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NEET Practice SET Section Total Qs Total Marks Time -ve Mark

Biology 90 360 3 Hrs

¼ negative marking

Chemistry 45 180

Physics 45 180

Biology 1. Static concept of species was put forward by (a) de Candolle (b) Linnaeus (c) Theophrastus (d) Darwin 2. Relative biological effectiveness (RBE) is usually referred to damages caused by (a) Low temperature (b) High temperature (c) Encephalitis (d) Radiation 3. The infective stage of malarial parasite Plasmodium that enters human body is (a) merozoite (b) sporozoite (c) trophozoite (d) minuta form 4. Nitrogen fixer soil organisms belong to (a) mosses (b) bacteria (c) green Algae (d) soil Fungi 5. Two bacteria found to be very useful in genetic engineering experiments are (a) Escherichia and Agrobacterium (b) Nitrobacter and Azotobacter (c) Rhizobium and Diplococcus (d) Nitrosomonas and Klebsiella 6. Which fungal disease spreads by seed and flowers? (a) Loose smut of wheat (b) Corn stunt (c) Covered smut of barley (d) Soft rot of potato

7. Which one is the wrong pairing for the disease and its causal organism? (a) Black rust of wheat - Puccinia graminis (b) Loose smut of wheat - Ustilago nuda (c) Root-knot of vegetables - Meloidogyne sp (d) Late blight of potato - Alternaria solani 8. Sexual reproduction involving fusion of two cells in Chlamydomonas is (a) isogamy (b) homogamy (c) somatogamy (d) hologamy 9. Which of the following cannot fix nitrogen? (a) Nostoc (b) Azotobacter (c) Spirogyra (d) Anabaena 10. Floridean starch is found in (a) Chlorophyceae (b) Rhodophyceae (c) Myxophyceae (d) Cyanophyceae 11. Cycas and Adiantum resemble each other in having: (a) Seeds (b) Motile Sperms (c) Cambium (d) Vessels 12. Photoreceptors of earthworm occur on (a) clitellum (b) many eyes (c) dorsal surface (d) lateral sides 13. Ascaris larva is called (a) cysticercus (b) rhabditiform (c) hexacanth (d) onchosphere 14. A common characteristic of all vertebrates is (a) presence of skull (b) division of body into head, neck, trunk and tail (c) presence of two pairs of functional appendages (d) body is covered with an exoskeleton

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15. Which one of the following characters is not typical of the class Mammalia? (a) Thecodont dentition (b) Alveolar lungs (c) Ten pairs of cranial nerves (d) Seven cervical vertebrae 16. Which one of the following pairs of animals are similar to each other pertaining to the feature stated against them? (a) Pteropus and Or nithorhyncus - Viviparity (b) Garden lizard and Crocodile - Three chambered heart (c) Ascaris and Ancylostoma - Metameric segmentation (d) Sea horse and Flying fish - Cold blooded (poikilothermal) 17. Plant having column of vascular tissues bearing fruits and having a tap root system is (a) monocot (b) dicot (c) gymnosperm of dicot (d) gymnosperm or monocot 18. Pineapple (ananas) fruit develops from (a) a multipistillate syncarpous flower (b) a cluster of compactly borne flowers on a common axis (c) a multilocular monocarpellary flower (d) a unilocular polycarpellary flower 19. Inflorescence is racemose in (a) Soyabean (b) Brinjal (c) Tulip (d) Aloe

20. Procambium forms (a) only primary vascular bundles (b) only vascular cambium (c) only cork cambium (d) primary vascular bundles and vascular cambium

21. Palisade parenchyma is absent in leaves of: (a) mustard (b) soybean (c) gram (d) sorghum 22. Component of blood responsible for producing antibodies is (a) Thrombocytes (b) Monocytes (c) Erythrocytes (d) Lymphocytes 23. The epithelial tissue present on the inner surface of bronchioles and fallopian tube is: (a) glandular (b) ciliated (c) squamous (d) cuboidal 24. Electron microscope has a high resolution power. This is due to (a) electromagnetic lenses (b) very low wavelength of electron beam (c) low wavelength of light source used (d) high numerical aperture of glass lenses used 25. The function of rough endoplasmic reticulum is (a) fat synthesis (b) lipid synthesis (c) protein synthesis (d) steroid synthesis 26. Cellulose is the major component of cell walls of (a) Pythium (b) Xanthomonas (c) Pseudomonas (d) Saccharomyces 27. In double helix of DNA, the two DNA strands are (a) coiled around a common axis (b) coiled around each other (c) coiled differently (e) coiled over protein sheath (d) 28. The enormous diversity of protein molecules is due mainly to the diversity of (a) amino groups on the amino acids (b) R groups on the amino acids (c) amino acid sequences within the protein molecule (d) peptide bonds

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29. An organic substance bound to an enzyme and essential for its activity is called (a) Holoenzyme (b) Apoenzyme (c) Isoenzyme (d) Coenzyme 30. Best material for the study of mitosis in laboratory is (a) anther (b) root tip (c) leaf tip (d) ovary 31. In terrestrial habitats, temperature and rainfall conditions are influenced by (a) water transformations (b) transpiration (c) thermoperiodism (d) translocation 32. Which one of the following statements is correct? (a) Both Azotobacter and Rhizobium fix atmospheric nitrogen in root nodules of plants. (b) Cyanobacteria such as Anabaena and Nostoc are important mobilizers of phosphates and for plant nutrition in soil (c) At present it is not possible to grow maize without chemical fertilizers (d) Extensive use of chemical fertilizers may lead to eutrophication of nearby water bodies. 33. The deficiencies of micronutrients, not only affects growth of plants but also vital functions such as photosynthetic and mitochondrial electron flow. Among the list given below, which group of three elements shall affect most, both photosynthetic and mitochondrial electron transport: (a) Co, Ni, Mo (b) Ca, K, Na (c) Mn, Co, Ca (d) Cu, Mn, Fe 34. Greatest producers of organic matter are (a) crop plants (b) forests (c) plants of the land area (d) phytoplankton of oceans 35. NADPH is generated through (a) photosystem I

(b) photosystem II (c) anerobic respiration (d) glycolysis 36. The C4 plants are photosynthetically more efficient than C3 plants because: (a) the CO2 compensation point is more (b) CO2 generated during photorespiration is trapped and recycled through PEP carboxylase (c) the CO2 efflux is not prevented (d) they have more chloroplasts 37. End product of citric acid/Krebs cycle is (a) citric acid (b) lactic acid (c) pyruvic acid (d) CO2 + H2O 38. The overall goal of glycolysis, krebs cycle and the electron transport system is the formation of (a) ATP in one large oxidation reaction (b) sugars (c) nucleic acids (d) ATP in small stepwise units. 39. Apical dominance is caused by (a) abscisic acid in lateral bud (b) cytokinin in leaf tip (c) gibberellin in lateral buds (d) auxin in shoot tip 40. Plants deficient of element zinc, show its effect on the biosynthesis of plant growth hormone (a) abscisic acid (b) auxin (c) cytokinin (d) ethylene 41. Pancreas produces (a) three digestive enzymes and one hormone (b) three types of digestive enzymes and two hormones (c) two digestive enzymes and one hormone (d) three digestive enzymes and no hormone 42. The food having fully undergone mechanical and chemical digestion inside the stomach, is called (a) Chyle (b) Bolus (c) Amino acid (d) Chyme

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43. Two friends are eating together on a dining table. One of them suddenly starts coughing while swallowing some food. This coughing would have been due to improper movement of: (a) epiglottis (b) diaphragm (c) neck (d) tongue 44. Which of the following are the correct statement for respiration in human (a) Cigarette smoking may lead of inflammation of bronchi (b) Neural signals from pneumotaxic centre in pons region of brain can increase the duration of inspiration (c) Workers in grinding and stone - breaking industries may suffer from lung fibrosis (d) About 90% of carbon dioxide (CO2) is carried by haemoglobin as carbamino haemoglobin. 45. The blood cancer is known as (a) leukaemia (b) thrombosis (c) haemolysis (d) haemophilia 46. The most active phagocytic white blood cells are: (a) neutrophils and eosinophils (b) lymphocytes and macrophages (c) eosinophils and lymphocytes (d) neutrophils and monocytes 47. In ureotelic animals, urea is formed by the (a) Arginine cycle (b) Cori's cycle (c) Ornithine cycle (d) EM pathway 48. The maximum amount of electrolytes and water (70 - 80 percent) from the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed in which part of the nephron? (a) Ascending limb of loop of Henle (b) Distal convoluted tubule (c) Proximal convoluted tubule (d) Descending limb of loop of Henle 49. Select the correct statement regarding the specific disorder of muscular or skeletal system :- (a) Muscular dystrophy - age related shortening or muscles.

(b) Osteoporosis - decrease in bone mass and higher chance of fractures with advancing age. (c) Myasthenia gravis - Auto immune disorder which inhibits sliding of myosin filaments (d) Gout - inflammation of joints due to extra deposition of calcium. 50. Neuroglia consist of cells found in the (a) liver (b) kidney (c) central nervous system and ganglia (d) testes 51. Which hormone possesses anti-insulin effect? (a) Cortisol (b) Calcitonin (c) Oxytocin (d) Aldosterone 52. Melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH) is produced by (a) parathyroid (b) pars intermedia of pituitary (c) anterior pituitary (d) posterior pituitary 53. Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly matched? (a) Glucagon - Beta cells (source) (b) Somatostatin - Delta cells (source) (c) Corpus luteum - Relaxin (secretion) (d) Insulin - Diabetes mellitus (disease) 54. What is common between vegetative reproduction and apomixis? (a) Both are applicable to only dicot plants (b) Both bypass the flowering phase (c) Both occur round the year (d) Both produces progeny identical to the parent 55. A population of genetically identical individuals, obtained from asexual reproduction is (a) Callus (b) Clone (c) Deme (d) Aggregate 56. A fruit developed from hypanthodium inflorescence is called (a) Sorosis (b) Syconus (c) Caryopsis

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(d) Hasperidium 57. Albuminous seeds store their reserve food mainly in (a) Perisperm (b) Endosperm (c) Cotyledons (d) Hypocotyl 58. The first movements of the foetus and appearance of hair on its head are usually observed during which month of pregnancy? (a) Fourth month (b) Fifth month (c) Sixth month (d) Third month 59. Artificial insemination mean: (a) Transfer of sperms of husband to a test tube containing ova (b) Artificial introduction of sperms of a healthy donor into the vagina (c) Introduction of sperms of a healthy donor directly into the ovary (d) Transfer of sperms of a healthy donor to a test tube containing ova 60. A man of A-blood group marries a women of AB blood group. Which type of progeny would indicate that man is heterozygous A? (a) AB (b) A (c) O (d) B 61. A fruitfly exhibiting both male and female traits is (a) heterozygous (b) gynandromorph (c) hemizygous (d) gynander 62. Phenomenon of ‘Industrial melanism’ demonstrates (a) natural selection (b) induced mutation (c) geographical isolation (d) reproductive islolation 63. Which one of the following traits of garden pea studied by Mendel was a recessive feature? (a) Round seed shape (b) Axial flower position

(c) Green seed colour (d) Green pod colour 64. How many different kinds of gametes will be produced by a plant having the genotype AABbCC? (a) Four (b) Nine (c) Two (d) Three 65. If both parents are carriers for thalassemia, which is an autosomal recessive disorder, what are the chances of pregnancy resulting in an affected child? (a) 50% (b) 25% (c) 100% (d) no chance 66. Out of A-T, G-C pairing, bases of DNA may exist in alternate valency state owing to arrangement called (a) analogue substitution (b) tautomerisational mutation (c) frame-shift mutation (d) point mutation 67. At time of organogenesis genes regulate the process at different levels and at different time due to (a) promoter (b) regulator (c) intron (d) exon 68. In which mode of inheritance do you expect more maternal influence among the offspring? (a) Cytoplasmic (b) Y-linked (c) X-linked (d) Autosomal 69. Which of the following is not a property of the genetic code? (a) Universal (b) Non-overlapping (c) Ambiguous d) Degeneracy (d) 70. Identify the correct sequence in which the following substances have appeared during the course of evolution of life on earth (a) Glucose, amino acids, nucleic acids, proteins (b) Ammonia, amino acids, proteins, nucleic acids (c) Water, amino acids, nucleic acids, enzymes

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(d) Amino acids, ammonia, phosphates, nucleic acids 71. In which era reptiles were dominant? (a) Coenozoic era (b) Mesozoic era (c) Palaeozoic era (d) Archaeozoic era 72. When two species of different genealogy come to resemble each other as a result of adaptation, the phenomenon is termed (a) microevolution (b) co-evolution (c) convergent evolution (d) divergent evolution 73. Random unidirectional change in allele frequencies that occurs by chance in all populations and especially in small populations is known as (a) Mutation (b) Migration (c) Natural selection (d) Genetic drift 74. Vaccines are (a) treated bacteria or viruses or one of their proteins (b) MHC (major histocompatibility complex) proteins (c) curative medicines (d) monoclonal antibodies 75. Increased asthmatics attacks in certain seasons are related to (a) eating fruits preserved in tin containers (b) inhalation of seasonal pollen (c) low temperature (d) hot and humid environment. 76. Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to immunity? (a) Preformed antibodies need to be injected to treat the bite by a viper snake. (b) The antibodies against small pox pathogen are produced by T – lymphocytes. (c) Antibodies are protein molecules, each of which has four light chains. (d) Rejection of a kidney graft is the function of B-lymphocytes. 77. The new varieties of plants are produced by (a) selection and hybridization (b) mutation and selection (c) introduction and mutation

(d) selection and intro 78. Compared to a bull a bullock is docile because of (a) higher levels of cortisone (b) lower levels of blood testosterone (c) lower levels of adrenaline/ noradrenaline in its blood (d) higher levels of thyroxine. 79. Trichoderma harzianum has proved a useful microorganism for (a) bioremediation of contaminated soils (b) reclamation of wastelands (c) gene transfer in higher plants (d) biological control of soil-borne plant pathogens 80. DNA or RNA segment tagged with a radioactive molecule is called (a) Vector (b) Probe (c) Clone (d) Plasmid 81. The genetically-modified (GM) brinjal in India has been developed for: (a) insect-resistance (b) enhancing shelf life (c) enhancing mineral content (d) drought-resistance 82. Animals that can tolerate a narrow range of salinity are (a) stenohaline (b) euryhaline (c) anadromous (d) catadromous 83. The formula for exponential population growth is (a) dN/rN = dt (b) rN/ dN = dt (c) dN/ dt = rN (d) dt/ dN = rN 84. Second most important trophic level in a lake is (a) Zooplankton (b) Phytoplankton (c) Benthos (d) Neuston 85. Which one of the following is not used for construction of ecological pyramids? (a) Number of individuals

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(b) Rate of energy flow (c) Fresh weight (d) Dry weight 86. Renewable source of energy is (a) Biomass (b) Coal (c) Petroleum (d) Kerosene 87. Diversification in plant life appeared (a) due to long periods of evolutionary changes (b) due to abrupt mutations (c) suddenly on earth (d) by seed dispersal 88. Acid rains are produced by (a) excess emissions of NO2 and SO2 from burning fossil fuels (b) excess production of NH3 by industry and coal gas (c) excess release of carbon monoxide by incomplete combustion (d) excess formation of CO2 by combustion and animal respiration 89. DDT causes egg shell thinning in birds because it inhibits (a) Calmodulin (b) Calcium ATPase (c) Magnesium ATPase (d) Carbonic anhydrase 90. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOP) in a river water (a) has no relationship with concentration of oxygen in the water. (b) gives a measure of Salmonella in the water. (c) increases when sewage gets mixed with river water. (d) remains unchanged when algal bloom occurs.

Chemistry 1. At S.T.P. the density of CCl4 vapours in g/Lwill be nearest to: (a) 6.87 (b) 3.42 (c) 10.26 (d) 4.57 2. An element, Xhas the following isotopic composition: 022 X: 92 % 999X: 8.2 % 020X: 0.2% The

weighted average atomic mass of the naturally occuring element Xis closest to (a) 201 amu (b) 202 amu (c) 199 amu (d) 200 amu 3. In the photo-electron emission, the energy of the emitted electron is (a) greater than the incident photon (b) same as than of the incident photon (c) smaller than the incident photon (d) proportional to the intensity of incident photon. 4. The total number of atomic orbitals in fourth energy level of an atom is: (a) 8 (b) 16 (c) 32 (d) 4 5. Correct order of first IP among following elements Be, B, C, N, Ois (a) B< Be < C< O< N (b) B< Be < C< N< O (c) Be < B< C< N< O (d) Be < B< C< O< N 6. In compound X, all the bond angles are exactly

929°08 ; X is (a) Chloromethane (b) Carbon tetrachloride (c) Iodoform (d) Chloroform. 7. Which of the following molecules is planar? (a) SF4 (b) XeF4 (c) NF3 (d) SiF4 8. Which of the following is not isostructural with SiCl4? (a) SO4 2– (b) PO4 3– (c) NH4 + (d) SCl4 9. Correct gas equation is:

(a)

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(b)

(c)

(d) 10. The surface tension of which of the following liquid is maximum? (a) C2H5OH (b) CH3OH (c) H2O (d) C6H6 11. Adiabatic expansions of an ideal gas is accompanied by (a) decrease in ΔE (b) increase in temperature (c) decrease in ΔS (d) no change in any one of the above properties 12.

(a) 380 kJ mol–1 (b) 425 kJ mol–1 (c) 245 kJ mol–1 (d) 290 kJ mol–1 13. The pH value of blood does not appreciably change by a small addition of an acid or a base, because the blood (a) is a body fluid (b) can be easily coagulated (c) contains iron as a part of the molecule (d) contains serum protein which acts as buffer 14.

(a) (b)

(c)

(d)

15. Identify the correct order of solubility in aqueous medium: (a) ZnS> Na2 S> CuS (b) Na2 S> CuS> ZnS (c) Na2 S> ZnS> CuS (d) CuS> ZnS> Na2 S 16. The hydride ion, H–, is a stronger base than the hydroxide ion, OH–. Which one of the following reactions will occur if sodium hydride (NaH) is dissolved in water?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 17. Which of the following alkaline earth metal sulphates has hydration enthalpy higher than the lattice enthalpy? (a) CaSO4 (b) BeSO4 (c) BaSO4 (d) SrSO4 18. How many chain isomers could be obtained from the alkane C6H14? (a) Four (b) Five (c) Six (d) Seven

19. (a) 1, 3-isopropyl-3-methylpropane (b) 2, 3, 6-trimethylheptane (c) 2, 5, 6-trimethylheptane (d) 2, 6, 3-trimethylheptane

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20. The correct order of reactivity towards the electrophilic substitution of the compounds aniline , benzene (II) and nitrobenzene (III) is (a) I> II> III (b) III> II> I[2003] (c) II> III> I (d) I< II> III 21. Disha Experts. 29 Years NEETAIPMTTopic wise Solved Papers CHEMISTRY1988 to 2016 11th Edition (Page 93). . Kindle Edition. (a) (b) (c) (d) 22. When 3, 3-dimethyl 2-butanol is heated with H2 SO4, the major product obtained is (a) 2,3-dimethyl 2-butene (b) 3, 3-dimethyl 1- butene (c) 2, 3-dimethyl 1- butene (d) cis & trans isomers of 2, 3-dimethyl 2-butene 23. Which of the following is/are the hazardous pollutant present in automobile exhaust gases? N 2 (ii) CO(iii) CH4 (iv) Oxides of nitrogen (a) (ii) and (iii) (b) and (ii) (c) (ii) and (iv) (d) and (iii) 24. Which of the folloiwng anions is present in the chain structure of silicates? (a) (Si2O52–)n (b) (SiO32–)n (c) SiO44– (d) Si2O76– 25. A 5% solution of cane sugar (mol. wt. =342) is isotonic with 1% solution of a substance X. The molecular weight of X is (a) 34.2 (b) 171.2 (c) 68.4 (d) 136.8 26. Which condition is not satisfied by an ideal solution?

(a) (b)

(c)

(d) 27. The efficiency of a fuel cell is given by

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 28. The plot of concentration of the reactant vs. time for a reaction is a straight line with a negative slope. The reaction follows a (a) zero order rate equation (b) first order rate equation (c) second order rate equation (d) third order rate equation 29. The unit of rate constant for a zero order reaction is (a) mol L–1 s–1 (b) L mol–1 s–1 (c) L2 mol–2 s–1 (d) s–1 30. The following reactions take place in the blast furnace in the preparation of impure iron. Identify the reaction pertaining to the formation of the slag.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 31. Sugarcane on reaction with nitric acid gives (a) CO2 and SO2 (b) (COOH)2 (c) 2 HCOOH(two moles) (d) No reaction. 32. Nitrogen forms N2, but phosphorus is converted into P4 from P, the reason is (a) Triple bond is present between phosphorus atom

(b)

(c)

(d)

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33. While extracting an element form its ore, the ore is ground and leached with dil. potassium cyanide solution to form the soluble product potassium argento cyanide. The element is (a) Lead (b) Chromium (c) Manganese (d) Silver 34. General electronic configuration of lanthanides is (a) (n – 2) f1 –14 (n –1) s2p6 d0–1 ns2 (b) (n – 2) f10 –14 (n –1) d0 – 1 ns2 (c) (n – 2) f0 –14 (n –1) d10 ns2 (d) (n – 2) d0 –1 (n –1) f1 – 14 ns2 35.

(a) KOH (b) CO2 (c) SO2 (d) HCl 36. According to IUPACnomenclature sodium nitroprusside is named as (a) Sodium pentacyanonitrosyl ferrate (III) (b) Sodium nitroferrocyanide (c) Sodium nitroferrocyanide (d) Sodium pentacyanonitrosyl ferrate (II) 37. An excess of AgNO3 is added to 100 mL of a 0.01 Msolution of dichlorotetraaquachromium (iii) chloride. The number of moles of AgCl precipitated would be: (a) 0.002 (b) 0.003 (c) 0.01 (d) 0.001 38. Lucas reagent is (a) Conc. HCl and anhydrous ZnCl2 (b) Conc. HNO3 and hydrous ZnCl2 (c) Conc. HCl and hydrous ZnCl2 (d) Conc. HNO3 and anhydrous ZnCl2

39. When glycerol is treated with excess of HI, it produces: (a) glycerol triiodide (b) 2–iodopropane (c) allyl iodide (d) propene 40. (CH3)3 C—CHOdoes not undergo Aldol condensation due to (a) three electron donating methyl groups (b) cleavage taking place between —C— CHO bond (c) absence of alpha hydrogen atom in the molecule (d) bulky (CH3)3 C—group 41. Reduction of aldehydes and ketones into hydrocarbons using zinc amalgam and conc. HCl is called (a) Cope reduction (b) Dow reduction (c) Wolf-Kishner reduction (d) Clemmensen redcution. 42.

(a) CH3CH2CN (b) CH3NO2 (c) CH3NC (d) CH3CN 43. On hydrolysis of starch, we finally get (a) Glucose (b) Fructose (c) Both (d) and 44. Chargaff's rule states that in an organism (a) Amounts of all bases are equal (b) Amount of adenine is equal to that of thymine and the amount of guanine is equal to that of cytosine (c) Amount of adenine is equal to that of guanine and the amount of thymine is equal to that of cytosine (d) Amount of adenine is equal to that of cytosine and rthe amount of thymine is equal to that of guanine 45. Natural rubber is a polymer of (a) butadiene (b) isoprene

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(c) 2-methylbutadiene (d) Hexa-1, 3-diene

Physics 1. The dimensional formula for angular momentum is (a) [M0L2T–2] (b) [ML2T–1] (c) [MLT–1] (d) [ML2T–2] 2.

(a) L2, T and LT2 (b) LT2, LT and L (c) L, LT and T2 (d) LT–2, L and T 3. The displacement of a particle varies with time (t) as: s = at2 – bt3. The acceleration of the particle at any given time (t) will be equal to (a) a/b (b) a/3b (c) 3b/a (d) 2a/3b 4. 46. The displacement ‘x’ (in meter) of a particle of mass ‘m’ (in kg) moving in one dimension under the action of a force, is related to time ‘t’ (in sec) by t = √x + 3. The displacement of the particle when its velocity is zero, will be (a) 2 m (b) 4 m (c) zero (d) 6 m 5. Two projectiles are fired from the same point with the same speed at angles of projection 60° and 30° respectively. Which one of the following is true? (a) Their maximum height will be same (b) Their range will be same (c) Their landing velocity will be same (d) Their time of flight will be same 6. A missile is fired for maximum range with an initial velocity of 20 m/s. If g = 10 m/s2, the range of the missile is (a) 40 m

(b) 50 m (c) 60 m (d) 20 m 7. Aperson slides freely down a frictionless inclined plane while his bag falls down vertically from the same height. The final speeds of the man (VM) and the bag (VB) should be such that (a) VM< VB (b) VM= VB (c) they depend on the masses (d) VM> VB 8. Consider a car moving along a straight horizantal road with a speed of 72 km/h. If the coefficient of static friction between road and tyres is 0.5, the shortest distance in which the car can be stopped is (a) 30 m (b) 40 m (c) 72 m (d) 20 m 9. An engine pumps water continuously through a hose. Water leaves the hose with a velocity v and m is the mass per unit length of the water jet. What is the rate at which kinetic energy is imparted to water?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 10. The speed of a homogenous solid sphere after rolling down an inclined plane of vertical height h from rest without sliding is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

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11. A ball rolls without slipping. The radius of gyration of the ball about an axis passing through its centre of mass is K. If radius of the ball be R, then the fraction of total energy associated with its rotational energy will be

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 12. When a mass is rotating in a plane about a fixed point, its angular momentum is directed along: (a) a line perpendicular to the plane of rotation (b) the line making an angle of 45° to the plane of rotation (c) the radius (d) the tangent to the orbit 13. The escape velocity on the surface of earth is 11.2 km/s. What would be the escape velocity on the surface of another planet of the same mass but 1/4 times the radius of the earth? (a) 22.4 km/s (b) 44.8 km/s (c) 5.6 km/s (d) 11.2 km/s 14. A particle of mass ‘m’ is kept at rest at a height 3Rfrom the surface of earth, where ‘R’ is radius of earth and ‘M’ is mass of earth. The minimum speed with which it should be projected, so that it does not return back, is (g is acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 15. Radiation from which of the following sources, approximates black body radiation best? (a) A tungsten lamp (b) Sodium flame (c) Hot lamp black (d) A hole in a cavity, maintained at constant temperature 16.

(a) P1 ACBP2 P1 (b) ACBB'A'A (c) ACBDA (d) ADBB'A'A 17. During an isothermal expansion, a confined ideal gas does –150 J of work against its surroundings. This implies that (a) 150 J heat has been removed from the gas (b) 300 J of heat has been added to the gas (c) no heat is transferred because the process is isothermal (d) 150 J of heat has been added to the gas 18. The amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1g of Helium at NTP, from T1 K to T2 K is

(a)

(b)

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(c)

(d) 19. There is a body having mass m and performing S.H.M. with amplitude a. There is a restoring force F= –kx. The total energy of body depends upon (a) k, x (b) k, a (c) k, a, x (d) k, a, v

20. A particle of mass m oscillates along x-axis according to equation x = a sin ωt. The nature of the graph between momentum and displacement of the particle is (a) straight line passing through origin (b) circle (c) hyperbola (d) ellipse 21. An organ pipe P1 closed at one end vibrating in its first overtone and another pipe P2, open at both ends vibrating in its third overtone are in resonance with a given tuning fork. The ratio of lengths of P1 and P2 respectively are given by (a) 1: 2 (b) 1: 3 (c) 3: 8 (d) 3: 4 22. Each of the two strings of length 51.6 cm and 49.1 cm are tensioned separately by 20 N force. Mass per unit length of both the strings is same and equal to 1 g/m. When both the strings vibrate simultaneously the number of beats is (a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 3 (d) 5

23. A semi-circular arc of radius ‘a’ is charged uniformly and the charge per unit length is λ. The electric field at the centre of this arc is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 24. If the potential of a capacitor having capacity 6 μF is increased from 10 V to 20 V, then increase in its energy will be (a) 4 × 10–4 J (b) 4 × 10–4 J (c) 9 × 10–4 J (d) 12 × 10–6 J 25.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 26.

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(a) It is the same in all three cases (b) Wire of cross-sectional area 2A (c) Wire of cross-sectional area A (d) Wire of cross-sectional area 1/2 A 27. Resistances n, each of r ohm, when connected in parallel give an equivalent resistance of Rohm. If these resistances were connected in series, the combination would have a resistance in ohms, equal to (a) nR (b) n2R (c) R/n2 (d) R/n 28.

(a) 4 volt (b) 8 volt (c) 10 volt (d) 2 volt 29. An electron enters a region where magnetic field (B) and electric field (E) are mutually perpendicular, then (a) it will always move in the direction of B (b) it will always move in the direction of E (c) it always possesses circular motion (d) it can go undeflected also 30. The magnetic moment of a diamagnetic atom is (a) equal to zero [2010] (b) much greater than one (c) 1 (d) between zero and one

31.

(a) 0.5 A (b) 0.1 A (c) 2 A (d) 1 A 32. Power dissipated in an LCR series circuit connected to an a.c source of emf is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 33. We consider the radiation emitted by the human body. Which of the following statements is true? (a) the radiation emitted lies in the ultraviolet region and hence is not visible. (b) the radiation emitted is in the infra-red region. (c) the radiation is emitted only during the day. (d) the radiation is emitted during the summers and absorbed during the winters. 34. (a) (b) (c) (d) 35. A converging beam of rays is incident on a diverging lens. Having passed through the lens the

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rays intersect at a point 15 cm from the lens on the opposite side. If the lens is removed the point where the rays meet will move 5 cm closer to the lens. The focal length of the lens is (a) – 10 cm (b) 20 cm (c) –30 cm (d) 5 cm 36. In Young’s double slit experiment, the slits are 0 mm apart and are illuminated by photons of two wavelengths λ1 = 12000Åand λ2 = 10000Å. At what minimum distance from the common central bright fringe on the screen 2 m from the slit will a bright fringe from one interference pattern coincide with a bright fringe from the other? (a) 6 mm (b) 4 mm (c) 3 mm (d) 8 mm 37. As the intensity of incident light increases (a) photoelectric current increases [1999] (b) K. E. of emitted photoelectrons increases (c) photoelectric current decreases (d) K.E. of emitted photoelectrons decreases 38. Electrons used in an electron microscope are accelerated by a voltage of 25 kV. If the voltage is increased to 100kVthen the de–Broglie wavelength associated with the electrons would (a) increase by 2 times (b) decrease by 2 times (c) decrease by 4 times (d) increase by 4 times 39. An electron changes its position from orbit n = 2 to the orbit n = 4 of an atom. The wavelength of the emitted radiations is (R= Rydberg’s constant) (a) 16/ R (b) 16 /3R (c) 16/ 5R (d) 16/ 7R 40. Curie is a unit of (a) energy of gamma-rays (b) half-life (c) radioactivity (d) intensity of gamma-rays 41. A free neutron decays into a proton, an electron and

(a) a beta particle (b) an alpha particle (c) an anti-neutrino (d) a neutrino 42.

(a) equal to 1 (b) greater than 1 (c) less than 1 (d) depends on the mass of the parent nucleus 43. How does the binding energy per nucleon vary with the increase in the number of nucleons? (a) Increases continuously with mass number (b) Decreases continuously with mass number (c) First decreases and then increases with increase in mass number (d) First increases and then decreases with increase in mass number 44.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 45. Of the diodes shown in following diagrams, which one is reverse biased?

(a)

(b)

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(c)

(d) 1. b 2. d 3. b 4. b 5. a 6. a 7. d 8. a 9. c 10. b 11. b 12. c 13. b 14. a 15. c 16. d 17. b 18. b 19. a 20. a 21. d 22. d 23. b 24. b 25. c 26. a 27. a 28. c 29. d 30. b 31. b 32. d 33. d 34. d 35. a 36. c 37. d 38. d 39. d 40. b 41. b 42. d 43. a 44. c 45. a 46. d 47. c 48. c 49. b 50. c 51. a 52. b 53. a 54. d 55. b 56. b 57. b 58. b 59. b 60. d 61. b 62. a 63. c 64. c 65. b 66. b 67. b 68. a 69. c 70. b 71. b 72. c 73. d 74. a 75. b 76. a 77. a 78. b 79. d 80. b 81. a 82. a 83. c 84. a 85. c 86. a 87. a 88. a 89. b 90. c 1. a 2. d 3. c 4. b 5. a 6. d 7. b 8. d 9. b 10. c 11. a 12. b 13. d 14. d 15. c 16. b 17. b 18. b 19. b 20. a 21. b 22. a 23. c 24. b 25. c 26. c 27. b 28. b 29. a 30. c 31. b 32. c 33. d 34. a 35. b 36. a 37. d 38. a 39. b 40. c 41. d 42. d 43. a 44. c 45. b 1. b 2. d 3. b 4. c 5. b 6. a 7. b 8. b 9. d 10. a 11. d 12. a 13. a 14. b 15. d 16. c 17. a 18. d 19. b 20. d 21. c 22. a 23. a 24. c 25. c 26. b 27. b 28. c 29. d 30. a 31. a 32. d 33. b 34. c 35. c 36. a 37. a 38. b 39. b 40. c 41. c 42. c 43. d 44. d 45. d