-dynamics look like.

From the Girsanov Theorem we have

dW t = ϕtdt + dW Qt

and substituting this into the P -dynamics we obtainthe Q dynamics as

dX t =

µt + σtϕt

dt + σtdW Q

t

Moral: The drift changes but the diffusion isunaffected.

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The Converse of the Girsanov Theorem

Let W be a P -Wiener process. Fix a time horizon T .

Theorem. Assume that:

• Q << P on F T , with likelihood process

Lt = dQ

dP , on F t 0, ≤ t ≤ T

• The filtation is the internal one .i.e.

F t = σ W s; 0 ≤ s ≤ t

Then there exists a process ϕ such that

dLt = LtϕtdW t

L0 = 1

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2.

The Martingale Approach

Ch. 10-12

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Financial Markets

Price Processes:

S t =

S 0t ,...,S N t

Example: (Black-Scholes, S 0 := B, S 1 := S )

dS t = αS tdt + σS tdW t,

dBt = rBtdt.

Portfolio:ht = h0

t ,...,hN t

hit = number of units of asset i at time t.

Value Process:

V ht =N i=0

hitS it = htS t

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Self Financing Portfolios

Definition: (intuitive)A portfolio is self-financing if there is no exogenousinfusion or withdrawal of money. “The purchase of anew asset must be financed by the sale of an old one.”

Definition: (mathematical)A portfolio is self-financing if the value processsatisfies

dV t =

N

i=0

hi

tdS i

t

Major insight:If the price process S is a martingale, and if h isself-financing, then V is a martingale.

NB! This simple observation is in fact the basis of thefollowing theory.

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Arbitrage

The portfolio u is an arbitrage portfolio if

• The portfolio strategy is self financing.

• V 0 = 0.

• V T ≥ 0, P − a.s.

• P (V T > 0) > 0

Main Question: When is the market free of arbitrage?

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First Attempt

Proposition: If S 0t , · · · , S N t are P -martingales, then

the market is free of arbitrage.

Proof:Assume that V is an arbitrage strategy. Since

dV t =N i=0

hitdS it,

V is a P -martingale, so

V 0 = E P [V T ] > 0.

This contradicts V 0 = 0.

True, but useless.

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Example: (Black-Scholes)

dS t = αS tdt + σS tdW t,

dBt = rBtdt.

(We would have to assume that α = r = 0)

We now try to improve on this result.

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Choose S0 as numeraire

Definition:The normalized price vector Z is given by

Z t =

S tS 0t =

1, Z

1t ,...,Z

N

t

The normalized value process V Z is given by

V Z

t

=N

0

hi

t

Z i

t

.

Idea:The arbitrage and self financing concepts should beindependent of the accounting unit.

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Invariance of numeraire

Proposition: One can show (see the book) that

• S -arbitrage ⇐⇒ Z -arbitrage.

• S -self-financing ⇐⇒ Z -self-financing.

Insight:

• If h self-financing then

dV Z t =

N 1

hitdZ

it

• Thus, if the normalized price process Z is a P -martingale, then V Z is a martingale.

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Second Attempt

Proposition: If Z 0t , · · · , Z N t are P -martingales, then

the market is free of arbitrage.

True, but still fairly useless.

Example: (Black-Scholes)

dS t = αS tdt + σS tdW t,

dBt = rBtdt.

dZ 1t = (α − r)Z 1t dt + σZ 1t dW t,

dZ 0t = 0dt.

We would have to assume “risk-neutrality”, i.e. thatα = r.

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Arbitrage

Recall that h is an arbitrage if

• h is self financing

• V 0 = 0.

• V T ≥ 0, P − a.s.

• P (V T > 0) > 0

Major insight

This concept is invariant under an equivalent changeof measure!

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Martingale Measures

Definition: A probability measure Q is called anequivalent martingale measure (EMM) if and onlyif it has the following properties.

• Q and P are equivalent, i.e.

Q ∼ P

• The normalized price processes

Z it = S itS 0t

, i = 0, . . . , N

are Q-martingales.

Wan now state the main result of arbitrage theory.

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First Fundamental Theorem

Theorem: The market is arbitrage free

iff

there exists an equivalent martingale measure.

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Comments

• It is very easy to prove that existence of EMMimples no arbitrage (see below).

• The other imnplication is technically very hard.

• For discrete time and finite sample space Ω the hardpart follows easily from the separation theorem forconvex sets.

• For discrete time and more general sample space weneed the Hahn-Banach Theorem.

• For continuous time the proof becomes technicallyvery hard, mainly due to topological problems. Seethe textbook.

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Proof that EMM implies no arbitrage

This is basically done above. Assume that there existsan EMM denoted by Q. Assume that P (V T ≥ 0) = 1and P (V T > 0) > 0. Then, since P ∼ Q we also haveQ(V T ≥ 0) = 1 and Q(V T > 0) > 0.

Recall:

dV Z t =

N 1

hitdZ it

Q is a martingale measure

V Z is a Q-martingale

V 0 = V Z 0 = E Q

V Z T

> 0

⇓No arbitrage

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Choice of Numeraire

The numeraire price S 0t can be chosen arbitrarily. Themost common choice is however that we choose S 0 asthe bank account, i.e.

S 0t = Bt

wheredBt = rtBtdt

Here r is the (possibly stochastic) short rate and we

have

Bt = eR t

0 rsds

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Example: The Black-Scholes Model

dS t = αS tdt + σS tdW t,

dBt = rBtdt.

Look for martingale measure. We set Z = S/B.

dZ t = Z t(α − r)dt + Z tσdW t,

Girsanov transformation on [0, T ]:

dLt = LtϕtdW t,

L0 = 1.

dQ = LT dP, on F T Girsanov:

dW t = ϕtdt + dW Qt ,

where W Q is a Q-Wiener process.

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The Q-dynamics for Z are given by

dZ t = Z t [α − r + σϕt] dt + Z tσdW Qt .

Unique martingale measure Q, with Girsanov kernel

given byϕt =

r − α

σ .

Q-dynamics of S :

dS t = rS tdt + σS tdW Qt .

Conclusion: The Black-Scholes model is free of arbitrage.

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Pricing

We consider a market Bt, S 1t , . . . , S N t .

Definition:A contingent claim with delivery time T , is a randomvariable

X ∈ F

T .

“At t = T the amount X is paid to the holder of theclaim”.

Example: (European Call Option)

X = max [S T − K, 0]

Let X be a contingent T -claim.

Problem: How do we find an arbitrage free priceprocess Πt [X ] for X ?

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Solution

The extended market

Bt, S 1t , . . . , S N t , Πt [X ]

must be arbitrage free, so there must exist a martingale

measure Q for (Bt, S t, Πt [X ]). In particular

Πt [X ]

Bt

must be a Q-martingale, i.e.

Πt [X ]

Bt

= E Q

ΠT [X ]

BT

F t

Since we obviously (why?) have

ΠT [X ] = X

we have proved the main pricing formula.

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Risk Neutral Valuation

Theorem: For a T -claim X , the arbitrage free price isgiven by the formula

Πt [X ] = E

Q e

−R T t rsds

× X F t

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Problem

Recall the valuation formula

Πt [X ] = E Q e−R T t rsds × X F t

What if there are several different martingale measuresQ?

This is connected with the completeness of themarket.

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Hedging

Def: A portfolio is a hedge against X (“replicatesX ”) if

• h is self financing

• V T = X, P − a.s.

Def: The market is complete if every X can behedged.

Pricing Formula:If h replicates X , then a natural way of pricing X is

Πt [X ] = V ht

When can we hedge?

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Existence of hedge

Existence of stochastic integralrepresentation

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Fix T -claim X .

If h is a hedge for X then

• V Z T = XBT

• h is self financing, i.e.

dV Z t =K 1

hitdZ it

Thus V Z is a Q-martingale.

V Z t = E Q

X

BT

F t

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Lemma:Fix T -claim X . Define martingale M by

M t = E Q

X

Bt

F t

Suppose that there exist predictable processesh1, · · · , hN such that

M t = x +N

i=1

t

0

hisdZ is,

Then X can be replicated.

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Proof

We guess that

M t = V Z t = hBt · 1 +

N i=1

hitZ it

Define: hB

by

hBt = M t −

N i=1

hitZ it.

We have M t = V

Z

t , and we get

dV Z t = dM t =N i=1

hitdZti,

so the portfolio is self financing. Furthermore:

V Z T = M T = E Q

X

BT

F T

= X

BT

.

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Second Fundamental Theorem

The second most important result in arbitrage theoryis the following.

Theorem:

The market is complete

iff

the martingale measure Q is unique.

Proof: It is obvious (why?) that if the marketis complete, then Q must be unique. The otherimplication is very hard to prove. It basically relies onduality arguments from functional analysis.

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Black-Scholes Model

Q-dynamics

dS t = rS tdt + σS tdW Qt ,

dZ t = Z tσdW Qt

M t = E Q

e−rT X F t

,

Representation theorem for Wiener processes

⇓there exists g such that

M t = M (0) +

t0

gsdW Qs .

Thus

M t = M 0 + t

0h1sdZ s,

with h1t = gt

σZ t.

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Result:X can be replicated using the portfolio defined by

h1t = gt/σZ t,

hBt = M t − h1

tZ t.

Moral: The Black Scholes model is complete.

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Special Case: Simple Claims

Assume X is of the form X = Φ(S T )

M t = E Q

e−rT Φ(S T )F t

,

Kolmogorov backward equation ⇒ M t = f (t, S t)

∂f

∂t + rs∂f

∂s + 1

2σ2

s2∂

2f

∂s2 = 0,f (T, s) = e−rT Φ(s).

Ito ⇒dM t = σS t

∂f

∂sdW Qt ,

so

gt = σS t · ∂f ∂s

,

Replicating portfolio h:

hBt = f − S t

∂f

∂s,

h1t = Bt

∂f

∂s .

Interpretation: f (t, S t) = V Z t .

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Define F (t, s) by

F (t, s) = ertf (t, s)

so F (t, S t) = V t. Then

hB

t = F (t,S t)−S t

∂F ∂s

(t,S t)

Bt,

h1t = ∂F

∂s(t, S t)

where F solves the Black-Scholes equation

∂F ∂t

+ rs∂F ∂s

+ 12σ2s2∂ 2F

∂s2 − rF = 0,F (T, s) = Φ(s).

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Main Results

• The market is arbitrage free ⇔ There exists amartingale measure Q

• The market is complete ⇔ Q is unique.

• Every X must be priced by the formula

Πt [X ] = E Q

e−R T t rsds × X

F t

for some choice of Q.

• In a non-complete market, different choices of Qwill produce different prices for X .

• For a hedgeable claim X, all choices of Q willproduce the same price for X:

Πt [X ] = V t = E Q

e−R T t rsds × X

F t

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Completeness vs No Arbitrage

Rule of Thumb

Question:When is a model arbitrage free and/or complete?

Answer:Count the number of risky assets, and the number of random sources.

R = number of random sources

N = number of risky assets

Intuition:If N is large, compared to R, you have lots of possibilities of forming clever portfolios. Thus lotsof chances of making arbitrage profits. Also many

chances of replicating a given claim.

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Rule of thumb

Generically, the following hold.

• The market is arbitrage free if and only if

N ≤ R

• The market is complete if and only if

N ≥ R

Example:The Black-Scholes model.

dS t = αS tdt + σS tdW t,

dBt = rBtdt.

For B-S we have N = R = 1. Thus the Black-Scholesmodel is arbitrage free and complete.

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Stochastic Discount Factors

Given a model under P . For every EMM Q we definethe corresponding Stochastic Discount Factor, orSDF, by

Dt = e−R t

0 rsdsLt,

whereLt =

dQ

dP , on F t

There is thus a one-to-one correspondence betweenEMMs and SDFs.

The risk neutral valuation formula for a T -claim X cannow be expressed under P instead of under Q.

Proposition: With notation as above we have

Πt [X ] = 1

Dt

E P [DT X

| F t]

Proof: Bayes’ formula.

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3.

Incomplete Markets

Ch. 15

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Derivatives on Non Financial Underlying

Recall: The Black-Scholes theory assumes that themarket for the underlying asset has (among otherthings) the following properties.

• The underlying is a liquidly traded asset.

• Shortselling allowed.

• Portfolios can be carried forward in time.

There exists a large market for derivatives, where the

underlying does not satisfy these assumptions.

Examples:

• Weather derivatives.

• Derivatives on electric energy.

• CAT-bonds.

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Typical Contracts

Weather derivatives:“Heating degree days”. Payoff at maturity T isgiven by

Z = max X T − 30, 0

where X T is the (mean) temperature at some place.

Electricity option:The right (but not the obligation) to buy, at timeT , at a predetermined price K , a constant flow of energy over a predetermined time interval.

CAT bond:A bond for which the payment of coupons andnominal value is contingent on some (well specified)natural disaster to take place.

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Problems

Weather derivatives:The temperature is not the price of a traded asset.

Electricity derivatives:

Electric energy cannot easily be stored.

CAT-bonds:Natural disasters are not traded assets.

We will treat all these problems within a factor model.

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Typical Factor Model Setup

Given:

• An underlying factor process X , which is not theprice process of a traded asset, with dynamics under

the objective probability measure P as

dX t = µ (t, X t) dt + σ (t, X t) dW t.

• A risk free asset with dynamics

dBt = rBtdt,

Problem:Find arbitrage free price Πt [Z ] of a derivative of the

form Z = Φ(X T )

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Concrete Examples

Assume that X t is the temperature at time t at thevillage of Peniche (Portugal).

Heating degree days:

Φ(X T ) = 100 · max X T − 30, 0

Holiday Insurance:

Φ(X T ) =

1000, if X T < 20

0, if X T ≥ 20

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Question

Is the price Πt [Φ] uniquely determined by the P -dynamics of X , and the requirement of an arbitragefree derivatives market?

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NO!!

WHY?

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Stock Price Model ∼ Factor Model

Black-Scholes:

dS t = µS tdt + σS tdW t,

dBt = rBtdt.

Factor Model:

dX t = µ(t, X t)dt + σ(t, X t)dW t,

dBt = rBtdt.

What is the difference?

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Answer

• X is not the price of a traded asset!

• We can not form a portfolio based on X .

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1. Rule of thumb:

N = 0, (no risky asset)R = 1, (one source of randomness, W )

We have N < R. The exogenously given market,consisting only of B, is incomplete.

2. Replicating portfolios:We can only invest money in the bank, and then sitdown passively and wait.

We do not have enough underlying assets in orderto price X -derivatives.

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• There is not a unique price for a particularderivative.

• In order to avoid arbitrage, different derivativeshave to satisfy internal consistency relations.

• If we take one “benchmark” derivative as given,then all other derivatives can be priced in terms of the market price of the benchmark.

We consider two given claims Φ(X T ) and Γ(X T ). Weassume they are traded with prices

Πt [Φ] = f (t, X t)

Πt [Γ] = g(t, X t)

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Program:

• Form portfolio based on Φ and Γ. Use Ito on f andg to get portfolio dynamics.

dV = V

uf df

f + ugdg

g

• Choose portfolio weights such that the dW − termvanishes. Then we have

dV = V

·kdt,

(“synthetic bank” with k as the short rate)

• Absence of arbitrage implies

k = r

• Read off the relation k = r!

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From Ito:df = f µf dt + f σf dW,

where µf =

f t+µf x+12σ

2f xxf

,

σf = σf xf

.

Portfolio dynamics

dV = V

uf df

f + ugdg

g

.

Reshuffling terms gives us

dV = V · uf µf + ugµg

dt + V · uf σf + ugσg

dW.

Let the portfolio weights solve the system

uf + ug = 1,

uf σf + ugσg = 0.

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uf = −

σg

σf − σg

,

ug = σf

σf − σg

,

Portfolio dynamics

dV = V · uf µf + ugµg

dt.

i.e.

dV = V ·µgσf − µf σg

σf

−σg dt.

Absence of arbitrage requires

µgσf − µf σg

σf − σg

= r

which can be written asµg − r

σg

= µf − r

σf

.

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µg − r

σg

= µf − r

σf

.

Note!The quotient does not depend upon the particular

choice of contract.

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Result

Assume that the market for X -derivatives is free of arbitrage. Then there exists a universal process λ,such that

µf (t) − r

σf (t) = λ(t, X t),

holds for all t and for every choice of contract f .

NB: The same λ for all choices of f .

λ = Risk premium per unit of volatility= “Market Price of Risk” (cf. CAPM).= Sharpe Ratio

Slogan:“On an arbitrage free market all X -derivatives havethe same market price of risk.”

The relationµf − r

σf

= λ

is actually a PDE!

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Pricing Equation

f t + µ − λσ f x + 1

2σ2f xx − rf = 0

f (T, x) = Φ(x),

P -dynamics:

dX = µ(t, X )dt + σ(t, X )dW.

Can we solve the PDE?

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No!!

Why??

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Answer

Recall the PDE

f t + µ − λσ f x + 1

2σ2f xx − rf = 0

f (T, x) = Φ(x),

• In order to solve the PDE we need to know λ.

• λ is not given exogenously.

• λ is not determined endogenously.

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Question:

Who determines λ?

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Answer:

THE MARKET!

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Interpreting λ

Recall that the f dynamics are

df = f µf dt + f σf dW t

and λ is defined as

µf (t) − rσf (t)

= λ(t, X t),

• λ measures the aggregate risk aversion in the

market.

• If λ is big then the market is highly risk averse.

• If λ is zero then the market is risk netural.

• If you make an assumption about λ, then youimplicitly make an assumption about the aggregaterisk aversion of the market.

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Moral

• Since the market is incomplete the requirement of an arbitrage free market will not lead to uniqueprices for X -derivatives.

• Prices on derivatives are determined by two mainfactors.

1. Partly by the requirement of an arbitrage freederivative market. All pricing functions satisfiesthe same PDE.

2. Partly by supply and demand on the market.These are in turn determined by attitude towardsrisk, liquidity consideration and other factors. Allthese are aggregated into the particular λ used(implicitly) by the market.

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Risk Neutral Valuation

We recall the PDE

f t + µ − λσ f x + 1

2σ2f xx − rf = 0

f (T, x) = Φ(x),

Using Feynman-Kac we obtain a risk neutral valuationformula.

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Risk Neutral Valuation

f (t, x) = e−r(T −t)E Qt,x [Φ(X T )]

Q-dynamics:

dX t = µ − λσ dt + σdW Qt

• Price = expected value of future payments

• The expectation should not be taken under the“objective” probabilities P , but under the “riskadjusted” probabilities Q.

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Interpretation of the risk adjusted

probabilities

• The risk adjusted probabilities can be interpreted asprobabilities in a (fictuous) risk neutral world.

• When we compute prices, we can calculate as if we live in a risk neutral world.

• This does not mean that we live in, or think thatwe live in, a risk neutral world.

• The formulas above hold regardless of the attitudetowards risk of the investor, as long as he/she prefersmore to less.

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Diversification argument about λ

• If the risk factor is idiosyncratic and diversifiable,then one can argue that the factor should not bepriced by the market. Compare with APT.

• Mathematically this means that λ = 0, i.e. P = Q,i.e. the risk neutral distribution coincides withthe objective distribution.

• We thus have the “actuarial pricing formula”

f (t, x) = e−r(T −t)

E P

t,x [Φ(X T )]

where we use the objective probabiliy measure P .

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Modeling Issues

Temperature:A standard model is given by

dX t = m(t) − bX t dt + σdW t,

where m is the mean temperature capturingseasonal variations. This often works reasonably

well.

Electricity:A (naive) model for the spot electricity price is

dS t = S t

m(t)

−a ln S t

dt + σS tdW t

This implies lognormal prices (why?). Electrictyprices are however very far from lognormal, becauseof “spikes” in the prices. Complicated.

CAT bonds:

Here we have to use the theory of point processesand the theory of extremal statistics to modelnatural disasters. Complicated.

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Martingale Analysis

Model: Under P we have

dX t = µ (t, X t) dt + σ (t, X t) dW t,

dBt

= rBtdt,

We look for martingale measures. Since B is the onlytraded asset we need to find Q ∼ P such that

Bt

Bt = 1

is a Q martingale.

Result: In this model, every Q ∼ P is a martingalemeasure.

GirsanovdLt = LtϕtdW t

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P -dynamics

dX t = µ (t, X t) dt + σ (t, X t) dW t,

dLt = LtϕtdW t

dQ = LtdP on F tGirsanov:

dW t = ϕtdt + dW Qt

Martingale pricing:

F (t, x) = e−r(T −t)E Q [Z | F t]

Q-dynamics of X :

dX t = µ (t, X t) + σ (t, X t) ϕt dt + σ (t, X t) dW Qt ,

Result: We have λt = −ϕt, i.e,. the Girsanov kernelϕ equals minus the market price of risk.

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Several Risk Factors

We recall the dynamics of the f -derivative

df = f µf dt + f σf dW t

and the Market Price of Risk

µf − r

σf

= λ, i.e. µf − r = λσf .

In a multifactor model of the type

dX t = µ (t, X t) dt +

ni=1

σi (t, X t) dW it ,

it follows from Girsanov that for every risk factor W i

there will exist a market price of risk λi = −ϕi suchthat

µf − r =

ni=1

λiσi

Compare with CAPM.

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4.

Bonds and Interest Rates.

Short Rate Models

Ch. 22-23

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Definitions

Bonds:T -bond = zero coupon bond, paying $1 at the date of maturity T .

p(t, T ) = price, at t, of a T -bond.

p(T, T ) = 1.

Main Problem

• Investigate the term structure, i.e. how prices of bonds with different dates of maturity are relatedto each other.

• Compute arbitrage free prices of interest ratederivatives (bond options, swaps, caps, floors etc.)

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Risk Free Interest Rates

At time t:

• Sell one S -bond

• Buy exactly p(t, S )/p(t, T ) T

−bonds

• Net investment at t: $0.

At time S:

• Pay $1

At time T:

• Collect $ p(t, S )/p(t, T ) · 1

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Net Effect

• The contract is made at t.

• An investment of 1 at time S has yielded p(t, S )/p(t, T ) at time T .

• The equivalent constant rates, R, are given as thesolutions to

Continuous rate:

eR·(T −S ) · 1 = p(t, S )

p(t, T )

Simple rate:

[1 + R · (T − S )] · 1 = p(t, S ) p(t, T )

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Continuous Interest Rates

1. The forward rate for the period [S, T ],contracted at t is defined by

R(t; S, T ) = −log p(t, T ) − log p(t, S )

T −

S .

2. The spot rate, R(S, T ), for the period [S, T ] isdefined by

R(S, T ) = R(S ; S, T ).

3. The instantaneous forward rate at T , conractedat t is defined by

f (t, T ) = −∂ log p(t, T )

∂T = lim

S →T R(t; S, T ).

4. The instantaneous short rate at t is defined by

r(t) = f (t, t).

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Simple Rates (LIBOR)

1. The simple forward rate L(t;S,T)for the period[S, T ], contracted at t is defined by

L(t; S, T ) = 1T − S

· p(t, S ) − p(t, T ) p(t, T )

2. The simple spot rate, L(S, T ), for the period[S, T ] is defined by

L(S, T ) = 1

T − S · 1 − p(S, T )

p(S, T )

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Practical Formula (LIBOR)

The simple spot rate, L(T, T + δ ), for the period[T, T + δ ] is given by

p(T, T + δ ) =

1

1 + δL(T, T + δ )

i.e.

L = 1

δ · 1 − p

p

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Bond prices ∼ forward rates

p(t, T ) = p(t, s) · exp

− T s

f (t, u)du

,

In particular we have

p(t, T ) = exp

− T t

f (t, s)ds

.

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Interest Rate Options

Problem:We want to price, at t, a European Call, with exercisedate S , and strike price K , on an underlying T -bond.(t < S < T ).

Naive approach: Use Black-Scholes’s formula.

F (t, p) = pN [d1] − e−r(S −t)KN [d2] .

d1 = 1σ√

S − t

ln

pK

+

r + 12

σ2

(S − t)

,

d2 = d1 − σ√

S − t.

where

p = p(t, T )

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Is this allowed?

• p shall be the price of a traded asset. OK!

• The volatility of p must be constant. Here we have

a problem because of pull-to-par, i.e. the fact that p(T, T ) = 1. Bond volatilities will tend to zero asthe bond approaches the time of maturity.

• The short rate must be constant anddeterministic. Here the approach collapses

completely, since the whole point of studyingbond prices lies in the fact that interest rates arestochastic.

There is some hope in the case when the remainingtime to exercise the option is small in relation to the

remaining time to maturity of the underlying bond(why?).

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Deeply felt need

A consistent arbitrage free model for thebond market

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Stochastic interest rates

We assume that the short rate r is a stochastic process.

Money in the bank will then grow according to:

dB(t) = r(t)B(t)dt,B(0) = 1.

i.e.

B(t) = eR t

0 r(s)ds

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Models for the short rate

Model: (In reality)

P:

dr = µ(t, r)dt + σ(t, r)dW,

dB = r(t)Bdt.

Question: Are bond prices uniquely determinedby the P -dynamics of r, and the requirement of anarbitrage free bond market?

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NO!!

WHY?

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Stock Models ∼ Interest Rates

Black-Scholes:

dS = αSdt + σSdw,

dB = rBdt.

Interest Rates:

dr = µ(t, r)dt + σ(t, r)dW,

dB = rtBdt.

Question: What is the difference?

Answer: The short rate r is not the price of atraded asset!

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1. Meta-Theorem:

N = 0, (no risky asset)R = 1, (one source of randomness, W )

We have M < R. The exongenously given market,consisting only of B, is incomplete.

2. Replicating portfolios:We can only invest money in the bank, and then sitdown passively and wait.

We do not have enough underlying assets in orderto price bonds.

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• There is not a unique price for a particularT −bond.

• In order to avoid arbitrage, bonds of differentmaturities have to satisfy internal consistency

relations.

• If we take one “benchmark” T 0-bond as given, thenall other bonds can be priced in terms of the marketprice of the benchmark bond.

Assumption:

p(t, T ) = F (t, rt; T )

p(t, T ) = F T (t, rt),

F T (T, r) = 1.

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Program

• Form portfolio based on T − and S −bonds. Use Itoon F T (t, r(t)) to get bond- and portfolio dynamics.

dV = V

uT dF T

F T + uS dF

S

F S

• Choose portfolio weights such that the dW − termvanishes. Then we have

dV = V · kdt,

(“synthetic bank” with k as the short rate)

• Absence of arbitrage ⇒ k = r .

• Read off the relation k = r!

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From Ito:

dF T = F T αT dt + F T σT d W ,

where

αT = F T t +µF T r +1

2σ2F T rr

F T ,

σT = σF

T

rF T .

Portfolio dynamics

dV = V

uT dF T

F T + uS dF S

F S

.

Reshuffling terms gives us

dV = V ·uT αT + uS αS

dt+V ·uT σT + uS σS

dW.

Let the portfolio weights solve the system uT + uS = 1,

uT σT + uS σS = 0.

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uT = − σS

σT −σS ,

uS = σT σT −σS

,

Portfolio dynamics

dV = V · u

T

αT + u

S

αS

dt.

i.e.

dV = V ·

αS σT − αT σS

σT − σS

dt.

Absence of arbitrage requires

αS σT − αT σS

σT − σS

= r

which can be written as

αS (t) − r(t)σS (t)

= αT (t) − r(t)σT (t)

.

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αS (t) − r(t)

σS (t) =

αT (t) − r(t)

σT (t) .

Note!The quotient does not depend upon the particular

choice of maturity date.

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Result

Assume that the bond market is free of arbitrage. Thenthere exists a universal process λ, such that

αT (t)

−r(t)

σT (t) = λ(t),

holds for all t and for every choice of maturity T .

NB: The same λ for all choices of T .

λ = Risk premium per unit of volatility

= “Market Price of Risk” (cf. CAPM).

Slogan:“On an arbitrage free market all bonds have the samemarket price of risk.”

The relationαT − r

σT

= λ

is actually a PDE!

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The Term Structure Equation

F T t + µ − λσ F T r + 1

2σ2F T rr − rF T = 0,

F T

(T, r) = 1.

P -dynamics:

dr = µ(t, r)dt + σ(t, r)dW.

λ = αT − r

σT

, for all T

In order to solve the TSE we need to know λ.

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General Term Structure Equation

Contingent claim:

X = Φ(r(T ))

Result:The price is given by

Π [t; X ] = F (t, r(t))

where F solves

F t + µ − λσ F r + 1

2σ2F rr − rF = 0,

F (T, r) = Φ(r).

In order to solve the TSE we need to know λ.

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Who determines λ?

THE MARKET!

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Moral

• Since the market is incomplete the requirement of an arbitrage free bond market will not lead to uniquebond prices.

• Prices on bonds and other interest rate derivativesare determined by two main factors.

1. Partly by the requirement of an arbitrage freebond market (the pricing functions satisfies theTSE).

2. Partly by supply and demand on the market.These are in turn determined by attitude towardsrisk, liquidity consideration and other factors. Allthese are aggregated into the particular λ used(implicitly) by the market.

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Risk Neutral Valuation

Using Feynmac–Kac we obtain

F (t, r; T ) = E Qt,r e−R T t r(s)ds × 1 .

Q-dynamics:

dr =

µ

−λσ

dt + σdW

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Risk Neutral Valuation

Π [t; X ] = E Qt,r

e−

R T t r(s)ds × X

Q-dynamics:

dr = µ − λσdt + σdW

• Price = expected value of future payments

• The expectation should not be taken under the“objective” probabilities P , but under the “riskadjusted” probabilities Q.

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Interpetation of the risk adjusted

probabilities

• The risk adjusted probabilities can be interpreted asprobabilities in a (fictuous) risk neutral world.

• When we compute prices, we can calculate as if we live in a risk neutral world.

• This does not mean that we live in, or think thatwe live in, a risk neutral world.

• The formulas above hold regardless of the attitudetowards risk of the investor, as long as he/she prefersmore to less.

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Martingale Analysis

Model: Under P we have

drt = µ (t, rt) dt + σ (t, rt) dW t,

dBt

= rBtdt,

We look for martingale measures. Since B is the onlytraded asset we need to find Q ∼ P such that

Bt

Bt = 1

is a Q martingale.

Result: In a short rate model, every Q ∼ P is amartingale measure.

GirsanovdLt = LtϕtdW t

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P -dynamics

drt = µ (t, rt) dt + σ (t, rt) dW t,

dLt = LtϕtdW t

dQ = LtdP on F tGirsanov:

dW t = ϕtdt + dW Qt

Martingale pricing:

Π [t; Z ] = E Q

e−R t

0 rsdsZ F t

Q-dynamics of r:

drt = µ (t, rt) + σ (t, rt) ϕt dt + σ (t, rt) dW Qt ,

Result: We have λt = −ϕt, i.e,. the Girsanov kernelϕ equals minus the market price of risk.

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Martingale Modelling

Recall:

Πt [X ] = E Q

e−R t

0 rsds · X F t

• All prices are determined by the Q-

dynamics of r.

• Model dr directly under Q!

Problem: Parameter estimation!

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Pricing under risk adjusted probabilities

Q-dynamics:

dr = µ(t, r)dt + σ(t, r)dW

where W denotes a Q-Wiener process.

Πt [X ] = E Q

e−R T t rsds × X

F t

p(t, T ) = E Q

e−R T t rsds × 1

F t

The case X = Φ(rT ):

price given by

Πt [X ] = F (t, rt) F t + µF r + 1

2σ2F rr − rF = 0,F (T, r) = Φ(r(T )).

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1. Vasicekdr = (b − ar) dt + σdW,

2. Cox-Ingersoll-Ross

dr = (b

−ar) dt + σ

√ rdW,

3. Dothandr = ardt + σrdW,

4. Black-Derman-Toy

dr = Φ(t)rdt + σ(t)rdW,

5. Ho-Leedr = Φ(t)dt + σdW,

6. Hull-White (extended Vasicek)

dr = Φ(t) − ar dt + σdW,

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Bond Options

European call on a T -bond with strike price K anddelivery date S .

X = max [ p(S, T ) − K, 0]

X = max F T (S, rS )

−K, 0

We haveΠt [X ] = F (t, rt)

where F solves the PDE

F t + µF r +

1

2σ2F rr − rF = 0,

F (S, r) = Φ(r).

and where Φ is defined by

Φ(r) = max

F T (S, r) − K, 0

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To solve the pricing PDE for F we need to calculate

Φ(r) = max

F T (S, r) − K, 0

and for this we need to compute the theoretical bond

price function F T

. We thus also need to solve thePDE

F T t + µF T r +

1

2σ2F T rr − rF T = 0,

F T (T, r) = 1.

Lots of equations!

Need analytic solutions.

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Affine Term Structures

We have an Affine Term Structure if

F (t, r; T ) = eA(t,T )−B(t,T )r,

where A and B are deterministic functions.

Moral: If you want to obtain analytical formulas, thenyou must have an ATS.

Problem: How do we specify µ and σ in order to havean ATS?

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Main Result for ATS

Proposition: Assume that µ and σ are of the form

µ(t, r) = α(t)r + β (t),

σ2(t, r) = γ (t)r + δ (t).

Then the model admits an affine term structure

F (t, r; T ) = eA(t,T )−B(t,T )r,

where A and B satisfy the system Bt(t, T ) = −α(t)B(t, T ) + 1

2γ (t)B2(t, T ) − 1,B(T ; T ) = 0.

At(t, T ) = β (t)B(t, T ) − 12δ (t)B2(t, T ),A(T ; T ) = 0.

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Parameter Estimation

Suppose that we have chosen a specific model, e.g.H-W . How do we estimate the parameters a, b, σ?

Naive answer:

Use standard methods from statistical theory.

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WRONG!!

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• The parameters are Q-parameters.

• Our observations are not under Q, but under P .

• Standard statistical techniques can not be used.

• We need to know the market price of risk (λ).

• Who determines λ?

• The Market!

• We must get price information from the marketin order to estimate parameters.

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Inversion of the Yield Curve

Q-dynamics with parameter list α:

dr = µ(t, r; α)dt + σ(t, r; α)dW

⇓Theoretical term structure

p(0, T ; α); T ≥ 0

Observed term structure

p(0, T ); T ≥ 0.

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Requirement:A model such that the theoretical prices of todaycoincide with the observed prices of today. We wantto choose tha parameter vector α such that

p(0, T ; α) ≈ p

(0, T ); ∀T ≥ 0

Number of equations = ∞ (one for each T ).Number of unknowns = number of parameters.

Need:

Infinite parameter list.

The time dependent function Φ in Hull-White isprecisely such an infinite parameter list (one parameterfor every t).

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Result

Hull-White can be calibrated exactly to any initial termstrucutre. The calibrated model has the form

p(t, T ) =

p(0, T )

p(0, t) × e

C (t,rt)

where C is given by

B(t, T )f (0, t) − σ2

2a2B2(t, T )

1 − e−2aT − B(t, T )rt

There are analytical formulas for interest rate options.

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Short rate models

Pro:

• Easy to model r.

• Analytical formulas for bond prices and bondoptions.

Con:

• Inverting the yield curve can be hard work.

• Hard to model a flexible volatilitystructure for forward rates.

• With a one factor model, all points on the yieldcurve are perfectly correlated.

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6.

Forward Rate Models

Ch. 25

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Heath-Jarrow-Morton

Idea:

• Model the dynamics for the entire yield curve.

• The yield curve itself (rather than the short rate r)is the explanatory variable.

• Model forward rates. Use observed yield curve asboundary value.

Dynamics:

df (t, T ) = α(t, T )dt + σ(t, T )dW (t),

f (0, T ) = f (0, T ).

One SDE for every fixed maturity time T .

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Existence of martingale measure

f (t, T ) = ∂ log p(t, T )

∂T

p(t, T ) = exp

− T

t

f (t, s)ds

Thus:

Specifying forward rates.

⇐⇒

Specifying bond prices.

Thus:

No arbitrage⇓

restrictions on α and σ.

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Strategy

• Start with P -dynamics for the forward rates

df (t, T ) = α(t, T )dt + σ(t, T )d W (t)

where W is P -Wiener.

• Compute the corresponding bond price dynamics.

• Do a Girsanov transformation P

→Q.

• The Q-dynamics must then have the form

dp(t, T ) = rt p(t, T )dt + p(t, T )v(t, T )dW (t)

where W is Q-Wiener.

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Practical Toolbox

df (t, T ) = α(t, T )dt + σ(t, T )d W

dp(t, T ) = p(t, T )

r(t) + A(t, T ) +

1

2S (t, T )2

dt

+ p(t, T )S (t, T )d W

A(t, T ) = − T t

α(t, s)ds,

S (t, T ) = − T

t

σ(t, s)ds

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Girsanov

dL(t) = L(t)g∗(t)d W (t),

L(0) = 1.

From Girsanov we have

d W t = gdt + dW t

where W is Q-Wiener.

From the toolbox, the Q-dynamics are obtained as

dp(t, T ) = p(t, T )r(t)dt

+

A(t, T ) +

1

2||S (t, T )||2 + S (t, T )g(t)

dt

+ p(t, T )S (t, T )dW (t),

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Proposition:

There exists a martingale measure

There exists process g(t) = [g1(t), · · · gd(t)]

∗s.t.

A(t, T ) + 1

2||S (t, T )||2 + S (t, T )g(t) = 0, ∀t, T

Taking T -derivatives we obtain the alternative formula

α(t, T ) = σ(t, T )

T t

σ∗(t, s)ds − σ(t, T )g(t), ∀t, T

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Moral for Modeling

• Specify arbitrary volatilities σ(t, T ).

• Fix d “benchmark” maturities T 1, · · · , T d. For thesematurities, specify drift terms α(t, T 1), · · · α(t, T 1).

• The Girsanov kernel is uniquely determined (for eachfixed t) by

di=1

σi(t, T j)gi(t) =d

i=1

σi(t, T j)

T 0

σi(t, s)ds

− α(t, T j), j = 1, · · · d.

• Thus Q is uniquely determined.

• All other drift terms will be uniquely defined by

α(t, T ) = σ(t, T )

T

t

σ(t, s)ds−σ(t, T )g(t), ∀t, T

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Martingale Modelling

Q-dynamics:

df (t, T ) = α(t, T )dt + σ(t, T )dW (t)

• Specifying forward rates ⇐⇒ specifying bond prices.

• Under Q all bond prices have r as the local rate of

return.

• Thus, martingale modeling =⇒ restrictions on αand σ.

Which?

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Martingale modeling

Recall:

α(t, T ) = σ(t, T )

T

t

σ(t, s)ds − σ(t, T )g(t), ∀t, T

Martingale modeling ⇐⇒ g = 0

Theorem: (HJM drift Condition) The bond market isarbitrage free if and only if

α(t, T ) = σ(t, T )

T t

σ(t, s)ds.

Moral: Volatility can be specified freely. The forwardrate drift term is then uniquely determined.

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Musiela parametrization

Parameterize forward rates by the time to maturity x,rather than time of maturity T .

Def:

r(t, x) = f (t, t + x).

Q-dynamics:

dr(t, x) = µ(t, x)dt + σ(t, x)dW.

What are the relations between µ and σ under Q?

Compare with HJM!

df (t, T ) = α(t, T )dt + σ0(t, T )dW.

where we use σ0 to denote the HJM volatility.

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dr(t, x) = d [f (t, t + x)]

= df (t, t + x) + f T (t, t + x)dt

=

α(t, t + x) + rx(t, x)

dt + σ0(t, t + x)dW

µ(t, x) = α(t, t + x) + rx(t, x)

σ(t, x) = σ0(t, t + x).

HJM-condition:

α(t, T ) = σ0(t, T )

T t

σ0(t, s)ds.

Substitute!

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The Musiela Equation

dr(t, x) =

∂xr(t, x) + σ(t, x)

x0

σ(t, y)dy

dt

+ σ(t, x)dW

When σ is deterministic this is a linear equationin infinite dimensional space. Connections to control

theory.

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Forward Rate Models

Pro:

• Easy to model flexible volatility structure for forwardrates.

• Easy to include multiple factors.

Con:

• The short rate will typically not be a Markov process.

• Computational problems.

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7.

Change of Numeraire

Ch. 26

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Change of Numeraire

Valuation formula:

Πt [X ] = E Q

e−R T t rsds × X

F t

Hard to compute. Double integral.

Note: If X and r are independent then

Πt [X ] = E Q

e−R T t rsds

F t · E Q [X | F t]= p(t, T ) · E Q [X | F t] .

Nice! We do not have to compute p(t, T ). It can beobserved directly on the market!Single integral!

Sad Fact: X and r are (almost) never independent!

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Idea

Use T -bond (for a fixed T ) as numeraire. Define theT-forward measure QT by the requirement that

Π (t)

p(t, T )

is a QT -martingale for every price process Π (t).

Then

Πt [X ] p(t, T )

= E T

ΠT [X ] p(T, T )

F t

ΠT [X ] = X, p(T, T ) = 1.

Πt [X ] = p(t, T )E T [X | F t]

Do such measures exist?.

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“The forward measure takes care of the stochasticsover the interval [t, T ].”

Enormous computational advantages.

Useful for interest rate derivatives, currency derivatives

and derivatives defined by several underlying assets.

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General change of numeraire.

Idea: Use a fixed asset price process S t as numeraire.Define the measure QS by the requirement that

Π (t)

S t

is a QS -martingale for every arbitrage free price processΠ (t).

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Constructing QS

Fix a T -claim X . From general theory:

Π0 [X ] = E Q

X

BT

Assume that QS exists and denote

Lt = dQS

dQ , on F t

Then

Π0 [X ]

S 0= E S ΠT [X ]

S T = E S X

S T

= E Q

LT

X

S T

Thus we have

Π0 [X ] = E Q

LT X · S 0

S T

,

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For all X ∈ F T we thus have

E Q

X

BT

= E Q

LT

X · S 0S T

Natural candidate:

Lt = dQS

t

dQt

= S tS 0Bt

Proposition:

Π (t) /Bt is a Q-martingale.⇓

Π (t) /S t is a Q

-martingale.

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Proof.

E S

Π (t)

S t

F s

=E Q

Lt

Π(t)S t

F s

Ls

=E Q

Π(t)BtS 0

F s

Ls

= Π (s)

B(s)S 0Ls

= Π (s)

S (s).

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Result

Πt [X ] = S tE S

X

S t

F t

We can observe S t directly on the market.

Example: X = S t · Y

Πt [X ] = S tE S [Y | F t]

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Several underlying

X = Φ [S 0(T ), S 1(T )]

Assume Φ is linearly homogeous. Transform to Q0.

Πt [X ] = S 0(t)E 0

Φ [S 0(T ), S 1(T )]

S 0(T )

F t

= S 0(t)E 0

[ϕ (Z T )| F t]

ϕ (z) = Φ [1, z] , Z t = S 1(t)

S 0(t)

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Exchange option

X = max [S 1(T ) − S 0(T ), 0]

Πt [X ] = S 0(t)E 0

[max[Z (T ) − 1, 0]| F t]European Call on Z with strike price K . Zero interestrate.

Piece of cake!

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Identifying the Girsanov Transformation

Assume Q-dynamics of S known as

dS t = rtS tdt + S tvtdW t

Lt = S tS 0Bt

From this we immediately have

dLt = LtvtdW t.

and we can summarize.

Theorem:The Girsanov kernel is given by thenumeraire volatility vt, i.e.

dLt = LtvtdW t.

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A new look on option pricing

European call on asset S with strike price K and maturity T .

X = max [S T − K, 0]

Write X as

X = (S T − K ) · I S T ≥ K = S T I S T ≥ K − KI S T ≥ K

Use QS on the first term and QT on the second.

Π0 [X ] = S 0 · QS [S T ≥ K ] − K · p(0, T ) · QT [S T ≥ K ]

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Analytical Results

Assumption: Assume that Z S,T , defined by

Z S,T (t) = S t

p(t, T ),

has dynamics

dZ S,T (t) = Z S,T (t)mS T (t)dt + Z S,T (t)σS,T (t)dW,

where σS,T (t) is deterministic.

We have to compute

QT [S T

≥K ]

andQS [S T ≥ K ]

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QT (S T ≥ K ) = QT

S T

p(T, T ) ≥ K

= QT (Z S,T (T )

≥K )

By definition Z S,T is a QT -martingale, so QT -dynamicsare given by

dZ S,T (t) = Z S,T (t)σS,T (t)dW T ,

with the solution

Z S,T (T ) =

S 0

p(0, T )×exp−

1

2 T

0 σ

2

S,T (t)dt + T

0 σS,T (t)dW

T Lognormal distribution!

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The integral

T 0

σS,T (t)dW T

is Gaussian, with zero mean and variance

Σ2S,T (T ) =

T 0

σS,T (t)2dt

Thus

QT (S t ≥ K ) = N [d2],

d2 =

ln S 0

Kp(0,T )− 12Σ2

S,T (T ) Σ2S,T (T )

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QS (S t ≥ K ) = QS

p(T, T )

S t≤ 1

K

= QS

Y S,T (T ) ≤ 1

K

,

Y S,T (t) = p(t, T )

S t=

1

Z S,T (t).

Y S,T is a QS -martingale, so QS -dynamics are

dY S,T (t) = Y S,T (t)δ S,T (t)dW S .

Y S,T = Z −1S,T

⇓δ S,T (t) = −σS,T (t)

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Y S,T (T ) =

p(0, T )

S 0exp

−1

2

T 0

σ2S,T (t)dt −

T 0

σS,T (t)dW S

,

QS (S t ≥ K ) = N [d1],

d1 = d2 +

Σ2S,T (T )

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Proposition: Price of call is given by

Π0 [X ] = S 0N [d2] − K · p(0, T )N [d1]

d2 =ln

S 0Kp(0,T )

− 1

2Σ2S,T (T )

Σ2S,T (T )

d1 = d2 +

Σ2S,T (T )

Σ2S,T (T ) =

T

0 σS,T (t)

2dt

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Hull-White

Q-dynamics:

dr = Φ(t) − ar dt + σdW.

Affine term structure:

p(t, T ) = eA(t,T )−B(t,T )rt,

B(t, T ) = 1

a

1 − e−a(T −t)

.

Check if Z has deterministic volatility

Z t = S t

p(t, T 1), S t = p(t, T 2)

Z t = p(t, T 2)

p(t, T 1)

,

Z t = exp ∆A(t) − ∆Btrt ,

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Z (t) = exp ∆A(t) − ∆Btrt ,

∆A(t) = A(t, T 2) − A(t, T 1),

∆Bt = B(t, T 2)

−B(t, T 1),

dZ (t) = Z (t) ··· dt + Z (t) · σz(t)dW,

σz(t) = −σ∆Bt = σ

aeat

e−aT 1 − e−aT 2

Deterministic volatility!

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8

LIBOR Market Models

Ch. 27

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Problems with infinitesimal rates

• Infinitesimal rates can never be observed in real life.

• Calibration to cap- or swaption data is difficult.

Disturbing facts from real life:

• The market uses Black-76 to quote caps and

swaptions. Behind Blavk-76 are the assumptions

– The short rate is constant.– The LIBOR rates are lognormally distributed.

• Logically inconsistent!

• Despite this, the market happily continues to useBlack-76 for quoting purposes.

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Project

• Construct a logically consistent model which (tosome extent) justifies market practice.

• Construct an arbitrage free model with theproperty that caps, floors and/or swaptions arepriced with a Black-76 type formula.

Main models

• LIBOR market models (Miltersen-Sandmann-Sondermann, Brace-Gatarek-Musiela)

• Swap market models (Jamshidian).

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• Instead of modeling instantaneous rates, we modeldiscrete market rates, such as

– LIBOR rates (LIBOR market models)

– Forward swap rates (swap market models).

• Under a suitable numeraire the market rates can bemodeled lognormally.

• The market models with thus produce pricingformulas of the type Black-76.

• By construction the market models are very easy tocalibrate to market data, i.e. to:

– Caps and floors (LIBOR market model)

– Swaptions (swap market model)

• Exotic derivatives has to be priced numerically.

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Caps

Resettlement dates:

T 0 < T 1 < . . . < T n,

Tenor:

α = T i+1 − T i, i = 0, . . . , n − 1.

Typically α = 1/4, i.e. quarterly resettlement.

LIBOR forward rate for [T i−1, T i]:

Li(t) = 1

α· pi−1(t) − pi(t)

pi(t) , i = 1, . . . , N .

where we use the notation

pi(t) = p(t, T i)

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Definition:A cap with cap rate R and resettlement datesT 0, . . . , T n is a contract which at each T i give theholder the amount

X i = α · max[Li(T i−1) − R, 0] , i = 1, . . . , N

The cap is thus a portfolio of caplets X 1, . . . , X n.

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Black-76

The Black-76 formula for the caplet

X i = αi · max[L(T i−1, T i) − R, 0] , (1)

is given by

CaplBi (t) = α · pi(t) Li(t)N [d1] − RN [d2]

where

d1 = 1σi

√ T i − t

ln

Li(t)R

+ 1

2σ2i (T − t)

,

d2 = d1 − σi

T i − t.

• Black-76 presupposes that each LIBOR rate is

lognormal.• The constants σ1, . . . , σN are known as the Blackvolatilities

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Market price quotes

Market prices are quoted in terms of Implied Blackvolatilities: The can be quoted in two different ways.

• Flat volatilities

• Spot volatilities (also known as forwardvolatilities)

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Market Price Data

For each i = 1, . . . , N :

Capmi (t) = market price of cap with resettlement

dates T 0

, T 1

, . . . , T i

Implied market prices of caplets:

Caplmi (t) = Capmi (t) −Capmi−1(t),

with the convention Capm0 (t) = 0

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Defining Implied Black Volatility

Given market price data as above, the implied Blackvolatilities are defined as follows.

• The implied flat volatilities σ1, . . . , σN are defined

as the solutions of the equations

Capmi (t) =i

k=1

CaplBk (t; σi), i = 1, . . . , N . (2)

• The implied forward or spot volatilities σ1, . . . , σN

are defined as solutions of the equations

Caplmi (t) = CaplBi (t; σi), i = 1, . . . , N . (3)

The sequence σ1, . . . , σN is called the volatility termstructure.

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Theoretical Price of a Caplet

By risk neutral valuation:

Capli(t) = αE Qt

e−

R T i0 r(s)ds · max[Li(T i−1) − R, 0]

,

Better to use T i forward measure

Capli(t) = αpi(t)E T i [max[Li(T i−1) − R, 0]| F t] ,

The crucial point is the distribution of Li under Qi

where Qi = QT i

Important Fact: Li is a martingale under Qi

Li(t) = 1

α· pi−1(t) − pi(t)

pi(t)

Idea: Model Li as GBM under Q

i

:dLi = σiLidW i

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LIBOR Market Model Definition

Define, for each i, the dynamics of Li under Qi as

dLi(t) = Li(t)σi(t)dW i(t), i = 1, . . . , N ,

where σ1(t), . . . , σN (t) are deterministic and W i isQi-Wiener.

The initial term structure L1(0), . . . , LN (0) is observedon the market.

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Pricing Caps in the LIBOR Model

Li(T ) = Li(t) · eR T t σi(s)dW i(s)−1

2

R T t σi(s)2ds.

Lognormal!

Theorem: Caplet prices are given by

Capli(t) = αi · pi(t) Li(t)N [d1] − RN [d2] ,

where

d1 = 1

Σi(t, T i−1) ln

Li(t)

R +

1

2Σ2i (t, T i−1)

,

d2 = d1 − Σi(t, T i−1),

Σ2i (t, T ) =

T t

σi(s)2ds.

Moral: Each caplet price is given by aBlack-76 formula with Σi as the Black volatility.

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Practical Handling of the LIBOR Model

We are standing at time t = 0.

• Collect implied caplet volatilities

σ1, . . . , σN

from the market.

• Choose model volatilities

σ1(

·), . . . , σN (

·)

such that

σi = 1

T i

T i−1

0

σ2i (s)ds, i = 1, . . . , N .

• Now the model is calibrated.

• Use numerical methods to compute prices of exotics.

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Terminal Measure dynamics

Define the Likelihood process ηji as

ηji (t) = dQj

dQi, on F t

Can show that

dηi−1i (t) = ηi−1

i (t) αiLi(t)

1 + αiLi(t)σi(t)dW i(t).

Girsanov gives us

dW i(t) = αiLi(t)

1 + αiLi(t)σ

i

(t)dt + dW i−1(t).

Proposition The QN dynamics of the LIBOR rates are

dLi(t) =

−Li(t)

N

k=i+1

αkLk(t)

1 + αkLk(t)

σk(t)σi (t) dt

+ Li(t)σi(t)dW N (t),

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Computational aspects

• The terminal measure dynamics of the system of LIBOR rates are quite messy.