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BİLKENT ÜNİVERSİTESİ

BİLKENT ÜNİVERSİTESİ OPE

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Page 1: BİLKENT ÜNİVERSİTESİ OPE

BİLKENT ÜNİVERSİTESİ

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BİLKENT ÜNİVERSİTESİ

OPE (Certificate Of Proficiency in English)

Sınavı Bilkent’e özgü olan bir sınavdır. Sadece Bilkent Üniversitesi öğrencilerinin İngilizce seviyesini ölçmek amacı tașır.Bilkent Üniversitesi öğrencilerine yılda 3 defa OCAK – HAZİRAN – EYLÜL aylarında uygulanır.

Sınavlara Bilkent Üniversitesini yeni kazanmıș, Bilkent hazırlıkta halen okumakta olan veya Bilkent hazırlık okulundan ilișiği kesilmiș öğrenciler katılabilir.

Hazırlık okulundan ilișiği kesilmiș öğrencilere COPE sınavına en fazla üç defa katılma hakkı verilmiștir.

COPE sınavı 5 ayrı bölümden olușmaktadır. Geçme notu minimum C olup 2 yıllık bölüm öğrencileri için 50, 4 yıllık bölüm öğrencileri için 60 puanlık ortalama istenmektedir.

İngilizce Hazırlık Programı sırasıyla Bașlangıç (Elementary), Orta Öncesi (Pre-Intermediate), Orta (Intermediate), Orta Üstü (Upper Intermediate) ve Bölüm Öncesi (Pre-Faculty) düzeylerden olușur.

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Hiç İngilizce bilmeyen bir öğrenci için İngilizce Hazırlık Programı’nın normal süresi bir yıldır. Programı bașarıyla tamamlayıp COPE sınavını geçen öğrenciler, bölüm derslerine kayıt yaptırarak eğitimlerine devam eder.

Hazırlık Programı’na ara seviyelerden bașlayıp COPE sınavını bir dönemde geçen öğrencilerin, ikinci dönemde bölümlerine bașlamaları da mümkündür.

COPE 2. așama bașarı notu en az %60′tır. Bu sınavda bașarılı bulunan ya da Bilkent Üniversitesi tarafından kabul edilen harici sınavların birinden istenilen düzeyde puan alan öğrenciler, İngilizce Hazırlık Programı’ndan muaf olur ve doğrudan bölümlerindeki eğitimlerine bașlar.

Yukarıda da belirtildiği gibi COPE sınavında bașarılı sayılmak için kabul edilen bașarı notu en az %60′tır.

COPE Sınavlarıyla İlgili Duyuru (Mayıs 2012) *

COPE ikinci așama sınavı halen 82′si çoktan seçmeli olmak üzere toplam 150 sorudan olușmaktadır. Bu sorular 5 ayrı bölüm (okuma, dinleme, yazma, dilbilgisi, konușma) olarak düzenlenmiștir.Bu güne değin ikinci așama sınavında bașarılı sayılmak için hem toplam puanda bașarılı olmak, hem de 5 bölümde ayrı ayrı bölüm barajını geçmek gerekmekteydi.

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2012 Haziran sınavından itibaren bașarılı olmak için sadece toplam puanda barajı geçmek yeterli olacak, ayrı ayrı bölüm barajı uygulanmayacaktır.Toplam 150 soru sabit kalmak üzere, çoktan seçmeli soruların sayısı 2012 Eylül sınavından bașlayarak 65′e, 2013 Eylül sınavından bașlayarak 45′e düșürülecektir.

Çoktan seçmeli sorularda halen 4 olan șık sayısı 2012 Eylül sınavından bașlayarak 5′e çıkartılacaktır. Gene bu sınavdan bașlayarak çoktan seçmeli sorularda 4 yanlıș 1 doğruyu götürecek ve baraj notu bununla orantılı olarak düșürülecektir.

Benzer biçimde, tamamı çoktan seçmeli sorulardan olușan COPE birinci așama sınavında da 2012 Eylül sınavından bașlayarak șık sayısı 5′e yükseltilecek, 4 yanlıș bir doğruyu götürecek, baraj puanları bununla orantılı olarak düșürülecektir.

Gene 2012 Eylül sınavından bașlayarak birinci așamada halen 170 olan soru sayısı, 200’e yükseltilecektir.Bu yıldan itibaren, İngilizce Hazırlık Programı’ndaki ikinci yılının bahar yarıyılını “dıșarıdan hazırlanan” öğrenci statüsünde geçiren öğrenciler, Haziran ayında verilen COPE sınavına girebileceklerdir. (Bu öğrenciler Ocak ayında olduğu gibi önce birinci așama sınavına alınacaklardır.)

Sınav sonuçlarına bağlı olarak, sınavda bașarılı olamayan öğrencilerden bir bölümü, eğer isterlerse yaz okulunda fakülte öncesi (PFC) düzeyi veya COPE hazırlık programını takip edebileceklerdir. İngilizce Hazırlık Programı’nda iki yılını dolduran tüm öğrenciler Eylül ayında verilen COPE sınavına girebilecektir.2012 yılından bașlayarak, İngilizce Hazırlık Programı’nda iki yılını doldurduğu için Eylül ayında COPE sınavına girecek öğrenciler sadece ikinci așama sınavına alınacak, birinci așamaya girmeleri gerekmeyecektir.

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Yukarıda belirtilen değișiklikler, COPE sınavında șans faktörünü azaltarak İngilizce bilgi ve becerisini daha da öne çıkarmak amacıyla yapılmaktadır.

Bilkent Üniversitesi COPE adını verdiği bir sınavla öğrencilerini Hazırlık Atlama Sınavına tabi tutmaktadır.

COPE sınavında gramer , okuma , dinleme ve yazma becerileri test edilmektedir.

Sınav 2 așamadan olușuyor.

1.AȘAMA: Kur belirleme sınavı. 170 soru var. Grammar ve Vocabulary’den olușuyor. Çoktan seçmeli bir sınav. 4 șık var. Basitten bașlayıp zora doğru gidiyor. Tıpkı Tömer’deki seviye tespit sınavı gibi. Geçme notu %60 ( 102).

Not: 1. așamayı geçemeyen 2. așamaya giremiyor.

2.AȘAMA : 4 bölüm var.

a) READING: 35 soru var. 3 kısa 2 de orta uzunlukta toplam 20 sorudan olușan 5 metin var. Bir de 15 soruluk uzun bir metin var.

Geçme notu %60 (21)

Reference tipi sorular var.

“Where’s this text taken from?” (Newspaper, Magazine, Article…) tipi sorular var.

“Tone” soruları var. Yazarın tarzı soruluyor (Indifferent, Coherent, Pessimistic, Optimistic, Sarcastic, Ridiculous, Cynical…)

“Main Idea” soruları var.

Soru tipleri Toefl’a biraz benziyor.

Bu bölümün süresi 75 dk.

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b) WRITING: 2 konu veriliyor ve biri hakkında yazılıyor. Discussive Essay veya Free writing Akademik Writing olacak. Așağı yukarı 350 kelimelik bir Essay olacak. 20 üzerinden 12 almak gerekiyor.

Süre 60 dk.

c) LISTENING: 2 adet 15’er soruluk Text var. Bir kere okunuyor. Öğrenciler dinlerken not alıyor. Sorular sonradan dağıtılıyor. Çoktan seçmeli sorular. Metinler genelde bilimsel oluyor. 30 dk. dinleme tutuyor. 25 dk. da cevaplama tutuyor. Toplam 55 dk. Sürüyor. 30 üzerinden 18 almak gerekiyor (%60).

d) USE OF ENGLISH (Grammar) : 35 soru var.

Word Formation (8 soru)

Cloze test (10 soru)

Vocabulary (10 soru, yakın anlam) – çoktan seçmeli

Fill in the blanks (7 soru, tamamen gramer) - çoktan seçmeli

21 alan geçiyor. Süre 40 dk.

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COPE EXAM PRACTICE 12

LISTENING 1

INSOMNIA

1. The speaker starts the lecture by __________.

A) talking about the importance of getting a good night sleep

B) defining what insomnia means

C) expressing how insomnia becomes efficient

D) giving the approximate number of people who suffer from insomnia

2. What is the persentage of people who have insomnia in the world?

A) 15 % B) 40 % C) 50% D) 60%

3. Insomnia has a strong relationship with _________.

A) concentration

B) age

C) tiredness

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D) sex

4. According to the lecture which one of the following is NOT correct?

A) Insomnia affects people more as they get older.

B) Women generally tend to have more sleep disorder problems.

C) People with insomnia often complain about the loss of physical abilities.

D) Around 17% of the adult population have some serious sleeping problems.

5. Which one is NOT defined as an effect of insomnia?

A) Loss of capacity C) Loss of concentration

B) Loss of memory D) Loss of attention

6. The speaker says it is WRONG to define the feeling as tiredness because ______.

A) it is rather related with mental issues

B) it does not depend on any physical effort

C) it should rather be described as discomfort

D) the right word to describe this feeling is being sleepy

7. It CANNOT be inferred from the lecture that _________.

A) insomnia mostly damages people’s ability to function in the workplace

B) on account of insomnia it becomes inevitable to get rid of anxiety

C) people might have problems with their memory

D) a person experiencing sleep problems becomes less productive

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8. Which of the following is NOT affected by insomnia?

A) workplace C) personal relationships

B) intellectual life D) family life

9. There is not a set amount of sleep that everyone needs to get because ________.

A) it is different for different age groups and people

B) it changes according to the life styles of people

C) it depends on the hardness of their occupations

D) the older people become,the more sleep they need

10. Adequate sleep for a person depends on __________.

A) the genetic structure of him C) his working hours

B) the hours he is able to stay awake D) how tiring his job is

11.An average adequate sleep should be __________.

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A) 6 hours C) between 6 and 9 hours

B) more than 6 hours D) approximately 8 hours

12.Which one is NOT mentioned as a reason for sleeping problems?

A) poor sleeping environment C) particular problem in their life

B) severe mental disorders D) stress caused by a medical problem

13. One of the ways to overcome insomnia CANNOT be __________.

A) developing eating habits

B) going to bed at a set time every night

C) paying attention to the lightening of the room

D) having short sleeps during the day

14. Before deciding on the right therapy, people should first realize that _________.

A) it’s important to recogize the problem

B) changes must be applied to some of their habits

C) they need to consult a doctor

D) they might need to use pills

15. The lecturer seems to suggest __________.

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A) taking action as soon as possible

B) overcoming this problem with only therapies

C) using pills

D) letting the time sweep it away

COPE EXAM PRACTICE 12

LISTENING 2

PRIMATES

16. The main focus of the lecture is to __________.

A) explain how a primate can be trained to communicate

B) discuss whether primates share any characteristics with humans

C) find out the ways how a language can be taught to primates

D) express the two different points of view upon the linguistic capacity of

primates

17. Chomsky is NOT among the scientists who __________.

A) define primates as creatures that do not have ability to talk

B) are against that only humans communicate through a language

C) suggest primates can be trained to do certain things

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D) support the idea that primates can learn a language

18. According to the talk, certain scientists argue that only humans can have a

language because __________.

A) primates do not have an efficient linguistic competence as human beings do

B) man is the only creature who has the ability to communicate

C) communication through language started after human beings evolved from

primates

D) theories could not manage to prove that other species can communicate

19. That children learn a language very easily leads us to think __________.

A) they are naturally more successful in communication than any other creature

B) humans have an innate capacity to learn a language

C) they are linguistically more intelligent than adults

D) learning a language is not so hard as many believe

20. Primates can be trained to do certain things just to __________.

A) get an award C) get affection

B) learn a language D) get appreciation

21. The reason why researchers chose primates for their study CANNOT be that_.

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A) human beings evolved from primates

B) there are many things primates and humans have in common

C) they are the most capable ones to communicate among the species

D) they have some behavioral characteristics with humans

22. The first study mentioned makes use of __________.

A) gestures C) American Sign Language

B) the blind alphabet D) a computer keyboard

23. After he had learned an important number of words, he could __________.

A) produce new sentences

B) respond to 70% of new commands accurately

C) easily connect sentences

D) correct words and sentences which he had never heard of

24. When he reached the age of 6, the baby chimp had learned __________.

A) 100 words B) 200 words C) 300 words D) 400 words

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25. Which is NOT among the important things the female chimpanzee learned to do?

A) She was able to respond to all of the commands given to her.

B) She was able to combine the signs she learned to make a sentence.

C) She was able to use her signs to communicate with her trainers.

D) She was able to use a new sign which she used in a new situation.

26.The aim of the new project held in 1979 was to __________.

A) make the female chimpanzee discipline her offspring

B) observe the communication problems baby chimpanzee had with his mother

C) see if a baby chimpanzee would learn a human language from its mother

D) make the male chimpanzee respond to the commands

27.How did the baby chimpanzee learn more than fifty signs?

A) By observing his mother C) He knows these signs naturally

B) With the help of his trainers D) Other chimps taught him

28. A study carried out on a family of five chimps is important in that _________.

A) it shows the chimps’ capacity to learn words

B) the way they use sign language resembles to the way children do

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C) it is a good example of training chimps to talk

D) it invalidates the theory that primates can use a language

29. It will be WRONG to say according to the lecture that chimpanzees can _____.

A) understand and produce new sentences

B) translate words to sign language

C) teach sign language to their children

D) learn more easily how to use a sign language than children

30. What is the speaker’s attitude about the importance of the studies?

A) hopeful B) cynical C) critical D) ignorant

COPE EXAM PRACTICE 12

READING

Part One Questions 1- 8

First Passage

Until two years ago, Clearing, Illinois was a tranquil suburb of Chicago. But residents grew alarmed when they noticed armed teenagers on the streets, giving gang signals and shouting at passing cars. Then came a series

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of burglaries and graffiti messages on storefronts. By the time local authorities realized they had a gang problem, it was too late. Last December, two 13-year-old girls were shot outside their school as they sat in a car with two members of a local gang, the Ridgeway Lords.

Nearly all 50 states have recently passed laws that allow youths aged 14-17 to be tried in court as adults. In about 25 states, they have passed laws to punish parents for their children’s behaviour. And in 146 of the nation’s largest cities, they have imposed curfews, that is not letting people go outside at night, to reduce juvenile violence. When you look at the spectacular rise of violent crime among young people recently, it’s easy to understand the concern. Over the past decade, there has been a decline in adult murders in the US, while murder rates have surged for youths between14-17.

For young offenders who aren’t sent to prison, the punishments vary: some are ordered to perform community service, others are placed in job training programs, still others are sent to youth prisons. But the Republicans in Congress want to reverse a basic principle of juvenile justice: the separation of young criminals from hardened adult criminals in prison. The reasons are partly financial — to reduce the cost of having separate prisons for young people — and partly psychological — to end what a Republican consider as society’s overly protective attitude towards young criminals.

1. Which one CANNOT be the reason for people’s fright in lllionis?

A) People’s lives were threatened by armed teenagers.

B) Teenagers harmed the properties around them.

C) Local authorities were too late to take action.

D) Teenagers harrased the residences and the people.

2. What is the reason for administrations’ passing laws for the trial of the teenagers?

A) They wanted to make parents aware of the situation.

B) They realized a change in the murder defendant profile.

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C) They wanted to prevent the crime between the age 14-17.

D) They could not put the curfews into action effectively.

3. Which one is NOT an example of the types of punishment given to young criminals?

A) Collecting the garbage in the streets.

B) Attending to a plumber training course.

C) Being a prisoner for some time.

D) Separation from the hardened criminals.

Second Passage

Waldo Wilcox knew there was trouble the moment he saw the injured deer carcass, not far from one of the meadows where his cattle grazed. His dogs, Dink and Shortie, sensed it too — mountain lion. He grabbed his pistol and a rope from his truck, and said, “Let’s get him.” Then he headed up the mountainside, his dogs racing far ahead.

Wilcox moved in long strides up the rocky grade. Still, it took some time before he topped the summit. The big cat was not 50 yards in front of him, its teeth bared, cornered by the dogs on a massive sandstone ledge.

Wilcox gripped his gun. He hoped to take the mountain lion alive and sell it to a zoo; he’d done that before and made a tidy profit. But when he moved within 10 feet, the cat moved suddenly. Wilcox pointed his gun to it, his pistol cracked, and there was a sudden silence as the animal fell powerlessly to the ground.

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It wasn’t until the red dust had settled and Wilcox’s pulse had slowed that he gazed around. What he saw stunned him. High on the bluff lay an archeological treasure trove -- large shards of pottery, stone shelters that once housed whole families, and domed structures that had held wild grains harvested centuries before Europeans set foot in North America.

Wilcox made his discovery on the bluff almost 20 years ago -- but it was not the first time he had found relics on his land. Since 1951, when his father bought the high-valley Range Creek animal farm, a year had seldom passed in which Wilcox did not come upon some spot of archeological interest: lots of arrowheads, rock-wall drawings, other ancient dwellings and granaries. Occasionally he came across burial lands.

4. For what reason Wilcox went to catch the lion?

A) It would make him earn some money.

B) It was a danger for the deer.

C) He followed his dogs to the mountain.

D) He wanted to see what was there on the summit.

5. Why was Wilcox astonished when the red dust settled?

A) He saw the lion on the floor.

B) He found archeological goods.

C) He found the first European settlers.

D) He saw ancient houses of large families.

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6. What can be said about the place where Wilcox lives?

A) Mountain lions are seen frequently.

B) It is surrounded by mountains.

C) It is rich in archeological aspects.

D) Archeological goods are found every year.

Third Passage

Asthma is a disease of the human respiratory system in which the main air passages of the lungs and bronchial tubes become inflamed. The muscles of the bronchial walls tighten and extra mucus is produced causing your airways to narrow. The result could range from minor wheezing to severe difficulty in breathing. In some cases, your breathing may be so labored that an asthma attack becomes life-threatening. Because asthma causes resistance or obstruction, to exhaled air, it is called an obstructive lung disease. The medical term for such lung conditions is chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, or COPD. COPD is actually a group of diseases that include not only asthma, but also chronic bronchitis and emphysema. Unlike other chronic obstructive lung diseases, asthma is irreversible, but it can be controlled.

Some people outgrow asthma as they get older and no longer have attacks. Other people are able to avoid the things that trigger an asthma attack. For many people, however, asthma is a chronic disease that always requires care and treatment to prevent or minimize breathing problems. About 50% of children who develop asthma between 2 and 10 years of age will naturally outgrow the attacks. But asthma may recur when they reach their

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30s or 40s. Asthma is a serious disease, and requires treatment. It can reduce your child’s ability to exercise and may harm his or her self-image. Since there are safe and effective ways to treat asthma, there is no reason to allow a child to suffer its symptoms.

7. The reason why asthma is called “obstructive lung disease” is that it __________.

A) hinders the exhalation

B) includes a group of diseases

C) threatens the patient’s life

D) produces extra mucus

8. It is obvious from the text that __________.

A) old people do not have asthma

B) age has a vital role in the occurrence of asthma

C) about 50% of children aged between 2 and 10 develop asthma

D) asthma does not occur again when treated once

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Part Two Questions 9-20

First passage

1 You may know that around the world more people drink coffee than tea. And that, after oil, it is the second biggest traded commodity. You may also know that the drink comes from beans which are first roasted and then ground. But what else do you know about this popular stimulant?

2 It is said that the story of coffee started with an Ethiopian goatherd named Kaldi. One day, Kaldi was surprised to see that his goats were behaving very strangely: instead of grazing quietly as normal they were jumping around, almost dancing. He also noticed the red cherries from a plant that the goats were eating. He tried some himself and was surprised by the feeling of extreme happiness and excitement - he felt like dancing, too!

3 But it wasn’t used as a drink at first, but as a type of food. The coffee berries, mixed with animal fat, were used by monks to stay awake during long hours of prayer. From Ethiopia coffee was later cultivated in Yemen and the first hot drink was developed there around AD 1000. Three centuries later, Muslims were keen coffee drinkers and as Islam spread, so did coffee. Coffee houses appeared in Cairo and Mecca.

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4 For hundreds of years the plants were guarded safely. But some beans were smuggled out of Arabia and taken to India. In the 17th century, coffee was soon growing in a new continent. From India to Indonesia and then a century later beans were smuggled once again to Brazil - which is now the largest coffee producer in the world.

5 It is the caffeine, an addictive stimulant drug, which made the goats dance and kept the monks awake. Although it is found in other soft drinks, including tea, coffee has the most caffeine. 150 milligrams is the minimum dose needed to stimulate the nervous system and this can be found in a single strong cup of coffee. In the short-term a couple of cups can prevent fatigue and delay sleep. But several cups a day, every day, can cause anxiety and restlessness.

6 There is a belt around the middle of the world between the tropics of Capricorn and Cancer. A coffee plant likes lots of rain and shaded sun with rich soil, and the climate in the bean belt is ideal. 70 - 75% of the world production is the milder, higher quality Arabica that originated in Ethiopia. It grows best in higher altitudes where it is not so hot. The remaining 25 % is the stronger Robusta which can survive in higher temperatures and lower altitudes.

7 Before becoming beans the fruit of the coffee trees, known as a cherry, is harvested. The most common method is for the cherries to be picked by hand and then dried in the sun on tables or on the ground. Once they are dried all the outer layers are removed. The red cherries have become green beans. Known now as green coffee the beans are put in 60kg bags and shipped abroad.

8 Although the coffee is grown and harvested in the tropics, 70% of the total coffee production is imported by countries in the North who control the market. How long the coffee is roasted for depends on the market: only 7 minutes for the North Americans who prefer a light roast, but double that

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time for espresso coffee favored by the Italians. Nestle and Kraft account for almost 80% of all the instant-coffee sales worldwide,

ANSWER THE QUESTIONS ACCORDING TO THE TEXT

9. What was the effect of coffee beans like on Kaldi?

A) He saw illusions around him.

B) He thought he could dance.

C) He was affected more than the goats.

D) He felt different from that he was.

10. What does ‘cultivate’ mean in paragraph 3?

A) import

B) process

C) produce

D) develop

11. Which one below CANNOT be concluded from the passage?

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A) Muslims met coffee at around 1300 A.D.

B) Monks drank coffee with animal fat to stay awake.

C) The spread of coffee showed parallelism with Islam.

D) Coffee was used as a beverage first in Yemen.

12. The problem with coffee is that it __________.

A) can be used as a drug

B) causes short term side effects

C) has caffeine as soft drinks have

D) may cause deep breakdowns

13. It is clear from the text that coffee __________.

A) is both produced and imported in mild climate

B) processing shows differences for different places

C) marketing is manipulated completely by northerners

D) marketing mostly depends on supply and demand

14. The text CANNOT be taken from a __________.

A) literature journal

B) research paper

C) medical publishing

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D) scientific magazine

Second passage

1 Every second, 1 hectare of the world’s rainforests is destroyed. That’s equivalent to two football fields. An area the size of New York City is lost every day. In a year, that adds up to 31 million hectares -- more than the land area of Poland. This alarming rate of destruction has serious consequences for the environment; scientists estimate, for example, that 137 species of plant, insect or animal become extinct every day due to logging. In British Columbia, where, since 1990, thirteen rainforest valleys have been clear cut, 142 species of salmon have already become extinct, and the habitats of grizzly bears, wolves and many other creatures are threatened. Logging, however, provides jobs, profits, taxes for the government and cheap products of all kinds for consumers, so the government is reluctant to restrict or control it.

2 Much of Canada’s forestry production goes towards making pulp and paper. According to the Canadian Pulp and Paper Association, Canada supplies 34% of the world’s wood pulp and 49% of its newsprint paper. If these paper products could be produced in some other way, Canadian forests could be preserved. Recently, a possible alternative way of producing paper has been suggested by agriculturalists and environmentalists: a plant called hemp.

3 Hemp has been cultivated by many cultures for thousands of years. It produces fibre which can be made into paper, fuel, oils, textiles, food, and rope. For many centuries, it was essential to the economies of many countries because it was used to make the ropes and cables used on sailing

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ships; colonial expansion and the establishment of a world-wide trading network would not have been possible without hemp. Nowadays, ships’ cables are usually made from wire or synthetic fibres, but scientists are now suggesting that the cultivation of hemp should be revived for the production of paper and pulp. According to its proponents, four times as much paper can be produced from land using hemp rather than trees, and many environmentalists believe that the large-scale cultivation of hemp could reduce the pressure on Canada’s forests.

4 However, there is a problem: hemp is illegal in many countries of the world. This plant, so useful for fibre, rope, oil, fuel and textiles, is a species of cannabis, related to the plant from which marijuana is produced. In the late 1930s, a movement to ban the drug marijuana began to gather force, resulting in the eventual banning of the cultivation not only of the plant used to produce the drug, but also of the commercial fibre-producing hemp plant. Although both George Washington and Thomas Jefferson grew hemp in large quantities on their own land, any American growing the plant today would soon find himself in prison -- despite the fact that marijuana cannot be produced from the hemp plant, since it contains almost no THC (the active ingredient in the drug).

5 In recent years, two major movements for legalization have been gathering strength. One group of activists believes that ALL cannabis should be legal -- both the hemp plant and the marijuana plant -- and that the use of the drug marijuana should not be an offense. They argue that marijuana is not dangerous or addictive, and that it is used by large numbers of people who are not criminals but productive members of society. They also point out that marijuana is less toxic than alcohol or tobacco. The other legalization movement is concerned only with the hemp plant used to produce fibre; this group wants to make it legal to cultivate the plant and sell the fibre for paper and pulp production. This second group has had a major triumph recently: in 1997, Canada legalized the farming of hemp for fibre. For the first time since 1938, hundreds of farmers are planting this crop, and soon we can expect to see pulp and paper produced from this new source.

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ANSWER THE QUESTIONS ACCORDING TO THE TEXT

15. It is clearly understood from the first paragraph that __________.

A) New York City loses a great amount of land area everyday

B) clearing out the lands is threatening the world every moment

C) Poland is one of the countries under the threat of desertification

D) many people are alarmed at the danger for the environment

16. According to paragraph 1, ‘logging’ probably means __________.

A) destroying the natural habitat of the livings

B) damaging the plant species in an ecology

C) business of cutting and felling trees

D) a governmental work for new fields of business

17. Hemp is such a plant that it is __________.

A) easy to raise and cultivate

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B) used multi-functionally

C) basically used for ropes and cables

D) four times more productive than a tree

18. Hemp is forbidden in many places because it is used for __________.

A) narcotics

B) medical drugs

C) fiber

D) cannabis

19. According to paragraph 5, activists argue that marijuana __________.

A) is not used by criminals

B) contributes to productivity

C) is different from what it is thought to be

D) is not used like cigarette or alcohol

20. It is obvious that the second movement of legalization is mostly concerned with _______.

A) innovations in cultivation

B) practicality of the plant

C) legal rights and justice

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D) fertility of the agriculture

Part Three Questions 21 - 35

1 Dr. Stephen Ssesanga thought he was doing just another routine check on a newly admitted patient at the hospital in Bundabigyo, in western Uganda. The man was unable to hold food down, had a very high fever and was having problems breathing and talking. “It seemed to me to be a textbook case of Ebola,” says Ssesanga, the hospital’s chief medical superintendent, “but I couldn’t tell for sure.” The man died a few days later, on Nov. 27. Last Friday health officials confirmed the reason for Ssesanga’s doubt: a new strain of the deadly Ebola virus is spreading through Uganda. Ssesanga’s patient, it seems, had contracted the disease, and the symptoms didn’t exactly correspond to known forms of Ebola that caused trouble in the past. By then Ssesanga had a bigger problem: he had contracted the new Ebola virus.

2 Ssesanga, who’s been battling the disease for the past week, has almost regained his strength and appetite. Of eight other medical staff members in his hospital who have become infected with the virus, three have died. “They were all buried today,” Ssesanga said, though he was unable to leave his quarantine to pay his respects. Funerals, Ssesanga says, are too dangerous in western Uganda right now.

3 In the last week an outbreak of a new strain of the Ebola virus has ravaged villages across the rural districts of western Uganda. As it has spread, the outbreak has plunged Uganda into a health crisis and put the entire Great Lakes region, from Rwanda to Kenya, on high alert. Ebola II

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is the fifth strain of the virus since its discovery near the Ebola River in the Democratic Republic of Congo, in 1976. Some scientists think the new strain of Ebola may be a milder form than earlier strains, which is not necessarily good news—the high mortality rate has previously helped keep transmission levels low, as infected people got sick and died before they could infect too many others. A mild version of Ebola could, in theory, spread more effectively through populations—though health officials are quick to say that there’s no solid evidence that this strain is spreading more quickly than past outbreaks.

4 The current outbreak was first reported in western Uganda in late August, but because of a variety of logistical and clinical difficulties, not the least being that many locals consult herbalists and traditional healers rather than medical practitioners, confirmation was slow in coming. As of now, with 33 reported dead out of a total of nearly 71 infections in the epicenter Bundabigyo district, the virus appears to have a considerably higher survival rate than the four prior strains. Officials from the U.S. Centers for Disease Control emphasize that the data are not conclusive. To confirm the mortality rate, doctors must make further study of patients in the field. Only when that work is done, weeks from now, will they be able to characterize the new strain.

5 Ugandan officials have refused to comment on how the current outbreak got started, and epidemiologists from the CDC and World Health Organization are actively working to pin down the source. According to a number of other Ugandan and foreign doctors with clinical knowledge of the outbreak, the present consensus is that this strain originated in a monkey killed and eaten by a Ugandan man and his family in the highland village of Kyiko, near the Congolese border. The hunter and four of his 14 family members, battling high fevers and extreme nausea, sought care at a government-run hospital, where medical workers, puzzled by their symptoms, treated them for food poisoning.

6 The eating of monkey and “bushmeat” is an accepted tradition throughout the eastern Congo—monkeys, dead and alive, are sold in markets for consumption. But because the practice is prohibited in Uganda, people tend to deny it. The hunter’s claim that he had become sick from

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consuming infected goat meat, which is considered to be an unlikely carrier for Ebola, certainly didn’t help health workers identify the disease.

7 Like other cases, this Ebola II strain has an incubation period of up to 21 days before an infected person experiences symptoms. Earlier Ugandan health ministry inquires into a so-called “mystery” virus in western Uganda spawned speculative diagnosis of the Marburg virus, a feared hemorrhagic fever similar to Ebola that was successfully contained after an outbreak among Ugandan mine workers last July. Ebola is not airborne, but rather passes through contact with bodily fluids or skin. Studies have shown that in the past it has spread to humans from contact with wild chimpanzees, antelope and gorillas, according to analysis of cases in the Congo, Gabon, and Sierra Leone. And with 13 different primate species, the Bundabigyo region of Uganda has the most variation of primates on earth.

8 Allegations that the government intentionally concealed the outbreak have swirled through newly beautified Kampala since the announcement of the new Ebola strain last week. Today the state-run New Vision newspaper lashed out against the ministry of health for mishandling the situation, blaming the deaths and new infections of medical staff on the lack of readily available protective gear and under funded hospitals in the outbreak region.

9 Dr. Jakson Amone, a senior health ministry official in Bundadisgyo, is concerned about the possibility of the new strain of Ebola spreading across the rest of Uganda and into its relatively populous capital, Kampala. “It’s hard to treat something you’ve never seen before,” he says. A task force of local doctors and specialists from the CDC, the World Heath Organization and Doctors without Borders as well as local and international NGOs are working around the clock to contain the outbreak. “We have plenty of manpower on the ground now. We are going from village to village

looking to find and isolate new cases,” says Amone. A dramatic rise in the number of reported infections in the coming days, he suggests, could be the result of better surveillance and monitoring.

10 For Dr. Ssesanga, who’s anxious to get back to his hospital when he’s fully recovered from his bout with the disease, fear and panic are the

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greatest enemies to containing the outbreak. With more cases confirmed each day, doctors and civilians are staying away from the hospital. As of this morning the usually crowded maternity ward at Bundadigybo was empty. Dr. Scott Mehyre, an American missionary doctor who runs a health clinic in a neighboring village, is down to only three doctors working in shifts clad in isolation suits. “This virus is spreading by the foot of the hills,” Ssesanga says, referring to the many people who may be affected but are trying to flee the region. “Running away is the worst thing people can do now.”

ANSWER THE QUESTIONS ACCORDING TO THE TEXT

21. One of the symptoms of Ebola disease is __________.

A) vomit

B) faint

C) dizziness

D) loss of consciousness

22. Dr. Ssesanga was doubtful about __________.

A) the transformation of the virus

B) unidentified symptoms

C) a new outbreak of the disease

D) the patient’s sudden death

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23. The funerals are very dangerous nowadays because of the __________.

A) possibility of contracting with the infected people

B) filthy environment for the patients of the virus

C) crowd which makes the virus more dangerous

D) absence of the quarantine for the diseased people

24. It is obvious in the 3rd paragraph that the__________.

A) virus affected other countries like Rwanda and Kenya

B) entire Great Lake region is under the influence of the virus

C) outbreak caused a health crisis in western Uganda

D) the virus has the potential of affecting wide areas

25. The milder form of Ebola doesn’t mean something well because __________.

A) the diseased people contract with others for longer times

B) it has still the danger of killing most of the population

C) there’s no solid evidence that it is spreading more quickly

D) it helps keep transmission levels low if it has high mortality

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26. One of the reasons for slow recognition of the disease is that the __________.

A) locals were not aware of their illnesses

B) herbalists couldn’t diagnose the virus

C) infected people didn’t consult professionals

D) practitioners couldn’t deal with the virus

27. The latest strain of the disease is thought to be __________.

A) safe among previous ones

B) more or less like others

C) not having conclusive evidence

D) causing less fatal results

28. It can be understood from the 5th paragraph that the “epidemiologists” try to find

the __________.

A) best treatment

B) origin of the disease

C) infected people

D) diseased areas

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29. According to the 5th paragraph, it is true that the disease __________.

A) was first seen in a monkey

B) affected all the family of the hunter

C) is not human originated

D) caused food poisoning in the family

30. In paragraph 6 the word “bushmeat” possible means __________.

A) the meat of wild animals

B) diseased meat

C) market name of the meat

D) diseased meat of goats

31. It is stated in the passage that the Ebola virus CANNOT be transmitted by __________.

A) respiration

B) physical contact

C) blood transfer

D) saliva

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32. According to New Vision, the ministry of health is to be blamed on __________.

A) starting the outbreak of the disease

B) the transformation of the viruses

C) dealing with the disease improperly

D) the appearance of the breakouts

33. “working around the clock” in the 9th paragraph possibly means __________.

A) around the infected area

B) shifting at certain times

C) twenty-four hours a day

D) taking the clock into account

34. According to Dr. Jason Amone the new reports can be obtained only by __________.

A) checking up as many areas as possible

B) isolating new cases from the other ones

C) monitoring the diseased people continuously

D) providing the infected areas with more manpower

35. Dr. Ssesenga suggests that the disease can spread faster if the people do not _______.

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A) report the infections to the hospital

B) visit the hospital for the new treatments

C) stay calm and avoid extreme fright

D) flee the region and the hospitals

LISTENING Part One Questions 1-15

You are going to listen to a lecture about INSOMNIA. As you listen, take notes under the headings provided. After the lecture has finished, you will be given questions to answer by using your notes. Your notes will not be marked.

.......................................................................................

INSOMNIACS

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DAILY LIVES OF INSOMNIACS

HOW MUCH SLEEP A PERSON NEEDS

TWO CATEGORIES IN INSOMNIA

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THE REASONS FOR INSOMNIA

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WHAT PEOPLE SHOULD AND SHOULD NOT DO

COPE EXAM PRACTICE

USE OF ENGLISH

PART ONE QUESTIONS 1-10

Read the following passage and choose the word that best completes the numbered spaces. Give only ONE answer to each question.

Electronic Arts is an American developer, marketer, publisher, and distributor of computer and video games. (1) _________ in 1982 by Trip Hawkins, the company was a pioneer of the early home computer games industry and was notable for promoting the designers and programmers responsible for their games. EA was just a publisher for (2)_________ first few years and exclusively published for home computers, (3) _________ began developing games in-house in the late 1980s and started supporting consoles in the early 1990s. Also in the 1990s, EA began to expand (4) _________ acquiring several successful developers and, as of the early 2000s , EA (5) _________ become the world's largest third-party publisher, with a net revenue of US$3.129 billion on its fiscal year March 31, 2005. Currently, the company's most successful products are sports games which are published under their EA Sports label, games

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that are based on popular movie licenses and games from long-running franchises (6)_________ Need for Speed, Medal of Honor and The Sims.

Electronic Arts has been criticized for its employment policy of requiring employees to work extraordinarily long hours (7) _________ to 80 hours per week—as a general rule and not just at "crunch" times leading up to the scheduled releases of products. The company (8)_________ since settled a class action lawsuit brought by game artists to compensate for "unpaid overtime" EA management demanded of its employees. The class was awarded $15.6 million.

As a result, (9) _________ of the lower-level artists are now working at an hourly rate. A similar suit brought by programmers (10) _________ settled for $14.9 million.

1. A Having established B Established C Being establish D Establish

2. A his B their C its D theirs

3. A but B thus C however D so

4. A within B by C throughout D among

5. A is B has C was D had

6. A such B as C like D alike

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7. A up B on C over D at

8. A have B has C had D is

9. A much B an amount C the number D many

10. A was B were C had D has

PART TWO QUESTIONS 11-17

Read the following passage and choose the word that best completes the numbered spaces. Give only ONE answer to each question.

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World Heritage Site is a specific site (such as a forest, mountain, lake, desert, monument, building, complex, or city) that has been nominated and (11) __________ for inclusion on the list maintained by the international World Heritage Programme administered by the UNESCO World Heritage Committee, (12) __________ of 21 State Parties (countries) which are elected by the General Assembly of States Parties for a fixed term. The programme aims to catalogue, name, and preserve sites of outstanding cultural or natural importance to the (13)__________ heritage of humankind. The programme was (14)__________ with the Convention Concerning the Protection of World Cultural and Natural Heritage on 16 November 1972. Since then, over 180 State Parties have ratified the convention. Each World Heritage Site is the property of the country on whose (15)__________ the site is located, but it is (16) __________ in the interest of the international community to preserve each site for future generations of humanity. The protection and (17) __________ of these sites are a concern of all the World Heritage countries.

11. A conducted B confirmed C contrasted D complained

12. A conflicted B contemplated C composed D criticised

13. A common B ethic C immobile D artificial

14. A founded B prompted C tempted D restored

15. A territory B contemporary C grain D device

16. A constituted B concluded C consructed D considered

17. A insertion B contribution C conservation D convention

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PART THREE QUESTIONS 18-27

Fill in each of the blanks in the following passage. Use only ONE word in each blank.

Parapsychology is the study (18) _______________ certain types of paranormal phenomena. The term is based on the Greek para (beside/beyond), psyche (soul/mind), and logos (account/explanation) and was coined by psychologist Max Dessoir in or before 1889. (19) _______________ parapsychology has its roots in earlier research, it began using the experimental approach in the 1930s under the direction of J. B. Rhine. Rhine popularized the now famous methodology of using card-guessing and dice-rolling experiments in a laboratory in an attempt (20)_______________ find a statistical validation of extra-sensory perception.

In 1957, the Parapsychological Association was formed (21) _______________ the prominent society for parapsychologists. That affiliation, along with a general openness to psychic and occult phenomena in the 1970s, led to a decade of increased parapsychological research. (22) _______________ this time, other notable organizations were also formed.

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(23) _______________ these groups performed experiments on paranormal subjects to varying degrees. Parapsychological work (24)_______________ also conducted at the Stanford Research Institute.

The scientific reality of parapsychological phenomena and the validity of scientific parapsychological research is a matter of frequent dispute and criticism. It is regarded by some critics as a pseudoscience, but proponents claim (25)_______________ most of the parapsychology research results are scientifically rigorous and quite open to debate. Despite criticisms, (26)_______________ number of academic institutions now conduct research on the topic, employing laboratory methodologies and statistical techniques, such as meta-analysis. The Parapsychological Association has been a member of the American Association for the Advancement of Science (27) _______________ 1969.

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PART FOUR QUESTIONS 28-35

Write the CORRECT FORM of the word in given spaces.

Today a great number of nurses in the USA are leaving their

jobs or retiring because of the (28) _______________ of the COMPLEX

job. By the year 2020, the nurse (29)_______________ in the SHORT

USA is expected to increase to 800.000. This will create an

(30) _______________ demand for all types of nurses in the PRECEDENT

near future. For hospitals the (31)_______________ of staff RECRUIT

from within the USA seems to be a far (32) _______________ . POSSIBLE

Therefore, the US government is planning to open its borders to

nurses from many other countries. It will be very feasible for any

(33) _______________ nurse to come to the USA and make a AMBITION

lot of money out of it. However, according to some critics, this

will add to the already big problem of (34) _______________ MIGRATE

in the country. They also argue that most foreign nurses will be

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unskilled and this will result in a higher (35) _______________ MORTAL

rate in American hospitals.

LISTENING Part Two Questions 16-30

You are going to listen to a lecture about PRIMATES & LANGUAGE LEARNING. As you listen, take notes under the headings provided. After the lecture has finished, you will be given questions to answer by using your notes. Your notes will not be marked.

.......................................................................................

ARGUMENTS AGAINST THE IDEA

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TURN PAGE

FOUR DIFFERENT STUDIES TO SHOW THAT PRIMATES CAN LEARN A LANGUAGE

ANSWER KEY

READING: USE OF ENGLISH LISTENING

1. C 1. B 1. A

2. B 2. C 2. C

3. D 3. A 3. B

4. A 4. B 4. C

5. B 5. D 5. A

6. C 6. C 6. D

7. A 7. A 7. B

8. B 8. B 8. C

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9. D 9. D 9. A

10. C 10. A 10. B

11. B 11. B 11. C

12. D 12. C 12. B

13. B 13. A 13. D

14. A 14. B 14. A

15. B 15. A 15. A

16. C 16. D 16. D

17. B 17. C 17. D

18. A 18. of 18. C

19. C 19. Although 19. B

20. B 20. to 20. A

21. A 21. by 21. C

22. C 22. During 22. D

23. B 23. All 23. B

24. D 24. was 24. B

25. A 25. that 25. A

26. C 26. a 26. C

27. D 27. since 27. A

28. B 28. complexity 28. B

29. C 29. shortage 29. D

30. A 30. unprecedented 30. A

31. A 31. recruitment

32. C 32. possibility

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33. C 33. ambitious

34. A 34. immigration

35. C 35. mortality